Term
What's a grating sound/sensation under the skin with bone and cartilage scraping, or in the lungs? |
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Definition
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Term
What's the term for under the nails and hooves? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of fluid is most appropriate for patients with moderate dehydration? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the delivery rate for microdrip administration sets? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When is a bitches 1st cycle? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What stage do cornified cells increase by 10% a day and there may be some red blood cells? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What part of the cycle is whelping to the onset of the next cycle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What hormone is produced by follicles during proestrus? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Growth & bleeding in the uterus and cellular thickening of the vaginal canal occur during diestrus. T/F |
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Definition
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|
Term
Estrogen decreases and progesterone increases in what part of the cycle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What occurs 48 hours after the LH peak? (ovulation) |
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Definition
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|
Term
What part of the cycle are there ~95% superficial cells? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Pseudopregnancy and progesterone is the dominant hormone in what part of the cycle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What part of the cycle does the bitch refuse to stand? |
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Definition
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|
Term
A decline in the % of superficial cells occurs in what part of the cycle? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Vulva may become less swollen on the onset of what part of the cycle? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Bloody discharge will turn straw colored at the onset of what part of the cycle? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
At what age should dogs have their first breedings by? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When would you see non-cornified cells? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Every 2 years is recommended for breeding a bitch. T/F |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the tried and true method in simple breeding management? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Most bitches follow uncertain cycles when they're mid-age. T/F |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When stage do cells decrease from 100% cornified to 50% cornified in one day? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Brucella canis is detected in what way? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What can brucella canis cause? |
|
Definition
Infertility in males, abortions in females |
|
|
Term
What does the abbreviation supp stand for? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the normal pulse range for dogs? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the normal pulse range for cats? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the normal respiration range for dogs? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the normal pulse rate for puppies? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the 5 bilaterally paired lymph nodes? |
|
Definition
Mandibular - under lower jaw Prescapular - in front of shoulders (palpable only if enlarged) Popliteal - caudal thigh, behind stifle Axillary - armpit (palpable only if enlarged) Inguinal - inside the thigh (palpable only if enlarged) |
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Term
What type of dogs are prone to ectropion? Ectropion: Outward rolling of the eyelid |
|
Definition
Bloodhound, bulldog, cocker spaniel |
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|
Term
What type of dogs are prone to entropion? Entropion: Inward rolling of the eyelid |
|
Definition
Shar Pei, Chow Chow, St Bernard, Golden Retriever |
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|
Term
What's a sinus arrhythmia? |
|
Definition
Normal in dogs. Heart rate speeds up when animal inhales, slows down when animal exhales. |
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|
Term
What is the neonate period for dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the socialization period for dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the Adolescent Period for canines? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When is the Neonatal Period for felines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the Socialization Period for felines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When is the Juvenile Period for felines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the gestation period for canines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does pv stand for in VM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does ung stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does OS stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does OD stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does OU stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does AS stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does AD stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does AU stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does IU stand for in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many ounces are in 1lb? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 6 things must be on a pet food label? |
|
Definition
Product name, Name & address of manufacturer. Net pakage content (wt.), and Dog or cat food indication, indication for special use (puppies..), and ingredient list (order by wt.) |
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|
Term
What is an acid that cats need, but dogs don't? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When should you breed a bitch after the onset of last heat? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often should you breed for the first 2-3 breedings? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When breeding, how long does intromission and thrusting last? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How long does retroflexion typically last? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When is the diestrus shift? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How old should a queen be before breeding? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Queens should be bred more than once a year. T/F |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When is an ideal time to start breeding cats? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
About how many days after the week of ovulation should you expect kittens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what should be 0.5% & 1%, respectively, of a dogs diet? |
|
Definition
Arginine and linoleic acid |
|
|
Term
how many times a day should you feed puppies/kittens up to 3 months old? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When should you encourage solid food to puppies/kittens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when should puppies/kittens be weaned? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the amino acid occuring in animal and fish protein that cats need but dogs don't? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 vitamins do cats need? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the first step in the VTPM (Vet Tech Practice Model)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the 2nd step of the VTPM? |
|
Definition
Identify and prioritize technician assessments |
|
|
Term
What's the 3rd step of the VTPM? |
|
Definition
Develop a plan of care and intervene |
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|
Term
What's the 4th step in the VTPM? |
|
Definition
Evaluate results and reintervene or finish |
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|
Term
SOAPS are a legal document. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 3 energy-producing nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where are fat soluble vitamins stored? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 2 water-soluble vitamins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 5 macro-minerals? |
|
Definition
Calcium, phosphourus, potassium, sodium, and magnesium |
|
|
Term
What are 4 micro-minerals? |
|
Definition
Iron, copper, zinc, and iodine |
|
|
Term
What animal are omnivores and rely on carbs as their primary energy source? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the formula for RER/BER? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the formula for MER? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 8 things are types of enteral nutrition routes? |
|
Definition
Coaxing/warming, appetite-stimulating drugs, force feeding, orogastric tube, nasogastric tube, esophagostomy tube, gastrostomy, and enterostomy |
|
|
Term
What's an example parenteral nutrition route? |
|
Definition
IV infusion (calories must be given gradually) |
|
|
Term
What's the pathway of blood? |
|
Definition
Vena cava, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, mitral valve (bicuspid), left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, body |
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|
Term
What wave represents atrial depolarization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What represents ventricular depolarization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What wave represents ventricular repolarization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does interference look like on an ECG? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of heart failure does pulmonary edema occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of heart failure is there edema in distal limbs? |
|
Definition
Right-sided heart failure |
|
|
Term
What does AAFCO stand for? |
|
Definition
Association of American Feed Control Officials |
|
|
Term
Systolic values greater than __ and diastolic values greater than __ are required for perfusion of vital organs. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the term for normally harmless sensations being interpreted as pain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A set of principles that are considered right or wrong and are determined by society, yourself, or collegues in your profession |
|
|
Term
What does jurisprudence mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does xylitol toxicity cause in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 8 household foods that are hazardous to pets? |
|
Definition
Moldy food, chocolate (theobromine and caffeine), onions (allium family), macadamia nuts, rising bread dough, grapes/raisins, tobacco products,and xylitol |
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|
Term
What are 8 miscellaneous household items that are hazardous to pets? |
|
Definition
Heavy metals (Lead/Zinc), ant bait, silica gel packets, glow sticks, liquid potpourri, batteries, mothballs, and ice/snow melt |
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|
Term
What 4 plants are hazardous to pets? |
|
Definition
Rhododendron sp., castor beans (ricin), lillies, philodendrom sp. (Elephant ears/Calla lily) |
|
|
Term
What are 5 things you should do for a poison emergency? |
|
Definition
Asses, stabilize, decontaminate, control clinical signs, and good nursing care |
|
|
Term
Within how many hours is emesis productive after ingesting toxins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are 3 types of ethics? |
|
Definition
Social consensus, personal, and professional ethics |
|
|
Term
How many times should a gastric gavage be repeated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where should you measure when placing a nasogastric tube? |
|
Definition
Tip of nose to the last rib |
|
|
Term
What 3 -omas are malignant? |
|
Definition
Melanomas, insulinomas, and thymomas |
|
|
Term
What's a benign cartilage tumor called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's a malignant fibrous tissue tumor called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's a benign smooth muscle tumor called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's a malignant skeletal muscle tumor called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 places can you retrieve bone marrow for a BMA? |
|
Definition
Iliac crest, proximal humerus, and trochanteric fossa of the proximal femur |
|
|
Term
What's the maximum thickness allowed for formalin to penetrate? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How many hours is animal waste the most toxic if they are on chemotherapy drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is WBCs in urine called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In males, what induces spermatogenesis? |
|
Definition
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
|
|
Term
In females, what induces oogenesis? |
|
Definition
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
|
|
Term
In males, what induces testosterone production? |
|
Definition
Leuteinizing hormone (LH) |
|
|
Term
What 3 hormones do the adrenal cortex produce? |
|
Definition
Glucocorticoid hormones, mineralocorticoid hormones, and sex hormones |
|
|
Term
What 7 hormones are produced in the anterior pituitary? Posterior (2)? |
|
Definition
Growth hormone (GH), Prolactin, Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), Luteinizing hormone (LH), and Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and Oxytocin and ADH |
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|
Term
What trimester is the embryonic period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What trimester is the fetal period where tissues, organs, and systems develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What trimester is the fetal growth period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4 cat core vaccines? |
|
Definition
Feline rabies, Feline panleukopenia (feline distemper), Feline calicivirus, and feline viral rhinotracheitis (herpes) |
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|
Term
What type of immunity targets a specific antigen, and arises from B and T lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of immunity are T-lymphs directly attacking antigens? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of immunity is B-lymphs that produce antibodies to react to antigen? |
|
Definition
Antibody-mediated immunity (Humoral) |
|
|
Term
What type of immunity arises when an animal recieves antobodies from another animal? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of immunity arises when an animal receives an antigen that activates B and T lymphocytes? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In which vaccine, is a gene or part of a microorganism removed from one microorganism to another? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of vaccine are produced for a specific disease in a specific area from a sick animal? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What canine disease is transmitted by aerosolization, is highly contagious, and can cause nasal and ocular discharge? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What canine disease can survive years in the environment, invades rapidly dividing cells, is hardy, and can cause bloody diarrhea? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What feline disease is a highly contagious upper respiratory disease, is transmissed by aerosolization, and the virus can be shed up to 3 weeks after infection? |
|
Definition
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis |
|
|
Term
What feline disease is highly contagious, can cause ulcerative stomatitis, is resistant, and transmission is via direct contact with infected cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What feline disease is similar to canine parvo, can remain in the environment for years, and has an incubation of 4-5 days? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of drain does discharge escape by moving along the outside of the drain? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of drain uses suction to pull discharge through the lumen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Rhipicephalus sanguineus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maternal antibody (transplancental)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What attracts WBC's by dilating blood vessels so it's easier for WBC's to get there? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What chemical substance that messes with with a viruses ability to reproduce/replicate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzyme binds to an invader's cell wall, by poking holes and causing lysis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the treatment for Hemolytic anemia? |
|
Definition
Steroids to suppress immune system |
|
|
Term
What is the vector for Babesia anemias? |
|
Definition
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown dog tick) |
|
|
Term
What tick-borne disease causes platelet consumption, RBC destruction, bone marrow suppression, and aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the most common inherited hemostasis disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why should you not crush a cuterebra inside a patient? |
|
Definition
Could cause anaphylactic reaction |
|
|
Term
What's a non-contagious mite, "Red Mange," and cigar shaped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's an infestation of maggots called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 4 joints are most commonly affected by osteochondrosis dessicans? |
|
Definition
Shoulder, elbows, knee (stifle), ankle (hock) |
|
|
Term
What is the wrap around front leg sling? Ehmer is back leg sling. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 ticks are involved in tick paralysis? |
|
Definition
Common dog tick (Dermacentor variabilis) and Rocky Mountain Wood tick (Dermacentor variabilis) |
|
|
Term
What grub is laid by flies in soil, penetrates host's skin, and leaves as an adult fly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long can ringworm be infective from shedded hair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Mites are a normal inhabitant of skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's a transverse fracture? |
|
Definition
Straight across shaft of bone |
|
|
Term
What's a comminuted fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What a segmental fracture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What an avulsed fracture? |
|
Definition
Break on distal bone bottom |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Lump in middle of bone from being compressed hard |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 layers of the eye (superficial to deepest)? |
|
Definition
Epithelium, stroma, descendman's membrane. and endothelium |
|
|
Term
Acute glaucoma has what tonometer reading? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chronic glaucoma has what tonometer reading? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease causes corneal vascularization and infiltration of granulation tissue in the eye and is immune-mediated and affects animals at >5000 ft. elevation? |
|
Definition
Pannus (Chronic Superficial Keratitis) |
|
|
Term
What cat issue has an acute onset of rear leg pain & paresis, cold-bluish foot pads, and lack of palpable rear limb pulses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the bacteria located that can cause chronic mitral valve insufficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's an extremely contagious feline herpes virus? |
|
Definition
Feline viral rhinotracheitis |
|
|
Term
What's a hardy, highly contagious, feline virus know for having clinical signs of oral ulcers, pneumonia, and diarrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease displays these symptoms?: Anorexia, depression, fever greater than 103F, cough, dyspnea, ocular, and nasal discharge |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhalation via soil or from bird or bat droppings is the most common route of exposure to what disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a build-up of toxins in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Type I or II diabetes: Insulin-dependent diabetes that affects 100% of dogs and 50% of cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What canine disease is known as "blue eye"? |
|
Definition
Infectious canine hepatitis |
|
|
Term
[30 x BW(kg)+70]x 1.5 = ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's a bacterial,zoonotic, and abortion-causing condition? |
|
Definition
Brucellosis aka Bang's disease |
|
|
Term
How often do canine's cycle into heat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often do felines cycle into heat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what 2 species are breech births normal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long is the heat cycle in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long is gestation in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What tick transmits ehrlichiosis? |
|
Definition
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (Brown dog tick) |
|
|
Term
What tick transmits lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rabies symptoms occur how long after being bitten? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Panleukopenia caused by a parvovirus is what feline disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What disease is known as hardpad disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes intestinal sloughing of the inner lining of intestines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed from what glucose reading? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the avg. between systolic and diastolic pressure? |
|
Definition
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) |
|
|
Term
What 3 factors affect blood pressure? |
|
Definition
Blood volume, cardiac output, and vascular resistance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 conditions should blood pressure always be measured? |
|
Definition
Hyperthyroidism, renal disease, and heart disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cardiopulmonary cerebral resuscitation |
|
|
Term
What type of blood pressure monitoring isn't used often, is usually on anesthetized patient, and is the most accurate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What indirect blood pressure method can measure systolic, diastolic, and MAP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What blood pressure method can only measure systolic pressure and is the most common/afforadable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can too large of a cuff cause in BP measures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can too small of a cuff cause in BP measures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What formula?: cardiac output (CO) x total peripheral resistance (TPR) |
|
Definition
Mean arterial pressure (MAP) |
|
|
Term
What formula?: stroke volume (SV) x heart rate (HR)= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What formula?: SV x HR x TPR= |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the volume of blood ejected from the heart with each beat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the normal systolic range of BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the normal MAP for BP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What BP value represents hypertension? |
|
Definition
Greater than 175 mm Hg systolic |
|
|
Term
93% of dogs and 61% of cats blame this disease for high blood pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can cushing's disease and diabetes mellitus cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What're 2 problems that result from high blood pressure? |
|
Definition
Vessel bleeding and increased risk of embolism |
|
|
Term
What 2 organs are especially at risk with hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What organ possesses special areas for detecting BP changes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe the renin-angiotensin system. |
|
Definition
Low BP causes kidneys to release renin. Liver produces angiotensin. When they meet it activates a rxn that produces angiotensin I. Angiotensin I travels to lungs where an enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II reroutes blood to life preserving organs (which gives more blood to the ♥ and more blood to pump forward), and is the strongest vasoconstricter in the body. |
|
|
Term
What part of a soap is the presenting complaint, owner info., observed not measured, vx status, diet, and current medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of a soap is the meds included per order? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When can puppies/kittens regulate their body temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the body temp. of neonates at birth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F The best way to check for neonate dehydration is skin turgor. |
|
Definition
False, they don't have skin turgur, check mm color |
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development do they sleep 80% of the time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development do they nurse vigorously for a short period of time (q 2-4 hours)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development can they crawl,suckle, and make distress sounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development is the temp up to 100.1 degrees? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When should a neonate's umbilical cord fall off? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development does the body temp. rise to adult levels and they can regulate it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development should the birth weight be doubled? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development do they open their eyes and open their ears? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What week of neonate development can they stand and have good postural reflexes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F You should rewarm hypothermic neonates quickly to stabilize them. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What neonate concern involves competing blood types that can cause death within 2 days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do 27/kg/day, 32-36/kg/day, 36-41kg/day, and 41-45/kg/day represent? |
|
Definition
Weekly caloric requirements for neonates |
|
|
Term
What neonate concern has signs of anorexia, lethargy, emaciation, and death? |
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Definition
Fading puppy/kitten syndrome |
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Term
What type of wound are partial thickness wounds of the epidermis with exposure to the deep dermis? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wound are sharply incised edges with minimal tissue trauma, and the tissue can be torn away? |
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Definition
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Term
What phase of healing do wounds bleed to clean, vasoconstriction, fibrinogen circulation in blood, changes to fibrin, lasts about 4-6 hrs; blood clot and scab forms |
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Definition
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Term
What phase of wound healing is 6 hrs after injury and WBCs leak into wound to remove necrotic and foreign material? |
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Definition
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Term
What phase of wound healing is 8-10 days after wounded, healing begins, laying down of fibroblasts & collagen, cells start to build skin and muscle cells and granulation occurs? |
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Definition
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Term
What phase of wound healing is the last phase, changes in collagen scar tissue shrinking of collagen makes scar less noticeable; tissue is never quite as strong.W |
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Definition
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Term
What are the 2 types of tissue injury? |
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Definition
Partial thickness and full thickness |
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Term
What are the 4 physical stages of healing? |
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Definition
1. Infammatory phase 2. Debridement phase 3. Repair 4. Maturation phase |
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Term
What are the 3 layers to a bandage? |
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Definition
1. Contact layer 2. Conforming padded layer 3. Holding and protective layer |
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Term
When would you want to apply a dry to dry dressing? |
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Definition
If loose or necrotic tissue or foreign matter are present. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What're the 4 types of wounds? |
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Definition
Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and dirty |
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Term
How often should a splint/cast be checked the first day? |
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Definition
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Term
When should robert jones bandages not be used? |
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Definition
Humeral or femoral fractures, because the humerus and femur would receive poor support and protection. |
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Term
How much overlap should there be when applying a bandage? |
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Definition
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Term
How thick should the cotton padding be used on a Robert jones bandage? |
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Definition
2”-2 ½” times the diameter of the leg |
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Term
Where are 3 places for the BP cuff? |
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Definition
Metatarsal, metacarpal, and dorsal piedal artery |
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Term
What's the BP cuff formula? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wound healing is primary closure? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wound healing is non-close? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wound healing is delayed primary closure? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wound healing is secondary closure? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wound healing is the wound left open because of infection and is delayed by healing? |
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Definition
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Term
What delayed primary closure wound healing is closed after 3-5 days debridement and cleaning, but before granulation tissue forms? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of secondary wound healing is a safe method for repair of dirty, contaminated, or infected wounds with extensive tissue damage, it allows for management of infection or necrosis before closure, and surgeon debrides damaged tissue before closure? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wounds are surgical incisions, aseptic, and wounds aren't predisposed to infection? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wounds are elective surgery in tissue with resident flora, aseptic surgical techniques, and no spillage of organ contents? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wounds are fresh traumatic injuries (open fractures/penetrating wound), presence of infected urine/bile, and there are microorganisms in the wound? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wounds are heavily contaminated/infected, perforated viscera, abscesses, or foreign material? |
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Definition
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Term
What're the 4 types of primary layers? |
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Definition
Adherent, non-adherent, semi-occlusive, and occlusive |
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Term
What bandages are used for road rash? |
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Definition
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Term
What're 2 advantages of a wet primary layer |
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Definition
Increased absorption speed and more comfortable removal |
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Term
What should start forming under a non-adherent primary layer? |
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Definition
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Term
What're 3 types of splints? |
|
Definition
(Mod.) Robert Jones, chest or abdominal bandages, and distal limb splints |
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Term
What're 5 types of slings? |
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Definition
Ehmer, velpeau, 90-90 flexion sling, carpal flexion sling, and hobbles |
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Term
What % of body surface burn is rarely survivable? |
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Definition
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|
Term
How much can metabolic requirements increase in burn patients? |
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Definition
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Term
What wounds produce massive amounts of exudates and must be managed as open wounds? |
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Definition
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Term
What type of wounds are small skin openings with extensive deep tissue damage and foreign material are deep in the wound? |
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Definition
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Term
What result of compression of soft tissue and skin between bony prominence and the surface the animal is lying on? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
Low oxygen at tissue level |
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Term
What're 3 things that can cause hypoxia? |
|
Definition
Pulmonary edema, pneumonia, and shock |
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Term
What's the FiO2 of room air? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the FiO2 of a mask? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the FiO2 of a nasal canula? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the FiO2 of a hood? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the FiO2 of a endotracheal tube? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the partial pressure of oxygen symbol? |
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Definition
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Term
What should the PaO2 of an intubated patient with the cuff blown be? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What % of body wt. is water? |
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Definition
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|
Term
How much of body wt. is intracellular fluid? |
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Definition
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|
Term
How much of body wt. is extracellular fluid? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What % of ECF is interstitial fluid? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What are inevitable (insensible) losses |
|
Definition
Not measureable: RR, Sweating, milk production |
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Term
What % of dehydration is not detectable? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What % of dehydration is the subtle loss of skin elasticity? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What % of dehydration is there a delay of skin tent, prolonged CRT, possibly sunken eyes, possibly dry MM? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's a result of cardiac output, systemic vascular resistance, and stroke volume? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the best way to treat ducubital ulcers? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the universal blood donor in a dog? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Sterile water has what tonicity? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Saline and LRS are what type of fluid tonicity? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the principal cation in ECF? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Where should irritating or hypertonic medications be given? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the unit of measure for capnographs? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the difference between a main stream and a side stream capnograph? |
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Definition
Mainstream capnographs have the infared light sensor right by where the patient is exhaling. Sidestream capnographs have a tube that connects where the CO2 is being exhaled and the light source. The 2 things are further apart |
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|
Term
What a normal range on the capnograph for a normal awake patient? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What can throw off a capnograph? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the abbreviation for capnograph? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's an advantage of capnographs? |
|
Definition
Can detect changes faster than a SpO2 |
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|
Term
What's the first layer of bandage and what's its function? |
|
Definition
Primary layer (contact layer), provides debridement, and can prevent fluid loss |
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|
Term
What's the second layer of bandage and what's its function? |
|
Definition
Secondary layer (padded layer), insulation, and comfort for the animal |
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|
Term
What's the third layer of bandage and what's its function? |
|
Definition
Tertiary layer (holding and protecting layer), holds bandage in place, prevents bending of limb, and protects wound for further damage |
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Term
What % dehydration does the skin remain tented, very prolonged CRT, sunken eye, dry MM, and shock symptoms (tachycardia, cool extremities, rapid weak pulse) |
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Definition
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|
Term
What % of dehydration is there obvious signs of shock and death is imminent? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the emergency fluid therapy fluid rate? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the formula for daily fluid replacement? |
|
Definition
% dehydration x body weight (kg) x 10 |
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|
Term
What's the maintenance fluid requirement? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the replacement volume?: 10 kg. dog is 5% dehydrated. |
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Definition
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|
Term
What route of fluid administration should be used for mild dehydration, use isotonic fluids, and absorbtion takes 6-8 hours? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What route of fluid administration is good for small/young patients, when IV access isn't available, and must use a aseptic technique? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What tonicity of fluid causes swelling and 0.45% saline is an example? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What tonicity of fluid is good for head trauma? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What tonicity of fluid causes shrinkage, cells are seen as crenated, and 7% saline is an example? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are crystalloids aka? |
|
Definition
Isotonic electrolyte solutions |
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|
Term
What are the most common types of fluids? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of fluid is 0.9% saline? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of fluid is D5W (5% Dextrose & water)? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of fluid is Normosol? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are solutions contain protein or starch molecules? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of fluid should you give to patients with cerebral or pulmonary edema and hypoproteinemia? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of fluid is Dextran 70? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of fluid is Pentastarch and Hetastarch? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the most common electrolyte imbalance? |
|
Definition
Hypokalemia (K deficiency, ALWAYS DILUTE) |
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|
Term
What age range and weight must blood donor dogs be? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How much blood can dogs donate every 4-5 weeks? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Where is blood drawn for donations? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of crossmatch does the RBC donor matchwith serum from recipient? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of crossmatch does the RBC recipient match up with the serum from the donor? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the cat blood typing system? |
|
Definition
AB system (no universal blood type) |
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|
Term
What blood type are most cats? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
T/F Most Maine Coons are type B blood and there's AB types? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What's the age and weight requirements for cat blood donors? |
|
Definition
Less than 8 years and more than 10lbs |
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|
Term
How much blood can cats donate every 4-5 weeks? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When would you give if a patient had Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and clotting deficiencies? |
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Definition
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|
Term
When would you give a patient hemolytic anemia and non-regenerative anemia |
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Definition
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|
Term
T/F Crossmatching is very important for oxyglobin. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of plasma ONLY has protein? |
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Definition
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|
Term
When would you give if a patient had shock, burn patients, hypoproteinemia, pancreatitis, sepsis, and liver toxicities |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of catheter do you use for jugular catheters? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the delivery rate of adult fluid administration sets usually? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What's the drip rate formula? |
|
Definition
volume of solution (ml) x drop/mL / time (sec) |
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|
Term
Sugar moving through a solution until even concentration throughout the solution is an example of what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are 3 clotting cascade pathways? |
|
Definition
Intrinsic, extrinsic, and common |
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|
Term
What clotting cascade pathway is acticated only by components found in blood? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What clotting cascade pathway is activated by tissue factor and the common pathway? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What clotting cascade pathway combines 2 pathways with fibrin to form a clot? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What hemostatis tests detects secondary bleeding disorders? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What does a d-Dimers test evaluate? |
|
Definition
The final stage of the clotting process |
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|
Term
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Definition
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|
Term
What 3 places are transcellular fluid located? |
|
Definition
Synovial joints, eye chambers, cerebrospinal fluid |
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|
Term
What's the most common cation in ICF? |
|
Definition
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