Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Volume 1
Self Test Questions
347
Other
Professional
08/10/2014

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

1. List the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or

tolerate an unsafe condition.

Definition
1. Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubbornness
Term
2. What should be accomplished after any maintenance action?
Definition
2. Police the area and leave it in a clean and orderly condition
Term
3. Failure to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers?
Definition
3. Slips and falls
Term
4. List the principles of RM.
Definition

4. Accept no unnecessary risk; make risk decisions at the appropriate level; integrate RM into operations,

activities and planning at all levels; and apply the process cyclically and continuously.

Term
5. What’s considered to be the direct cause of many accidents?
Definition
5. Unsafe acts and conditions.
Term
6. What is defined as rough or boisterous play, but is a major cause of accidents?
Definition
6. Horseplay.
Term
7. What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhaust or tailpipes?
Definition
7. Gloves and long-sleeve shirts.
Term
8. What position do you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist?
Definition
8. Squat with back straight; use legs to exert force.
Term
9. Why must supervisors be given formal safety training?
Definition

9. So they have a working knowledge of the fundamentals of accident prevention, and accident-prevention

“know how” to train their personnel.

Term
10. Name the two most frequent methods used in job safety training.
Definition

10. (1) Personal interviews by the supervisor.

(2) Stand-up talks.

Term
11. When should you replace cracked or broken tools?
Definition
11. Immediately.
Term
12. What methods can you follow to prevent fires in maintenance areas?
Definition

12. Don’t allow oily rags to accumulate, obey NO SMOKING signs, never put matches/cigarettes in

wastebaskets, never allow your clothing to become saturated with flammables, and don’t store flammables

in open containers.

Term
1. What characteristics constitute a hazardous chemical?
Definition
1. Combustible, unstable, irritant, explosive, water reactive, corrosive, flammable and toxic.
Term
2. What should you do if your clothes become splashed or sprayed with chemicals?
Definition
2. Leave the area immediately and remove them.
Term
3. What information does MSDSs provide you?
Definition

3. An explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with. Information includes, but not limited

to the melting point, boiling point, flash point, toxicity, health effects, first aid, storage and spill procedures.

Term
4. What information must be included on hazardous waste labels?
Definition
4. The type of waste and the “accumulation start” entries.
Term
5. What must be considered to make a sealant effective?
Definition
5. Correct sealant be used for the specific area and applied correctly
Term
6. Sealants are packaged and available in what general U/Is?
Definition
6. Two-part can kit, semkit cartridge, and premixed and frozen.
Term
7. What TOs cover sealants, solvents, and adhesives?
Definition
7. TOs 42A3-1-2 and 1-1-691.
Term
8. What is the sealant application life?
Definition
8. The length of time a mixed sealing compound remains usable at 77 °F and 50 percent relative humidity.
Term
9. What is the purpose of solvents?
Definition
9. Dissolve oily and greasy soils so they can be easily wiped away or absorbed on a cloth
Term
1. List three sources of antenna radiation.
Definition

1. (1) High-frequency radio transmitters.

(2) Radar.

(3) Electronic countermeasure devices.

Term
2. What are the effects of antenna radiation on the human body and vital organs?
Definition

2. May cause burns beneath the skin, cataracts in the eyes, and internal organ damage as a result of heat

produced as energy is absorbed into tissues.

Term
3. Briefly describe the hazards associated with an overheated brake assembly.
Definition
3. Blowout or fire.
Term
4. From what direction do you approach an aircraft with overheated brakes?
Definition
4. From the aircraft’s nose or tail direction—never in line with the axles.
Term
5. List the major danger areas around an operating jet engine.
Definition
5. Engine intake, exhaust, turbine plane of rotation, and high-intensity sound.
Term
6. What’s normally considered a safe distance from an operating jet engine intake?
Definition
6. 25 feet to the front and sides.
Term
7. What is normally considered a safe distance to the rear of jet engine exhaust?
Definition
7. 200 feet.
Term
8. Why is the plane of rotation of the engine turbine wheel considered dangerous?
Definition

8. If the turbine wheel disintegrates while you’re in the plane of rotation, there’s a good chance you’ll sustain

serious or fatal injuries.

Term

9. In addition to earplugs, what protective device do you wear when working in high-intensity noise

areas?

Definition
9. Headset or ear defenders
Term
10. Define an “explosives loaded” aircraft.
Definition
10. An aircraft is “explosives loaded” when it carries munitions, internally or externally
Term
11. Where must an explosives loaded aircraft be parked?
Definition
11. In a designated explosives parking area.
Term
12. Which personnel are allowed to remove safety devices from explosive devices?
Definition
12. Only weapons personnel.
Term
13. Describe a composite material.
Definition

13. They are used throughout the fuselage sections, wings, empennages, ventral fins, engine cowlings as

appropriate, and various other panels and doors and can all be made up of many different materials such as

fiberglass, carbon fiber, Kevlar, etc. They can present potentially serious health and safety hazards to

personnel unless specific precautions are taken.

Term
14. As a minimum, what should the job safety training on composite materials include?
Definition

14. Need for and use of approved PPE; maintenance and care of PPE; safe chemical handling procedures; and,

emergency treatment practices in case of exposure, ingestion or inhalation of liquid, vapors, or dusts from

composite operations

Term

15. Besides being assigned to a crash recovery team, as a flight-line crew chief what is your most

likely chance of being affected by the dangers of composite materials?

Definition
15. Aircraft fire.
Term
1. Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD?
Definition

1. Because the damage it causes translates into the loss of resources, money, or, in a worse case scenario,

someone’s life.

Term
2. What can happen when loose objects are blown or washed onto the runway?
Definition
2. An aircraft engine can ingest them into its intake.
Term
3. Who is tasked with the overall responsibility for the FOD prevention program?
Definition
3. WG/CV.
Term
4. Who is responsible for preventing FOD by looking for and removing hazards?
Definition
4. Everyone.
Term
5. What must all workers account for at the beginning and end of each maintenance action?
Definition
5. Tools and hardware
Term

6. If a missing tool is not found after a thorough initial search is completed, who initiates a lost tool

report?

Definition
6. The person issued the item or tool.
Term

7. What must you wear when you are required to physically enter an aircraft engine’s intake or

exhaust?

Definition
7. Pocketless coverall (bunny suit) or equivalent.
Term

8. To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate

repair?

Definition
8. Base airfield manager.
Term
9. What is a dropped object as it relates to aircraft operations?
Definition

9. Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost during aircrew operations from engine start to

engine shutdown, unless intentionally jettisoned.

Term
10. Who must develop a DOPP?
Definition
10. All units that fly, service, or maintain aircraft
Term
11. What are the prime contributors to dropped objects?
Definition
11. Latches and fasteners
Term
12. Who normally must investigate incidents as soon as they are discovered?
Definition
12. QA.
Term
1. What references provide guidance for servicing operations?
Definition
1. AFI 91-203, TO 00-25-172, and specific aircraft TOs.
Term
2. During fuel servicing, what three important points should you keep in mind?
Definition

2. (1) Ensure you use the right grade fuel.

(2) Protect yourself from health hazards.

(3) Prevent fires and explosions.

Term
3. What can result from prolonged fuel saturation on your skin?
Definition
3. Skin can become irritated, and it could progress to a severe rash
Term
4. Why is it important to inspect fire extinguisher seals?
Definition
4. To ensure the extinguisher wasn’t previously discharged
Term
5. What TO(s) lists criteria for positioning fire extinguishers?
Definition
5. 00-25-172 and aircraft specific
Term

6. What’s the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen

servicing?

Definition
6. 50 feet.
Term
7. What should you do if a control valve becomes clogged with ice during LOX servicing?
Definition
7. Thaw it with warm air or water
Term

8. What device is used to help prevent overpressurization of an aircraft component during

pneumatic servicing?

Definition
8. Pressure regulator.
Term

9. Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas

components?

Definition
9. Because of nitrogen’s inert qualities
Term

10. When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, what three measures should you take to prevent

contaminating the aircraft systems?

Definition

10. (1) When servicing with cans or drums ensure cleanliness and product integrity are maintained.

(2) Keep products clearly identified and segregated.

(3) Carefully read all labels before dispensing.

Term
1. What references contain information about ground handling?
Definition
1. Specific aircraft TO, AFI 11-218, AFI 91-203 and TO 00-25-172
Term
2. Where do most aircraft-specific TOs list safe for maintenance precautions?
Definition
2. In the first couple steps of the task.
Term
3. Preparations for aircraft launch include what?
Definition
3. Checking the aircraft forms and obtaining all required AGE.
Term
4. When the aircraft taxis after launch, what tasks are accomplished by the ground controller?
Definition
4. Police the parking area and prepare the AGE for pickup.
Term
5. During recovery, wing walkers are necessary under what conditions?
Definition
5. When taxiing thru congested areas.
Term
6. Why should an aircraft be moved in a straight line for 5 feet after a turn?
Definition
6. To relieve the loads on the main landing gear
Term
7. As a general rule, where should you be positioned for marshalling your aircraft?
Definition
7. In front of the aircraft and to the left of the pilot.
Term
8. When is a safety observer positioned by a parked aircraft?
Definition
8. When any portion of the aircraft extends into an active taxiway
Term
9. When mooring an aircraft, how do you position the aircraft in relation to the wind?
Definition
9. Head the aircraft into prevailing winds
Term
10. What are the usual causes of towing accidents?
Definition
10. Inexperienced personnel and failure to follow correct towing procedures.
Term
11. What’s the minimum number of tow crew members?
Definition
11. Three
Term
12. During towing, why do you start and stop all movements slowly?
Definition
12. Sudden starts and stops may break rivets, bolts, tubing and aircraft structural members.
Term
13. What should you do before towing an aircraft across an active taxiway?
Definition
13. Get clearance from the control tower
Term
14. In addition to your aircraft’s -2 TO, what TO sets down the basic rules for grounding an aircraft?
Definition
14. 00-25-172.
Term
15. What are some of the reasons for jacking an aircraft?
Definition
15. To weigh the aircraft, change a landing gear or gear component, repair a landing gear or gear component,
Term

16. What jacking accessory is positioned under reinforced areas of the aircraft and prevents damage

to the aircraft structure?

Definition
16. Jack pads.
Term
17. If the aircraft TO doesn’t establish it, what’s the maximum wind velocity for a jacking operation?
Definition
17. 15 mph
Term
1. What is the basic function of maintenance?
Definition

To ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission

needs.

Term
2. The degree of maintenance capability depends on what?
Definition

Mission requirements, economics of repair, transportation limitations, component reliability, workload

agreements, facility requirements, frequency of tasks, and special training required.

Term
3. What are the two basic types of maintenance performed at unit level?
Definition

(1) On-equipment.

(2) Off-equipment.

Term
4. What does preventive maintenance on our equipment help ensure?
Definition
It is ready and available when needed.
Term
5. What TO describes preventative maintenance concepts?
Definition
00-20-1.
Term

6. What, if properly used, helps determine where your organization has been, where you are going,

and how (or if) you are going to get there?

Definition
Maintenance Performance Indicators.
Term

7. Which MPI is perhaps the best-known yardstick for measuring a maintenance unit’s

performance?

Definition
MC rate.
Term
8. What are some of the issues that can contribute to a low MC rate?
Definition

Experiencing many hard breaks, parts supportability shortfalls, workforce management issues, or high

commitment rates.

Term
9. Which MPI is perhaps the most important and accurate measure of a unit’s maintenance quality?
Definition
Repeat/recur rate.
Term
10. What can you do to contribute to keeping a low R/R rate?
Definition

Ensure that you always use the proper technical data in all parts of inspecting, troubleshooting, and

repairing aircraft.

Term
11. When are discrepancies considered deferred/delayed?
Definition

They are discovered and the decision is made to defer them; they are scheduled with a start date greater

than five calendar days after the discovery date; or, they are AWPs with a valid off-base requisition.

Term

12. What should you do if you have a lot of DDs and it will be a long time before your aircraft is

scheduled for extended downtime?

Definition

Coordinate with your production superindent and PS&D scheduler to get some downtime scheduled so that

you can fix as many DDs as possible.

Term
1. List three processes of the MDD system.
Definition

(1) Collection.

(2) Storage.

(3) Retrieval.

Term
2. What off-base agencies use the information provided through MDD?
Definition
AFMEA, MAJCOMs, and the DOD.
Term
3. On base, which individuals receive MDD information feedback?
Definition
Base managers and supervisors.
Term

4. Which major command is responsible for the overall material management of Air Force systems

and equipment?

Definition
AFMC.
Term
5. What does ACM provide unit managers the capability to determine?
Definition
Actual versus approved configuration of an aircraft.
Term
6. In what TO can you find the details for recording specific entries of AFTO 781 series forms?
Definition
00-20-1.
Term
7. What AFTO 781 series form is the identification document for the series binder?
Definition
781F.
Term

8. What AFTO 781 series form is used for recording flight time, sorties, or events for input into the

MIS?

Definition
781.
Term
9. Aircraft maintenance status and servicing information is entered on what AFTO 781 series form?
Definition
781H.
Term

10. What AFTO 781 series form is used to record discrepancies discovered by aircrew or

maintenance personnel?

Definition
781A.
Term
11. What AFTO 781 series form is used to record engine oil time?
Definition
781J.
Term

12. What AFTO 781 series form is used to record delayed discrepancies and calendar inspection

information?

Definition
781K.
Term

13. What AFTO 781 series form is a continuation of the calendar and hourly inspection item schedule

shown on AFTO Form 781K?

Definition
781D
Term

14. What AFTO 781 series form contains basic information to aid in making entries on the 781A and

781K forms?

Definition
781M.
Term
15. What is AFTO Form 95 used for?
Definition

For a permanent record of significant maintenance actions on aerospace equipment including engines,

engine modules, and designated MDS specific -6 TO components.

Term

16. What happens to the AFTO Form 95 when you remove and replace a component having an

AFTO Form 95?

Definition
It accompanies the equipment when transferred.
Term
1. What is IMDS designed to give managers?
Definition
Visibility and control of resources at unit level.
Term
2. Which subsystem of IMDS provides the capability to order needed parts?
Definition
IMDS CDB/SBSS.
Term
3. Why are preventive maintenance schedules entered into IMDS?
Definition
To help track and report completion, deviation or rescheduling actions.
Term
4. What IMDS subsystem provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities?
Definition
IMDS JDD.
Term
1. What is the purpose of the initial evaluation?
Definition
To determine what specific tasks the individual is or is not qualified to do.
Term

2. As a trainer, what is your responsibility in cases where a newcomer is qualified on a task required

for the new work center?

Definition
Reverify their qualifications to ensure that they are still proficient to perform that task.
Term
3. What is the purpose of a GAS?
Definition
Enables you to tell the schoolhouse how they are doing.
Term
4. What is a CFETP?
Definition

A comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education and training

requirements, training support resources, core home station training, and deployment/UTC task

requirements for an entire AFS.

Term
5. What type of information is found in Part I of the CFETP?
Definition
Information necessary for overall management of the specialty.
Term

6. In what part and section of the CFETP do you find information that identifies the duties, tasks,

and technical references to support training?

Definition
Part II, section A.
Term
1. What is TBA?
Definition

TBA is an Air Force Portal, web-based application providing Air Force personnel real-time visibility of

qualifications, certifications and status of training.

Term
2. What is the purpose of TBA?
Definition

TBA allows authorized users with ready access to training-related information currently maintained in

many different places and not readily accessible to those who need the information.

Term
3. What is the description of the training manager’s role in TBA?
Definition
This role has oversight of an organization.
Term

____ (1) Ultimately responsible for the personnel assigned.

____ (2) Has the most capability in TBA.

____ (3) All users will have access to this role.

____ (4) Manages one or more workcenters.

____ (5) Initiates task authentication within the ITP.

a. Trainee.

b. Trainer.

c. Flight chief.

d. Commander.

e. Workcenter supervisor.

Definition

(1) d.

(2) e.

(3) a.

(4) c.

(5) b.

Term
1. What makes up a TO library?
Definition

One or more current TOs with all changes, revisions, and supplements maintained on a continuing basis or

a special-purpose library that might contain noncurrent TOs.

Term
2. Where would you find a transient aircraft library?
Definition

On bases where it’s common to service or perform organizational- or intermediate-level maintenance on

aircraft not normally assigned to the base.

Term
3. What information is required on a TO binder?
Definition
Binder number and the contents of the binder.
Term

____(1) Utility aircraft. 

____(2) Trainer aircraft.

____(3) Attack aircraft. 

____(4) Bomber aircraft. 

____(5) Fighter aircraft. 

a. 1B.

 b. 1T.

c. 1F.

d. 1A.

e. 1U.

 

Definition

(1) e.

(2) b.

(3) d.

(4) a.

(5) c.

Term
5. What group of a TO number tells you the type of TO?
Definition
Third group.
Term

Column A Column B

___(1) Maintenance instructions. 

___(2) Flight manual. 

___(3) IPB. .

___(4) WUC manual. 

___(5) Inspection requirements. 

a. -6.

b. -06.

c. -1

d. -4.

e. -2.

Definition

(1) e.

(2) c.

(3) d.

(4) b.

(5) a.

Term
7. What are the functions of groups four through six of a TO number?
Definition
They further subdivide the TO into system and subsystems as applicable.
Term
8. ETIMS is web-based through the Air Force Portal to assist with what TO functions?
Definition
TO catalog search and ordering of TOs and TO account management.
Term
9. What’s the purpose of the LOAP?
Definition
Provides a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific military system and related end items.
Term
1. What are the four major types of TOs?
Definition

(1) Technical manuals.

(2) Abbreviated TOs.

(3) TCTOs.

(4) MPTOs.

Term
2. Describe the types of information found in technical manuals.
Definition

Instructions pertaining to operation, service, maintenance, inspection of complex weapon systems, and

overhaul of component parts.

Term
3. How are the columns in Section I of the TS manual labeled?
Definition
Trouble, Probable Cause, and Remedy.
Term
4. What schematic diagrams are included in Section II of the TS manual?
Definition
Schematics of each related system for that TO.
Term
5. Name three types of abbreviated TOs
Definition

(1) CLs.

(2) WCs.

(3) Charts.

Term
6. Why does the Air Force use abbreviated TOs?
Definition
To simplify use.
Term
7. What are some examples of abbreviated CLs?
Definition
Aircraft towing, aircraft jacking, oxygen servicing, refueling and defueling, and engine run.
Term
8. What type of TO lists minimum inspection requirements?
Definition
WCs.
Term
9. What are the five types of TCTOs covered in the text?
Definition

(1) Immediate action.

(2) Urgent action.

(3) Routine action.

(4) Record.

(5) Interim.

Term
10. Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the first page?
Definition
Immediate action.
Term

11. What type of TCTO is issued for a potentially hazardous condition that could result in injury to

personnel or damage to property?

Definition
Urgent action.
Term

12. Which TCTO is issued for a mechanical condition that would constitute a hazard through

prolonged usage?

Definition
Routine action.
Term
13. Which TCTO does not list step-by-step procedures?
Definition
Record.
Term
14. How are ITCTOs issued?
Definition

By electronic means when urgent circumstances don’t allow for a timely publication of emergency

instructions.

Term
15. What category are MPTOs?
Definition
Category 00 (i.e., TO 00-5-1).
Term
1. What form is used for TO improvement reporting?
Definition
AFTO IMT 22.
Term
2. What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports?
Definition

(1) Emergency.

(2) Urgent.

(3) Routine.

Term
3. Emergency TO improvement reports are submitted for what reason?
Definition

When a fatality, serious injury, extensive damage, or destruction of equipment or property results or if it

affects the ability to achieve or maintain an operational posture, including work stoppage.

Term
4. What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized?
Definition
Urgent.
Term
5. What type of report is for TO deficiencies and is processed within 45 days?
Definition
Routine.
Term
1. What are the two categories of publications?
Definition

(1) Directive.

(2) Nondirective.

Term
2. What type of publication does not list procedures or detailed “how-to” instructions?
Definition
PDs
Term
3. What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force?
Definition
Instruction
Term
4. Which type of directive publication has two categories––departmental and field level?
Definition
Manuals.
Term
5. What is the purpose of an OI?
Definition
To assign responsibility, direct actions, and prescribe procedures.
Term
6. What nondirective publication that explains or instructs can be permanent?
Definition
VA.
Term

7. Where can you find a listing of current Air Force manuals, pamphlets, instructions, and VAs

online?

Definition
Air Force’s E-publishing web site.
Term
1. Information about nonpowered AGE can be found in which technical orders?
Definition
The 35 and 37 series.
Term
2. What are the basic parts of a maintenance stand?
Definition
A base assembly, upper-structure assembly, platform assembly, and, on most stands, a hydraulic system.
Term
3. How is the height of the platform adjusted on the B-1 maintenance stand?
Definition
By the extension and retraction of a hydraulic cylinder assembly
Term

4. Which maintenance stand is best suited for performing maintenance and inspections on the

vertical stabilizer and rudder?

Definition
The B-2.
Term
5. What should you ensure prior to standing on the ladder of a scissors-type maintenance stand?
Definition
The safety pins are installed.
Term
6. What should you do with the wheels of a B-4 or B-5 maintenance stand before towing?
Definition
Lock the rear casters in the fore and aft position to prevent the wheel assembly from swiveling.
Term
7. How is the operation of the model 4000/4100 maintenance trailer controlled?
Definition
Hydraulically.
Term

8. Other than transporting heavy loads, what’s an additional use for the model 3000 transportation

trailer?

Definition
Hold engines while inspections are performed
Term
9. What can happen to an engine that has not been properly supported?
Definition
It could twist or bend, damaging the engine or its sub parts
Term
10. Describe what the two-hand pumps are designed to do in a hydromechanical jack?
Definition

(1) The larger pump is used to raise the plunger at a higher speed to meet the load.

(2) The smaller pump allows for greater ease of lift with a full load engaged.

Term
11. How do you control the speed of lowering a jack?
Definition
By the amount the release valve is opened.
Term
12. Tripod jacks are generally used for what procedures?
Definition

Weighing the aircraft; changing a landing gear or gear component; repairing a landing gear or gear

component; or performing a landing gear retraction check

Term
13. What are some of the uses of the axle jack?
Definition
A tire change, brake change, or wheel/bearing inspection and lubrication.
Term
14. Aircraft oxygen systems are serviced with what two types of oxygen?
Definition

1) Gaseous.

(2) Liquid.

Term
15. What are the properties of LOX?
Definition

Pale blue, water-like substance that flows readily; it boils at –297 °F and expands to 860 times its original

volume when warmed to a gaseous state.

Term
16. How much LOX does the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank hold?
Definition
50 gals.
Term
17. What is the pressure gage range on a TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank?
Definition
0–100 psi
Term

18. What position should the pressure buildup valve on the TMU-27/M LOX mobile storage tank be

in?

Definition
Closed, except when building up tank pressure
Term
19. Why should LOX never be confined in any completely airtight piping or container?
Definition

Because LOX expands 860 times its original volume and the pressure buildup when the liquid expands to

gas will rupture the container.

Term
20. What form is used to track all aircraft oxygen systems serviced with a specific LOX cart?
Definition
AFTO Form 134.
Term
21. What is stenciled in white on the side of each high-pressure gaseous oxygen cylinder bottle?
Definition
AVIATOR’S BREATHING OXYGEN
Term
22. How many oxygen cylinders is the AF/M32R-3 oxygen-servicing trailer designed to transport?
Definition
8
Term
23. What is nitrogen used for in aircraft maintenance?
Definition
Pressure-operated mechanisms.
Term
24. Why is nitrogen the preferred gas for servicing aircraft systems?
Definition

Because it is an inert gas that doesn’t form flammable or explosive mixtures with air or oxygen, nor does it

support combustion.

Term
25. The gaseous nitrogen cart is designed to use what method?
Definition
Cascading
Term
1. What’s the primary function of powered AGE?
Definition

Provides an auxiliary means of external power without operating the aircraft engines, APU (if equipped), or

internal systems to support maintenance activities.

Term
2. What happens to the waste product when the SGNSC separates the nitrogen from the air?
Definition
It becomes enriched with oxygen (about 33% oxygen).
Term
3. What is the purpose of the MC-1A air compressor?
Definition

Provide high- or low-pressure, clean, dry air for servicing aircraft pneumatic systems, hydraulic

accumulators, oleo struts, and tires.

Term
4. How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of producing?
Definition
15 cfm up to 200 psi.
Term
5. How is heat increased or decreased on the H-1 heater?
Definition
By allowing more or less fuel to enter the burner section.
Term
6. How is heating accomplished on the NGH?
Definition
By a 60 Hz alternator that powers a separate oil burner and combustion blower.
Term
7. What is the temperature range of conditioned air provided by the C-10 air conditioner?
Definition
47 °F – 200 °F.
Term
8. From where does the C-10 receive its source of air?
Definition
Hot bleed air from a gas turbine compressor.
Term
9. What’s the electrical power output of the A/M32A-86 generator?
Definition
115/200-volt, 400 Hz , 3-phase.
Term
10. How much air is the A/M32A-60 capable of producing?
Definition
Approximately 150 pounds of air per minute at 50 psi.
Term
11. What source of power is used to start the A/M32A-95 generator?
Definition
Nickel-cadmium battery, or two 12-volt gel pack batteries.
Term
12. How much electrical power can the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight produce?
Definition
120 VAC, 60 Hz.
Term
13. How high can the mast on the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight be raised?
Definition
12 ft.
Term
14. How is power supplied to the MK-3A-3?
Definition
By a 93 hp, 440-volt, 3-phase, 60-cycle, 1,760 rpm electric motor.
Term
15. How is the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand driven?
Definition
By a diesel engine.
Term
16. How are the hydraulic systems designated on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand?
Definition
Primary and secondary.
Term
17. What’s the primary function of a tow vehicle?
Definition
Towing and parking large aircraft.
Term
18. What is the adjustable height and lift capacity of the electric, split deck maintenance platform?
Definition
An adjustable height from 6.7 feet to 36 feet and a lift capacity of 2,000 pounds.
Term
1. What TO covers aircraft hardware?
Definition
1-1A-8.
Term
2. The size of a bolt is stated in what terms?
Definition
Length, diameter, and threads per inch.
Term
3. Define the grip length of a bolt.
Definition
Unthreaded portion.
Term
4. What type of bolt is available with thin heads for use in tight places?
Definition
Hexhead.
Term
5. What kind of bolt is used where shearing or sideways stress occurs?
Definition
Clevis
Term
6. What special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are applied?
Definition
Eyebolt.
Term
7. What feature distinguishes the internal wrenching bolt from other bolts?
Definition
The head is recessed.
Term
8. List three kinds of nonself-locking nuts.
Definition

Any three of the following:

(1) Plain.

(2) Check.

(3) Castle.

(4) Wing.

Term
9. List two uses for plain washers
Definition

Any two of the following:

(1) Provide a smooth bearing surface.

(2) Act as shims in obtaining the correct relationship between threads of the bolt and the nut.

4–39

(3) Adjust the portion of castellated nuts with respect to the drilled cotter pin holes.

(4) Under lockwashers to prevent damage to surfaces of soft material.

Term
10. How are screws usually described?
Definition
10. According to the shape of the head.
Term
11. What type of rivet is usually used for fastening aircraft structures?
Definition
Common, solid shank.
Term
12. What type of aircraft fastener is not designed to carry a structural load?
Definition
Quick-release.
Term
13. How is a cable size determined?
Definition
By the diameter of the cable.
Term
14. Why are some cables coated with a nylon jacket?
Definition
To increase the service life of the cable by keeping lubricants in and dirt out and dampening vibration
Term
15. What is the purpose of a turnbuckle?
Definition
To adjust tension on aircraft cables.
Term
16. Pulleys are made of what?
Definition
Typically molded or machined phenolic of light alloy metal such as aluminum.
Term
17. What keeps cables from coming in contact with structural parts of the aircraft?
Definition
Fairleads
Term
18. What’s the purpose of a pressure seal?
Definition
To prevent the loss of pressure from pressurized areas through which cables pass.
Term

19. What units are used to transmit motion about an axis and to change the direction of force of a

cable or push-pull rod?

Definition
Quadrants and bellcranks
Term
20. What is a control rod?
Definition
A rigid rod that transmits push and pull motions
Term
21. What devices limit the movement of a control surface?
Definition
Stops.
Term
22. Where are torque tubes used in flight control systems?
Definition
Where they’re needed to transmit a twisting force
Term
23. How are aluminum alloy and stainless steel tubing easily distinguished?
Definition
By their different metallic luster; aluminum alloy tubing may be stamped with the actual alloy designation.
Term
24. Where is aluminum-alloy tubing commonly used?
Definition
As a return line
Term
25. Why is stainless steel tubing preferred on external brake lines and other exposed system lines?
Definition
To prevent damage caused by flying gravel and stones and ground-handling accidents
Term
26. What color is an aluminum alloy tube fitting?
Definition
Blue
Term
27. Describe the color-code tape used in identifying hydraulic lines.
Definition
Blue band, a yellow band, and a white band overprinted with a row of black-bordered circles
Term

28. A system line is 38 inches long and passes through a bulkhead. The bulkhead divides the line so

that 25 inches are on one side. How many bands of tape should the line have?

Definition
Three; one on the 13 inch section and two on the 25 inch section.
Term
29. Before you install a tubing assembly, you should inspect it for what conditions?
Definition
Obstructions, dents, scratches, and damage to the flared end.
Term
30. What can result from over-tightening a tubing nut?
Definition
Severe damage to the tubing flare or damage to the sleeve or nut of the fitting.
Term
31. What information can be obtained from the markings on flexible hose?
Definition
The manufacturer’s code number or symbol marking, date of manufacture, size, and specification numbers.
Term
32. What prevents chafing of a hose passing through a bulkhead?
Definition
Bulkhead-type grommets or cushion clips.
Term
33. How should hose connections be made to an engine or engine-mounted accessories?
Definition

Install the hose so 1½ inches of slack or an adequate bend is provided between the last point of support and

the attachment to the engine or accessory

Term
1. What safety-wire method is most commonly used?
Definition
Double-twist
Term
2. Using the double-twist method, how many closely spaced bolts can be safetied in a series?
Definition
No more than you can secure with a 24 inch length of wire.
Term
3. When is 0.032 inch safety cable used to safety parts?
Definition
When parts have a nominal hole diameter of 0.075 inch or smaller.
Term
4. What is a retaining ring?
Definition

A retaining ring is a fastener that holds components onto a shaft or in a housing/bore when installed in a

groove.

Term
5. Where are axially assembled retaining rings installed?
Definition
Installed into machined grooves in housings or on shafts.
Term
6. How are beveled retaining rings held in place?
Definition

Beveled retaining rings feature a beveled or angled edge. This angle allows the ring to wedge itself between

the groove and the retained part until it can go no farther, effectively “locking” everything in place.

Term
7. When are spiral retaining rings used?
Definition
When there is little clearance between the housing and the part to be retained
Term
1. What parts of a Cannon plug ensure connector halves aren’t mismated?
Definition
A key and keyway arrangement in the barrel of the plug and receptacle.
Term
2. AN-type Cannon plugs are being replaced with what type of plugs?
Definition
MS.
Term
3. What TO provides information concerning connector repair?
Definition
1-1A-14.
Term
4. Why is aluminum foil not used as a cover for Cannon plugs?
Definition
May cause a short circuit.
Term
5. Why should you not attempt to remove a Cannon plug’s insert from the shell?
Definition
It is permanently bonded and can’t be removed without destroying it
Term
1. What do torque wrenches measure?
Definition
The force of pull in pounds when tightening hardware; nuts, bolts, clamps, etc.
Term
2. How do indicating-type torque wrenches display the applied torque?
Definition
By a pointer that moves over an indicating scale.
Term

3. What type of torque wrench automatically releases when you apply a predetermined amount of

torque?

Definition
Breakaway
Term

4. How much free travel does the breakaway torque wrench allow when the preset torque level is

reached?

Definition
Approximately 5 to10 degrees.
Term
5. What may happen if you over-tighten a component greater than the value set on a torque wrench?
Definition

It may cause internal damage to the torque wrench, it adds a higher torque value to the part, and part failure

could occur.

Term
6. What is the working range of a breakaway or indicating type torque wrench?
Definition
Not lower than 20 percent and not greater than the rated capacity of the torque wrench
Term
7. When torquing a bolt, to what should you set the torque value?
Definition
The upper limit of the specific torque value allowed by the TO.
Term

8. When you’re using a torque wrench to tighten a series of nuts, do you tighten each nut to the

specified torque before starting to torque the other nuts? Explain.

Definition

No; gradually tighten each until they all meet the specified torque and tighten the nuts opposite of each

other in sequence

Term
9. Before storing a torque wrench, to what setting should you set the grip? Why?
Definition

Lowest; this removes tension from the spring in the handle and preserves the accuracy of the torque

wrench.

Term

10. Torque wrenches should have some kind of label (paper, tape, or other) on the handle. What

information do you determine from this label before using the torque wrench?

Definition
The calibration date.
Term
11. What do you do if you discover that a torque wrench is overdue calibration?
Definition
Don’t use it; turn it in for calibration.
Term
12. What are the two stresses a fastener takes when tightened?
Definition
(1) Torsion, and (2) Tension.
Term
13. Why is breakaway torque measured?
Definition
To ensure product integrity.
Term
14. What is prevailing torque usually associated with?
Definition
Self-locking screws and nuts.
Term
1. What is a multimeter?
Definition
A combined instrument consisting of an ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter
Term
2. What is the major advantage of the Fluke multimeter?
Definition

The ability to take readings without having to look at the display at the same time as you are looking at the

test leads.

Term
3. How many input receptacles does the Fluke meter have?
Definition
Four
Term
4. What are the different Fluke meter modes of operation?
Definition
Range, relative, minimum/maximum, and hold-reset/MIN/MAX.
Term
5. When does the Fluke meter perform a self-test?
Definition
Every time you turn the meter on
Term
6. Which measuring technique should you use for troubleshooting for a loose wire?
Definition
Continuity.
Term
7. What should be done if the digital meter goes from OL to 0 when performing a continuity check?
Definition
Continue using it (this is the normal indication).
Term
1. What is a feeler gauge?
Definition
A tool used to measure the gap between two parts
Term
2. What is incorporated into the feeler gauge case?
Definition
A locking screw.
Term
3. What are three commonly used micrometers?
Definition
Outside micrometers, inside micrometers, depth micrometers
Term
4. What determines a micrometer’s “range”?
Definition
The longest movement possible between the spindle and anvil of the micrometer
Term
5. What do outside calipers measure?
Definition
Outside diameters
Term
6. How are simple calipers adjusted?
Definition
By pulling or pushing the legs to open or close them.
Term
7. What are transfer calipers used for?
Definition
Measuring chamfered grooves or flanges
Term
8. How are slide calipers graduated?
Definition
Inches, fractions, or millimeters.
Term

9. What is used on depth gauges as the reference surface or master standard from which

measurements are taken?

Definition
The supporting block.
Term
10. What must be done to the depth gauge before any measurements are taken?
Definition
You must zero the gauge before measuring any depth.
Term
1. Whose responsibility is supply discipline?
Definition
All military and civilian employees, regardless of grade or position.
Term
2. Why is it important to promptly process repairable items?
Definition

The repairable item is as important as a serviceable item, since the repairable item may be the only part

available.

Term
3. List some examples of bench stock items
Definition
Nuts, bolts, cotter keys, washers, resistors, capacitors, light bulbs, sealants, and batteries.
Term
4. How should operating stock be identified?
Definition

Clearly identify items as “Operating Stock” and label them with their noun, NSN or part number (if

applicable), U/I, and shelf life, if applicable.

Term
5. What is the basic purpose of a QRL?
Definition

To provide maintenance personnel with a speedy identification and communication capability for placing a

demand on a supply

Term
6. What form is normally used to request parts/supplies?
Definition
AF Form 2005
Term
7. What form is used to request items that don’t have an NSN?
Definition
DD Form 1348.
Term
8. What form is used as a control document whenever you loan a tool to another individual?
Definition
AF IMT 1297.
Term
1. What is the primary objective of the repair cycle asset control system?
Definition
To bring about the economy of spares procurement through the effective management of assets
Term
2. When does base supply order a replacement DIFM item?
Definition
When it is determined the unserviceable item cannot be repaired on base, or the item is condemned.
Term
3. What documents are used to control a DIFM item through the repair cycle?
Definition
DD Form 1348 and AFTO Form 350, Part II.
Term
4. When shop action is complete, what form is used to tag the item for turn-in?
Definition
AFTO Form 350.
Term
5. What are the two categories of supply-type items that require turn-in?
Definition

(1) Recoverable.

(2) Consumable.

Term
6. Unserviceable and scrap materiel should not be thrown out, but turned in to whom?
Definition
DRMO.
Term
7. Which part of the AFTO Form 350 serves as a production-scheduling document?
Definition
Part II.
Term
8. Which condition tags and labels are easily identified by their yellow margins and letters?
Definition
DD Forms 1574 and 1574-1.
Term
1. What’s the purpose of deficiency reporting?
Definition
Establish a system to identify, report, and resolve deficiencies.
Term

2. Which DR category, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational

illness?

Definition
CAT I.
Term
3. What DR category identifies a potential enhancement?
Definition
CAT II.
Term
4. What does the engine warranty program guarantee against?
Definition
Defects in AFMC workmanship
Term
5. You submit reports against the engine warranty program IAW what directive?
Definition
TO 00-35D-54
Term
1. What’s the purpose of the planned inspection and maintenance concept?
Definition
Provides a method of performing required inspections and repairs on a scheduled and controlled basis
Term
2. Name the two overall inspection concepts used at base level to inspect aircraft.
Definition
PH and PE
Term

3. Which inspection is due upon the accrual of the number of flying hours or operating hours, or at

the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable MDS-specific -6 technical order,

and is more extensive in scope than the HPO inspection or BPO inspections?

Definition
PE
Term
4. What is the primary object of the PH inspection concept?
Definition

To reduce the amount of time an aircraft is out of commission from a normal flight schedule for any given

inspection package.

Term
5. Which inspection concept consists of the HSC, major, and minor inspections?
Definition
Isochronal.
Term

6. Describe and briefly explain the use of the two primary aids of the planned inspection and

maintenance concept.

Definition

(1) Inspection WCs outline minimum inspection requirements.

(2) SCs depict a basic planned work schedule and sequence in which the inspection WCs can be used.

Term
7. How are WCs sequenced?
Definition
In the most logical or practical order of accomplishment
Term
1. What TOs cover aircraft inspection concepts?
Definition
00-20-1 and the aircraft -6 TO.
Term
2. What inspection is performed to ensure that no serious defects or malfunctions exist?
Definition
PR
Term
3. What inspection is performed just prior to takeoff?
Definition
EOR.
Term
4. What type of inspection is performed between flights?
Definition
TH
Term
5. When is a BPO inspection performed?
Definition
After the last flight of the specified flying period.
Term

6. If an aircraft is out of commission for more than 30 consecutive days, what minimum inspection

is required before the aircraft is returned to operational status?

Definition
A BPO.
Term
7. Who determines the additional requirements for a 90-day NO FLY calendar inspection?
Definition
MXG/CC
Term
8. Give three occasions when a special inspection may be required.
Definition

(1) After a specified number of flying/equipment hours.

(2) Following the lapse of a specific calendar time.

(3) After the occurrence of a specific or unusual event.

Term
9. When is an acceptance inspection performed?
Definition
When an aircraft is newly assigned to an organization and on all aircraft and engines received from depot.
Term
10. Under what two conditions must we comply with time replacement items?
Definition

(1) After accrual of a specific interval of time.

(2) Following the occurrence of a specific or unusual condition.

Term
1. Why do you make periodic checks of accountable equipment on aircraft?
Definition
To maintain control and serviceability of equipment
Term
2. Which form is used to transfer aircraft -21 equipment through transportation channels?
Definition
DD Form 1149.
Term
3. What form is used to indicate the physical presence or absence of aircraft -21 equipment?
Definition
AF IMT 2691.
Term

4. When aircraft -21 equipment is transferred with an aircraft, which form is used as a receipt

document for the organization receiving the equipment?

Definition
AF IMT 2692.
Term
1. When is a weight and balance update required?
Definition

Anytime a component weighs more than 5 pounds or causes more than a 0.1 percent change in CG is

removed or installed.

Term
2. Who updates the weight and balance?
Definition
QA personnel must update the aircraft weight and balance records to check and show the CG difference.
Term
3. What is the DD Form 365-1; CHART A used for?
Definition

This form lists all equipment and other items that are or may be installed, and for which provisions or fixed

stowage has been made in a definite location in the aircraft.

Term
4. The DD Form 365-3; CHART C is used for what?
Definition

All changes to the aircraft basic weight and moment regardless of the size shall be recorded (typed or

clearly written in ink) on the Chart C to keep it correct and up-to-date

Term
5. When is an aircraft in balance?
Definition

When all weight items in, on, or of the aircraft are distributed so that the longitudinal CG of the aircraft lies

within a predetermined CG range.

Term
6. What is the definition of arm?
Definition
The distance of a weight from a reference datum
Term
1. What is the definition of battle damage?
Definition
Damage sustained during combat operations
Term
2. What are the repair standards designed to do?
Definition

To last for the projected aircraft life, restore structural members to their original strength and return all

aircraft system components to a like-new condition.

Term
3. What are the three fundamental preparations of ABDR?
Definition

(1) Allowing the use of time-saving temporary repairs on certain types of damage.

(2) Training maintenance personnel in the skills and techniques required to effect rapid repairs.

(3) Provisioning the material necessary to accomplish rapid combat maintenance.

Term
4. What has been a critical and decisive factor in successful military campaigns?
Definition
The ability to quickly return battle damaged weapon systems to combat.
Term
5. Who accomplishes aircraft battle damage assessments?
Definition
Only fully qualified assessors from MAJCOM approved aircraft maintenance specialties.
Term
1. What is corrosion?
Definition
The electrochemical deterioration of a metal due to its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment
Term
2. What happens to iron exposed to moist air?
Definition
Returns to its natural state––iron oxide or rust
Term

Column A

____ (1) Produced by the effects of an alternating cyclic

stress and corrosive environment.

____ (2) Numerous worm-like traces of corrosion beneath

the paint film.

____ (3) First seen as a general dulling of the surface.

____ (4) Indicated by a lifting up or swelling the surface

grains of a metal.

____ (5) Resembles a white or gray powdery, dust-like

deposit on the surface of the metal.

____ (6) Occurs when different metals are in contact.

____ (7) Is a selective attack along a metal’s grain boundaries.

____ (8) Appears as corroded cracks in the metal.

____ (9) May occur when a foreign material covers a surface.

Column B

a. Uniform surface.

b. Pitting.

c. Intergranular.

d. Exfoliation.

e. Crevice/concentration cell.

f. Stress.

g. Corrosion fatigue.

h. Galvanic.

i. Filiform.

Definition

(1) g.

(2) i.

(3) a.

(4) d.

(5) b.

(6) h.

(7) c.

(8) f.

(9) e.

Term
4. Which TO contains detailed instructions for corrosion prevention and treatment?
Definition
1-1-691
Term
5. Corrosion is removed using what overall method or technique?
Definition
By the mildest effective technique
Term
1. The frequency of aircraft cleaning depends on what?
Definition
The type of aircraft and the environmental conditions to which the aircraft is exposed.
Term
2. What factors should be considered when selecting a cleaner?
Definition

Type and amount of soil to be removed, material size and surface condition of the part, and degree of

cleanliness required.

Term
3. What is the most common type of solvent cleaner used on the aircraft?
Definition
MIL-PRF-680, Type II.
Term
4. What is the preferred type of cleaner for cleaning the interior cockpit, floor, and deck area?
Definition
MIL-PRF-85570, Type II
Term
5. How do you clean optical glass?
Definition

Spray the cleaner onto a flannel cloth, carefully wipe the lens surface, and then wipe dry with a clean

flannel cloth

Term
6. What solution is used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery?
Definition
Bromothymol Blue
Term

7. What cleaning agent is used to clean light and moderate soils from the painted exterior of the

aircraft?

Definition
MIL-PRF-85570, Type I or Type II, or MIL-PRF-87937, Type II or IV.
Term
8. What procedure do you use to clean landing gear’s exposed pistons?
Definition
Clean with a clean cloth dampened with hydraulic fluid; wipe away from seals
Term
9. When outside temperatures are below 40 °F, where should the aircraft be cleaned?
Definition
In an indoor heated wash rack
Term
10. What should you do if cleaner is splashed in your eyes?
Definition
Rinse your eyes thoroughly with fresh water for 15 minutes and report to the nearest medical facility
Term
11. What are the purposes of lubrication?
Definition

To prevent wear between moving parts, fill air spaces, displaces water, and provides a barrier against

corrosive media.

Term
12. What type of information is found on a lubrication chart?
Definition
Items to be lubricated, type of lubricant, and method of application
Term
13. When can you apply a lubricant to a corroded surface?
Definition
Never.
Term
14. How do you properly lubricate all aircraft grease fittings?
Definition
Force grease into fittings until new grease is evident.
Term

15. In addition to your specific aircraft TO, where are safety and maintenance precautionary

measures found?

Definition
TO 1-1-691
Term
16. Since various hazardous materials are used during lubrication, what should be used at all times?
Definition
PPE
Term

17. Why should you not wear rings, watches, or other metallic objects during cleaning/lubing your

aircraft?

Definition
Keep from getting caught in moving parts.
Supporting users have an ad free experience!