Term
how do kidneys selectively conserve/excrete fluids and electrolytes? |
|
Definition
- ultrafiltration of plasma by glomerulus
- selective tubular reabsorption of water and solutes
- selective tubular secretion of solutes
|
|
|
Term
what are the metabolic functions of the kidney? |
|
Definition
- Glycogen storage
- Renin production
- Acid-Base balance
- Toxin and drug excretion
- Erythropoietin production
- activation of vitamin D to calcitriol
|
|
|
Term
what is azotemia? what is uremia? |
|
Definition
azotemia- the buildup of nitrogenous wastes such as BUN and/or creatinine.
uremia-the clinical signs associated with renal failure (loss of appetite, vomiting, oral ulceration, oral bleeding, uremic breath) |
|
|
Term
describe pre-renal azotemia |
|
Definition
decreased renal perfusion (severe dehydration, hypotension, heart failure), or increased production of urea (GI bleeding, hi protein diet); kidneys may be normal |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
generalized kidney dysfunction; kidneys abnormal |
|
|
Term
describe post-renal azotemia |
|
Definition
interference with urine excretion (obstruction, urinary tract rupture); kidneys may be normal |
|
|
Term
________ is when the frequency of urination is increased, while _______is the increase in total volume of urine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are five useful questions to ask a client? |
|
Definition
- daily water consumption (general volume)
- volume of urine passed
- time taken to urinate
- frequency of urination (and when/where)
- force and color of urine stream
|
|
|
Term
smaller animals tend to require ______water per unit body weight. Water consumption also depends on: |
|
Definition
smaller animal= more water per unit weight requirement
Water consumption depends on nature of diet (dry vs wet), salt intake, enviro humidity and temp, exercise, fecal characteristics |
|
|
Term
define the parameters of polydipsia in small animals |
|
Definition
water consumption>100ml/kg/day |
|
|
Term
what is normal urine output in small animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
define polyuria and its parameters in small animals |
|
Definition
polyuria-increased frequency AND volume of urine
if SG>1.025 in a dog or >1.035 in a cat, polyuria is UNlikely. nocturia can be a clue |
|
|
Term
define oliguria and its parameters in small animals |
|
Definition
oliguria-reduced urine production
<0.27-1.0mL/kg/hr or <6.5ml/kg/day
|
|
|
Term
define anuria and its parameters in small animals |
|
Definition
lack of urine production
<0.1ml/kg/hour or <2ml/kg/day |
|
|
Term
what should be assessed of the kidneys upon physical palpation? |
|
Definition
position, size, shape, symmetry, consistency, and surface characteristics (easier on cat) |
|
|
Term
what should be assessed of the bladder upon physical palpation? |
|
Definition
degree of distention, thickness of wall, contents of bladder, pain, sensation of crepitus, calculi |
|
|
Term
what should be assessed of the prostate upon rectal palpation in the dog? |
|
Definition
size, shape, position, mobility, consistency, symmetry, presence of pain |
|
|
Term
why should a rectal exam be performed on all female and male dogs? |
|
Definition
ability to palpate the urethra |
|
|
Term
wetness of the hind legs or abdominal hair in males or perivulval hair in females may suggest: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which two reflexes should be tested during a PE? |
|
Definition
pudendal and perineal reflexes |
|
|
Term
what are five GFR measurement tests? |
|
Definition
- nuclear scintigraphy
- Iohexol clearance test
- creatinine clearance test
- inulin clearance test
- Cystatin C
|
|
|
Term
in order for a substance to be a marker of glomerular filtration, it must: |
|
Definition
- be freely filtered across the glomerular capillary
- not be reabsorbed or secreted into the tubular lumen
- not be stored, metabolized, or synthesized by the kidney
|
|
|
Term
which test is most commonly used to approximate GFR? describe it. what is its limitation? |
|
Definition
serum creatinine
from muscle, consistent from day to day because dependent on muscle mass, excreted by kidneys via glomerular filtration alone.
can be affected by tying up or crush injury "rhabdomyolysis", and cachectic animals may have decreased serum creatinine |
|
|
Term
what are the limitations of using BUN to estimate GFR? |
|
Definition
- urea synthesized in liver from dietary ammonia, amino acids, and catabolism of endogenous protein.
- dietary protein, body energy balance, and magnitude of fluid turnover can change daily.
- dogs with GI hemorrhage can have disproportionately increased BUN
|
|
|
Term
A significant increase in either creatinine or BUN generally does not occur until ____% of functional renal mass is lost. A change in electrolytes will occur with ____% renal function loss |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the plasma volume that must be cleared of a substance in order to provide the amount of this substance in urine per unit of time. |
|
|
Term
describe how a creatinine clearance test is done. |
|
Definition
patient's urine is collected over 24 hours, and serum sample collected to measure serum creatinine. urine volume is recorded and urine creatinine measured. |
|
|
Term
what is the advantage of nuclear scintigraphy? |
|
Definition
the GFR of each kidney can separately be assessed |
|
|
Term
what type of urine collection is initially adequate for UA's for hematuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
bacterial cultures should not be run on: |
|
Definition
mid-stream voided samples |
|
|
Term
what type of bacterial culture can be performed on aseptic urethral catheterization samples? |
|
Definition
quantitative culture only |
|
|
Term
what portions of the test strip are inaccurate? |
|
Definition
leukocytes, nitrites, urobilinogen, (also protein in alkaline urine) |
|
|
Term
when should UA be performed on a sample? |
|
Definition
within 1 hour, or 4-6 hours if refrigerated and then brought back to room temperature and gently agitated |
|
|
Term
normal attitude, appetite, and pollkiuria are signs of ______, while back pain is a sign of ______ |
|
Definition
lower urinary tract disease
upper urinary tract disease |
|
|
Term
the normal concentrated SG ranges for dogs and cats are: |
|
Definition
dog 1.030-1.045
cat 1.045-1.065 |
|
|
Term
the SG of isosthenuric urine is_____
and the normal pH range of urine is ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are Tamm-Horsfall proteins? does the dipstick test detect this? what can give false results and what can be used to avoid this? |
|
Definition
- proteins added to urine in tubules
- no, dipstick primarily detects albumin
- very alkaline urine may give a false elevated proteinuria
- sulfosalicylic acid turbidometric (SSA) test
|
|
|
Term
describe the UPC test, its indications, and normal values |
|
Definition
- urine protein/creatinine ratio
- done on single sample to estimate 24 hour protein excretion.
- should be <0.5 in the dog, <0.4 in the cat, not meaningful in the face of gross hematuria or pyuria
|
|
|
Term
proteinuria can indicate what? |
|
Definition
anything.
increased glomerular permeability, decreased tubular reabsorption, inflammation anywhere, bleeding into the urinary tract, DM, hypertension, hyperadrenocorticism, strenuous exercise, seizures, fever |
|
|
Term
what are the differential diagnoses for glucosuria with hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
- DM
- hyperadrenocorticism
- fluid therapy (iatrogenic)
- epinephrine secretion/admin
- stressed cats
- pheochromocytoma
|
|
|
Term
what are the differential diagnoses for glucosuria without hyperglycemia? |
|
Definition
- impaired tubular reabsorption
- congenital tubular defect
- acute renal failure w/severe tubular damage
- fanconi syndrome
- false positive (drugs)
|
|
|
Term
which acid is detected in a ketone test usually? what is NOT detected? What are their typical percentages? |
|
Definition
acetoacetic acid. (20%)
beta-hydroxybutyric acid NOT detected (78%)
(acetone is remaining 2%) |
|
|
Term
if urine is spun down and the supernatant remains red, but the serum is clear, then the likely pigment is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
if urine is spun down, and serum also spun down, and both supernatants are still pigmented red, the likely cause is: |
|
Definition
free hemoglobin due to hemolysis |
|
|
Term
false positives for blood on a dipstick can be attributed to: |
|
Definition
free hemoglobin
high vitamin C
old strips |
|
|
Term
where do the following originate and what are their significance?
a. caudate cells
b. squamous cells
c. renal tubular cells
d. transitional cells |
|
Definition
a. renal pelvis (unknown)
b. vagina, prepuce, distal urethra (no significance)
c. renal tubules (tubular inflammation as in tubular necrosis, pyelonephritis, or glomerulonephritis)
d. urethra, bladder, ureters (traumatic catheterization, inflammation, neoplasia |
|
|
Term
what are the differential diagnoses for bilirubinuria (3)? |
|
Definition
hemolysis
hepatocellular disease
bile duct obstruction |
|
|
Term
what type of bilirubin is present in urine, and which species has a low threshold for clearance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the differential diagnoses for pyuria (5)? |
|
Definition
- bacterial infection
- urolithiasis
- neoplasia
- idiopathic
- hemorrhage
|
|
|
Term
what 5 crystals are found in acid urine? |
|
Definition
- uric acid
- ammonium urate
- amorphous urates
- cystine
- calcium oxalate
|
|
|
Term
what 4 crystals are found in alkaline urine? |
|
Definition
- struvite
- amorphous phosphates
- calcium phosphate
- calcium carbonate
|
|
|
Term
the presence of few (1-2) hyaline casts can be due to(3): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
white blood cell casts indicate _______.
red blood cell casts indicate _________.
waxy casts indicate ________________. |
|
Definition
- pyogenic process in kidney
- glomerulonephritis
- nephrotic syndrome
|
|
|
Term
in general, how should casts be interpreted? |
|
Definition
- few- relatively unimportant
- cellular inclusions- active ongoing renal disease
- absence-does not rule out possibility of active renal disease
- can be an early sign of aminoglycoside toxicity
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
seen more in cats and dogs and are normal. |
|
|
Term
what are the possible parasites seen in small animal urine? |
|
Definition
Dioctophyma renale eggs
Capillaria plica eggs |
|
|
Term
where is GGT and NAG found? |
|
Definition
proximal tubules. increased activity can be a more sensitive indicator of acute kidney injury |
|
|
Term
renal size on VD radiographs should be:
and other things to evaluate include: |
|
Definition
2.5-3.5x L2 in dogs
2.4-3.0x L2 in cats
size and position of bladder, prostate
mineralization of prostate
presence of uterus
sublumbar lymph node enlargement
lysis of ventral L6-L7 |
|
|
Term
what are the means of contrast studies of the urinary tract and what are their contraindications/drawbacks? |
|
Definition
intravenous urography-severe, primary renal failure will not take up contrast agent. PU/PD will dilute. dehydration can lead to acute renal failure
negative contrast cystography- air can cause embolism in patients with hematuria. requires sedation
positive contrast cystography (for bladder integrity)-requires sedation
double contrast cystography-not used for rupture, requires sedation
retrograde urethrogram-requires anesthesia (females), sedation (males)
vaginourethrogram-requires anesthesia
US guided pyelography
|
|
|
Term
what are 5 virulence factors of uropathogens? |
|
Definition
- motility for retrograde migration
- adhesion molecules
- bacterial capsular Ag to inhibit phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis
- bacterial urease leading to ammonia formation to damage the uroepithelium
- production of hemolysins and iron-chelating agents that enable bacteria to scavenge iron
|
|
|
Term
what are the host defense mechanisms in the urinary tract? |
|
Definition
- normal micturition
- normal anatomic structures in the urethra and ureters
- mucosal defense barriers
- antimicrobial properties of urine
|
|
|
Term
normal micturition is dependent on: |
|
Definition
- adequate urine flow
- frequent voiding
- completeness of emptying
|
|
|
Term
anatomic barriers in the urethra and ureters include: |
|
Definition
- urethral length
- urethral high pressure zone
- urethral peristalsis
- ureterovesical flap valve and ureteral peristalsis
|
|
|
Term
the mucosal defense barrier is made up of: |
|
Definition
- intact mucosa
- Ab production (IgG and IgA)
- surface glycosaminoglycan layer
- cell exfoliation
- commensal bacteria
|
|
|
Term
what are the antimicrobial properties of urine? |
|
Definition
- hi or low pH
- concentration
- urea
- diet-derived organic acids
|
|
|
Term
T or F: leukocytosis is typical of cystitis |
|
Definition
False. only in severe cases. the majority of bacterial cystitis cases do not have a systemic peripheral WBC response |
|
|
Term
how is pyelonephritis diagnosed? |
|
Definition
excretory urography-small and irregular with pelvic dilatation.
diverticula have irregular borders
US-guided pyelocentesis with culture to prove bacterical pyelonephritis |
|
|
Term
what is important to remember when getting a culture sensitivity report back? |
|
Definition
urine concentrates, so even antibiotics with a lower MIC may work. |
|
|
Term
what are the signs of lower urinary tract disease in patients with DM or Cushing's? |
|
Definition
NOTstranguria, pollakiuria, discolored urine as in normal patients.
maybe still: strong odor, pain upon palpation, thickened bladder (chronic)
you MUST culture and sensitivity |
|
|
Term
what are the signs of upper urinary tract disease? |
|
Definition
o Variable and non-specific
o Anorexia, lethargy
o “Back pain”
o PU/PD (chronic)
o Depressed
o Fever
o Pain on palpation of T-L area |
|
|
Term
what are the signs of lower urinary tract disease? |
|
Definition
o Pollakiuria
o Stranguira
o Hematuria
o Strong odor
o Normal attitude, appetite unless prostate involved
o Pain on palpation of caudal abdomen
o Thickened bladder (chronic, small dogs and cats)
o Palpation may stim stranguria
o Remainder of exam normal (with uncomplicated infection) |
|
|
Term
how would asymptomatic bacteruria be treated? |
|
Definition
§ positive culture w/o signs § Cushing’s and chemo patients § Usually treated to prevent pyelonephritis § Do not treat if resistant bacteria and antibiotics are toxic
-not common because you're not looking for it. |
|
|
Term
what constitutes a simple or uncomplicated urethrocystits? |
|
Definition
- No predisposing factors/concurrent abnormalities
- Typical lower UTI clinical signs
- Usually young female, otherwise normal
- dysuria, pollakiuria, urgency without fever or systemic signs
|
|
|
Term
what constitutes a complicated UTI? |
|
Definition
- Predisposing factors: ectopic ureters, neuro, neoplasia, foreign objects, urine retention, DM, Cushing's, chronic renal disease)
- Unlikely to cure w/o correcting underlying problem
- Pyelonephritis is usually the result of a complicated UTI
|
|
|
Term
what are the 4 possible treatment outcomes of UTI's? |
|
Definition
o Cure
§ Eradication of microorganisms
§ Resolution of clinical signs
§ Proven by negative culture
o Persistence
§ Failure to eradicate
§ Demonstrated by positive culture 3-5 days after initiation of Abx therapy
§ R/O inappropriate drug, inadequate dose, frequency, owner/patient compliance
o Relapse
§ Positive culture 7-14 days after discontinuation of Abx (same strain)
§ Similar R/O as persistence
§ Or deeper seeded infection, mixed infection, formation of drug resistance
o Reinfection
§ May be difficult to distinguish from relapse or persistence
§ Culture different organism
§ Re-eval for predisposing cause
Base therapy on new culture and sensitivity |
|
|
Term
staph, strep, and proteus can be treated with:
E-coli and anything can be treated with:
pseudomonas and anything can be treated with: |
|
Definition
penicillins
TMS or amoxicillin
treat the other, then also give tetracycline |
|
|
Term
how long should antibiotic treatment last for a UTI and what are guidelines for choosing antibiotics? |
|
Definition
o 10-14 days for uncomplicated bacterial cystitis
o 4-6 weeks for complicated UTI including pyelonephritis and prostatitis
o Mixed infection
§ Treat with single Abx that both are sensitive to
§ Treat with 2 different Abx based on C&S (owner compliance)
§ Treat predominant pathogen. Culture during therapy and treat second pathogen if still present. |
|
|
Term
in non-castrated dogs, what is presumed in bacterial UTI's? what is often detrimental to treatment? |
|
Definition
- the prostate gland is involved.
- Many drugs do not penetrate prostate-blood barrier without inflammation, so chronic cases may take up to or longer than 8 weeks treatment
- treatment for chronic prostatitis is similar to pyelonephritis
- effective drugs include TMS, chloramphenicol, quinolones, erythromycin, clindamycin
|
|
|
Term
for animals with frequent reinfection, what can be used? |
|
Definition
- Methenamine
- Urinary antiseptic (not antibiotic)
- Converted to formaldehyde
- Requires acidic urine pH<6 (dietary urinary acidifiers, may promote vomiting)
- Every 6 hours for dogs, every 12 hours for cats
- need to clear current infection first
|
|
|
Term
if a client is resistant to a urine culture, it is ok (not ideal), to forego it and treat empirically IF: |
|
Definition
- young to middle age neutered female
- has not had these signs previously
- had dysuria/stranguria, pollakiuria, with/without hematuria
- does not have history of recent antibiotic use
|
|
|
Term
empiric first-line antibiotics include: |
|
Definition
cephalexin, amoxicillin, clavamox
10-14 days |
|
|
Term
hematuria is defined as (diagnostic test-wise): |
|
Definition
presence of blood on dipstick and greater than 5 RBCs/HPF |
|
|
Term
the differential diagnoses for hemoglobinuria include: |
|
Definition
- IMHA
- DIC
- transfusion reaction
- heat stroke
- splenic torsion
- caval syndrome of HW
- coral snake envenomation
|
|
|
Term
the differential diagnoses of upper urinary tract macroscopic hematuria include:
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the differential diagnoses of lower urinary tract macroscopic hematuria include:
|
|
Definition
- infection
- inflammation
- calculi in bladder or urethra
- neoplasia
- trauma
- benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatic cyst, paraprostatic cyst
- pro-estrus, estrus, subinvolution of placental sites
|
|
|
Term
what is the physiologic cause of pollakiuria? |
|
Definition
bladder capacity is reduced or when pain is produced by minimal distension of diseased bladder |
|
|
Term
what areas are affected in initial hematuria? |
|
Definition
trigone, urethra, prostate, vagina, penis, or prepuce |
|
|
Term
what areas are affected in terminal hematuria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what areas are affected in total hematuria? |
|
Definition
kidneys, ureters, bladder; also coagulopathy |
|
|
Term
if there is blood not associated with urination, the likely cause is: |
|
Definition
prostate, urethra, prepuce, vagina, or uterus |
|
|
Term
what does mild prostatic enlargement in an intact 7 year old male dog indicate? |
|
Definition
likely benign normal prostatic hyperplasia (>5 yrs) |
|
|
Term
cystocentesis should be avoided if: |
|
Definition
an ultrasound is to be done later the same day |
|
|
Term
RBC lysis and cast dissolution occur rapidly in: |
|
Definition
hyposthenuric or alkaline urine |
|
|
Term
prostatic fluid can be collected by: |
|
Definition
FNA, prostatic massage, ejaculation |
|
|
Term
renal biopsy should be performed if ________ is suspected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
an exploratory laparotomy evaluates |
|
Definition
the bladder mucosa and underlying prostatic disease |
|
|
Term
what are the differential diagnoses for microscopic hematuria? |
|
Definition
- glomerulonephritis
- chronic bacterial pyelonephritis
- cystic renal disease
- strenuous exercise
- renal neoplasia (macroscopic upper UT)
- trauma (macroscopic upper UT)
|
|
|
Term
what does microscopic hematuria and proteinuria suggest, especially with hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia?
what test is done to determine significance of protein loss? |
|
Definition
glomerulonephropathy
UPC (not valid in gross hematuria due to leakage of albumin) |
|
|
Term
glomerulonephropathy can be due to: |
|
Definition
- as primary disease
- canine lupus erythematosus
- canine pyometra
- canine adenovirus infection
- dirofilaria immitis
- ehrlichiosis
- borreliosis
- brucellosis
- leishmaniasis
- rocky mountain spotted fever
- FIP
- variety of canine/feline neoplasias
|
|
|
Term
acute pyelonephritis is characterized by what? |
|
Definition
- peripheral blood leukocytosis
- azotemia
- systemic disease (fever, vomiting, inappetance, lethargy, back pain)
- not persistent hematuria, but occasional
- active urine sediment
- positive urine culture
|
|
|
Term
nephrolilthiasis is characterized by: |
|
Definition
- hematuria
- renal/perirenal pain if obstructed
- hematuria
- UTI signs
- possible hydronephrosis, hydronephrosis, hydroureter
|
|
|
Term
what are the signs of renal carcinoma? |
|
Definition
gross hematuria without stranguria
blood red or coffee colored
back pain
polycythemia (inc. renal erythropoietin)
|
|
|
Term
what is seen on radiographs of a cat with renal lymphoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where does transitional cell carcinoma occur? |
|
Definition
renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder |
|
|
Term
what is the treatment for a benign prostatic hyperplasia that is causing symptoms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
polycystic kidneys are common in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the signs of renal infarction? |
|
Definition
- hematuria
- other signs related to kidney not seen
- v/d, pain
- may have no signs in older patients, incidental finding during US
|
|
|
Term
describe recurring macroscopic hematuria of Welsh corgi dogs |
|
Definition
- due to renal hemangioectasia
- early middle age
- no dysuria or pollakiuria
- breed, hx, PE, UA, IVP, renal arteriography, renal biopsy
|
|
|
Term
describe idiopathic renal hematuria in SA |
|
Definition
- similar to hematuria of Welsh corgis
- bleeding so severe that anemia produced
- frank bleeding without inflammatory cells in UA
- bleeding from one or both kidneys
|
|
|
Term
what are the causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)? |
|
Definition
heat stroke, shock, lepto, heavy metal |
|
|
Term
describe feline idiopathic cystitis including diagnosis |
|
Definition
- younger cats, with decreasing severity with age
- extremely common
- element of obstruction
- acute onset of lower UT signs for 2-7 days, 50% will have recurrence of signs
- urine, UT, or UT response to urine problem OR systemic issue with bladder signs
- diagnosis of exclusion
- hematuria +/- pyuria with negative culture
- thick bladder on radiograph
- cystoscopy- glomerulations (small hemorrhagic lesions)
|
|
|
Term
describe the therapy for FIC |
|
Definition
- decrease risk of obstruction
- reduce severity of signs
- decrease frequency of episodes
- do nothing with self-limiting cases
- increase water consumption
- decrease stress (Feliway)
- amitriptyline
- GAGs
- analgesics
- no antibiotics
|
|
|
Term
what is the definition of acute renal failure? |
|
Definition
- sudden onset of hemodynamic, filtration, and excretory failure of kidneys with subsequent accumulation of metabolic toxins and dysregulation of fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance
- rapid onset of primary renal azotemia over hours to days
- pathologic oliguria of less than a day
|
|
|
Term
what is the definition of acute kidney injury? |
|
Definition
- sudden onset renal parenchymal injury
- mild changes in serum creatinine, urine output, other biomarkers
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- degeneration of renal tubular epithelium due to hypoxic/ischemic or toxic causes.
- hi blood flow, hi metab, and conc mech make kidneys susceptible
- can be iatrogenic
|
|
|
Term
what are the toxic causes of AKI? |
|
Definition
o Endogenous: calcium, myoglobin, uric acid, hemoglobin
o Exogenous: ethylene glycol, aminoglycosides, easter lily, monensin, radiographic contrast agents, chemo agents |
|
|
Term
what are the ischemic or vascular causes of AKI? |
|
Definition
- dehydration
- hemorrhage
- shock
- hypotension
- hypertension
- sepsis
- trauma
- heart failure, cardiac arrest, arrhythmia
- vasculitis
- thromboembolism
- DIC
- anesthesia
- NSAIDS
- ACE inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
what are the inflammatory causes of AKI? |
|
Definition
pyelonephritis
interstitial nephritis (lepto)
glomerulonephritis (SLE, tick-borne dz) |
|
|
Term
describe the induction phase of AKI |
|
Definition
o Induction phase (hrs to days)
§ Hard to test, must recognize potential sources of insult
§ Best time to treat and prevent progression (e.g. known ethylene glycol ingestion, treat NOW) |
|
|
Term
describe the maintenance phase of AKI |
|
Definition
o Maintenance phase (days to weeks)
§ Tubular lesions established
§ Low BRF and GFR perpetuated by intra-renal mechanisms
§ Mechanisms of perpetuation
· Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
· decreased glomerular capillary surface area and permeability
· Efferent arteriolar vasodilation
· Obstruction of tubular lumens
· Backleak of filtrate |
|
|
Term
describe the recovery phase of AKI |
|
Definition
o Recovery phase (weeks to months)
§ Compensatory hypertrophy (not really recovery)
§ Nephron repair
· Requires intact basement membrane and viable epithelial cells
§ Improvement in renal function
· increased GFR, decreased BUN/Creat
§ Degree of recovery dependent on severity and extent of injury |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- Depressed, anorexic, vomiting, dehydration, anorexia, known/suspected toxic exposure
- Detection of azotemia with inappropriate USG
- Increasing serum Creatinine (0.3 increase in 24 hours)
- Urine vol may be increased, decreased, or normal ********
- Assume azotemia is due to AKI until proven otherwise
- Identify life threatening complications, aka Hyperkalemia, acidosis, dehydration, sepsis
- Localize pre, ren, postrenal (Hx, PE, UA, imaging)
- o Determine urine production rate after rapid rehydration
- § Oliguric <1mL/kg/hr, <2 with IV fluids
- o Culture it
- Discriminate between AKI and Chronic kidney disease
- § Chronic unlikely has oliguria/anuria (only at the very end)
- § Small kidneys and weight loss/poor BCS is usually chronic
- § Nonregenerative anemia is chronic
- § Hyperkalemia is acute
- § Renal osteodystrophy is acute
|
|
|
Term
what labwork clues can point to AKI? |
|
Definition
- inc P exceeds inc in creat
- mild to mod decrease in Ca
- inc in K propotional to inc in creat
- dec in HCO3 roughly proportional to degree of renal failure
- inc in anion gap due to accumulation or organic acids
- glucosuria in absense of inc in blood glucose = dysfunction of proximal tubule
- proteinuria may be indicator of glomerular or tubular damage
- casts indicate active renal tubular pathology
|
|
|
Term
what are the positive and negative prognostic indicators of AKI? |
|
Definition
o Negative prognostic factors
§ Oliguria
§ Pre-existing renal or non-renal disease
§ Systemic infection
§ Older age
o Positive prognostic factors
§ Local infection
§ Toxins (OTHER than ethylene glycol and lilies)
· More likely to have intact tubular basement membrane |
|
|
Term
how is dehydration corrected? |
|
Definition
BW*%dehydration. remember to correct for ongoing losses too (v/d, etc) |
|
|
Term
what are two specific life-threatening metabolic disturbances you need to correct in AKI? |
|
Definition
§ Hyperkalemia >8mg/dl or EKG abnormalities · IV fluids · Glucose and insulin · Calcium gluconate (cardio protective) · NaHCO3 · Furosemide · Potassium binding agents (oral, rectal) § Metabolic acidosis pH<7.1 or HCO3<12 · IV fluids · NaHCO3 o Not a benign treatment! o Slowly give ½ calculated deficit o Reassess frequently!!! o can -->decrease Ca, paradoxic CSF acidosis, cerebral edema, death |
|
|
Term
how is oliguria converted to nonoliguria? |
|
Definition
§ Additional fluid volume expansion
§ Dextrose, mannitol
§ Furosemide
§ Dopamine, dobutamine
§ Diltiazem
fenoldopam (still controversial)
§ ***these do not reverse the disease, only aide in excretion of metabolic waste/toxins
§ If not converted or over-hydrated, then keep going. |
|
|
Term
how are diuretics used in AKI? |
|
Definition
- § Must be rehydrated
- § Does not increase GFR, generally no decrease in azotemia
- § Goal is to increase urine volume
- § Furosemide-avoid when dealing with AG toxicity
- § Dextrose-osmotic diuretic, little use.
- § Mannitol-osmostic, avoid if over-hydrated
|
|
|
Term
what are the two options if a patient fails to convert to nonoliguria? |
|
Definition
- conservative management of fluid, electrolytes, acid-base, uremic symptoms
- dialysis
|
|
|
Term
what are three GI issues that must be managed in AKI? |
|
Definition
- control gastric-mediated gastritis (decreased GFR= serum levels increased, increased acid production and ulceration)
- histamine H2 blockers (famotidine)
- proton pump blocerks (omeprazole)
- cytoprotective agents (sucralfate)
- control vomiting with antiemetics
- metoclopramide (not concurrent with dopamine)
- chlorpromazine
- ondansetron
- control nitrogenous waste products by reducing amino acid content of parenteral/enteral feeding
|
|
|
Term
T or F: antibiotics are used in AKI treatment |
|
Definition
True. ampicillin or amoxicillin are good initial choices because of breadth and safety. avoid nephrotoxic drugs (e.g. gentamicin) |
|
|
Term
the aim of AKI treatment overall is to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the common complaints in large animal UT disease? |
|
Definition
- weight loss
- abnormal urination
- decreased performance
- incontinence
- abdominal distention and colic
- peripheral or ventral edema
|
|
|
Term
what is the normal water intake and urine output for a horse? |
|
Definition
40-60ml/kg/day water intake (20-40L)
Urine output 5-20ml/kg/day (5-15L) |
|
|
Term
in a transrectal, what is palpable in a horse vs a cow?
how are small ruminants palpated? |
|
Definition
- Horse: kidneys (both only if pathologic), bladder, ureters (if path), urethra
- Cow: dorsal midline lobulated left kidney, ureters(if path), bladder, urethra
- sheep/goats: digital, transabdominal, perineal urethra, inspect urethral process
|
|
|
Term
how are urine samples obtained from horses, cows/swine, and small ruminants? |
|
Definition
- horse: will urinate in their stall if clean. catheterization-avoid xylazine (induce glucosuria), avoid furosemide (alters UA)
- cow/swine-stroke perineum or use wet brush on prepuce
- small ruminants-hold nose
|
|
|
Term
what can be seen in large animal cbc's in bacterial infections or chronic inflammatory processes? |
|
Definition
neutrophilia and hyperfibrinogenemia |
|
|
Term
in a horse with chronic renal failure, what is seen on lab tests?
what about acute renal failure? |
|
Definition
- CRF-profound hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia
- ARF- hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
|
|
|
Term
why is BUN sometimes an unreliable biomarker in LA? |
|
Definition
o In LA, can be altered by many things. (including profuse sweating)
o Ruminant and hindgut fermenters can use urea, so levels can be falsely normal |
|
|
Term
what are the exceptions to alkaline urine in herbivores? |
|
Definition
o Exceptions: hi protein diet, anorexia, neonate |
|
|
Term
which large animals may have low or hyposthenuric urine? |
|
Definition
high producing dairy cattle will be low normal
suckling neonates will be hyposthenuric |
|
|
Term
how is fractional clearance (FC) calculated and how is it useful? |
|
Definition
[U(x)/P(x)] x [P(Cr)/U(Cr)] x 100
low sodium FC is dehydration (distinguishes prerenal or renal)
hi P or K FC indicates tubular damage, diet, acid-base
|
|
|
Term
how does glucosuria aide in localization of disease? |
|
Definition
o Glucosuria and hyperglycemia=systemic disease
o Glucosuria and euglycemia=tubular disease |
|
|
Term
from where does GGT originate and what does it reflect? |
|
Definition
serum GGT- liver and pancreas
urine GGT- brush border enzyme of proximal tubule epithelial cells, only indicates active destruction |
|
|
Term
where can protein originate? |
|
Definition
- kidneys (glomerulonephritis, amyloidosis, acute interstitial nephritis, pyelonephritis)
- or from exudative processes affecting ureters, urinary bladder, or urethra
|
|
|
Term
normal horse urine contains _______crystals and is ________colored |
|
Definition
CaCO3
straw colored, slightly turbid |
|
|
Term
when getting a catheterized sample form a horse, you should: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
glucosuria with hyperglycemia in horses is seen in: |
|
Definition
- equine metabolic syndrome
- pituitary parts intermedia dysfunction
- corticosteroid therapy
- intense exercise
- pain
- shock
|
|
|
Term
what are the causes of pre-renal azotemia in the horse? |
|
Definition
- severe hypotension
- prolonged anesthesia
- GI fluid losses
- acute blood loss
- endotoxemia
- exercise-associated sweat loss
- volume redistribution (third spacing)
|
|
|
Term
what are the causes of ATN (broad categories)? |
|
Definition
- ischemia (vasomotor nephropathy) (ace in hypotensive)
- aminoglycoside antibiotics
- other antimicrobials
- NSAIDS (phenylbutazone, flunixin)
- pigment nephropathy (Mb, Hb)
- heavy metals (arsenic, mercury, lead, cadmium)
- vitamin D (supplement or plant source)
- vitamin K3
- leptospirosis
|
|
|
Term
put the following in decreasing order of nephrotoxicity
a. streptomycin
b. kanamycin
c. amikacin
d. gentamicin
e. neomycin
|
|
Definition
- neomycin
- kanamycin
- gentamicin
- amikacin
- streptomycin
|
|
|
Term
how do aminoglycosides affect the kidneys in ATN? |
|
Definition
- bind to phospholipase on brush border of proximal tubules
- accumulate in renal cortex and interfere with lysosomal, mitochondrial, and Na/K/ATPase function
- renal vasoconstriction
- saturable binding, so prolonged exposure is worse
- serum creatinine should be monitored every 3-5 days, also GGT, proteinuria, glucosuria
|
|
|
Term
how do NSAIDS affect the kidneys in ATN? |
|
Definition
- COX inhibitors which inhibit prostaglandins which are needed for vasodilation
- especially hypovolemic patients
- renal medullary crest or papillary necrosis is classic lesion due to lower blood flow
|
|
|
Term
how does pigment nephropathy lead to ATN? |
|
Definition
- pigments cause vasoconstriction leading to ischemia
- tubular obstruction by heme casts
- reduction of ferrous iron compounds forms increased hydroxyl radicals causing cellular damage
|
|
|
Term
how can acute interstitial nephritis be distinguished from ATN in a horse? what is it? |
|
Definition
- hematuria, eosinophilia, eosinophiluria
- immune-mediated caused by delayed cell-mediated hypersensitivity or Ab against tubular basement membranes
- prognosis grave
|
|
|
Term
what are two likely causes of acute glomerulonephritis in the horse? |
|
Definition
group C streptococcal Ag and equine infection anemia viral Ag-Ab complexes |
|
|
Term
how is pre-renal azotemia ruled out in horses? |
|
Definition
- get a urine sample.
- give fluid therapy
- pre-renal will 50% or greater reduction in magnitude of azotemia within 24 hours. renal patients will respond slower
|
|
|
Term
how is hyperkalemia treated in a horse wiht ARF? |
|
Definition
non-potassium containing fluid such as 0.9% NaCl |
|
|
Term
how is ARF treated in horses? |
|
Definition
- discontinue nephrotoxics/ treat underlying
- admin fluids and correct electrolytes/acid-base (LRS, Normosol-R, Plasmalyte 148)
- observe for urination within 12-24 hours. edema in conjunctiva will develop in oliguric patients
- if oliguric, admin furosemide, mannitol, or dopamine
- peritoneal and hemodialysis
|
|
|
Term
neonatal uroperitoneum is more common in _____ than _____. the four types are: |
|
Definition
more common in colts than fillies
- bladder
- urethral (perineal, preputial)
- urachal (SC edema around umbilicus
- ureteral (retroperitoneal)
|
|
|
Term
what are the signs and lab test results in uroperitoneum? |
|
Definition
- lethargy, colic, abdominal distention, stranguria, pollakiuria, depression, anorexia
- post-renal azotemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia
- peritoneal creatinine >2x serum creatinine
|
|
|
Term
what is the treatment for uroperitoneum? |
|
Definition
- 0.9%NaCl, 5% dextrose
- Ca gluconate, bicarb
- drainage
|
|
|
Term
what are the symptoms of CRF in the horse |
|
Definition
- uremia
- chronic weight loss with anorexia
- rough hair coat
- poor athletic performance/lethargy due to anemia due to decreased erythropoietin
- PU/PD
- ventral edema
- nephrotic syndrome
- tartar buildup and oral lesions and halitosis
|
|
|
Term
what are the lab results for CRF in a horse? |
|
Definition
persistent isosthenuria
increased creatinine
ration of BUN:Cr>10:1
mild nonregenerative normocytic normochromic anemia
hypoalbuminemia
hypercalcemia
hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia
kidney small firm and irregular
|
|
|
Term
how is CRF treated in horses? |
|
Definition
- IV fluids
- discontinue nephrotoxics
- Antibiotics in pyelonephritis
- give good grass hay and carbs instead of hi protein and Ca
- salt supplementation if hyponatremic/chloremic
- omega-3 fatty acids as antioxidant
|
|
|
Term
what could be the cause of UTI's in horses? |
|
Definition
E coli, Proteus, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, strep, Staph, Pseudomonas, Corynebacterium renale, and candidiasis following longterm systemic antibiotics |
|
|
Term
uroliths in horses are most common in (location, age, etc.)________
and form by _______ |
|
Definition
lower urinary tract
geldings and adults
bladder, urethra, kidney, ureter (in that order)
urine stasis and nidus like desquamated epithelial cells or necrotic debris
|
|
|
Term
what drug may be associated with uroliths in horses?
what dietary change can help prevent future uroliths? |
|
Definition
phenylbutazone
cut out alfalfa and other hi Ca foods |
|
|
Term
how are uroliths treated in a horse? |
|
Definition
- males-pararectal cystotomy, perineal urethrostomy, cystotomy
- flank-nephrectomy, ureterotomy
- lithotripsy
- medical-bladder lavage, anti-inflam, antimicrobials, inc water consumption, eliminate alfalfa, urinary acidifiers unproven
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- at level of ischial arch at dorsocaudal aspect
- hemospermia, hematuria at end of urination
- no pollakiuria or dysuria
- affects quarterhorse geldings
- blowout of corpus spongiosum into urethra
- can diagnose via endoscopy
- tx: nothing, subischial/perineal urethrotomy, buccal mucosal graft
|
|
|
Term
what are the signs of renal adenocarcinoma in horses? what is the treatment? |
|
Definition
- hematuria, weight loss, colic
- unilateral
- azotemia
- nephrectomy
|
|
|
Term
what is sabulous cystitis? |
|
Definition
accumulation of crystalloid urine sediment secondary to incomplete bladder emptying
weight stretches detrusor muscle, further disrupting normal urination
incontinence, hindlimb weakness, ataxia
tx: bladder lavage, broad spec antibiotics, bethanechol
|
|
|
Term
what are the causes of pyelonephritis in the horse? |
|
Definition
- ectopic ureter, bladder paralysis, bacteremia, nephrolithiasis
- Actinobacillus, Strep equi, R equi, Salmonella
|
|
|
Term
describe UMN and LMN bladder dysfunction |
|
Definition
- UMN- increased urethral resistance
- pollakiuria, sporadic dribbling
- spinal cord lesions
- LMN-relaxed bladder and sphincter
- continuous dribbling, neuro deficits
- cauda equina syndrome
- EHV-1 myelitis
- Sorghum/sudan grass toxicity
|
|
|
Term
what are the two types of diabetes insipidus? |
|
Definition
- neurogenic- dec vasopressin secretion
- nephrogenic- collecting duct insensitive to vasopressin
|
|
|
Term
in horses, why does pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction cause PU/PD? |
|
Definition
- impingement of hypothalamus and posterior pituitary
- cortisol antagonism of vasopressin
- hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis
|
|
|
Term
what is the effect of the cantharidin toxin? |
|
Definition
- blister beetle found in alfalfa hay
- irritates lower UT, causing hemorrhagic cystitis
- also affects GI and CV systems
- severe hypocalcemia, hypomagneaemia, azotemia, metabolic acidosis, hypoproteinemia
|
|
|
Term
renal tubular acidosis in horses is what type? |
|
Definition
type 2
proximal
other signs collectively known as Fanconi syndrome |
|
|
Term
a neonate foal has high creatinine and BUN. what does this indicate? |
|
Definition
probably placental function, not renal. may be azotemic if premature. |
|
|
Term
what are the causes of hemoglobin nephropathy and thus ATN in ruminants? |
|
Definition
o Post-parturient hemoglobinuria
§ Older dairy cows 5-8 y
§ 1-4 week post-partum
§ Low intracellular P
§ Tx: blood, fluid, P
o Copper toxicity in sheep
o Bacillary hemoglobinura (very fast)
§ Clostridium novyi type D
§ Hemolysis and liver failure
o Water intox
o Salt poisoning
o Selenium deficiency
o White muscle disease (vit E, Se def)
§ Small ruminants susceptible
§ Neonates can be affected in utero |
|
|
Term
what is a cause of myoglobin nephropathy and thus ATN in ruminants? |
|
Definition
o Cassia occidentalis (wild coffee)
§ Common in FL and TX
§ Causes muscle degeneration
§ Toxin contained within fruit |
|
|
Term
what 4 plants can cause ATN in ruminants? why? |
|
Definition
- Cestrum diurnum-vitamin D toxicosis
- Cassia occidentalis (wild coffee)-myoglobin nephropathy
- Oak-tannins hydrolyzed in rumen to gallic acid (NOT in sheep and goats bc they have tanninase)(melena, tenesmus, bloody diarrhea, weight loss, bitter milk)
- Pigweed (Amaranthus)-oxalates chelate calcium (weakness, ataxia, ascites, 5-7 days after turnout)
|
|
|
Term
what is an infectious cause of renal damage in ruminants? What is the treatment? |
|
Definition
· Leptospira interrogans
o Hardjo, Pomona, grippo
o Pathophys
§ Renal vasc endo damage
§ Hypoxia
§ Hemoglobinuria
§ Interstitial nephritis
o Young animals exposed to stagnant water
o Fever, abortion, mastitis, meningitis
o Diagnosis
§ Paired titers
§ Urine PCR, fluorescent Ab, dark field microscopy
o Tx: tetracycline (also nephrotoxic, use if Creatinine is normal), penicillin, ampicillin |
|
|
Term
describe amyloidosis in ruminants |
|
Definition
o Inflam dz-->serum amyloid A-->deposition in kidney, GI, liver, adrenal-->disrupt glomerulus-->PLN
o Diarrhea, wt loss, edema
o Severe proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia
o Renal or pulmonary thrombosis
o Biopsy, prognosis poor |
|
|
Term
what are the causes of acute and chronic glomerulonephritis in ruminants?
what are the signs? |
|
Definition
o Acute
§ Pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants
o Chronic
§ BVD, hog cholera, African swine fever (latter two reportable)
§ Inherited in finnish landrace lambs (higher number of lambs, higher risk)
o Poor productivity, diarrhea, edema
o Proteinuria |
|
|
Term
what are the various infectious causes of pyelonephritis in ruminants? what are their routes? |
|
Definition
o Corynebacterium renale
§ Contagious in cattle, host-adapted
§ Transmission
· Direct, venereal, iatrogenic
§ Subclinical carriers possible
o E. coli
§ Ascending
o C. pseudotuberculosis, A. pyogenes, Salmonella, S. aureus
§ Hematogenous |
|
|
Term
what are the signs, diagnostics, and treatment of pyelonephritis in ruminants? |
|
Definition
o Signs
§ Colic, arched back, treading, tail swishing
§ Fever, depression, inappetance, decreased milk yield
§ Blood, pus, crystals on vulva
o Diagnosis
§ Enlarged, painful kidney, dilation of pelvis
§ ↑white count, fibrinogen, globulin
§ +/-azotemia
§ Hematuria, proteinuria, bacteriuria, leukocyte casts
§ Culture
o Treatment
§ G+: penicillin
§ G-: ceftiofur
§ >3 weeks (more longterm for good penetration)
§ Quarantine infected animals (coryne renale) |
|
|
Term
what is Stephanurus dentatus? |
|
Definition
nematode inhabiting perirenal tissues
signs: production lossis, ascites, skin nodules, paresis
tx: fenbendazole or ivermectin at 4 month intervals |
|
|
Term
what are the predisposing factors for urolithiasis in ruminants? |
|
Definition
§ Hi conc, pelleted diet
· Feedlot, pet
§ High silicate grass
§ Decreased water consumption
· Supersaturation
§ Estrogenic substances
· Nidus
§ Vitamin A deficiency
§ Males castrated early and urethra doesn't develop as much
§ legumes-->calcium carbonate
§ fescue in cattle or apples, sweet potato, pigweed in sheep-->oxalate calculi
§ grain diets-->struvite and calcium phosphate |
|
|
Term
what are the signs of urethral obstruction in ruminants?
where do they block? |
|
Definition
o Restlessness, treading, tail-swishing, teeth grinding
o Vocalization
o Stranguria
o Rectal prolapse
o Small ruminants block at urethral process
o Feedlot steer-sigmoid flexure
o Other: Neck of bladder, ischial arch
o Urethral rupture-“water belly”
o Bladder rupture
§ Abdominal distension
§ Anorexia
§ colic |
|
|
Term
what are the clinical path signs of urethral obstruction in ruminants? |
|
Definition
§ Azotemia
§ Hemoconcentration
§ hypoNa, hypoCl
§ hyperP, hyperK, hperMg
§ abdominocentesis
· peritoneal: serum Cr>2:1
§ PE: pulsing on abdominal palp (trying to urinate)
§ US: measure bladder, look at kidneys |
|
|
Term
what are the medical and surgical treatments for urethral obstruction? |
|
Definition
o Medical tx: fluid/electrolyte therapy, Walpole’s solution pH 4.5, >30% recurrence, US-guided cystocentesis to relieve pressure
§ amputate urethral process
· Temporarily restores patency in 66%
· Catheterize and flush retrograde
o Sx:
§ Perineal/ischial urethrostomy
· Stricture in <1yr
· Good in feedlot steer
§ Tube cystotomy
· 44% recurrence in 12-60 months
§ Bladder marsupialization |
|
|
Term
how can urolithiasis be prevented in ruminants? |
|
Definition
§ Determine composition of stone
§ ensure dietary Ca:P >2:1
§ Mg <0.2%
§ More forage, avoid legumes
§ Acidify urine
· Ammonium chloride
· Decrease dietary cation:anoin difference
· Variable effects
· Systemic academia |
|
|
Term
what is enzootic hematuria? |
|
Definition
o Bracken fern
§ Chronic ingestion (herd problem?)
· Hematuria in several animals
· Bladder neoplasms
· Dysuria, pollakiuria, death
§ Acute toxicity
· Bone marrow suppression
§ Pathology
· Irritant
· Immunosuppression
o Recrudescence of BPV-2
· Mutagenic, carcinogenic
§ Treatment=prevention |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
· Ulcerative posthitis and vulvitis
o Caused by Corynebacterium renale
§ Proliferates in hi urinary urea/excess protein in diet
§ Hydrolyzes urea to ammonia causing ulceration
§ Contagious
§ Moist ulcers
§ May progress to internal form
· Adhesions, distorted vulvar conformation
§ Dysuria, vocalization, weight loss
§ Isolate affected
§ Reduce protein
§ Systemic and topical antimicrobials |
|
|
Term
infection of the umbilical vein in ruminants can lead to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is IRIS AKI Stage I? |
|
Definition
o Patient with historical, clinical, lab kidney dz
§ Biomarker
§ Glucosuria
§ Cylinduria
§ Inflammatory sediment
§ Microalbuminuria
o Patients with imaging evidence of AKI that are non azotemic
o Patients whose clinical presentation is readily fluid-therapy responsive
o Also includes animals with progressive (hourly or daily) increases in serum creatinine of 0.3 within the nonazotemic range during a 48 hour interval |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
o Kidney damage for >3 months, defined by struc/func abnormalities of kidney with or without decreased GFR
§ Path abnorm
§ Markers of kidney damage including comp of blood/urine/imaging
§ GFR-not measured as much in vetmed |
|
|
Term
briefly describe mild, moderate, and severe renal insufficiency |
|
Definition
o Mild renal insufficiency
§ Up to 60% loss of function
§ Minimal symptoms
§ PU/PD, anorexia, vomiting
§ Minimal treatment, mostly preventative
o Moderate renal insufficiency
§ Azotemia
§ Anorexia, wt loss, anemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperparathyroidism, +/-systemic hypertension
§ Progressively more intensive treatment, tailored to indiv problems
o Severe renal insufficiency
§ Past 80% func loss
§ Severe azotemia
§ Anorexia, vomiting, wt loss, anemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperparathyroidism, hyperphosphatemia, systemic hypertension
§ Intensive treatment limits of conventional treatment |
|
|
Term
what 4 organs are most susceptible to hypertension? |
|
Definition
kidneys, heart, brain, eyes |
|
|
Term
what are the two biomarkers used to subclassify chronic kidney disease? |
|
Definition
proteinuria, hypertension |
|
|
Term
briefly describe the three nerves involved in micturition |
|
Definition
o Hypogastric nerve
§ sympathetic efferent synapse on β receptors in bladder (detrusor muscle)
§ also on α receptors on internal urethral sphincter
o Pelvic nerve
§ Parasympathetic synapse on bladder wall (Ach)
o Pudendal nerve
§ Carries somatic efferent to skeletal external sphincter muscle |
|
|
Term
describe the two phases of normal micturition and the nerves' roles in each. |
|
Definition
o Storage phase
§ Sympathetic dominance
§ Hypogastric nerve- allows relaxation of bladder, inc tone of internal sphincter
§ Pudendal nerve- maintains external urethral sphincter tone
o Voiding phase
§ Sensory
· Distensionàpelvic nerveà brain
· Painà hypogastric nerveàbrain
§ Motor
· Voluntary voiding
o Ponsà reticulospinal tractà pelvic nerve
· Voiding phase
o Bladder contraction
§ Ach release from pelvic nerve
o Urethral relaxation
§ Inhibition of hypogastric (internal) and pudendal nerve (external striated) |
|
|
Term
what are the substages of acute renal disease? |
|
Definition
oliguria, renal replacement therapy |
|
|
Term
what are the substages of hypertension? |
|
Definition
with/without organ complications
also "not taken" as in fractious animals |
|
|
Term
describe the cerebral neurogenic disturbances of micturition |
|
Definition
§ Brain (rare)
· Cerebrum
o Loss of voluntary control
o Nocturia/unconscious urination
o Mentation changes
youth, dementia, tumor
emptying complete
|
|
|
Term
what are the UMN disturbances of micturition? |
|
Definition
- Lesion cranial to S1, look around L5
- Voluntary bladder function loss
- Sphincter intact, so difficult to express, no inhibition
- Interneurons stimulated over time, can inhibit pudendal nerve to an extent, but not coordinated, and internal urethral sphincter not inhibited.
- · Tetra or paraparesis/paralysis
- · Hyperreflexia
- · CP deficits
- · Differentials
- o IVD
- o Trauma
- o neoplasia
|
|
|
Term
describe LMN disturbances in micturition |
|
Definition
- · Sacral lesion
- o Pelvic/pudendal nerve
- · Distended, flaccid bladder
- · Paraparesis/paralysis
- · dec anal tone and dec perineal reflex
- · Differentials
- o Trauma
- o Cauda equine syndrome
- o Congenital
- bladder easily expressed
|
|
|
Term
describe cerebellar disturbances to micturition |
|
Definition
- if detrusor is intact, then no signs
- as detrusor function is lost, more frequent urination and bladder emptying incomplete
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Term
what are some non-neurogenic causes of incontinence? |
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Definition
- voiding disorders (increased residual volume)
- detrusor atony
- urolithiasis
- neoplasia
- stricture
- prostatic disease
- dyssynergia
- storage disorders (normal residual volume)
- ectopic ureter
- chronic inflammation
- neoplasia
- hormone responsive urethral incompetence
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Term
what is the surgical treatment of pelvic bladder? |
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Definition
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Term
what is the treatment for hypercontractile bladder? |
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Definition
- Enhance relaxation (all have anticholinergic activity)
- o Propantheline (anticholinergic)
- o Amytryptyline (tricyclic antidepressant)
- o oxybutynin (antimuscarinic)
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Term
what is the treatment for detrusor atony? |
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Definition
§ Keep bladder small
§ Stim detrusor
§ Bethanechol
· Parasympathomimetic |
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Term
what is the treatment for urethral dysfunctions (spasms)? |
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Definition
§ smooth muscle relaxation-α antagonist
· prazosin
· phenoxybenzamine
· tamsulosin- NOT IN CATS
§ striated muscle relaxation -anticholinergic
· diazepam
· acepromazine |
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Term
what is the treatment for urethral incompetence? |
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Definition
- · DES (diethylstilbesterol) or premarin NOT IN CATS
- o Dogs only, after spay
- o Low risk of blood dyscrasias
- o ↑sensitivity and density of α receptors in trigone and urethra
- o Careful of aplastic anemia, dose low
- · Phenylpropanolamine
- o α adrenergic
- o most commonly used in dogs
- o dose is per/cat not per/kg
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Term
what are the steps in urolith formation? |
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Definition
- supersaturated solution
- nucleation initiates precipitation
- direct growth
- aggregation
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Term
what are the steps in an emergency treatment for obstruction? |
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Definition
- treat hyperkalemia and acidosis via IV fluids
- sedation/anesthesia
- pass largest catheter possible
- apply digital pressure rectally proximal to obstruction, then release once pressure has built up from flushing
- can do decompressive cystocentesis
- tube cystotomy or surgery if necessary
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Term
how are struvites prevented in small animals? |
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Definition
- reduce protein, phosphorus, and magnesium
- inhibits urease-producing bacteria from increasing ammonium levels and thereby phosphate ion availability, and supersaturation event
- Pt will have reduced urine SG, urine pH, and BUN
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Term
how are calcium oxalate stones prevented in small animals? |
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Definition
- no specific supersaturation event
- causes: genetic risk or lack of alternative ions available for binding
- not amenable to dissolution therapy
- minimize calciuria and oxaluria
- keep urinary SG low, avoid aciduria
- hydrochlorothiazide diuretics (dec calciuria)
- potassium citrate (urine pH mod and alternate binding for Ca)
- vitamin supplementation does not work and can exacerbate
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Term
how are urate stones prevented in small animals? |
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Definition
- common in dalmatians or patients with hepatic dysfunction (PSS)
- amenable to dissolution
- decrease urine urate and ammonium
- reduce protein and nucleic acid in diet
- neutral or alkaline urine pH targeted
- Rx: Allopurinol (not in hepatic disease patients)
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Term
what is the gender predisposition for struvites and calcium oxalates in small animals? |
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Definition
- Struvite F>>M
- Calcium oxalate F=M
-
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Term
what are the clinical signs of uremia in small animals? |
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Definition
- weight loss with reduced appetite
- vomiting, dark tarry stools
- inc water consumption and urine output
- nocturia
- skin dry
- easily dehydratable esp when stressed
- systemic hypertension
- pallor due to anemia
- oral ulcers
- immature animals-bone disease due to secondary hyperparathyroidism
- thick maxilla, rubber-jaw, loose teeth
- depression
- coarse tremors, tonic-clonic seizures
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Term
what are the three causes of anemia in CRF? |
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Definition
- reduced RBC production (reduced erythropoietin)
- reduced RBC lifespan (Na/K/ATPase pump affected)
- blood loss (GI ulceration, dec gastrin production)
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Term
why does CKD lead to bone lesions? |
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Definition
secondary hyperparathyroidism
inc P retention
dec Vit D and dec Ca GI absorption and inc PTH
renal osteodystrophy
metastatic calcification |
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Term
how is hypertension treated in dogs vs cats? |
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Definition
- dogs-start with ACE inhibitor like enalapril (efferent), double, then amlodipine (Ca channel blocker)
- cats-start with amlodipine (afferent), double, then try ACE inhibitor like enalapril or beta blocker like propranolol or atenolol
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Term
for management of CKD in small animals, the objectives are to: |
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Definition
- limit stress
- control anorexia, vomiting, azotemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperparathyroidism, metabolic acidosis, anemia, and hypertension
- free access to fresh, clean water
- diet 70-110kcal/kg BW/day of metabolizable energy
- limit sodium intake to help with hypertension
- maintain serum bicarb >20mEq/L
- transfusion, EPO, or Darbepoietin
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Term
how is stage 1 with proteinuria treated in dogs? |
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Definition
- treat underlying
- consider kidney biopsy
- ACEI plus dietary plus dietary protein reduction
- low-dose acetylsalicylic acid if serum albumin is <2.0 g/dl
- monitor
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Term
idiopathic renal hematuria in horses |
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Definition
- sudden onset, life threatening
- can have multiple episodes
- no systemic illness
- more than 50% of Arabians
- no age, sec predisposition
- blood clots from one or both kidneys
- usually not azotemic since only one kidney affected
- treat with supportive care (transfusion, hemostasis), unilateral nephrectomy, but will eventually affect other kidney
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Term
how are stage 2 canine patients treated? |
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Definition
same as stage 1, but lower intervention point for treatment of proteinuria and reduce phosphate intake (by restriction or binders (aluminum hydroxide, aluminum carbonate, calcium carbonate, calcium acetate)), correct metabolic acidosis once on stable diet. |
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Term
what is the treatment for stage 3 and 4 canine patients? |
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Definition
- further reduce phosphate (3&4)
- dietary protein reduction (3&4)
- treat anemia if affecting quality of life (3&4)
- treat v/d/nausea with H2 blockers (3&4)
- fluids to treat hydration (3&4)
- dialysis (4)
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Term
what are the consequences of hyperparathyroidism? |
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Definition
(i) Hyperparathyroidism
1. inc PTH
a. Kidneys
inc Ca
dec P
b. Bones
inc Ca resorp
inc P resorp
c. Calcitriol
inc Ca absorp
inc P absorp |
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Term
how is prerenal, renal, and postrenal azotemia distinguished? |
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Definition
pre-renal: elevated SG
renal: reduced SG or isosthenuric, but not hyposthenuric usually
post-renal: hyperK, hypoNa, poss hi BUN/hi Creat and low protein in abdominal fluid |
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