Term
What percent of H2O makes up basic body fluid? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Fluids are distributed between 3 type of compartments what are they? |
|
Definition
- Cells
- Blood vessels
- Tissue space between blood vessels and cells
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|
Term
Intracellular fluid makes up 2/3 of the bodys H2O which is 40% where can this be found? |
|
Definition
- Skeletal muscle
- Blood cells
- Bone cells
- Adipose tissue
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|
Term
Intravascular fluid makes up what percent of body fluid? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Interstitial fluid makes up how much of the bodys H2O? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
In healthy animals the amount of H2O taken in is equivalent to the amount lost with normal body function |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Substances that dissolve in a solvent(ex: water) |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Movement of H2O thru a selective permeable membrane, always from an area of lesser solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the primary electrolytes in body water and what are they primarily extra or intra cellular? |
|
Definition
- Sodium-extracellular (Cation+)
- Potassium-Intracellular (Cation+)
- Chloride- Extracellular (Anion-)
- Phosphate-Intracelluar (Anion-)
- Bicarbonate- Extracellular (Anion-)
Note: Fluid balance depends on electrolyte balance |
|
|
Term
Movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the two categories of imbalance? |
|
Definition
Metabolic and Respiratory |
|
|
Term
True or False
Primarily metabolic imbalances are generally caused by organ disease |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Metabolic imbalance is based on bicarb levels what are they mainted through? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Respiratory imbalance is based on carbonic acid levels what are they mainted through? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
There are two categories of imbalance but what four types of imbalance are there? |
|
Definition
- Metabolic acidosis- bicarb deficit
- Metabolic Alkalosis- bicarb excess
- Respiratory acidosis- carbonic acid excess
- Respiratory alkalosis- carbonic acid deficit
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|
Term
93% of all clinical cases of imbalance are: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are some clinical signs of metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
- CNS Depression
- Hyperventilation:Low Total CO2 (confirmed by blood gases)
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|
Term
What lab findings are there when referring to metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
- Acid Urine
- Acidic blood pH
- Increased BUN/Creatinine
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|
Term
Body defense mechanisms when referring to metabolic acidosis include increases in respriatory rate and the kidneys trying to reabsorb Bicarb but what treatment is there for metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
- IV Sodium Bicarb
- IV fluids- LRs
- Treatment of underlying cause
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|
Term
Metabolic Alkalosis can cause severe vomiting due to imbalance from chloride loss which leads to bicarbonate retention... what cause metabolic acidosis? |
|
Definition
- Severe diarrhea results in excessive amounts of bicarb lost in feces
- Renal disease
- Diabetes
- Overuse of acidic drugs Ex: Asprin
- Severe burns/ Open wounds
|
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|
Term
What are some signs of metabolic alkalosis? |
|
Definition
- Over excited CNS
- Tetany
- Twitching
- Convulsions
|
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|
Term
Some lab findings on a patient with metabolic alkalosis would be alkaline urine(>7.8) and alkaline blood. How is metabolic alkalosis treated? |
|
Definition
- IV FLuids with Chloride
- Treat causes of vomiting
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|
Term
If both Vomiting and Diarrhea are present does the acid/base balance usually remain? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are some lab findings on patients with respiratory acidosis? |
|
Definition
- Acidic urine ph <5.0
- Acidic Blood pH
- Build up of carbonic acid
|
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|
Term
What treatment can be provided to a patient with respiratory acidosis? |
|
Definition
- IV Sodium Bicarb
- IV FLuids-LRs
- PPV during surgery
- O2 Therapy
- Treatment of underlying cause
|
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|
Term
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, excitement, heatstroke, fever, and drug induced respiratory stimulation(Doxapram overdose). What are some clinical signs? |
|
Definition
- Deep raid respirations
- CNS excitement
- Tetany
- Convulsions
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|
Term
The only treatment for this imbalance is to treat the underlying cause, what imbalance am i? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
To maintain proper pH all of these systems must work together. Name the systems and their functions. |
|
Definition
- Blood buffers work together to maintain ratio of carbinc acid and bicarbonate
- Renal system maintains balance by elimination and reabsorption
- Respiratory and circulatory (blood) systems make sure exchange is mainted through normal levels
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|
Term
What route is known as the "pool route" because when injected this way it may take several hours to be absorbed(slowest uptake)? |
|
Definition
SQ
Note: used with midl cases of dehydration and must use isotonic fluids |
|
|
Term
How do you assess the condition of the patient? |
|
Definition
- Determing the severity by % of dehydration
- Determine GI status
- Disease status
- Conciousness
|
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|
Term
Route of administration is determined by: |
|
Definition
- How quickly does the patient need fluids?
- What is the age or size of the patient?
- Vein status
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|
Term
Fluid type given is chosen by: |
|
Definition
- Disease or condition of the patient
- Hypovolemia, shock
- Edema
- Dehydration
|
|
|
Term
How long can a through the needle catheter stay in place? |
|
Definition
10 days
Remember: This needle is commonly used for the jugular vein |
|
|
Term
A butterfly catheter is good for how long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the steps for aseptic technique when preparing to give fluids? |
|
Definition
- Assemble equipment
- Clip hair
- Apply sterile gloves
- Apply at least a 3 minute scrub with disinfectant solution/scrub
- Starting in middle working to outer edges
|
|
|
Term
Where do you want to start when placing a catheter? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When do you know to insert the catheter up to the hub? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If the catheter is taped to tight what can occur? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Venoset packages are measured in? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Pediatric's use__ gtt/ml. |
|
Definition
60
Remember: Patient under 22 lbs gets a pediatric |
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|
Term
What is the machine called that gives the desired amount at a desired rate and can be adjusted when needed: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What routes of administration are there? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Route of administration indicated only when minimal fluid is lost and patient is able to swallow: |
|
Definition
Orally
Remember: Contraindicated in patients with vomiting, diarrhea, dysphagia, GI obstruction and shock |
|
|
Term
Route of administration used in neonates small animal and exotics:
Hint: Care must be used to avoid visceral organs |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Route of administration indicated with moderate to severe dehydration and any type of fluid can be given without concern of tissue damage: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Route of administration with second fastest method for rehydration and is used if vein is not attainable : |
|
Definition
IO
Remember: More chance of infection so sterile procedure is a must!
Note: 5 minute scrub down not 3 |
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|
Term
Contains crystals or salts diffusable substance that dissolves in solution: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How are crystalloids further categorized? |
|
Definition
- Isotonic-used to replace body fluids
- Hypertonic-used to draw water from tissue
- Hypotonic-used to rehydrate tissue
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common crystalloid category used and WHY? |
|
Definition
Isotonic because cells are not affected by this type of solution |
|
|
Term
This example of isotonic's is contrainicated with blood transfusions and is the most common and versatile: |
|
Definition
Lactated Ringer Solution (LRS) |
|
|
Term
Contraindicated with cardiac disease this isotonic solution increases plasma volume and sodium concentration: |
|
Definition
Physiologic Saline (0.9% NaCl) AKa: Normal saline, isotonic saline |
|
|
Term
This crystalloid category is used to remove tissue fluids from the body via the blood stream and is excreted by the kidneys and can not be given SQ: |
|
Definition
Hypertonic Solution
- NaCl%s-3,4,5,7,23.4
- Uses: Trauma,endotemia, burns etc...
- Complications: phlebitis, hemorrhaging, hypotension
|
|
|
Term
Not to be used in conditions of pulmonary/cerebral edema/shock and fluids are drawn into tissue with concentration being greater outside the vascular system: |
|
Definition
Hypotonic Soultion
- 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
- Diabetics
- Contraindicated SQ
- 2.5% Dextrose/0.45% Saline
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|
Term
These are non diffusable substances that contain larger particles which allows them to stay within the vascular system longer working much quicker and are typically used in extreme situations/emergency: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
An example of a colloid that is most commonly used: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are two subcategories of colloids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some natural colloids? |
|
Definition
- Plasma (aid in tx of liver dz)
- Albumin( maintains osmotic pressure)
- Whole blood( tx severe anemia or blood loss)
|
|
|
Term
This fluid additive is used in patients that are prone to hypoglycemia or patients with increased metabolic needs. Typically added to fluids to make a 2.5%-5% solution: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This additive is measured in mEq and is used as a supplement and is given IV via a slow drip at a constant rate of infusion |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This additive helps in correcting acidosis and replacement should be given over several hours to avoid side effects like alkalosis and other electrolyte abnormalities: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This fluid additive corrects hypocalcemia and should used only to effect: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This fluid additive is lost rapidly and is water soluble by anorexic and debilitated animals |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What fluid is ideal for routine surgery? It decreases the possibility of respiratory acidosis and maintains tissue perfusion. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This fluid is ideal for patients in shock, it is given when adequate tissue perfussion is seen and hypovalemia is present. |
|
Definition
LRS or Multisol-R/ Normosol R |
|
|
Term
LRS is commonly used in patients with acidosis but what should be done if acidosis is critical? |
|
Definition
Medicate with Sodium Bicarb IV slowly |
|
|
Term
Chronic Renal patients are given Normosol®-R, LRS and 0.9% NaCl, but what do acute renal patients get? |
|
Definition
0.9% Saline (normal saline) |
|
|
Term
What does the amount of fluid given depend on? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rehydration is based on the estimated & of dehydration and is determined by: |
|
Definition
- Degree of skin turgor
- CRT
- Pulse rate and quality
Note: For the Math Review your own notes |
|
|
Term
What is the most common percentage of dehydration?
Hint: Symptoms: Dry mucous membranes, slight tacycardia, decreased urine ouput and mild to moderate disease in skin turgor |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Amount of fluid needed on a daily basis to maintain body function: |
|
Definition
Maintenance
Note: Review math portion in your notes |
|
|
Term
Body water lost in urine and feces that can be measured is an example of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Body water lost through sweating, ventilation, mucous membrane evaportaion are examples of: |
|
Definition
Insensible losses
Remember: These are not easily meausred |
|
|
Term
Loss of additional fluid amounts can be from: |
|
Definition
- Vomiting
- Diarrhea
- Polyuria
Note: Review MATH!!! |
|
|
Term
What is the standard surgical fluid infusion rate? |
|
Definition
5 to 10 ml/kg/hour
Remember: Always use the lowest rate unless told otherwise |
|
|
Term
What are signs of over hydration? |
|
Definition
- Hypothermia (Shivering)
- Increased Heart rate
- Anxiety/ restlessness
- Serous nasal discharge
- Chemosis (conjuctiva edema)
- Ascites/ pitting edema
- Hyperpnea
- Moist rale/increased lung sounds
- Blood pressure increase
- Weight increase
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|
|
Term
How often should you monitor a patient that is recieving fluids for maintenance, shock and wide open rates? |
|
Definition
- 5 to 15 minutes (wide open rates)
- 15 to 30 minutes (shock)
- 30 to 60 minutes (maintenance)
|
|
|
Term
What are some ways you can monitor your patient? |
|
Definition
- Skin turgor (should disappear as therapy continues)
- MM/CRT (Should improve)
- Auscultation (listen for abnormal lung sounds)
- Appearance (overall general appearance should improve)
- Urine output
- Weight
- Lab work (values should return to normal)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Remember to be optimistic all your hard studying will pay off in the end! |
|
|
Term
Graphic recording of electrical potentials produced by heart and muscle during different ohases of the cardiac cycle |
|
Definition
ECG/EKG
(Electrocardiogram/Electrocardiograph) |
|
|
Term
Sequence of events that occur during one complete heartbeat |
|
Definition
Cardiac Cycle
Note: P,Q,R,S,T |
|
|
Term
Relaxation of the heart, just prior to and during the filling of the chamber |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Contraction of the heart, process of partially emptying chambers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Length of a wave or length of a wave within a segment,beginning of one wave to beginning of anohter |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Portion of the ECG between two waves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stage when heart is at rest |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Heart muscle contraction in reponse to electrical stimulus and occurs when electrolyte move across the cell membrane |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Heart muscle relaxation occurs when electrolytes move back across the cell membrane making the cell ready for the next electrical impulse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What part of the heart is the natural pace maker of the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Basis for records and consultation
- Serial ECG's can act as an aid in prognosis and diagnosis of cardiac disease
|
|
|
Term
Electrical impulses that are transmitted through the heart by specialized cells this is called the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are five physiologic properties of the cardiac muscle? |
|
Definition
- Automaticity
- Excitability
- Refractoriness
- Conductivity
- Contractility
|
|
|
Term
Property that allows a cell to reach its threshold potential spontaneously |
|
Definition
Automaticity
Remember: The further down the conduction system the slower the rate of automaticity |
|
|
Term
Property that describes the ease with which a cell can become depolarized |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The heart muscle will not respond to external stimuli during its period of contraction(depolarization) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Property that allows electrical current to trael from one part of the heat to another |
|
Definition
Conductivity
Remember: This is best measured with a echocardiograph |
|
|
Term
True or False
The ECG measures the contraction itself |
|
Definition
False
The ECG machine only measures the stimulus for contraction |
|
|
Term
Corresponds to atrial depolarization or contraction and can be positive, negative or biphasic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is a flat baseline beginning at the end of the P wave |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This represents ventricular depolarization or contraction |
|
Definition
QRS Waves
Remember: Q (-), R(+), S(-) |
|
|
Term
Represents ventricular repolarization or relaxation and can be positive negative or biphasic |
|
Definition
T Wave
Remember: Every QRS complex has a T wave following it |
|
|
Term
What can the electrode clips be moistened with to assure good contact? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where do red,black,green,white and brown electrode clips get placed? |
|
Definition
- Red- Left Rear Leg
- Black- Left Front Leg
- Green- Right Rear Leg
- White- Right Front Leg
- Brown- Chest (Tip of Sternum)
|
|
|
Term
What lead is the most common used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If an upward deflection is produced when electrical impulses travel towards a positive electrode respectively a downward deflection would do what? |
|
Definition
Produce electrical impulses traveling toward a negative electrode |
|
|
Term
What do you always want your sensitivity and speed at? |
|
Definition
Speed: 50 mm/sec
Sensitivity: 1 cm |
|
|
Term
What are the normal heart rates for dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
- Dogs: 70-220 beats/min
- Cats: 120-240 beats/min
|
|
|
Term
Appears on the ECG as even peaked, regular voltages superimposed throughout the tracing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Appears on the ECG as random, irregular voltages superimposed on the tracing |
|
Definition
Muscle Tremor Interference |
|
|
Term
Appears on the ECG as fluctuation of the tracing up and downward on the grid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three most preferred orders of administration? |
|
Definition
- Intravenous (IV)
- Intratracheal (IT)
- Intracardiac (IC)
|
|
|
Term
Drug most commonly used for initial treatment of cardiac arrest because it stimulates heart contractions and blood flow to vital organs and is great for treatment of anaphylactic shock, epistaxis, vasoconstriction and increasing glycogenolysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drugs stimulates the myocardium which is why it is used for CPR, shock therapy and acute renal failure but should be monitored closely at a constant rate infusion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Corrects metabolic acidosis and is useful if cardiac arrest has been present for 10 minutes but should not be used in patients that are hypokalemic or vomiting |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Increases heart rate lasting 60-90 minutes, helps prevent bradycardia, and ca be used as an antidote for some posioning like organo phoshate posioning |
|
Definition
Atropine
Remember: It's an anticholinergic |
|
|
Term
This lasts 120-180 mins but does not cross the blood brain barrier and is better used in sight hounds, lean animals and sick animals, not to mention its good for use in c-sections. |
|
Definition
Glycoyrroate
Aka: Robinol
Remember: It's an anticholinergic |
|
|
Term
Injected slowly to avoid any extravascular injection and is used for hypokalemia and increased toxicity can occur if used with digitalis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Strengthens the heart after standstill and can help start contractions if given in the left ventricle of the heart. This is used for treatment of hypocalcemia, hypokalemia and ventricular asystole. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Used in emergencies to treat ventricular arrhytmias and can be toxic at high doses. Another use is to control laryngeal spasms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Counteracts affecta of Xylazine and is used as a respiratory stimulant which is why it is commonly used sublingual in neonates for resuscitation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Long acting steroidal drug that inhibits phospholipase and is an anti inflammatory. |
|
Definition
Dexmethasone
Ex: Azium, Betamethasone |
|
|
Term
Intermediate acting steroidal drug that inhibits phospholipase and is an anti inflammatory. |
|
Definition
Prednisolone sodium succinate
Ex: Solu-Delta Cortef
Note: First choice for HBC |
|
|
Term
What are some of the most common potential side effects with steroid use? |
|
Definition
- Polyphagia
- PU/PD
- Panting
- Weakness
- Bilateral alopecia
|
|
|
Term
A patient is using steroids and when you run your blood work you are not suprised when you see this blood value very high: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An anticonvulsant and possible induction drug that can be used for appetite stimulant, behavior modification, urethral obstructions and posionings. |
|
Definition
Diazepam
Aka: Valium
Remember: When used as an iduction agent with Ketamine, Valium is drawn up first. |
|
|
Term
A long acting barbiturate that last 6-8 hours and can be used as a psychotherapeutic and to control seizures once they have been stopped. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Short acting barbiturate that lasts for 30 minutes to 2 hours that is the second most commonly used anticonvulsant if the first fails and can also be used as an anesthetic but should be done so with caution because of its narrow margin of safety |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A narcotic antidote that is useful in shock therpay and decreases hemo concentation and metabolic acidosis, useful in shock therpay and OCD disorders. |
|
Definition
Naloxone
Aka: Narcan
Note: Also helps prevent hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
Alpha 2 blocking agent use din if there is a xylazine r romifidine overdose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Useful as an analgesic for mild to moderate pain lasting 1-2 hours this can also be used as an antitussive or antiemetic. |
|
Definition
Butorphanol
Aka: Torbugesic, Torbutrol |
|
|
Term
Has anti-coagulating properties and is used for arterial thromboembolism, dic and burn victims and should not be used in patients with a history of coagulation disorders |
|
Definition
Heparin
Remember: Monitor patients closely for bleeding thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
Used for pulmonary edema, epistaxsis, oliguria, ascites, diuresis, hypercalcemia and cerebral edem this should not be used in anuric or progressive kidney disease patients. |
|
Definition
Furosemide
Aka: Lasix, Salix, Disal |
|
|
Term
Helps draw water into renal tubules acting as a diuretic and can be used for acute glaucoma or acute cerebral edem due to trauma. Should not be used in dehydrated patients. |
|
Definition
Mannitol
Remember: In acut cerebral edema cases you can repeat every 4 to 6 hours x 3 if needed |
|
|
Term
In humna medicine it imporves shor term memory but in veterinary medicine increases blood pressure due to vasoconstriction and helps to increase water reabsorption in the kidney. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A human medicine used in veterinary medicine for irregular heart rhythms like atrial/ ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How often should and emergency box be checked for outdated drugs, depleted supplies, and clogged needles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Period from the end fo the anesthetic procedure and until normal mentation returns (standing/walking). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Major concerns with respiration: |
|
Definition
- Hypoventilation
- Airway obstruction
|
|
|
Term
Major concerns involving the cardiovascular status: |
|
Definition
- Hypotension
- Hypovalemia
- Arrhythmias
|
|
|
Term
Major concerns referring to temperature: |
|
Definition
- Hypothermia(usually)
- Hyperthermia(espically sight hounds)
|
|
|
Term
What are other major concerns besides respiratory, cardiovascular and temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
The patient will gradually progress back through the same stages that were experienced during induction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
You never want to leave the animal unattended especially while the patient is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When a patient is placed in the recovery cage these should not be present: |
|
Definition
- Bowls
- Foreign objects
- Water
- Food
|
|
|
Term
If a patient is shivering you want to increase the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often should the patient be checked on: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When should sutures be removed: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The technicians duty is not done until this is done: |
|
Definition
- Patient is fully recovered
- Sutures have been removed
|
|
|
Term
Pain is scored on a scale of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Position of the teeth in mouth in relationship to each other |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Arrangement of the teeth in the mouth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hard mineralized, brownish- yellow form of plague on the surface of the tooth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abscesses usually develop in these teeth (P4/M1 in dogs; P3/P4 in cat) because they are grinders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bony substance into which periodontal ligaments attach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Visible part of the tooth covered by enamel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Main portion of the tooth harder than bone but softer than enamel, which is porus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Refers to the dental formula |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hardest substance of the body that covers the crown of the tooth and extends to the floor of the gingival sulcus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dental specialty of diagnosis and treatment of disease of the dental pulp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Part of the mucous membrane of the mouth immediately surrounding the tooth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Small moat surrounding each tooth formed by the gum. This is the seat of active disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Abnormal position of the teeth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Main portion of the upper jaw |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Corrective tooth movement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anything situated or occurring around a tooth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Holds tooth in place in the alveolus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This gummy mass of micro- organisms grows on the crown and spreads to the root. It is the forerunner of cavities and periodontal disease. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
Center of tooth filled with nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissue |
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Definition
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Term
Covered by cementum, this suspends teeth in sockets. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the normal occlusion of dogs and cats known as? |
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Definition
Scissor bite
(Lower incisors just behind the upper) |
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Term
This occurs more frequently in the mouth of cats and can develop into LPS which is diffucult to treat, but usually responds to steroids and if not extraction is a possibilty. |
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Definition
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Term
Tooth appears darker in color than normal tooth due to gradual wearing of the tooth, this forms in areas exposed to injury and the pulp retreats never being exposed. |
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Definition
Tertiary Dentin
Aka: Irregular Secondary Dentin |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Toward the tip (apex) of the tooth, referring towards the root |
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Definition
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Term
Towards the tooth's crown |
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Definition
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Term
Portion near junction of the crown and root |
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Definition
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Term
Outer surface of the tooth near the lip |
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Definition
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Term
Outer surface of the tooth near the cheek |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
The ridge at the base of the crown that is found on some teeth |
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Definition
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Term
Surface between the teeth |
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Definition
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Term
These type of teeth are used for cutting, shearing and grooming. |
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Definition
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Term
These type of teeth are used for grasping and tearing. These are the tusks on elephants and boars and are missing in mares and ruminants. |
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Definition
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Term
These teeth are used for cutting and shearing. |
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Definition
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Term
These teeth are used for grinding. In equines the filling down of these teeth is called floating. |
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Definition
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Term
Cats have 26 deciduous teeth while dogs have this many deciduous teeth: |
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Definition
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Term
Dogs have 42 adult teeth while cats have only this many adult teeth: |
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Definition
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Term
Deciduous teeth are all present by 7 weeks of age when do they initially erupt? |
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Definition
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Term
Permanent teeth erupt at 3-4 months of age, when should all of these teeth be present? |
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Definition
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Term
These permanent teeth are usually the last to fully erupt. |
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Definition
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Term
The mental foramen and infraorbital forman are common sites where these two drugs can be administered to block nerves. What two drugs can they be? |
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Definition
Bupivacaine and Lidocaine |
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Term
When the lower jaw is significantly shorter than the upper jaw giving the animal an overbite this is known as: |
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Definition
"Over-shot" jaw or "Parrot mouth"
Aka: Class II or Distoclusion
Aka: Brachygnathic |
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Term
When the lower jaw is longer than the upper jaw giving the animal an underbite this is called: |
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Definition
"Under-shot" Jaw
Aka: Prognathism
Aka: Class III or Mesioclusion
Note: This can be normal anatomy in some breeds |
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Term
When the incisors meet flatly making it difficult for the animal to chew this is called: |
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Definition
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Term
When the maxillary/ mandible are correctly proportioned but one or more teeth are misaligned this can cause palatal tissue damage ( oral-nasal fistulas). What is this called? |
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Definition
Neutroclusiom
Aka: Class I Malocclusion |
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Term
When genetically one side/ portion of the skull is longer than the other, dispoportionately sized relative to the other half. |
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Definition
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Term
9% of dogs are presented with this condition of having extra teeth. The most common being the incisors and molars, which can lead to pain while chewing. |
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Definition
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Term
Common in smaller breeds this predisposes an animal to periodontal disease which can cause abnormal positioning of permanent teeth. |
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Definition
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Term
The abscence of some/all teeth from the dental arch. Many disqualify certain breeds from showing for this. |
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Definition
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Term
When referencing teeth using the triadan system, the right maxillary teeth are always in the: |
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Definition
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Term
When referencing teeth using the triadan system, the left mandibular teeth are always in the: |
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Definition
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Term
The last premolar always ends in: |
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Definition
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Term
When referencing teeth using the triadan system, the left maxillary teeth are always numbered in: |
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Definition
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Term
Cavities in dogs are rare but are occasionally seen in cats usually occuring right at the gingiva or below. In cats what are cavities called? |
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Definition
Feline Odontoclasty Resorptive Lesion
(FORL) |
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Term
Common to see in cats this can be a clinical sign of FeLV &/or FIV |
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Definition
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Term
Condition often associated with severe dental disease due to inflammation and exudative prescence. This most commonly involves the heart valves and inner lining of the cardiac chambers. |
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Definition
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Term
A benign tumor that is pink, smooth, tough and may displace teeth. This is commonly seen in boxers. |
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Definition
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Term
This benign tumor is hard, rough, appears whitish in color and deposits calcium on the gum. |
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Definition
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Term
This benign tumor resembles a wart and may or may not spread. |
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Definition
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Term
Common neoplasia in dogs and is commonly seen in breeds with heavily pigmented gums. |
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Definition
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Term
This the most common malignant tumor and can occur in various areas. |
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Definition
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Term
Usually orginates from tooth or tooth germ these can occur in various areas. |
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Definition
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Term
Administration of this drug to pregnant or young animals binds to calcium depositing in devloping teeth causing teeth to stain yellow tending to darken with age. |
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Definition
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Term
Irregular, thin pitted enamel usually a result of nutritional deficiency, high fever, heavy parasitism during development or often seen in dogs recovered from distemper. |
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Definition
Enamel Hypoplasia
Aka: Distemper teeth |
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Term
This often goes undetected unless animal shows signs of pain (most often when chewing) this occurs when the inability to complete eruption process occurs. |
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Definition
Impaction
Note: Must be extracted |
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Term
Foreign body objects like bones, pieces of toys, food, needles, etc... can be recognized by: |
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Definition
Rapid tongue movements and dysphagia |
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Term
This occurs when a slab fracture of a tooth becomes infected and erupts just under the eye socket. Treatment requires extraction of the tooth and the tooth nearby may or may not need extraction also. |
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Definition
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Term
These allergy related lesions commonly seen on the lips of felines respond well with treatment of corticosteroids. |
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Definition
Eosiniophilic Ulcer
Aka: Rodent Ulcer
Aka: Eosinophilic Granuloma Complex |
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Term
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Definition
- Food Debree
- Sloughed cells
- Specific forms of bacteria that live off debris
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Term
What are some factors that affect periodontal disease? |
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Definition
- Breed
- Diet
- Age
- Lack of oral hygiene
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Term
What are some clinical signs caused by tartar? |
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Definition
- Halitosis
- Appetite Loss
- Hard yellow/brown deposits on teeth
- Ulcers on lips and cheeks
- Lethargy
- Root exposure
- Severe gingivitis
- Hemorrhage
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Term
Periodontal disease is diagnosed by: |
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Definition
- Oral Examination
- Clinical Signs
- Periodontal Probing-to determine extent of damage
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Term
A probe has a measurement in increments in: |
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Definition
mm
Note: Anything over 1 mm in cats and 3mm in dogs is a pocket. |
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Term
What are some of the most common solutions used for mouth rinse? |
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Definition
- Steile Saline
- Chlorhexidine
- Used in a 0.1-0.2 % (0.12% average)
- Two forms: Diacetate or Gluconate (preferred)
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Term
What happen if polishing does not take place after scaling tartar? |
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Definition
Scaling leaves grooves creating increased surface area giving plaque more holding surface which can cause tartar to build up sooner. |
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Term
Which direction to use always want to scrap when hand scaling? |
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Definition
Always stroke away from gums (Coronally) |
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Term
Which form of scaling is easier and faster and may cause damage if left on the tooth for longer than 5 seconds? |
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Definition
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Term
These can all be used as preventative hygiene: |
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Definition
- Some type of brushing
- Dry Food
- Hard chew toys, hard treats. flossing type toys
- Antibacterial gels, sprays or liquids
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Term
This helps to desensitize sensitive teeth and strengthen enamel, providing antibacterial activity in the mouth. If used with chlorhexidine it will cancel any effect they have for preventative care. |
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Definition
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Term
A wide type insert for a hand piece is used for: |
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Definition
Flatter surfaces
Note: Narrow or ponted tip is used for between teeth and tight grooves |
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Term
All personnel within how many feet should wear proper protective equipment? |
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Definition
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Term
The tuner control dial on an ultrasonic dental scaler has a range of least to greatest numerically it is: |
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Definition
0-10
Remember: This tunes the hand piece to optimum operating efficiency |
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Term
The hand piece should be held: |
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Definition
At a 15° angle to the tooth surface like a pencil |
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Term
This insert removes tartar and stain from the anterior tooth. |
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Definition
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Term
This insert used for gross removal of tartar and stains. |
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Definition
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Term
Insert that removes tartar and stains on molars. |
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Definition
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Term
Periodontal probing allows detection of pockets. Pockets are then treated based on: |
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Definition
Depth and radiographic changes to the gums and teeth. |
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Term
This instrument is used to dig into the gingival sulcus down to the root to loosen tooth and ligaments. |
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Definition
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Term
Very similar to tartar scalers but can be used in the gingival sulcus. |
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Definition
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