1. (201) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is

a. 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi).

b. 17.4 psi.

c. 29.92 psi.

d. 29.29 psi.

2. (201) A barometer is designed to measure pressure in

a. pounds per square inch (psi).

b. inches of mercury.

c. milibars of alcohol.

d. ounces of air.

3. (202) The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is

a. lift.

b. drag.

c. thrust.

d. weight.

4. (202) The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is

a. lift.

b. drag.

c. thrust.

d. weight

5. (202) The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is

a. lift.

b. drag.

c. gravity.

d. weight.

6. (203) The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an

adjacent layer is called

a. bending.

b. tension.

c. torsion.

d. shear.

7. (203) What is the design that uses any combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames

in the construction of the fuselage called?

a. Fuselage.

b. Longerons.

c. Monocoque.

d. Semi-monocoque

8. (203) The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching

the skin to the structure are called

a. longerons.

b. bulkheads.

c. stringers.

d. frames.

9. (203) The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is

a. steel.

b. titanium.

c. magnesium.

d. aluminum alloy.

10. (203) The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is

a. cantilever.

b. monocoque.

c. external braced.

d. semi-monocoque.

11. (203) The fixed vertical surface of the empennage is called the

a. stabilator.

b. elevator.

c. rudder.

d. fin.

12. (203) Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion- resistant steel that is able to withstand

forces of

a. 120,000 to 140,000 pounds per square inch (psi).

b. 150,000 to 170,000 psi.

c. 180,000 to 200,000 psi.

d. 210,000 to 230,000 psi.

13. (203) The main difference between inspection plates and panels is

a. size.

b. material.

c. location.

d. installation.

14. (203) A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is

called

a. crazing.

b. casting.

c. fretting.

d. pitting.

15. (203) What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum

that is usually well below the aircraft called?

a. Buttlines.

b. Waterlines.

c. Buttock stations.

d. Fuselage stations.

16. (204) Movement about the vertical axis is called

a. roll.

b. yaw.

c. crab.

d. pitch.

17. (204) Which flight control surface is a longitudinal control surface?

a. Rudder.

b. Aileron.

c. Elevator.

d. Wing flaps.

18. (204) Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer?

a. Flap.

b. Spoiler.

c. Rudder.

d. Elevator.

19. (204) When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron trailing

edge is

a. up, left aileron trailing edge is up.

b. up, left aileron trailing edge is down.

c. down, left aileron trailing edge is up.

d. down, left aileron trailing edge is down

20. (204) The purpose of wing flaps is to

a. increase lift and drag.

b. decrease lift and drag.

c. increase lift and decrease drag.

d. decrease lift and increase drag.

21. (204) The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to

a. reduce the amount of lift.

b. prevent the aircraft from stalling.

c. correct minor deviations in flight attitude.

d. improve augmented lateral control surface movement.

22. (205) Matter is any substance that has mass and

a. can be seen.

b. occupies space.

c. has constant volume.

d. cannot be compressed.

23. (205) Atoms are made up of

a. molecules, protons, neutrons.

b. protons, molecules, electrons.

c. molecules, neutrons, electrons.

d. protons, neutrons, and electrons

24. (205) Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except

a. heat.

b. cold.

c. chemical action.

d. changing magnetic field.

25. (205) What is the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor called?

a. Chemical swap.

b. Crossfeed field.

c. Electromotive force.

d. Transferring magnetic field.

26. (205) If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage

would be

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 6.

d. 18.

27. (206) A permanent magnet is produced from a material with

a. low reluctance and low permeability.

b. high reluctance and low permeability.

c. high reluctance and high permeability.

d. high permeability and low retentivity.

28. (206) When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet it is

a. charged.

b. repelled.

c. energized.

d. magnetized.

29. (206) The greater the current flow through an electromagnet, the

a. less the strength.

b. greater the strength.

c. greater the retentivity.

d. higher the reluctance of the core.

30. (207) Current flow in most aircraft circuits is controlled by

a. fuses.

b. signals.

c. batteries.

d. switches

31. (207) The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located

a. in the aircraft cabin.

b. in the nose wheel well.

c. in the utility compartments.

d. as far as possible from the unit being protected.

32. (208) What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?

a. Direct.

b. Inductive.

c. Reversing.

d. Alternating.

33. (208) The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are

a. blast air and ram air.

b. engine oil and blast air.

c. blast air and generator oil.

d. generator oil and engine oil.

34. (208) The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA)

generator is approximately

a. 4,000 revolutions per minute (RPM).

b. 6,000 RPM.

c. 8,000 RPM.

d. 10,000 RPM.

35. (208) The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed

drive (CSD) actuates at

a. 325 hertz (Hz).

b. 345 Hz.

c. 365 Hz.

d. 395 Hz.

36. (208) What supplies rotary power to the input gear of the constant speed drive (CSD)?

a. Accessory gearbox.

b. Transmission shaft.

c. Torque converter.

d. Hydraulic gear.

37. (209) A battery’s internal component that is a grid or framework which supports the active

chemical materials is called the

a. plate.

b. separator.

c. electrolyte.

d. chemical solution.

38. (209) A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has

a. 12 cells.

b. 19 cells.

c. 20 cells.

d. 24 cells.

39. (209) The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by

a. pulsating current.

b. constant current.

c. varying current.

d. eddy current.

40. (209) What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)?

a. Shunt.

b. Circuit.

c. Universal.

d. Compound.

41. (209) A shunt-type motor has

a. less speed regulation than a universal motor.

b. a field winding in a series with the armature.

c. low starting torque and good speed regulation.

d. high starting torque and poor speed regulation.

Please

42. (210) The three states of matter are

a. liquids, gases, and minerals.

b. gases, solids, and minerals.

c. gases, solids, and organic.

d. liquids, gases, and solids.

43. (210) When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have

a. passed the elastic limit.

b. lost the ability to expand.

c. failed to meet elastic limit.

d. passed the compression limit.

44. (210) The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its

a. rigidity.

b. usability.

c. ability to compress within its container.

d. ability to conform to the shape of its container.

45. (210) What usually produces flow in a pneudraulic system?

a. Relief valve in the lines.

b. Piston pushing the fluid.

c. Scupper pushing the fluid.

d. Selector valve in the lines.

46. (210) Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases?

a. Hook.

b. Boyle.

c. Pascal.

d. Charles.

47. (211) If 50 pounds per square inch (psi) of cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head,

what will the resulting force be?

a. 150 pounds.

b. 200 pounds.

c. 250 pounds.

d. 300 pounds.

48. (211) When an 8-square-inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, what volume of liquid is

displaced?

a. 4 cubic inches.

b. 40 cubic inches.

c. 400 cubic inches.

d. 4,000 cubic inches.

49. (211) Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by

a. increasing velocity and viscosity.

b. increasing volume and displacement.

c. creating resistance and loss of energy.

d. creating resistance and energy increase.

50. (211) A tube whose cross-section area is gradually reduced to a smaller size diameter is called a

a. torus.

b. pipette.

c. vortex.

d. venturi.

51. (212) The purposes of a hydraulic reservoir are to

a. store fluid and act as a surge chamber.

b. restrict fluid-flow in selected directions.

c. pressurize and direct fluid to an actuator.

d. replenish fluid, allow for thermal expansion, and provide a means of bleeding air from the

system.

52. (212) The purpose of a standpipe in a reservoir is to

a. protect the pump.

b. reserve fluid for the power pump.

c. reserve fluid for the emergency pump.

d. supply the pump during inverted flight.

53. (212) The amount of fluid a pump produces on each cycle or revolution is called its

a. displacement.

b. purgement.

c. volume.

d. rating.

54. (212) When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means

a. fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle.

b. fluid-flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle.

c. double volume is displaced with each stroke of the pump handle.

d. double volume is displaced with every other stroke of the pump handle.

55. (212) Variable-volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system

because

a. they deliver low pressure.

b. they have an integral compensator.

c. the case drain relieves high system pressure.

d. there is no angle between the drive shaft and cylinder block.

56. (212) What provides for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump?

a. Foot valves.

b. Oil radiator.

c. Creep plates.

d. Fluid radiator.

57. (212) In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, what holds the pistons in contact with the cam

plate?

a. Fixed pivot.

b. Nutating plate.

c. Stationary bearing.

d. Compensator piston.

58. (212) The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into

a. rotary mechanical motion.

b. kinetic flow motion.

c. straight-line motion.

d. fluid locomotion

59. (213) How is the piston installed in an accumulator?

a. In either direction.

b. Hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator.

c. Hollow end toward the fluid side of the accumulator.

d. Drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator

60. (213) The size of one micron is four

a. tenths of an inch.

b. thousandths of an inch.

c. millionths of an inch.

d. billionths of an inch.

61. (213) In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the

a. return lines can join together.

b. pressure lines can join together.

c. common fluid lines can come together.

d. hydraulic test stand can be connected

62. (214) The purpose of an actuating cylinder is to transform fluid pressure into

a. angular motion.

b. a mechanical force.

c. a constant velocity.

d. an electromotive force.

63. (214) What pneudraulic system component uses a single-acting actuating cylinder?

a. Rudder.

b. Cargo door.

c. Brake assembly.

d. Nosewheel steering.

64. (214) What pneudraulic system component uses a double-acting balanced actuating cylinder?

a. Speed brake.

b. Brake assembly.

c. Cargo door system.

d. Nosewheel steering.

65. (214) Which actuator type slows down piston travel when the piston nears either end of the

cylinder?

a. Tandem.

b. Internal locking.

c. Internal snubber.

d. Double-acting balanced

66. (214) A manual poppet-type selector valve is in a working position when the camshaft is rotated

to

a. seat all four of the poppets.

b. unseat all four of the poppets.

c. seat both of the pressure poppets.

d. unseat one pressure poppet and one return poppet.

67. (214) The major advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its

a. damping ability.

b. metering ability.

c. ability to contain system pressure.

d. ability to relieve excess system pressure.

68. (214) Normally, what positions hydraulic selector valves?

a. Bus.

b. Servos.

c. Relay.

d. Solenoid.

69. (214) The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its

a. reduced weight.

b. increased weight.

c. ability to reduce turbulence.

d. ability to increase turbulence

70. (214) The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is that the

a. selector valve has four ports.

b. selector valve is more complex.

c. servo valve controls fluid-flow.

d. servo valve is electrically operated.

71. (214) Another name for a flapper check valve is

a. ball check valve.

b. gate check valve.

c. cone check valve.

d. restrictor check valve

72. (214) What is the purpose of the arrow on a check valve?

a. Show filter position within the system.

b. Indicate left- and right-hand threading.

c. Show the direction of free flow through the valve.

d. Indicate installation points in relation to the pump.

73. (214) Which of these allows normal operating speed of a

73. (214) Which of these allows normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while

limiting speed in the other direction?

a. Automatic check valve.

b. Restrictor check valve.

c. Bypass valve.

d. Relief valve

74. (215) What are the basic units of a hydraulic hand pump system?

a. Pump, actuator, filter, and priority valve.

b. Pump, actuator, shutoff, and metering valve.

c. Reservoir, pump, actuator, and metering valve.

d. Reservoir, pump, actuator, and manual shutoff valve.

75. (215) The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump

a. by gravity.

b. by the suction effect of the pump.

c. by gravity and the suction effect of the pump.

d. in response to pressure demand and the suction effect of the pump

76. (215) When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow

a. stops.

b. increases.

c. decreases.

d. remains the same.

77. (216) The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to

a. reduce oscillation during extension.

b. reduce oscillation during retraction.

c. allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder.

d. prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder.

78. (216) How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?

a. Electrically.

b. By push-pull rods.

c. By a cable system.

d. Through hydraulic pressure.

79. (216) What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?

a. Safety relay.

b. Safety switch.

c. Centering relay.

d. Centering switch.

80. (216) Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targets on

landing gears are known as

a. position switches.

b. proximity sensors.

c. selector valves.

d. solenoid circuits.

81. (217) A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known

as

a. a steer damper.

b. an uplock control.

c. a downlock control.

d. a servo oscillating damper

82. (218) What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the

landing gear?

a. UP.

b. DN.

c. AUX.

d. EMERG.

83. (218) What slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence?

a. Dampening unit.

b. Inline restrictor.

c. Orifice check valve.

d. Snubbing mechanism

84. (218) The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to

a. alert the pilot to marker beacons.

b. sound when gear is not safe.

c. sound when gear is safe.

d. alert the pilot to a stall.

85. (219) Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action

a. loss due to overheating.

b. increase due to overheating.

c. loss due to pressure increase.

d. increase due to pressure reduction.

86. (219) A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they

a. warp when overheated.

b. shatter during hard landings.

c. must be adjusted after each landing.

d. do not provide maximum stopping grip.

87. (219) What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake?

a. Rotors.

b. Stators.

c. Actuators.

d. Adjusters.

88. (219) The purpose of the antiskid system is to

a. reduce friction between the wheel and tire.

b. increase friction between the wheel and tire.

c. prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel.

d. prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel

89. (219) The purpose of deboosters is to

a. decrease fluid volume.

b. reduce braking pressure.

c. enlarge running clearance.

d. increase braking pressure.

90. (220) Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of

a. steel and/or titanium alloys.

b. chromium and/or titanium alloys.

c. paladium and/or aluminum alloys.

d. magnesium and/or aluminum alloys.

91. (220) Split wheels are balanced

a. during buildup.

b. as an assembly.

c. individually by halves.

d. by a self-balancing system

92. (220) What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?

a. A rubber liner.

b. An O-ring seal.

c. A phenolic ring.

d. Machined mated surfaces

93. (220) What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?

a. Vent holes.

b. Blowout caps.

c. Wheel valve stems.

d. Thermal relief plugs.

94. (220) What the type of bearings is used on aircraft wheels?

a. Flat roller.

b. Straight ball.

c. Tapered roller.

d. Recessed cone.

95. (220) The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the

a. outer race.

b. inner race.

c. bearing cup.

d. roller mount.

96. (220) When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use

a. a fiber brush.

b. a wire brush.

c. clean rags.

d. fiber pads.

97. (220) Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and

a. dye marks.

b. paint marks.

c. blister marks.

d. overheating marks

98. (220) The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,

a. cord body, and beads.

b. valve core, and beads.

c. cord body, vent holes.

d. valve core, and cord body

99. (220) What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft

tire?

a. Beads.

b. Sidewalls.

c. Vent holes.

d. Blow out valves.

100. (220) For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear

reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of

a. 4 inches.

b. 6 inches.

c. 12 inches.

d. 16 inches.