Term
| What is the predominant general fxn of the Radial N? |
|
Definition
| Arm and forearm extension |
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Term
| What does the Radial N innervate? (**Radio is the BEST) |
|
Definition
B- Brachioradialis
E- Extensors of wrist and fingers
S- Supinator
T- Triceps |
|
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Term
| What nerve is affected in "Saturday Night Palsy"? Where is it compressed? |
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Definition
| Radial Nerve in the spiral groove of the humerous |
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Term
| What are th characteristics of the "claw hand" and what nerve is affected? |
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Definition
| Ulnar Nerve. Cannot flex DIP joints of 4th and 5th digits, atrophy of interosseus muscles |
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Term
| What nerve is affected in the "Hand of Benediction"? |
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Definition
| Median Nerve: Loss of PIP flexion in digits 1-3, loss of DIP flexion of 2,3. "Pope's blessing" |
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Term
| If you are unable to oppose your thumb, what nerve is injured? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Injury to what nerve causes wrist drop? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Injury to what nerve causes winging of the scapula? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Injury to what nerve causes loss of forearm pronation? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What nerve is injured if you can't adduct/abduct fingers? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is injured if you can't abduct your arm? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is prodominantly responsible for arm and forearm flexion? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve injury results in trouble initiating arm abduction? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve runs with the Posterior Circumflex Artery? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve runs with the Deep Brachial Artery? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve runs with the Brachial Artery? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve runs with the Posterior Interosseous Artery? |
|
Definition
| Deep branch of the Radial N |
|
|
Term
| What nerve is most at risk in an injury to the shaft of the humerous? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What nerve is most at risk in an injury to the surgical neck of the humerous? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What nerve is most at risk in an injury to the supracondyle of the humerous? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is most at risk in an injury to the medial epicondyle? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is most at risk in an injury in an anterior shoulder dislocation? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What nerve is most at risk in an injury to the carpal tunnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If there is a midshaft break in the humerous, what vessel/nerve is expected to be affected? |
|
Definition
| Radial N and Deep Brachial A |
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|
Term
| Injury to what section of the Brachial Plexus leads to Erb-Duchenne palsy? |
|
Definition
| Injury to the Superior Trunk |
|
|
Term
| What muscle does the Long Thoracic N innervate? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which nerve innervates the Latissimus Dorsi? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Where does new bone formation take place in growing long bones? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What makes up the "unhappy triad" knee injury? |
|
Definition
1.ACL
2.MCL
3.Medial meniscus |
|
|
Term
| Which rotator cuff muscle? initiating the first 15 degrees of arm abduction |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which rotator cuff muscle? Lateral rotation of the arm |
|
Definition
| "TI" Infraspinatous and teres minor |
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Term
| Which rotator cuff muscle? medial rotation of the arm |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the lesion called when there is a posterolateral hunerol head defect due to abrasion against the anterior rim of the glenoid? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which segment of the muscle sarcomere consists ONLY of thick filaments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which segment of the muscle sarcomere consists ONLY of thin filaments? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component of the muscle sarcomere stays constant even with contraction? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 2 receptors are involved in the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? |
|
Definition
| Dihydroperidine and ryanodine receptors |
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|
Term
| Which drug inhibits ryanidine receptors? What is it used for? |
|
Definition
| Dantrolene, used for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome and Malignant Hyperthermia |
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|
Term
| Which bony disease? reversible when Vit D is replaced? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bony disease? excess osteoclastic activity results in disorganized bony architecture |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bony disease? bone is replaced by fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae |
|
Definition
| Polyostic Fibrous Dysplasia (PFD) |
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|
Term
| Which bony disease? soft bones due to defective mineralization of osteoid |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bony disease? failure of bone resorption, thickened and dense bone |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which bony disease? genetic deficiency of Carbonic Anhydrase II |
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Definition
|
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Term
| How is achondroplasia inherited and what gene is it associated with? |
|
Definition
| Autosomal Dominant, associated w/ advanced paternal age. Involves FGF-R (fibroblastic growth factor receptor) |
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|
Term
| Which bone dz is associated with "brown tumors"? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 2 conditions that manifest as Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica? |
|
Definition
1. Hyperparathyroidism
2. Albright's Hereditary Osteodystrophy |
|
|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate, ALP, and PTH? Osteoporosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate, ALP, and PTH? Osteopetrosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate, ALP, and PTH? Osteomalacia |
|
Definition
Primary problem = decreased Ca2+
Increased: PTH
Decreased: Phosphate
**ALP is normal |
|
|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate, ALP, and PTH? Osteitis fibrosa cystica |
|
Definition
Primary problem = Increased PTH
Increased: Ca2+ and ALP
Decreased: Phosphate |
|
|
Term
| How does PTH affect serum calcium? Serum phosphate? |
|
Definition
| PTH pulls Ca2+ from the bone and resorbs it from the kidney to increase serum Ca2+. PTH TRASHES phosphate (ie. causes its excretion into urine), thus decreasing serum phosphate |
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|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate, ALP, and PTH? Paget's Dz |
|
Definition
| Only ALP is increased, everything else is normal |
|
|
Term
| What is McCune Albright syndrome a form of what bone disease? What are its 3 main features? |
|
Definition
it is a form of Polyostic Fibrous Dysplasia (PFD)...
1. precocious puberty
2. cafe au lait spots
3. fibrous dysplasia of bone |
|
|
Term
| Why is Albright's Osteodystrophy considered "Pseudohypoparathyroidism"? |
|
Definition
| There is actually an increase in PTH, but the kidneys are resistant to its effects, so Ca2+ is lost and phosphate is retained. Causes osteitis fibrosa cystica bc PTH activity is concentrated on bone |
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|
Term
| What is a disease condition that can cause Vit D toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate,and PTH? Vitamin D |
|
Definition
Increases serum Ca2+ AND phosphate
Decreases PTH |
|
|
Term
| Levels of serum Ca2+, Phosphate,and PTH? Renal failure |
|
Definition
| PTH is increased but has no effect, so phosphate is increased and Ca2+ is lost in the urine |
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|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? most common primary malignant bone tumor in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Most common malignant primary bone tumor in adults |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Most common benign bone tumor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? 11;22 translocation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Soap bubble appearance on xray |
|
Definition
| Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma) |
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Onion skin appearance of bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? May actually be a hamartoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Codman's triangle on xray |
|
Definition
| osteosarcoma (could also be pyogenic osteomyelitis) |
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Associated w/ Gardner's syndrome |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? spindle shaped cells with multinucleated giant cells |
|
Definition
| Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma) |
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Homer-Wright pseudorosettes often seen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What primary bone tumor? Anaplastic small blue cells |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Condition with which Baker's cysts may be seen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In addition to NSAIDs, what else can you use in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many criteria out of 11 must you meet to be diagnosed w/ SLE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the components of CREST syndrome? What is the associated antibody? |
|
Definition
C- calcinosis
R- Raynaud's
E- Esophageal dysmotility
S- sclerodactyly
T- Telangiectasia
....associated w/ anti-Centromere antibodies |
|
|
Term
| Describe the crystals seen in pseudogout... |
|
Definition
| Rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate, weakly (+) birefringent |
|
|
Term
| Describe the crystals of gout |
|
Definition
| monosodium urate crystals, negatively birefringent...yellow crystals under parallel light |
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? pruritic, purple, polygonal, papules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? life threatening rash with bulla (2) |
|
Definition
| Stevens-Johnson and Pemphigus Vulgaris |
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? Pruritis associated w/ asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? Pruritic vesicles associated w/ celiac's dz |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? allergy to nickel |
|
Definition
| contact dermatitis (type IV hypersensitivity) |
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? Thickened hypertrophic scar esp around head and neck |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? Antibodies against epidermal basement membrane |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? antibodies against epidermal cell surface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? parakeratotic scarring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? keratin-filled cysts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? feels like sandpaper under the skin, predisposition to squamous cell carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? skin rash w/ proximal muscle weakness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? honey-crusted lesions around the nose and lips |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? hyperkeratosis and koilocytosis |
|
Definition
| Verrugae of HPV (warts, 6,11) |
|
|
Term
| Which skin disorder? histology shows palisading nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 classic symptoms of sjogrens dz? |
|
Definition
| xerostomia, dry eyes, arthritis (can't see, can't spit, can't climb up shit) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common location of tophi? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs are used in the treatment of acute gout? Of chronic gout? |
|
Definition
Acute: indomethacin and colchicine
Chronic: Allopurinol and probenacid |
|
|
Term
| Which antibody is diffuse scleroderma associated with? |
|
Definition
| Anti-Scl (anti-topoisomerase) |
|
|
Term
| What is the antibody associated w/ polymositis and dermatomyositis? What else will you see on labs? |
|
Definition
Anti-Jo (also +ANA)
Increase CK and aldolase |
|
|
Term
| What is erythema nodosum? |
|
Definition
| Painful inflammation of the subcutaneous fat |
|
|
Term
| What unique finding do you see on joint Xrays of pts w/ pseudogout? |
|
Definition
| Chondrocalcinosis: calcium deposits in cartilage |
|
|
Term
| How do the joints affected by gout differ from those affected in pseudogout? |
|
Definition
| Gout often presents with a painful big toe whereas pseudogout usually affects larger joints, like the knee |
|
|
Term
| What are two ways in which a goutty attack may be precipitated? |
|
Definition
| After a large meal or after alcohol consumption |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 seronegative (RF-)sponyloarthropathies? What HLA are they associated with? |
|
Definition
"PAIR" HLA-B27
1. Psoriatic arthritis
2. Ankylosing spondylitis
3. IBD
4. Reiter's syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Why are false (+) seen on RPR/VDRL tests in pts who have lupus? |
|
Definition
| Antiphospolipid antibodies that cross-react w/ the cardiolipin used in the tests |
|
|
Term
| What spondyloarthropathy is associated w/ the "pencil in cup" deformity seen on x-ray? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What happens to the level of CK in Polymyalgia rheumatica? |
|
Definition
| It is NORMAL, bc it is a joint disease NOT a muscle dz like the name implies |
|
|
Term
| What two muscles are the ABductors of the arm? What are they innervated by? |
|
Definition
| Arm abductors: deltoid (axillary N) and supraspinatus (Suprascapular N)....the nerves arise f/ the upper truck and posterior cord |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 movements is the Peroneal N responsible for? pneumonic |
|
Definition
| "PED"...Peroneal: Eversion, Dorsiflexion |
|
|
Term
| Which 2 movements is the Tibial N responsible for? pneumonic |
|
Definition
| "TIP"...Tibial: Inversion, Plantarflexion |
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