Term
List three properties of Vancomycin. |
|
Definition
1) Not commonly used in veterinary medicine (Used to treat MRSA in human medicine)
2) Good against gram-positives
3) Given orally only for a specific Clostridium, otherwise given IV |
|
|
Term
List four side effects of Vancomycin.
|
|
Definition
1) Thrombophlebitis
2) Febrile reactions
3) Ototoxicity
4) Nephrotoxicity |
|
|
Term
In what animals, for what diseases in Spectinomycin most commonly used? |
|
Definition
1) Chicks and turkey poulets for susceptible organisms
2) Baby pigs under 4 wks and under 15 lbs. for E. coli scours
3) Cattle for respiratory disease from Haemophilus and Pasteurella (not for veal calves or dairy cows) |
|
|
Term
Give two trade names and one side effect for Spectinomycin. |
|
Definition
1) Spectam and Adspec
2) swelling at injection site |
|
|
Term
In what forms are polymyxin B and bacitracin most commonly used? |
|
Definition
Topicals and opthalmics, often in combination with neomycin |
|
|
Term
T/F--Suphonamides kill bacteria. |
|
Definition
False-They are bacteriostatic |
|
|
Term
What are two side effects of Polymyxin B and under what circumstances do they occur? |
|
Definition
1) Neurotoxicity
2) Nephrotoxicity
if given parenterally |
|
|
Term
What is a side effect of Bacitracin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What three things can be added to sulphas to make them bacteriocidal and what are the names of the three products of these combinations? |
|
Definition
1) Trimethoprim
2) Pyrimethamine
3) Ormetoprim
create sulfadiazine, sulfaisoxazole, and sulfadimethoxine |
|
|
Term
What are three dosage forms of sulphonamides? |
|
Definition
1) Tribrissen
2) Primor
3) Albon |
|
|
Term
What are some side effects of sulphonamides? |
|
Definition
1) urticaria
2) vomiting and diarrhea
3) anorexia
4) fever
5) kidney damage due to crystal formation in carnivores
6) thrombocytopenia
7) leukopenia
8) anemia
9) photosensitivity
10) KCS |
|
|
Term
What sulphonamide is used primarily for colitis for its anti-inflammatory effect? |
|
Definition
Sulfasalazine-related to aspirin so must be used with extreme caution in cats |
|
|
Term
Why are nitrofurans a good antibiotic for urinary tract infections? |
|
Definition
It is broad spectrum and filtered quickly through the glomerulus. |
|
|
Term
List five uses for Nitrofurans other than for urinary tract infections. |
|
Definition
1) Topical wound treatment
2) Enteritis in pigs
3) Coccidiosis in chickens
4) Pink eye in cattle, sheep, goats
5) Eye and ear infections in dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
What are the two catagories of treatment with antifungals? |
|
Definition
1) treatment of superficial fungal infections of the skin and mucous membranes diagnosed by culture, identification or hyphae
2) treatment of systemic fungal infections-blood, lungs, CNS diagnosed through serology |
|
|
Term
What are the four classes of antifungals? |
|
Definition
1) polyene
2) imidazole
3) antimetabolic
4) superficial |
|
|
Term
What are the two most common polyene antifungals? |
|
Definition
1) Amphoteracin B
2) Nystatin |
|
|
Term
What are five adverse effects of Amphoteracin B? |
|
Definition
1) nephrotoxicity (most common)
2) anorexia
3) anemia
4) fever
5) vomiting
6) seizures
7) cardiac arrest |
|
|
Term
How is Amphoteracin B most commonly administered?
|
|
Definition
IV by diluting it in 5% dextrose
also available in a SQ formulation |
|
|
Term
Nystatin is most commonly used to treat what? |
|
Definition
Candida infections of the skin, mucous membranes and GI tract |
|
|
Term
List three common imidazoles and how they are most commonly used. |
|
Definition
1) Ketaconazole-oral and topical
2) Miconazole-parenteral and topical
3) Clotrimazole-topical |
|
|
Term
What is the main adverse effect of ketaconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are five adverse effects of of imidazoles? |
|
Definition
1) tachycardia
2) arrhythmia
3) fever
4) nausea
5) thrombophelbitis after IV administration |
|
|
Term
What is the newest drug in the imidazole class? |
|
Definition
Intraconazole-used to treat systemic fungal infections |
|
|
Term
Fluocystine is what type of antifungal? |
|
Definition
Antimetabolic-fungistatic
used in combination with others to treat yeasts |
|
|
Term
Fluocystine should not be used in animals with what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are four adverse effects of fluocystine? |
|
Definition
1) Bone marrow depression
2) Anemia
3) Leukopenia
4) Thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
What is griseofulvin used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Griseofulvin has what side effect in cats and which animals should it not be used on? |
|
Definition
1) Hepatotoxicity
2) Pregnant or breeding animals-produces congenital defects |
|
|
Term
What two species is Acyclovir used in? |
|
Definition
1) birds
2) cats with confirmed ocular herpes that is untreatable with other medication |
|
|
Term
What are the adverse effects of Acyclovir? |
|
Definition
Cats-leukopenia and anemia
Birds-tissue necrosis at injection site |
|
|
Term
What is Interferon Alfa-2A used to treat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cholinergic agent that helps empty the urinary bladder by increasing the tone of the detruser muscle in the bladder |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces production of uric acid, which can help control urate uroliths |
|
|
Term
Methionine and ammonium chloride are both? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe Phenylpropanolamine |
|
Definition
alpha-adrenergic agonist used to increase urethral tone to prevent leaking of urine |
|
|
Term
What does DES stand for and what does it treat? |
|
Definition
Diethylstilbestrol-estrogen-control urine leaking in hormone responsive incontinence common in spayed female dogs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
loop diuretic that inhibits tubular reabsorption of sodium and increases the excretion of potassium, chloride and water. |
|
|
Term
What makes Spirolactone different from other diuretics? |
|
Definition
it is a potassium-sparing diuretic |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Periods of altered brain function characterized by loss of consciousness, increased muscle tone or movement, altered sensations and other neurologic changes. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Convulsions are seizures that manifest themselves as spastic muscle movement caused by stimulation of motor nerves in the brain or spinal cord. |
|
|
Term
List and define the three phases of a seizure. |
|
Definition
1) Preictal phase (aura): prior to actual seizure; anxiety; panting; pacing that can last minutes to hours
2) Ictal phase: generalized seizure (grand mal) or partial seizure (petit mal).
3) Postictal phase: after the seizure has subsided when the animal appears to be tired, confused, and maybe even blind. Lasts seconds to hours. |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for long-term seizure control? |
|
Definition
Phenobarbital (measured in grains) given SID or BID |
|
|
Term
What are the adverse effects of Phenobarbital? |
|
Definition
Short-term: sedation or ataxia
Long-term: inhibits ADH so PU/PD; hepatotoxicity
will always see some elevation of liver enzymes with use |
|
|
Term
T/F-Diazepam works better in dogs than in cats for seizure control. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a danger with potassium bromide? |
|
Definition
Narrow therapeutic index so effective dose is close to dose that is toxic. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anticonvulsant that produces phenobarbital as it is metabolized but is more likely to cause hepatotoxicity. |
|
|
Term
Why are benzodiazepines not a good choice for long-term seizure control? |
|
Definition
They have to be given several times a day and animals develop a tolerance |
|
|
Term
What category of drugs are the most common tranquilizers in veterinary medicine? |
|
Definition
Phenothiazines such as acepromazine and chlorpromazine espcially for fear responses to thunderstorms, firecrackers, trips to the vet, etc. |
|
|
Term
How do tricyclic antidepressants work? |
|
Definition
Affect the uptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft so activity is prolonged but also have an effect of norepinephrine reuptake. |
|
|
Term
What is the veterinary labeled tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the common side effects of TCAs? |
|
Definition
Tachycardia, heart block, mydriasis, dry mouth, constipation, urine retention, reduced tear production, sedation |
|
|
Term
What are four clinical uses of TCAs? |
|
Definition
1) general anxiety
2) separation anxiety
3) obsessive-compulsive disorders
4) marking behavior in cats |
|
|
Term
How do serotonin reuptake inhibitors work? |
|
Definition
Antidepressant that selectively affects serotonin uptake for fewer side effects. |
|
|
Term
What are four clinical uses for SSRIs? |
|
Definition
1) anxiety
2) aggression
3) obsessive-compulsive behaviors
4) urine marking |
|
|
Term
What is the veterinary form of a monamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)? |
|
Definition
Selegiline with brand name of Anipryl to treat Cushing's and canine cognitive disorder. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do benzodiazepines work? |
|
Definition
Increase stimulation of neuroreceptors for GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter that depresses the CNS |
|
|
Term
What is the most commonly used azapirone? |
|
Definition
Buspirone (BuSpar) used for fear/anxiety and for urine spraying/marking |
|
|
Term
What was a commonly used progestin and why is it not used anymore? |
|
Definition
Megestrol acetate (Ovaban) used for aggression, inappropriate elimination and skin problems
Not used anymore because causes hyperglycemia leading to diabetes, adrenal suppresion, endometrial hyperplasia and most significantly mammary tumors and hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
An enzyme that reduces the effectvieness of certain antibiotics by breaking down the beta-lactate ring
beta-lactamase I-penicillinase
beta-lactamase II-cephalosporinase |
|
|
Term
What is the most common culture test used to determine sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the antibiotic that works best in vitro may not be the one that works best in vivo? |
|
Definition
The antibiotic may not be able to reach the infection depending on where it is located in the body |
|
|
Term
What is the MIC of an antibiotic? |
|
Definition
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration: the lowest concentration of the antibiotic that inhibits growth of the bacterium |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
They bind with enzymes called penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) outside the bacterial cell membrane that are involved in cell wall sysnthesis and cell division-ruptures cell |
|
|
Term
What bacteria is especially likely to produce beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F-Penicillins are typically effective against gram-positives but not against gram negatives. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which penicillins must be given IM? |
|
Definition
1) procaine pen. G
2) benzathine penicillins |
|
|
Term
Which penicillin cannot be given orally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which two penicillins may be given IV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List three problems with using penicillin. |
|
Definition
1) Don't cross the blood-brain barrier easily
2) cause more allergic reactions than other antibiotics
3) Cause GI problems because normal, good intestinal flora are destroyed allowing overgrowth of some undesirable microbes |
|
|
Term
How do cephalosporins work? |
|
Definition
Interfere with cell wall synthesis and bid with proteins in the cell wall |
|
|
Term
Which generations of cephalosporins have less sensitivity to beta-lactamase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F-Animals that react to penicillins are less likely to react to cephalosporins than animals that do not react to penicillins. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cephalosporin is given by injection to large animals, even dairy cows, as well as chicks and turkeys to control E. coli? |
|
Definition
Ceftiofur sodium-Naxcell
3rd generation |
|
|
Term
What is the third generation cephalosporin that can be given orally? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are tetracyclines bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic? |
|
Definition
Bacteriostatic, though can be bacteriocidal at high doses |
|
|
Term
What are three adverse effects of tetracyclines? |
|
Definition
1) Affect bone and teeth formation in young animals causing yellow staining of the teeth
2) May cause "drug fever" in cats
3) Hepatotoxic in high doses |
|
|
Term
Aminoglycosides should be used to treat gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are three side effects of aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
Main: nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
also neuromuscular synaptic dysfunction |
|
|
Term
How should aminoglycosides be administered? |
|
Definition
Parenterally, although neomycin can be absorbed orally |
|
|
Term
What are aminoglycosides most commonly used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of bacteria are aminoglycosides effective against? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What three things should you NOT do with aminoglycosides? |
|
Definition
1) Do not use with neuromuscular blocking agents
2) Do not use if animal has any renal problems or is on furosemide
3) Do not mix in a syringe with other medications |
|
|
Term
Name four dosage forms of aminoglycosides. |
|
Definition
1) Gentamicin: Gentocin
2) Amikacin: Amiglyde-V
3) Kanamycin-Kantrim
4) Neomycin-Biosol |
|
|
Term
Fluoroquinolones are approved for what five species? |
|
Definition
1) Dogs
2) Cats
3) Turkeys
4) Chickens
5) Cattle |
|
|
Term
Fluoroquinolones are often used off-label in what type of animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are fluoroquinolones especially effective against? |
|
Definition
Staph and Pseudomonas (bacterium with fruity odor) |
|
|
Term
What are three adverse effects of fluoroquinolones? |
|
Definition
1) formation of lesions in articular cartilage in young dogs in the rapid growth phase
2) CNS stimulation and precipitate seizures
3) retinal changes in cats resulting in blindness |
|
|
Term
Fluoroquinolones are contraindicated in what animals? |
|
Definition
Large breeds up to 12 months of age and in small and medium dogs up to 8 months of age |
|
|
Term
What dosage of fluoroquinolones should be used in cats to reduce chance of retinal changes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List four common dosage forms of fluoroquinolones. |
|
Definition
1) Ciprofloxacin-Cipro
2) Enrofloxacin-Baytril
3) Marbofloxacin-Zeniquin
4) Orbifloxacin-Orbax |
|
|
Term
What is the main benefit of chloramphenicol? |
|
Definition
Can cross blood-brain barrier |
|
|
Term
Why should chloramphenicol not be used in food animals? |
|
Definition
It can cause aplastic anemia in people |
|
|
Term
What is the main side effect of chloramphenicol in animals? |
|
Definition
Blood dyscrasias, especially in cats due to myelosuppression |
|
|
Term
Florfenicol is most often used to treat? |
|
Definition
Bovine respiratory disease such as Pastuerella and Haemophilus |
|
|
Term
What is the dosage form of florfenicol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What dosage protocol is approved for florfenicol? |
|
Definition
Two IM injections given 48 hours apart with a 28 day withdrawal time |
|
|
Term
Florfenicol is not approved for what animals? |
|
Definition
Dairy cows over 20 months of age or veal calves |
|
|
Term
Macrolides are good against what type of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the macrolide that can cause cardiac arrest in humans if accidentally injected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are four clinical uses for lincosamides? |
|
Definition
1) Dental infections
2) Osteomyelitis
3) Abcesses
4) Deep pyodermas |
|
|
Term
What animals should not be given lincosamides? |
|
Definition
Egg layers, breeders, rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, horses-can cause serious GI problems and death |
|
|
Term
What is the most commonly used lincosamide? |
|
Definition
Clindamycin: Antirobe
good against anerobic bacteria |
|
|
Term
What antimicrobial is used to treat giardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are three clinical uses of Rifampin? |
|
Definition
1) Treat Corynebacterium equi in foals
2) Treat some Streps
3) Used with amphotericin B to treat histo, blasto and aspergillus |
|
|
Term
What is the main side effect of Rifampin? |
|
Definition
Turns tears, urine, saliva and sweat reddish-orange. |
|
|