Term
Which phase of the nursing process requires the the nurse to establish a comprehensive baseline of date concerning a particular patient |
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Definition
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Term
The nurse may revise or eliminate unrealistic goals during which phase of the nursing process |
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Definition
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Term
Prescribed meds are prepared and administered during which phase of the nursing process |
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Definition
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Term
During which phase of the nursing process does the nurse prioritize the nursing diagnoses |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is part of a complete med history a. Street drugs b. Current lab work c. Past history of surgieries d. Family history |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following must occur for a goal statement to be patient centered? a. Famly input must be considered in developing the goal. b. The patient must be involved in establishing the goal c. the nurse must dev the goal D. the DR. must be involved in establishing the goal |
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Definition
b. The patient must be involved in establishing the goal |
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Term
Number the following in order from fastest absorption t to slowest 1 being fastest 4 being slowest Capsules, Enteric coated tablets, elixirs, powders |
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Definition
1. Elixirs 2.Powders, 3. Capsules 4. Enteric Tablets |
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Term
Elimination from the body occurs mainly in? |
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Definition
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Term
The nurse is aware that excessive drug dosages, poor circulation, imparied metabolism, or inadequate excretion may result in which drug effect |
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Definition
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Term
Half life of a drug is what? |
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Definition
how long it takes for 50% of the drug to be eliminated from the body |
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Term
First pass effect is through which routes |
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Definition
Oral, rectal, hepatic artery, and portal vein |
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Term
Enzyme interaction is what? |
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Definition
If a and when a drug binds w/ an enzyme and prevents the enzyme from binding to its normal target cell. |
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Term
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Definition
What the drug does to the body |
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Term
what the body does to the drug is called |
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Definition
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Term
The physiologic factor that is most reponsibile for the differances in pharmacokinetic and pharmcodynamic behavior of drungs in neonates and adults |
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Definition
the immaturity of neonated organs |
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Term
When considering drug thearpy in peds patients, the nurse recognizes that which group of drugs is most toxic for children |
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Definition
phenobarbital, morphine and aspirin |
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Term
Peds med doses should be based on what? |
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Definition
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Term
Drug doses in elderly should be based on what? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
No risk to animal fetus, no info on humans |
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Term
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Definition
Adverse effects are reported in animal no info on humans |
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Term
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Definition
Possible risk to fetus, benefits may outweigh risks |
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Term
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Definition
Fetal Abnormalities reported |
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Term
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Definition
No med use, need protocol, high abuse ( Herion LSD, pot |
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Term
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Definition
accepted use, High abuse, EX: MS demerol |
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Term
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Definition
accepted use less abuse than CAT 2 EX: codeine, nonopoid preparations |
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Term
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Definition
Accepted use, less abuse than Cat III EX: Benzos ( Valium and Zanax |
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Term
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Definition
Accepted use less abuse than Cat IV drugs EX: cough preparations |
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Term
Which cat of drugs is a PCP not allowed to mark refill on prescription |
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Definition
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Term
Ethical principle of do no harm is known as? |
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Definition
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Term
What legal act required drug makes to establish the saftey and Efficacy of new drugs before its approval of use |
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Definition
Kefauver-Harris Amendments of 1962 |
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Term
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Definition
an inert substance that is not a drug |
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Term
A _________ is defined as any preventable adverse drug event that involves inappropriate med use by a patient or health care pro. It may or may not cause harm to the patients |
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Definition
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Term
An ________ reaction is defined as an abnormal and unexpected response to a medication, other than an allergic reaction, that is peculiar to an indvidual patient |
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Definition
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Term
A __________ is a type of adverse drug event that is defined as any unexpected, unintended or excessive response to a med |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
A _______ is any undesirable effect of a med that is expected or anticipated to occur in patients who reciee a given med |
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Definition
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Term
A ________ is an undesirable occurrene related to admin of or faliur to admin a prescribed med |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: all ADRs are ADEs |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: All ADEs are caused by med errors |
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Definition
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Term
Classes of drugs commonly used OTC include? |
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Definition
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, Cold remedies, Smoking deterents, H2 Blockers |
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Term
What is an advantage of an OTC |
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Definition
Patient can self treat minor ailmetns and reduce Dr. visits |
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Term
The FDA does what regarding the manufacture or herbal prdocuts |
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Definition
Defines herbal products as dietary supplements |
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Term
Tachyphylaxis may develop in a patient who is taking what herbal product |
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Definition
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Term
The nurse admitting a patient who has a diagnosis of the RLL pneumonia. Assesing her she notices a herbal pack on her chest. What should the nurse do |
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Definition
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Term
A illegal stimulant that is either snorted or injected intravenously |
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Definition
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Term
A stimulaant that is popular at college raves |
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Definition
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Term
Used in managing w/drawl from barbiturates |
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Definition
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Term
An opioid that is injected by mainling or skin popping |
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Definition
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Term
What is disulfiram used for |
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Definition
Used to deter use of alcohol while in in treatment |
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Term
What is disulfiram used for |
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Definition
Used to deter use of alcohol while in in treatment |
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Term
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Definition
An opioid antagonist used for opioid abuse or dependence |
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Term
This a a nicotine free treatment for nicotine dependence |
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Definition
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Term
The source plant for heroin |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
A patient who has been taking disulfiram for 3 months has stopped taking it for 2 days. He goes with friend to have a beer, what might happen? |
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Definition
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Term
The most common drug effects leading to abuse of opioids include |
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Definition
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Term
What can happen if you mix benzos w/ ethanol or barbiturates? |
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Definition
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Term
A patient w/ a known history of chronic excessive ingestion of ethanol has develpoed memory loss and comes to the health clinic w/ hard to believe stories of what has happened to him. What are these symptoms indicative of? |
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Definition
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Term
A type of epilepsy with an unknown cause |
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Definition
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Term
a potentiall fatal adverse effect of valproic acid |
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Definition
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Term
A brief episode of abnormal electrical activity in the nerve cells of the brain |
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Definition
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Term
IV administered antiepileptic drugs should be delivered this way to avoid serious adverse effects |
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Definition
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Term
A type of epilepsy that has a distinct cause |
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Definition
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Term
This is an involuntary spasmodic contraction of voluntary muscles through out the body |
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Definition
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Term
These are the 1st line of drugs for status epilpetics |
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Definition
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Term
This barbiturate is used to control Tonic-clonic and partial seizures |
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Definition
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Term
The metabolic process that occurs when the metabolism of a drug increases over time which leads to a lower than expected drug concentrations |
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Definition
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Term
Recurrent episodes of convulsive seizures |
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Definition
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Term
1st line antiepilpetic drug, long term use can lead to gingival hyperplasia |
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Definition
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Term
A teen age girl has seizures characterized by temporary lapses in consciousness that lasts only a few seconds, her teacher says she day dreams to much. These types of seizures are known as what? |
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Definition
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Term
This is a life threatening emergency in which patients typically do not regain consciouness |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is true about IV infusion of phenytoin a. it should injected quickly b. it should be injected slowly c. it should be followed by injection of sterle saline d. Continous infusion should be avoided |
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Definition
b. it should be injected slowly c. it should be followed by injection of sterle saline d. Continous infusion should be avoided |
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Term
What is a possible adverse effect of phenobarbital therapy |
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Definition
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Term
What is considered the 1st choice for treatent of status epilepticus |
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Definition
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Term
A patient who is experiencing neuropathic pain tells the nurse that the physician is going to start him on a new medicatio that is generally used to treat seizures. What is it? |
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Definition
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Term
a patient w/ PD that has difficulty performing voulntary movements? THis is known as what? |
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Definition
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Term
What drug is used in early stages of PD but looses its efectiveness |
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Definition
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Term
A patient w/ PD that is taking levodopa should avoid this vitamin supplement |
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Definition
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Term
T or F: A PD patient begining med treatment with entacapone should not notice an immediate effect |
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Definition
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Term
Anticholinergic drugs administered during treatment of PD are given to minimize which of the following symptoms a. Drooling b. COnstipation c. Muscle Rigidity d. bradykinesia |
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Definition
Drooling, and Muscle Rigidity |
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Term
A patient on levodopa for 4 month has been instructed to stop taking it for ten days the patient should expect what to happen |
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Definition
A possible stay in the hospital during the time he is not taking the drug |
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Term
Patients on the newer antipyschotic drugs such as quetiapine(seroquel) should be cautioned about what problem with beginining these drugs |
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Definition
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Term
When giving hydroxyzine IM the nurse should use? |
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Definition
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Term
The wife of a patient who is on anti-depressants asks how long will it to for him to feel better? How should you respond |
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Definition
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Term
Extrapyramidal efects of drugs include: |
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Definition
Tremors, painful muscle spasms, motor restlessness |
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Term
What can happen if you take MAOI's and eat a food containing tyramine |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
a 2nd gen anti depressant |
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Term
Patients taking MAOI's should avoid food containing this substance |
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Definition
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Term
Antidepressants drugs that block the Reuptake of amine neurotransmitter |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Used to describe a major emotional disorder that impairs the mental function of the affected individual to the exten that the indivdual cannot participate in everyday life |
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Term
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Definition
A state characterized by an expansive emotional stat and hyperactivity |
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Term
This a frequently prescribes benzodiazepine |
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Definition
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Term
The most widely used tricyclic antidepressant |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
Atypical antipysch drug used to treat schizophrenia |
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Term
A group of psychotropic drugs prescribed to alleviate anxiety |
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Definition
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Term
Lithium is used for what? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
an unpleasent stat of mind in which real or imagined dangers are anticipated and/or exaggerated |
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Term
What is an affective disorder |
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Definition
Emotional disorders characterized by changes in mood |
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Term
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Definition
An abnormal emotional state characterized by exaggerated feelings of sadness, melancholy and worthlessness out of proportion to reality |
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Term
Phenelzine is classified as what type of drug |
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Definition
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Term
What is Bipolar Affective disorder |
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Definition
A major pyschologic disorder characterzed by episodes of mania or hypomania, cycling w/ depression |
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Term
What is doxapram used for |
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Definition
to treat respiratory insufficiency associated w/ COPD |
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Term
Which of the following are results of the CNS by stimulant drugs? a. increased fatigue b. decrease drowsiness c. incresed respiration d. bradycardia e. euphoria |
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Definition
b. decrease drowsiness c. incresed respiration e. euphoria |
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Term
Serotonin agonists are newer CNS stimulants used to treat what? |
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Definition
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Term
Orlistat(Xenical) is used to treat what? |
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Definition
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Term
A child is taking drugs for ADHD, the nurse should instruct the caregivers to closely monitor what? |
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Definition
physical growth. esp weight |
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Term
Common uses of crystalloids include? |
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Definition
Fluid replacement Promotion of urinary flow Replacement of e-lytes As maintenance fluids |
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Term
the IV order for a newly admitted patient calls for "Normal saline to run at 100mL/hr". The nurse will choose what concentration of normal saline |
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Definition
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Term
A patient has been admitted with severe dehydration after working outside on a very hot day. The nurse expects which IV fluid to be ordered for rapid fluid replacement |
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Definition
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Term
When giving IV potassium, what is important for the nurse to remeber? |
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Definition
It must always be given in diluted form |
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Term
A patient is receiving blood products the nurse should monitor for what signs of possible transfusion reaction |
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Definition
Apprehension, restlessness, fever and chills |
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Term
What product is used to increase clotting factor lvls in patients w/ a demonstrated deficiency rather than for routine resuscitation? |
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Definition
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Term
Another name for adrenergic drugs is? |
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Definition
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Term
Adrenergic drugs produce what side effects? |
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Definition
Glycogenolysis and Increased Heart Rate |
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Term
Adrenergic drugs may be used to treat which of the following: A. Asthma B. Glaucoma C. Hypertension D. Nasal Congestion E. Seizures F. N/V |
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Definition
Asthma, Glaucoma, Nasal Congestion |
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Term
A women was just stung by a bee and she is allergic to bees. She has a bee sting kit what type of neurotransmitter is this kit most likely to contain |
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Definition
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Term
When administering insulin the nurse must keep in mind the most immediate and serious adverse effect of insulin therapy is what? |
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Definition
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Term
A dose of long acting insulin is ordered for a diabetic patient at bedtime, you expect to give what type of insulin |
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Definition
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|
Term
What type of insulin can be given intravenously |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are some signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia |
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Definition
Weakness, sweating, and confusion |
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Term
When giving oral acarbose(precose), you should administer it at what time |
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Definition
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|
Term
A patient taking rosiglitazone(Avandia) tells the Nurse " theres my insulin pill" the nurse describes the mechanism of action by explaining that this drug is not insulin but works by? |
|
Definition
Decreasing insulin resistance |
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|
Term
Antibiotics taken before exposure to an infectious organism in an effort to prevent the dev of a super infection |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The classification of the drug doxycycline |
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Definition
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|
Term
An antibiotic derived from fungus or mold |
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Definition
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|
Term
Antibiotics that kill bacteria are called |
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Definition
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|
Term
THe classification of the drug cefazolin |
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Definition
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|
Term
The classification of erythromycin |
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Definition
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|
Term
Classification for the drug sulfisoxazole |
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Definition
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|
Term
Antibiotics that inhibit growth of bacteria |
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Definition
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Term
An infection that occurs during antimicrobial treatment for another infection and involves overgrowth of a nonsusceptible organisms |
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Definition
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Term
Drug interactions occurs between penicillins and which of the following: A. Alcohol B. Oral contraceptives C: Digoxin D. Nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs E. Warfarin F. Anti convulsants |
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Definition
Oral Contraceptives, Nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs, Warfarin |
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Term
What intervention is important for the nurse to perform before begining antibiotic therapy |
|
Definition
Obtain a culture for culture and sensitivity |
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Term
You will instruct a patient taking a tetracycline antibiotic to? |
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Definition
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Term
When patients are receiving aminoglycosides, the nurse must monitor for tinnitus, which may indicate what? |
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Definition
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Term
A patient is being prepared for colon surgery, and will be taking neomycin tablets the day before the surgery, and he asks why he needs to take the neomycin. The best response would be? A. The medicine helps clean out the bowels before surgery? B. It helps reduce the # of bacteria in your intestines C. It is given to sterilize the bowel D. It is given to prevent infection after surgery |
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Definition
B. It helps reduce the # of bacteria in your intestines |
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Term
A patient has a stage 2 decubitous ulcer, the culture comes back postive for MRSA, what is the drug of choice to treat MRSA |
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Definition
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Term
A patient who is on vancomycin therapy should notify the nurse immediately if which of the following effects are noted? A. Ringing in the ears B. Dizziness C. Hearing Loss D. Fullness in the ears |
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Definition
A. Ringing in the ears B. Dizziness C. Hearing Loss D. Fullness in the ears |
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Term
Acyclovir is considered the drug of choice for what virus |
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Definition
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Term
When administering ganciclovir, the nurse keeps in mind that the main dose limiting toxicity for this drug is what |
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Definition
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Term
When reviewing the health history of a patient who is to receive Foscarnet, you know that what condition whould contraindicate its use |
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Definition
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|
Term
Amantadine would be used most appropriately in someone who? |
|
Definition
has a heart transplant and is to receive a prophylaxis for influenza |
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|
Term
During isoniazid therapy, you will monitor closely what lab results |
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Definition
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|
Term
You should teach the patient what if he/she is on a isoniazid |
|
Definition
Pyridoxine may be needed to prevent neurotoxicity |
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|
Term
Patients who are in the initial period of treatment for TB should be taught what |
|
Definition
Wash their hand and cover their mouths when coughing or sneezing, throw away dirty tissues, be sure to adequate rest, nutrition, and relaxation |
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|
Term
How long can a newly diagnosed TB patient expect to take meds for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Why are multiple meds used in the drug regimen for TB |
|
Definition
Reduces the possibility of the organism becoming drug resistant |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Single celled fungi that reproduce by budding |
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|
Term
One of the major groups of antifungal drugs, includes amphotericin B and nystatin |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A very large, diverse group of eukaryotic, thallus forming microorganisms that require and external source of of carbon |
|
Definition
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|
Term
One of the major antifungal drug groups examples are Ketoconazole, miconazole, and clotrmazole |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A yeast infection in the mouth is called |
|
Definition
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|
Term
An older antifungal that prevents susceptible fungi from reproducing |
|
Definition
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|
Term
THe oldest antifungal drug |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Used to treat candidal diaper rash |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Infection caused by fungi |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Multicellular fungi characterized by long, branching filament called hyphae, which entwine to form a mycelium |
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Definition
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|
Term
Treatment for an infant w/ thrush |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are some adverse effects of amphotericin B |
|
Definition
Fever, Malaise, and chills |
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|
Term
What med is often a one dose treatment for vaginal candidiasis |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This is the drug of choice for severe systemic fungal infections |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Adrenergic blockade at the alpha adrenergic receptors leads to which of the following effects
A. Vasodilation B Decreased BP C. Increased BP D. COnstriction of Pupil E Tachycardia |
|
Definition
Vasodilation Decreased BP Constriction of the pupil |
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|
Term
You discover that the IV infusion on a patient who has been receiving an IV vasopressor has infiltrated. What drug will you use to reverse the effects of the vasopressor on the infiltrated area? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is a contraindication of some taking ergotamine for migraine headaches? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A patient of yours is taking prazosin for treatment for a benign prostatic hypertrophy. What is important to teach him about the effects of this med |
|
Definition
Change positions slowly to avoid orthostatic changes |
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|
Term
You have been taking a beta-blocker for 6 months what could happen if you just stop taking it? |
|
Definition
Chest pain and/or reboundhypertension |
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|
Term
Atropine is used for what? |
|
Definition
Antidote for OD of a cholinergic drug |
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|
Term
This is a cholinergic drug that acts by making more ACh available at the recepetor site |
|
Definition
Indirect-acting cholinergic drug |
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|
Term
Cholinergic drugs that bind to cholinergic receptors and activate them |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Muscarinic receptors are located where? |
|
Definition
postsynaptically in the effector organs, supplied by the parasympathetic fibers |
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|
Term
Nicotinic receptors are located where? |
|
Definition
In the ganglia of the PSNS and the SNS |
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|
Term
Describe the action of the PSNS |
|
Definition
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|
Term
This neurotransmitter is responsible for the transmission of the nerve impulses to the effector cells in the PSNS |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Cholinesterase does what? |
|
Definition
Enzyme that breaks down ACh |
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|
Term
The desired effect of cholinergic drugs come from stimulating these receptors |
|
Definition
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|
Term
The undesirable effect of cholinergic drugs comes from stimulation of these receptors |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Bethanechol is used to treat what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What drug is used for symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Early signs of a cholinergic crisis would include which of the following
A. dry mouth B. Salivation C. FLushing of the skin D. Ab cramps E Constipation F Dyspnea |
|
Definition
Salivation Flushing of the skin Ab cramps Dyspnea |
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|
Term
What drug would you give to someone having a cholinergic crisis? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Before giving an anticholinergig drug you should check the patients history for what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Adverse effects of anticholinergic drugs are? |
|
Definition
Dilated pupils Dry mouth Urinary retention |
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|
Term
Taking anticholinergic drugs places you at a higer risk for what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What medication is preferred oral glucocorticoid for antiinflammatory or immunosuppreant purposes? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Adverse effects from taking corticosteroisds include? |
|
Definition
Fragile skin Increase glucose lvls Nervousness |
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|
Term
A patient w/ Cushing's syndrome is prescribe a drug that inhibits the function of the adrenal cortex, what drug is this? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A patient who has been taking corticosteroids has developed a "moon face" and facial redness, and has many bruises on her arms. What would be a good Nursing Dx for her? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Corticosteroids cause sodium retention what should you closely montior patient for that is receiving this med |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Before begining antiprotozoal therapy you should assess for what possible contraindications? |
|
Definition
Underlying renal, cardic, thyroid, or liver diease and pregnancy |
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|
Term
You should warn your patient that is taking thiabendazole about what possible adverse effect |
|
Definition
urine w/ an asparagus like fragrance |
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|
Term
What can you Dr. prescribe that can make the antibiotic quinine more effective in treating malaria |
|
Definition
a sulfonamide or tetracycline |
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|
Term
What drugs are used mainly for the management of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia |
|
Definition
Pentramidine and atovaquone |
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|