Term
1. List the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or
tolerate an unsafe condition. |
|
Definition
1. Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubbornness |
|
|
Term
2. What should be accomplished after any maintenance action? |
|
Definition
2. Police the area and leave it in a clean and orderly condition |
|
|
Term
3. Failure to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. List the principles of RM. |
|
Definition
4. Accept no unnecessary risk; make risk decisions at the appropriate level; integrate RM into operations,
activities and planning at all levels; and apply the process cyclically and continuously. |
|
|
Term
5. What’s considered to be the direct cause of many accidents? |
|
Definition
5. Unsafe acts and conditions. |
|
|
Term
6. What is defined as rough or boisterous play, but is a major cause of accidents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhaust or tailpipes? |
|
Definition
7. Gloves and long-sleeve shirts. |
|
|
Term
8. What position do you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist? |
|
Definition
8. Squat with back straight; use legs to exert force. |
|
|
Term
9. Why must supervisors be given formal safety training? |
|
Definition
9. So they have a working knowledge of the fundamentals of accident prevention, and accident-prevention
“know how” to train their personnel. |
|
|
Term
10. Name the two most frequent methods used in job safety training. |
|
Definition
10. (1) Personal interviews by the supervisor.
(2) Stand-up talks. |
|
|
Term
11. When should you replace cracked or broken tools? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. What methods can you follow to prevent fires in maintenance areas? |
|
Definition
12. Don’t allow oily rags to accumulate, obey NO SMOKING signs, never put matches/cigarettes in
wastebaskets, never allow your clothing to become saturated with flammables, and don’t store flammables
in open containers. |
|
|
Term
1. What characteristics constitute a hazardous chemical? |
|
Definition
1. Combustible, unstable, irritant, explosive, water reactive, corrosive, flammable and toxic. |
|
|
Term
2. What should you do if your clothes become splashed or sprayed with chemicals? |
|
Definition
2. Leave the area immediately and remove them. |
|
|
Term
3. What information does MSDSs provide you? |
|
Definition
3. An explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with. Information includes, but not limited
to the melting point, boiling point, flash point, toxicity, health effects, first aid, storage and spill procedures. |
|
|
Term
4. What information must be included on hazardous waste labels? |
|
Definition
4. The type of waste and the “accumulation start” entries. |
|
|
Term
5. What must be considered to make a sealant effective? |
|
Definition
5. Correct sealant be used for the specific area and applied correctly |
|
|
Term
6. Sealants are packaged and available in what general U/Is? |
|
Definition
6. Two-part can kit, semkit cartridge, and premixed and frozen. |
|
|
Term
7. What TOs cover sealants, solvents, and adhesives? |
|
Definition
7. TOs 42A3-1-2 and 1-1-691. |
|
|
Term
8. What is the sealant application life? |
|
Definition
8. The length of time a mixed sealing compound remains usable at 77 °F and 50 percent relative humidity. |
|
|
Term
9. What is the purpose of solvents? |
|
Definition
9. Dissolve oily and greasy soils so they can be easily wiped away or absorbed on a cloth |
|
|
Term
1. List three sources of antenna radiation. |
|
Definition
1. (1) High-frequency radio transmitters.
(2) Radar.
(3) Electronic countermeasure devices. |
|
|
Term
2. What are the effects of antenna radiation on the human body and vital organs? |
|
Definition
2. May cause burns beneath the skin, cataracts in the eyes, and internal organ damage as a result of heat
produced as energy is absorbed into tissues. |
|
|
Term
3. Briefly describe the hazards associated with an overheated brake assembly. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. From what direction do you approach an aircraft with overheated brakes? |
|
Definition
4. From the aircraft’s nose or tail direction—never in line with the axles. |
|
|
Term
5. List the major danger areas around an operating jet engine. |
|
Definition
5. Engine intake, exhaust, turbine plane of rotation, and high-intensity sound. |
|
|
Term
6. What’s normally considered a safe distance from an operating jet engine intake? |
|
Definition
6. 25 feet to the front and sides. |
|
|
Term
7. What is normally considered a safe distance to the rear of jet engine exhaust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous? |
|
Definition
8. If the turbine wheel disintegrates while you’re in the plane of rotation, there’s a good chance you’ll sustain
serious or fatal injuries. |
|
|
Term
9. In addition to earplugs, what protective device do you wear when working in high-intensity noise
areas? |
|
Definition
9. Headset or ear defenders |
|
|
Term
10. Define an “explosives loaded” aircraft. |
|
Definition
10. An aircraft is “explosives loaded” when it carries munitions, internally or externally |
|
|
Term
11. Where must an explosives loaded aircraft be parked? |
|
Definition
11. In a designated explosives parking area. |
|
|
Term
12. Which personnel are allowed to remove safety devices from explosive devices? |
|
Definition
12. Only weapons personnel. |
|
|
Term
13. Describe a composite material. |
|
Definition
13. They are used throughout the fuselage sections, wings, empennages, ventral fins, engine cowlings as
appropriate, and various other panels and doors and can all be made up of many different materials such as
fiberglass, carbon fiber, Kevlar, etc. They can present potentially serious health and safety hazards to
personnel unless specific precautions are taken. |
|
|
Term
14. As a minimum, what should the job safety training on composite materials include? |
|
Definition
14. Need for and use of approved PPE; maintenance and care of PPE; safe chemical handling procedures; and,
emergency treatment practices in case of exposure, ingestion or inhalation of liquid, vapors, or dusts from
composite operations |
|
|
Term
15. Besides being assigned to a crash recovery team, as a flight-line crew chief what is your most
likely chance of being affected by the dangers of composite materials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD? |
|
Definition
1. Because the damage it causes translates into the loss of resources, money, or, in a worse case scenario,
someone’s life. |
|
|
Term
2. What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway? |
|
Definition
2. An aircraft engine can ingest them into its intake. |
|
|
Term
3. Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. If a missing tool is not found after a thorough initial search is completed, who initiates a lost tool
report? |
|
Definition
6. The person issued the item or tool. |
|
|
Term
7. What must you wear when you are required to physically enter an aircraft engine’s intake or
exhaust? |
|
Definition
7. Pocketless coverall (bunny suit) or equivalent. |
|
|
Term
8. To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate
repair? |
|
Definition
8. Base airfield manager. |
|
|
Term
9. What is a dropped object as it relates to aircraft operations? |
|
Definition
9. Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost during aircrew operations from engine start to
engine shutdown, unless intentionally jettisoned. |
|
|
Term
10. Who must develop a DOPP? |
|
Definition
10. All units that fly, service, or maintain aircraft |
|
|
Term
11. What are the prime contributors to dropped objects? |
|
Definition
11. Latches and fasteners |
|
|
Term
12. Who normally must investigate incidents as soon as they are discovered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What references provide guidance for servicing operations? |
|
Definition
1. AFI 91-203, TO 00-25-172, and specific aircraft TOs. |
|
|
Term
2. During fuel servicing, what three important points should you keep in mind? |
|
Definition
2. (1) Ensure you use the right grade fuel.
(2) Protect yourself from health hazards.
(3) Prevent fires and explosions. |
|
|
Term
3. What can result from prolonged fuel saturation on your skin? |
|
Definition
3. Skin can become irritated, and it could progress to a severe rash |
|
|
Term
4. Why is it important to inspect fire extinguisher seals? |
|
Definition
4. To ensure the extinguisher wasn’t previously discharged |
|
|
Term
5. What TO(s) lists criteria for positioning fire extinguishers? |
|
Definition
5. 00-25-172 and aircraft specific |
|
|
Term
6. What’s the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen
servicing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What should you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice during LOX servicing? |
|
Definition
7. Thaw it with warm air or water |
|
|
Term
8. What device is used to help prevent overpressurization of an aircraft component during
pneumatic servicing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas
components? |
|
Definition
9. Because of nitrogen’s inert qualities |
|
|
Term
10. When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, what three measures should you take to prevent
contaminating the aircraft systems? |
|
Definition
10. (1) When servicing with cans or drums ensure cleanliness and product integrity are maintained.
(2) Keep products clearly identified and segregated.
(3) Carefully read all labels before dispensing. |
|
|
Term
1. What references contain information about ground handling? |
|
Definition
1. Specific aircraft TO, AFI 11-218, AFI 91-203 and TO 00-25-172 |
|
|
Term
2. Where do most aircraft-specific TOs list safe for maintenance precautions? |
|
Definition
2. In the first couple steps of the task. |
|
|
Term
3. Preparations for aircraft launch include what? |
|
Definition
3. Checking the aircraft forms and obtaining all required AGE. |
|
|
Term
4. When the aircraft taxis after launch, what tasks are accomplished by the ground controller? |
|
Definition
4. Police the parking area and prepare the AGE for pickup. |
|
|
Term
5. During recovery, wing walkers are necessary under what conditions? |
|
Definition
5. When taxiing thru congested areas. |
|
|
Term
6. Why should an aircraft be moved in a straight line for 5 feet after a turn? |
|
Definition
6. To relieve the loads on the main landing gear |
|
|
Term
7. As a general rule, where should you be positioned for marshalling your aircraft? |
|
Definition
7. In front of the aircraft and to the left of the pilot. |
|
|
Term
8. When is a safety observer positioned by a parked aircraft? |
|
Definition
8. When any portion of the aircraft extends into an active taxiway |
|
|
Term
9. When mooring an aircraft, how do you position the aircraft in relation to the wind? |
|
Definition
9. Head the aircraft into prevailing winds |
|
|
Term
10. What are the usual causes of towing accidents? |
|
Definition
10. Inexperienced personnel and failure to follow correct towing procedures. |
|
|
Term
11. What’s the minimum number of tow crew members? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. During towing, why do you start and stop all movements slowly? |
|
Definition
12. Sudden starts and stops may break rivets, bolts, tubing and aircraft structural members. |
|
|
Term
13. What should you do before towing an aircraft across an active taxiway? |
|
Definition
13. Get clearance from the control tower |
|
|
Term
14. In addition to your aircraft’s -2 TO, what TO sets down the basic rules for grounding an aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. What are some of the reasons for jacking an aircraft? |
|
Definition
15. To weigh the aircraft, change a landing gear or gear component, repair a landing gear or gear component, |
|
|
Term
16. What jacking accessory is positioned under reinforced areas of the aircraft and prevents damage
to the aircraft structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. If the aircraft TO doesn’t establish it, what’s the maximum wind velocity for a jacking operation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What is the basic function of maintenance? |
|
Definition
To ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission
needs. |
|
|
Term
2. The degree of maintenance capability depends on what? |
|
Definition
Mission requirements, economics of repair, transportation limitations, component reliability, workload
agreements, facility requirements, frequency of tasks, and special training required. |
|
|
Term
3. What are the two basic types of maintenance performed at unit level? |
|
Definition
(1) On-equipment.
(2) Off-equipment. |
|
|
Term
4. What does preventive maintenance on our equipment help ensure? |
|
Definition
It is ready and available when needed. |
|
|
Term
5. What TO describes preventative maintenance concepts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. What, if properly used, helps determine where your organization has been, where you are going,
and how (or if) you are going to get there? |
|
Definition
Maintenance Performance Indicators. |
|
|
Term
7. Which MPI is perhaps the best-known yardstick for measuring a maintenance unit’s
performance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. What are some of the issues that can contribute to a low MC rate? |
|
Definition
Experiencing many hard breaks, parts supportability shortfalls, workforce management issues, or high
commitment rates. |
|
|
Term
9. Which MPI is perhaps the most important and accurate measure of a unit’s maintenance quality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. What can you do to contribute to keeping a low R/R rate? |
|
Definition
Ensure that you always use the proper technical data in all parts of inspecting, troubleshooting, and
repairing aircraft. |
|
|
Term
11. When are discrepancies considered deferred/delayed? |
|
Definition
They are discovered and the decision is made to defer them; they are scheduled with a start date greater
than five calendar days after the discovery date; or, they are AWPs with a valid off-base requisition. |
|
|
Term
12. What should you do if you have a lot of DDs and it will be a long time before your aircraft is
scheduled for extended downtime? |
|
Definition
Coordinate with your production superindent and PS&D scheduler to get some downtime scheduled so that
you can fix as many DDs as possible. |
|
|
Term
1. List three processes of the MDD system. |
|
Definition
(1) Collection.
(2) Storage.
(3) Retrieval. |
|
|
Term
2. What off-base agencies use the information provided through MDD? |
|
Definition
AFMEA, MAJCOMs, and the DOD. |
|
|
Term
3. On base, which individuals receive MDD information feedback? |
|
Definition
Base managers and supervisors. |
|
|
Term
4. Which major command is responsible for the overall material management of Air Force systems
and equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What does ACM provide unit managers the capability to determine? |
|
Definition
Actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft. |
|
|
Term
6. In what TO can you find the details for recording specific entries of AFTO 781 series forms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What AFTO 781 series form is the identification document for the series binder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. What AFTO 781 series form is used for recording flight time, sorties, or events for input into the
MIS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. Aircraft maintenance status and servicing information is entered on what AFTO 781 series form? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. What AFTO 781 series form is used to record discrepancies discovered by aircrew or
maintenance personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. What AFTO 781 series form is used to record engine oil time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. What AFTO 781 series form is used to record delayed discrepancies and calendar inspection
information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. What AFTO 781 series form is a continuation of the calendar and hourly inspection item schedule
shown on AFTO Form 781K? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. What AFTO 781 series form contains basic information to aid in making entries on the 781A and
781K forms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. What is AFTO Form 95 used for? |
|
Definition
For a permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment including engines,
engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components. |
|
|
Term
16. What happens to the AFTO Form 95 when you remove and replace a component having an
AFTO Form 95? |
|
Definition
It accompanies the equipment when transferred. |
|
|
Term
1. What is IMDS designed to give managers? |
|
Definition
Visibility and control of resources at unit level. |
|
|
Term
2. Which subsystem of IMDS provides the capability to order needed parts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. Why are preventive maintenance schedules entered into IMDS? |
|
Definition
To help track and report completion, deviation or rescheduling actions. |
|
|
Term
4. What IMDS subsystem provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What is the purpose of the initial evaluation? |
|
Definition
To determine what specific tasks the individual is or is not qualified to do. |
|
|
Term
2. As a trainer, what is your responsibility in cases where a newcomer is qualified on a task required
for the new work center? |
|
Definition
Reverify their qualifications to ensure that they are still proficient to perform that task. |
|
|
Term
3. What is the purpose of a GAS? |
|
Definition
Enables you to tell the schoolhouse how they are doing. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education and training
requirements, training support resources, core home station training, and deployment/UTC task
requirements for an entire AFS. |
|
|
Term
5. What type of information is found in Part I of the CFETP? |
|
Definition
Information necessary for overall management of the specialty. |
|
|
Term
6. In what part and section of the CFETP do you find information that identifies the duties, tasks,
and technical references to support training? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
TBA is an Air Force Portal, web-based application providing Air Force personnel real-time visibility of
qualifications, certifications and status of training. |
|
|
Term
2. What is the purpose of TBA? |
|
Definition
TBA allows authorized users with ready access to training-related information currently maintained in
many different places and not readily accessible to those who need the information. |
|
|
Term
3. What is the description of the training manager’s role in TBA? |
|
Definition
This role has oversight of an organization. |
|
|
Term
____ (1) Ultimately responsible for the personnel assigned.
____ (2) Has the most capability in TBA.
____ (3) All users will have access to this role.
____ (4) Manages one or more workcenters.
____ (5) Initiates task authentication within the ITP.
a. Trainee.
b. Trainer.
c. Flight chief.
d. Commander.
e. Workcenter supervisor. |
|
Definition
(1) d.
(2) e.
(3) a.
(4) c.
(5) b. |
|
|
Term
1. What makes up a TO library? |
|
Definition
One or more current TOs with all changes, revisions, and supplements maintained on a continuing basis or
a special-purpose library that might contain noncurrent TOs. |
|
|
Term
2. Where would you find a transient aircraft library? |
|
Definition
On bases where it’s common to service or perform organizational- or intermediate-level maintenance on
aircraft not normally assigned to the base. |
|
|
Term
3. What information is required on a TO binder? |
|
Definition
Binder number and the contents of the binder. |
|
|
Term
____(1) Utility aircraft.
____(2) Trainer aircraft.
____(3) Attack aircraft.
____(4) Bomber aircraft.
____(5) Fighter aircraft.
a. 1B.
b. 1T.
c. 1F.
d. 1A.
e. 1U.
|
|
Definition
(1) e.
(2) b.
(3) d.
(4) a.
(5) c. |
|
|
Term
5. What group of a TO number tells you the type of TO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Column A Column B
___(1) Maintenance instructions.
___(2) Flight manual.
___(3) IPB. .
___(4) WUC manual.
___(5) Inspection requirements.
a. -6.
b. -06.
c. -1
d. -4.
e. -2. |
|
Definition
(1) e.
(2) c.
(3) d.
(4) b.
(5) a. |
|
|
Term
7. What are the functions of groups four through six of a TO number? |
|
Definition
They further subdivide the TO into system and subsystems as applicable. |
|
|
Term
8. ETIMS is web-based through the Air Force Portal to assist with what TO functions? |
|
Definition
TO catalog search and ordering of TOs and TO account management. |
|
|
Term
9. What’s the purpose of the LOAP? |
|
Definition
Provides a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific military system and related end items. |
|
|
Term
1. What are the four major types of TOs? |
|
Definition
(1) Technical manuals.
(2) Abbreviated TOs.
(3) TCTOs.
(4) MPTOs. |
|
|
Term
2. Describe the types of information found in technical manuals. |
|
Definition
Instructions pertaining to operation, service, maintenance, inspection of complex weapon systems, and
overhaul of component parts. |
|
|
Term
3. How are the columns in Section I of the TS manual labeled? |
|
Definition
Trouble, Probable Cause, and Remedy. |
|
|
Term
4. What schematic diagrams are included in Section II of the TS manual? |
|
Definition
Schematics of each related system for that TO. |
|
|
Term
5. Name three types of abbreviated TOs |
|
Definition
(1) CLs.
(2) WCs.
(3) Charts. |
|
|
Term
6. Why does the Air Force use abbreviated TOs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What are some examples of abbreviated CLs? |
|
Definition
Aircraft towing, aircraft jacking, oxygen servicing, refueling and defueling, and engine run. |
|
|
Term
8. What type of TO lists minimum inspection requirements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. What are the five types of TCTOs covered in the text? |
|
Definition
(1) Immediate action.
(2) Urgent action.
(3) Routine action.
(4) Record.
(5) Interim. |
|
|
Term
10. Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the first page? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to
personnel or damage to property? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. Which TCTO is issued for a mechanical condition that would constitute a hazard through
prolonged usage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. Which TCTO does not list step-by-step procedures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. How are ITCTOs issued? |
|
Definition
By electronic means when urgent circumstances don’t allow for a timely publication of emergency
instructions. |
|
|
Term
15. What category are MPTOs? |
|
Definition
Category 00 (i.e., TO 00-5-1). |
|
|
Term
1. What form is used for TO improvement reporting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports? |
|
Definition
(1) Emergency.
(2) Urgent.
(3) Routine. |
|
|
Term
3. Emergency TO improvement reports are submitted for what reason? |
|
Definition
When a fatality, serious injury, extensive damage, or destruction of equipment or property results or if it
affects the ability to achieve or maintain an operational posture, including work stoppage. |
|
|
Term
4. What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What type of report is for TO deficiencies and is processed within 45 days? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What are the two categories of publications? |
|
Definition
(1) Directive.
(2) Nondirective. |
|
|
Term
2. What type of publication does not list procedures or detailed “how-to” instructions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. Which type of directive publication has two categories––departmental and field level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What is the purpose of an OI? |
|
Definition
To assign responsibility, direct actions, and prescribe procedures. |
|
|
Term
6. What nondirective publication that explains or instructs can be permanent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. Where can you find a listing of current Air Force manuals, pamphlets, instructions, and VAs
online? |
|
Definition
Air Force’s E-publishing web site. |
|
|
Term
1. Information about nonpowered AGE can be found in which technical orders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. What are the basic parts of a maintenance stand? |
|
Definition
A base assembly, upper-structure assembly, platform assembly, and, on most stands, a hydraulic system. |
|
|
Term
3. How is the height of the platform adjusted on the B-1 maintenance stand? |
|
Definition
By the extension and retraction of a hydraulic cylinder assembly |
|
|
Term
4. Which maintenance stand is best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the
vertical stabilizer and rudder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand? |
|
Definition
The safety pins are installed. |
|
|
Term
6. What should you do with the wheels of a B-4 or B-5 maintenance stand before towing? |
|
Definition
Lock the rear casters in the fore and aft position to prevent the wheel assembly from swiveling. |
|
|
Term
7. How is the operation of the model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. Other than transporting heavy loads, what’s an additional use for the model 3000 transportation
trailer? |
|
Definition
Hold engines while inspections are performed |
|
|
Term
9. What can happen to an engine that has not been properly supported? |
|
Definition
It could twist or bend, damaging the engine or its sub parts |
|
|
Term
10. Describe what the two-hand pumps are designed to do in a hydromechanical jack? |
|
Definition
(1) The larger pump is used to raise the plunger at a higher speed to meet the load.
(2) The smaller pump allows for greater ease of lift with a full load engaged. |
|
|
Term
11. How do you control the speed of lowering a jack? |
|
Definition
By the amount the release valve is opened. |
|
|
Term
12. Tripod jacks are generally used for what procedures? |
|
Definition
Weighing the aircraft; changing a landing gear or gear component; repairing a landing gear or gear
component; or performing a landing gear retraction check |
|
|
Term
13. What are some of the uses of the axle jack? |
|
Definition
A tire change, brake change, or wheel/bearing inspection and lubrication. |
|
|
Term
14. Aircraft oxygen systems are serviced with what two types of oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. What are the properties of LOX? |
|
Definition
Pale blue, water-like substance that flows readily; it boils at –297 °F and expands to 860 times its original
volume when warmed to a gaseous state. |
|
|
Term
16. How much LOX does the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank hold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. What is the pressure gage range on a TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. What position should the pressure buildup valve on the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank be
in? |
|
Definition
Closed, except when building up tank pressure |
|
|
Term
19. Why should LOX never be confined in any completely airtight piping or container? |
|
Definition
Because LOX expands 860 times its original volume and the pressure buildup when the liquid expands to
gas will rupture the container. |
|
|
Term
20. What form is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems serviced with a specific LOX cart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21. What is stenciled in white on the side of each high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinder bottle? |
|
Definition
AVIATOR’S BREATHING OXYGEN |
|
|
Term
22. How many oxygen cylinders is the AF/M32R-3 oxygen-servicing trailer designed to transport? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. What is nitrogen used for in aircraft maintenance? |
|
Definition
Pressure-operated mechanisms. |
|
|
Term
24. Why is nitrogen the preferred gas for servicing aircraft systems? |
|
Definition
Because it is an inert gas that doesn’t form flammable or explosive mixtures with air or oxygen, nor does it
support combustion. |
|
|
Term
25. The gaseous nitrogen cart is designed to use what method? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What’s the primary function of powered AGE? |
|
Definition
Provides an auxiliary means of external power without operating the aircraft engines, APU (if equipped), or
internal systems to support maintenance activities. |
|
|
Term
2. What happens to the waste product when the SGNSC separates the nitrogen from the air? |
|
Definition
It becomes enriched with oxygen (about 33% oxygen). |
|
|
Term
3. What is the purpose of the MC-1A air compressor? |
|
Definition
Provide high- or low-pressure, clean, dry air for servicing aircraft pneumatic systems, hydraulic
accumulators, oleo struts, and tires. |
|
|
Term
4. How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of producing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. How is heat increased or decreased on the H-1 heater? |
|
Definition
By allowing more or less fuel to enter the burner section. |
|
|
Term
6. How is heating accomplished on the NGH? |
|
Definition
By a 60 Hz alternator that powers a separate oil burner and combustion blower. |
|
|
Term
7. What is the temperature range of conditioned air provided by the C-10 air conditioner? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. From where does the C-10 receive its source of air? |
|
Definition
Hot bleed air from a gas turbine compressor. |
|
|
Term
9. What’s the electrical power output of the A/M32A-86 generator? |
|
Definition
115/200-volt, 400 Hz , 3-phase. |
|
|
Term
10. How much air is the A/M32A-60 capable of producing? |
|
Definition
Approximately 150 pounds of air per minute at 50 psi. |
|
|
Term
11. What source of power is used to start the A/M32A-95 generator? |
|
Definition
Nickel-cadmium battery, or two 12-volt gel pack batteries. |
|
|
Term
12. How much electrical power can the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight produce? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. How high can the mast on the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight be raised? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. How is power supplied to the MK-3A-3? |
|
Definition
By a 93 hp, 440-volt, 3-phase, 60-cycle, 1,760 rpm electric motor. |
|
|
Term
15. How is the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand driven? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. How are the hydraulic systems designated on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. What’s the primary function of a tow vehicle? |
|
Definition
Towing and parking large aircraft. |
|
|
Term
18. What is the adjustable height and lift capacity of the electric, split deck maintenance platform? |
|
Definition
An adjustable height from 6.7 feet to 36 feet and a lift capacity of 2,000 pounds. |
|
|
Term
1. What TO covers aircraft hardware? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. The size of a bolt is stated in what terms? |
|
Definition
Length, diameter, and threads per inch. |
|
|
Term
3. Define the grip length of a bolt. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What type of bolt is available with thin heads for use in tight places? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What kind of bolt is used where shearing or sideways stress occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. What special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are applied? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What feature distinguishes the internal wrenching bolt from other bolts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. List three kinds of nonself-locking nuts. |
|
Definition
Any three of the following:
(1) Plain.
(2) Check.
(3) Castle.
(4) Wing. |
|
|
Term
9. List two uses for plain washers |
|
Definition
Any two of the following:
(1) Provide a smooth bearing surface.
(2) Act as shims in obtaining the correct relationship between threads of the bolt and the nut.
4–39
(3) Adjust the portion of castellated nuts with respect to the drilled cotter pin holes.
(4) Under lockwashers to prevent damage to surfaces of soft material. |
|
|
Term
10. How are screws usually described? |
|
Definition
10. According to the shape of the head. |
|
|
Term
11. What type of rivet is usually used for fastening aircraft structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. What type of aircraft fastener is not designed to carry a structural load? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. How is a cable size determined? |
|
Definition
By the diameter of the cable. |
|
|
Term
14. Why are some cables coated with a nylon jacket? |
|
Definition
To increase the service life of the cable by keeping lubricants in and dirt out and dampening vibration |
|
|
Term
15. What is the purpose of a turnbuckle? |
|
Definition
To adjust tension on aircraft cables. |
|
|
Term
16. Pulleys are made of what? |
|
Definition
Typically molded or machined phenolic of light alloy metal such as aluminum. |
|
|
Term
17. What keeps cables from coming in contact with structural parts of the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. What’s the purpose of a pressure seal? |
|
Definition
To prevent the loss of pressure from pressurized areas through which cables pass. |
|
|
Term
19. What units are used to transmit motion about an axis and to change the direction of force of a
cable or push-pull rod? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. What is a control rod? |
|
Definition
A rigid rod that transmits push and pull motions |
|
|
Term
21. What devices limit the movement of a control surface? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22. Where are torque tubes used in flight control systems? |
|
Definition
Where they’re needed to transmit a twisting force |
|
|
Term
23. How are aluminum alloy and stainless steel tubing easily distinguished? |
|
Definition
By their different metallic luster; aluminum alloy tubing may be stamped with the actual alloy designation. |
|
|
Term
24. Where is aluminum-alloy tubing commonly used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
25. Why is stainless steel tubing preferred on external brake lines and other exposed system lines? |
|
Definition
To prevent damage caused by flying gravel and stones and ground-handling accidents |
|
|
Term
26. What color is an aluminum alloy tube fitting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. Describe the color-code tape used in identifying hydraulic lines. |
|
Definition
Blue band, a yellow band, and a white band overprinted with a row of black-bordered circles |
|
|
Term
28. A system line is 38 inches long and passes through a bulkhead. The bulkhead divides the line so
that 25 inches are on one side. How many bands of tape should the line have? |
|
Definition
Three; one on the 13 inch section and two on the 25 inch section. |
|
|
Term
29. Before you install a tubing assembly, you should inspect it for what conditions? |
|
Definition
Obstructions, dents, scratches, and damage to the flared end. |
|
|
Term
30. What can result from over-tightening a tubing nut? |
|
Definition
Severe damage to the tubing flare or damage to the sleeve or nut of the fitting. |
|
|
Term
31. What information can be obtained from the markings on flexible hose? |
|
Definition
The manufacturer’s code number or symbol marking, date of manufacture, size, and specification numbers. |
|
|
Term
32. What prevents chafing of a hose passing through a bulkhead? |
|
Definition
Bulkhead-type grommets or cushion clips. |
|
|
Term
33. How should hose connections be made to an engine or engine-mounted accessories? |
|
Definition
Install the hose so 1½ inches of slack or an adequate bend is provided between the last point of support and
the attachment to the engine or accessory |
|
|
Term
1. What safety-wire method is most commonly used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. Using the double-twist method, how many closely spaced bolts can be safetied in a series? |
|
Definition
No more than you can secure with a 24 inch length of wire. |
|
|
Term
3. When is 0.032 inch safety cable used to safety parts? |
|
Definition
When parts have a nominal hole diameter of 0.075 inch or smaller. |
|
|
Term
4. What is a retaining ring? |
|
Definition
A retaining ring is a fastener that holds components onto a shaft or in a housing/bore when installed in a
groove. |
|
|
Term
5. Where are axially assembled retaining rings installed? |
|
Definition
Installed into machined grooves in housings or on shafts. |
|
|
Term
6. How are beveled retaining rings held in place? |
|
Definition
Beveled retaining rings feature a beveled or angled edge. This angle allows the ring to wedge itself between
the groove and the retained part until it can go no farther, effectively “locking” everything in place. |
|
|
Term
7. When are spiral retaining rings used? |
|
Definition
When there is little clearance between the housing and the part to be retained |
|
|
Term
1. What parts of a Cannon plug ensure connector halves aren’t mismated? |
|
Definition
A key and keyway arrangement in the barrel of the plug and receptacle. |
|
|
Term
2. AN-type Cannon plugs are being replaced with what type of plugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What TO provides information concerning connector repair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. Why is aluminum foil not used as a cover for Cannon plugs? |
|
Definition
May cause a short circuit. |
|
|
Term
5. Why should you not attempt to remove a Cannon plug’s insert from the shell? |
|
Definition
It is permanently bonded and can’t be removed without destroying it |
|
|
Term
1. What do torque wrenches measure? |
|
Definition
The force of pull in pounds when tightening hardware; nuts, bolts, clamps, etc. |
|
|
Term
2. How do indicating-type torque wrenches display the applied torque? |
|
Definition
By a pointer that moves over an indicating scale. |
|
|
Term
3. What type of torque wrench automatically releases when you apply a predetermined amount of
torque? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. How much free travel does the breakaway torque wrench allow when the preset torque level is
reached? |
|
Definition
Approximately 5 to10 degrees. |
|
|
Term
5. What may happen if you over-tighten a component greater than the value set on a torque wrench? |
|
Definition
It may cause internal damage to the torque wrench, it adds a higher torque value to the part, and part failure
could occur. |
|
|
Term
6. What is the working range of a breakaway or indicating type torque wrench? |
|
Definition
Not lower than 20 percent and not greater than the rated capacity of the torque wrench |
|
|
Term
7. When torquing a bolt, to what should you set the torque value? |
|
Definition
The upper limit of the specific torque value allowed by the TO. |
|
|
Term
8. When you’re using a torque wrench to tighten a series of nuts, do you tighten each nut to the
specified torque before starting to torque the other nuts? Explain. |
|
Definition
No; gradually tighten each until they all meet the specified torque and tighten the nuts opposite of each
other in sequence |
|
|
Term
9. Before storing a torque wrench, to what setting should you set the grip? Why? |
|
Definition
Lowest; this removes tension from the spring in the handle and preserves the accuracy of the torque
wrench. |
|
|
Term
10. Torque wrenches should have some kind of label (paper, tape, or other) on the handle. What
information do you determine from this label before using the torque wrench? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. What do you do if you discover that a torque wrench is overdue calibration? |
|
Definition
Don’t use it; turn it in for calibration. |
|
|
Term
12. What are the two stresses a fastener takes when tightened? |
|
Definition
(1) Torsion, and (2) Tension. |
|
|
Term
13. Why is breakaway torque measured? |
|
Definition
To ensure product integrity. |
|
|
Term
14. What is prevailing torque usually associated with? |
|
Definition
Self-locking screws and nuts. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A combined instrument consisting of an ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter |
|
|
Term
2. What is the major advantage of the Fluke multimeter? |
|
Definition
The ability to take readings without having to look at the display at the same time as you are looking at the
test leads. |
|
|
Term
3. How many input receptacles does the Fluke meter have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What are the different Fluke meter modes of operation? |
|
Definition
Range, relative, minimum/maximum, and hold-reset/MIN/MAX. |
|
|
Term
5. When does the Fluke meter perform a self-test? |
|
Definition
Every time you turn the meter on |
|
|
Term
6. Which measuring technique should you use for troubleshooting for a loose wire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What should be done if the digital meter goes from OL to 0 when performing a continuity check? |
|
Definition
Continue using it (this is the normal indication). |
|
|
Term
1. What is a feeler gauge? |
|
Definition
A tool used to measure the gap between two parts |
|
|
Term
2. What is incorporated into the feeler gauge case? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What are three commonly used micrometers? |
|
Definition
Outside micrometers, inside micrometers, depth micrometers |
|
|
Term
4. What determines a micrometer’s “range”? |
|
Definition
The longest movement possible between the spindle and anvil of the micrometer |
|
|
Term
5. What do outside calipers measure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. How are simple calipers adjusted? |
|
Definition
By pulling or pushing the legs to open or close them. |
|
|
Term
7. What are transfer calipers used for? |
|
Definition
Measuring chamfered grooves or flanges |
|
|
Term
8. How are slide calipers graduated? |
|
Definition
Inches, fractions, or millimeters. |
|
|
Term
9. What is used on depth gauges as the reference surface or master standard from which
measurements are taken? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. What must be done to the depth gauge before any measurements are taken? |
|
Definition
You must zero the gauge before measuring any depth. |
|
|
Term
1. Whose responsibility is supply discipline? |
|
Definition
All military and civilian employees, regardless of grade or position. |
|
|
Term
2. Why is it important to promptly process repairable items? |
|
Definition
The repairable item is as important as a serviceable item, since the repairable item may be the only part
available. |
|
|
Term
3. List some examples of bench stock items |
|
Definition
Nuts, bolts, cotter keys, washers, resistors, capacitors, light bulbs, sealants, and batteries. |
|
|
Term
4. How should operating stock be identified? |
|
Definition
Clearly identify items as “Operating Stock” and label them with their noun, NSN or part number (if
applicable), U/I, and shelf life, if applicable. |
|
|
Term
5. What is the basic purpose of a QRL? |
|
Definition
To provide maintenance personnel with a speedy identification and communication capability for placing a
demand on a supply |
|
|
Term
6. What form is normally used to request parts/supplies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. What form is used to request items that don’t have an NSN? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. What form is used as a control document whenever you loan a tool to another individual? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What is the primary objective of the repair cycle asset control system? |
|
Definition
To bring about the economy of spares procurement through the effective management of assets |
|
|
Term
2. When does base supply order a replacement DIFM item? |
|
Definition
When it is determined the unserviceable item cannot be repaired on base, or the item is condemned. |
|
|
Term
3. What documents are used to control a DIFM item through the repair cycle? |
|
Definition
DD Form 1348 and AFTO Form 350, Part II. |
|
|
Term
4. When shop action is complete, what form is used to tag the item for turn-in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. What are the two categories of supply-type items that require turn-in? |
|
Definition
(1) Recoverable.
(2) Consumable. |
|
|
Term
6. Unserviceable and scrap materiel should not be thrown out, but turned in to whom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. Which part of the AFTO Form 350 serves as a production-scheduling document? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. Which condition tags and labels are easily identified by their yellow margins and letters? |
|
Definition
DD Forms 1574 and 1574-1. |
|
|
Term
1. What’s the purpose of deficiency reporting? |
|
Definition
Establish a system to identify, report, and resolve deficiencies. |
|
|
Term
2. Which DR category, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational
illness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What DR category identifies a potential enhancement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What does the engine warranty program guarantee against? |
|
Definition
Defects in AFMC workmanship |
|
|
Term
5. You submit reports against the engine warranty program IAW what directive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. What’s the purpose of the planned inspection and maintenance concept? |
|
Definition
Provides a method of performing required inspections and repairs on a scheduled and controlled basis |
|
|
Term
2. Name the two overall inspection concepts used at base level to inspect aircraft. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. Which inspection is due upon the accrual of the number of flying hours or operating hours, or at
the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable MDS-specific -6 technical order,
and is more extensive in scope than the HPO inspection or BPO inspections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What is the primary object of the PH inspection concept? |
|
Definition
To reduce the amount of time an aircraft is out of commission from a normal flight schedule for any given
inspection package. |
|
|
Term
5. Which inspection concept consists of the HSC, major, and minor inspections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. Describe and briefly explain the use of the two primary aids of the planned inspection and
maintenance concept. |
|
Definition
(1) Inspection WCs outline minimum inspection requirements.
(2) SCs depict a basic planned work schedule and sequence in which the inspection WCs can be used. |
|
|
Term
7. How are WCs sequenced? |
|
Definition
In the most logical or practical order of accomplishment |
|
|
Term
1. What TOs cover aircraft inspection concepts? |
|
Definition
00-20-1 and the aircraft -6 TO. |
|
|
Term
2. What inspection is performed to ensure that no serious defects or malfunctions exist? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What inspection is performed just prior to takeoff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. What type of inspection is performed between flights? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. When is a BPO inspection performed? |
|
Definition
After the last flight of the specified flying period. |
|
|
Term
6. If an aircraft is out of commission for more than 30 consecutive days, what minimum inspection
is required before the aircraft is returned to operational status? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. Who determines the additional requirements for a 90-day NO FLY calendar inspection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. Give three occasions when a special inspection may be required. |
|
Definition
(1) After a specified number of flying/equipment hours.
(2) Following the lapse of a specific calendar time.
(3) After the occurrence of a specific or unusual event. |
|
|
Term
9. When is an acceptance inspection performed? |
|
Definition
When an aircraft is newly assigned to an organization and on all aircraft and engines received from depot. |
|
|
Term
10. Under what two conditions must we comply with time replacement items? |
|
Definition
(1) After accrual of a specific interval of time.
(2) Following the occurrence of a specific or unusual condition. |
|
|
Term
1. Why do you make periodic checks of accountable equipment on aircraft? |
|
Definition
To maintain control and serviceability of equipment |
|
|
Term
2. Which form is used to transfer aircraft -21 equipment through transportation channels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. What form is used to indicate the physical presence or absence of aircraft -21 equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. When aircraft -21 equipment is transferred with an aircraft, which form is used as a receipt
document for the organization receiving the equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. When is a weight and balance update required? |
|
Definition
Anytime a component weighs more than 5 pounds or causes more than a 0.1 percent change in CG is
removed or installed. |
|
|
Term
2. Who updates the weight and balance? |
|
Definition
QA personnel must update the aircraft weight and balance records to check and show the CG difference. |
|
|
Term
3. What is the DD Form 365-1; CHART A used for? |
|
Definition
This form lists all equipment and other items that are or may be installed, and for which provisions or fixed
stowage has been made in a definite location in the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
4. The DD Form 365-3; CHART C is used for what? |
|
Definition
All changes to the aircraft basic weight and moment regardless of the size shall be recorded (typed or
clearly written in ink) on the Chart C to keep it correct and up-to-date |
|
|
Term
5. When is an aircraft in balance? |
|
Definition
When all weight items in, on, or of the aircraft are distributed so that the longitudinal CG of the aircraft lies
within a predetermined CG range. |
|
|
Term
6. What is the definition of arm? |
|
Definition
The distance of a weight from a reference datum |
|
|
Term
1. What is the definition of battle damage? |
|
Definition
Damage sustained during combat operations |
|
|
Term
2. What are the repair standards designed to do? |
|
Definition
To last for the projected aircraft life, restore structural members to their original strength and return all
aircraft system components to a like-new condition. |
|
|
Term
3. What are the three fundamental preparations of ABDR? |
|
Definition
(1) Allowing the use of time-saving temporary repairs on certain types of damage.
(2) Training maintenance personnel in the skills and techniques required to effect rapid repairs.
(3) Provisioning the material necessary to accomplish rapid combat maintenance. |
|
|
Term
4. What has been a critical and decisive factor in successful military campaigns? |
|
Definition
The ability to quickly return battle damaged weapon systems to combat. |
|
|
Term
5. Who accomplishes aircraft battle damage assessments? |
|
Definition
Only fully qualified assessors from MAJCOM approved aircraft maintenance specialties. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The electrochemical deterioration of a metal due to its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment |
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Term
2. What happens to iron exposed to moist air? |
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Definition
Returns to its natural state––iron oxide or rust |
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Term
Column A
____ (1) Produced by the effects of an alternating cyclic
stress and corrosive environment.
____ (2) Numerous worm-like traces of corrosion beneath
the paint film.
____ (3) First seen as a general dulling of the surface.
____ (4) Indicated by a lifting up or swelling the surface
grains of a metal.
____ (5) Resembles a white or gray powdery, dust-like
deposit on the surface of the metal.
____ (6) Occurs when different metals are in contact.
____ (7) Is a selective attack along a metal’s grain boundaries.
____ (8) Appears as corroded cracks in the metal.
____ (9) May occur when a foreign material covers a surface.
Column B
a. Uniform surface.
b. Pitting.
c. Intergranular.
d. Exfoliation.
e. Crevice/concentration cell.
f. Stress.
g. Corrosion fatigue.
h. Galvanic.
i. Filiform. |
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Definition
(1) g.
(2) i.
(3) a.
(4) d.
(5) b.
(6) h.
(7) c.
(8) f.
(9) e. |
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Term
4. Which TO contains detailed instructions for corrosion prevention and treatment? |
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Definition
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Term
5. Corrosion is removed using what overall method or technique? |
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Definition
By the mildest effective technique |
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Term
1. The frequency of aircraft cleaning depends on what? |
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Definition
The type of aircraft and the environmental conditions to which the aircraft is exposed. |
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Term
2. What factors should be considered when selecting a cleaner? |
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Definition
Type and amount of soil to be removed, material size and surface condition of the part, and degree of
cleanliness required. |
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Term
3. What is the most common type of solvent cleaner used on the aircraft? |
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Definition
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Term
4. What is the preferred type of cleaner for cleaning the interior cockpit, floor, and deck area? |
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Definition
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Term
5. How do you clean optical glass? |
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Definition
Spray the cleaner onto a flannel cloth, carefully wipe the lens surface, and then wipe dry with a clean
flannel cloth |
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Term
6. What solution is used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery? |
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Definition
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Term
7. What cleaning agent is used to clean light and moderate soils from the painted exterior of the
aircraft? |
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Definition
MIL-PRF-85570, Type I or Type II, or MIL-PRF-87937, Type II or IV. |
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Term
8. What procedure do you use to clean landing gear’s exposed pistons? |
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Definition
Clean with a clean cloth dampened with hydraulic fluid; wipe away from seals |
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Term
9. When outside temperatures are below 40 °F, where should the aircraft be cleaned? |
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Definition
In an indoor heated wash rack |
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Term
10. What should you do if cleaner is splashed in your eyes? |
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Definition
Rinse your eyes thoroughly with fresh water for 15 minutes and report to the nearest medical facility |
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Term
11. What are the purposes of lubrication? |
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Definition
To prevent wear between moving parts, fill air spaces, displaces water, and provides a barrier against
corrosive media. |
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Term
12. What type of information is found on a lubrication chart? |
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Definition
Items to be lubricated, type of lubricant, and method of application |
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Term
13. When can you apply a lubricant to a corroded surface? |
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Definition
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Term
14. How do you properly lubricate all aircraft grease fittings? |
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Definition
Force grease into fittings until new grease is evident. |
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Term
15. In addition to your specific aircraft TO, where are safety and maintenance precautionary
measures found? |
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Definition
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Term
16. Since various hazardous materials are used during lubrication, what should be used at all times? |
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Definition
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Term
17. Why should you not wear rings, watches, or other metallic objects during cleaning/lubing your
aircraft? |
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Definition
Keep from getting caught in moving parts. |
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