define: diuretics

Which of the following are indications for the use of diuretics? select all that apply

a. to increase urine output

b. to reduce uric acid levels

c. to treat hypertension

d. to treat open-angle glaucoma

e. to treat edema associated with heart failure 

a. to increase urine output

c. to treat hypertension

d. to treat open-angle glaucoma

e. to treat edema associated with heart failure

when providing patient teaching to a patient who is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic such as spironolactone (Aldactone), the nurse should include which dietary guidelines?

a. there are no dietary restrictions with this medication

b.  the patient should consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas and orange juice.

c. the patient should avoid foods high in potassium

d. the patient should drink 1 to 2 L of fluid per day 

when teaching a patient about diuretic therapy, the nurse notes that which of the following is the best time of day to take these medications?

a. morning

b. midday

c. bedtime

d. time of day does not matter 

when monitoring a patient for hypokalemia related to diuretic use, the nurse looks for which possible symptoms?

a. nausea, vominting, and anorexia

b. diarrhea and abdominal pain 

c. orthostatic hypotension

d. muscle weakness and lethargy 

a patient with severe heart failure has been started on therapy with a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (CAI), but the nurse mentions that this medication may be stopped in a few days.  Which of the following is the reason for this short treatment?

a. CAIs are not the first choice for treatment of heart failure

b. CAIs lose their diuretic effect in 2 to 4 days because metabolic acidosis develops

c. it is expected that the CAIs will dramatically reduce the fluid overload related to the heart failure

d. allergic reactions to the CAIs are common 

Common uses of crystalloids include which of the following? select all that apply

a. fluid replacement

b. promotion of urinary flow

c. transport of oxygen to cells

d. replacement of electrolytes

e. as maintenance fluids

f. replacement of clotting factors 

a. fluid replacement

b. promotion of urinary flow

d. replacement of electrolytes

e. as maintenance fluids

the intravenous order for a newly admitted patient calls for "normal saline to run at 100 mL/hr". the nurse will choose which concentration of normal saline?

a. 0.33%

b. 0.45%

c. 0.9%

d. 3.0% 

a patient has been admitted with severe dehydration after working outside on a very hot day.  the nurse expects which intravenous fluid to be ordered for rapid fluid replacement?

a. albumin

b. hetastarch

c. fresh frozen plasma

d. 3% sodium chloride 

when giving intravenous potassium, which of the following is important for the nurse to remember?

a. intravenous doses are preferred over oral dosage forms

b. intravenous solutions should contain at least 50 mEq/L 

c. it must always be given in diluted form

d. it should be given by slow intravenous bolus 

when a patient is receiving blood products, the nurse monitors for signs of a possible transfusion reaction, such as which of the following?

a. subnormal temperature and hyptertension

b. apprehension, restlessness, fever, and chills

c. decreased pulse and respirations and fever

d. headache, nausea, and lethargy 

which product is used to increase clotting factor levels in patients with a demonstrated deficiency rather than for routine fluid resuscitation?

a. plasma protein fraction

b. fresh frozen plasma

c. packed red blood cells

d. albumin 

bismuth subsalicylate (pepto-bismol) would be the treatment of choice for which patient?

a. a 7 year old child who has chickenpox

b. a 23 year old woman who has severe abdominal pain

c. a 45 year old man who is complaining of constipation

d. a 58 year old man who developed diarrhea after traveling out of the country 

because of the possibility of toxicity, a patient who is self-treating with pepto-bismol should be told to avoid

a. aspirin

b. acetaminophen

c. calcium supplements

d. vitamin tablets 

a patient asks for a medication that will provide rapid reflief of contipation.  after ruling out possible contraindications, the nurse should suggest which of the following?

a. psyllium (metamucil)

b. methylcellulose (citrucel)

c. docusate sodium (colace) 

d. magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) 

a patient has been given PEG-3350 in a solution called GoLYTELY as preparation for a colonoscopy.  he started having diarrhea after about 45 minutes.  two hours later, he tells the nurse that "the  diarrhea has not stopped yet".  what should the nurse do?

a. give him an antidiarrheal drug, such as loperamide (Lomotil)

b. give him another dose of the GoLYTELY to finish cleansing his bowel

c. remind him that it may take up to 4 hours to completely evacuate the bowel

d. report this to the physician 

a 79 year old woman visits the clinic today and tells the nurse that her "bowels just aren't right".  she wants advice on the best laxative to take so that she can have a BM every day.  which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?  select all that apply.

a. "a normal bowel pattern does not necessarily mean that you will have a BM every day"

b. "try taking metamucil with sips of water"

c. "you can try taking milk of magnesia every other day- it's a mild laxative"

d. "increasing fluids and fiber in you diet are better alternatives than laxative use" 

a. "a normal bowel pattern does not necessarily mean that you will have a BM every day"

d. "increasing fluids and fiber in you diet are better alternatives than laxative use"

which drugs may cause drowsiness and drying of secretions when given to reduce nausea?

a. antihistamines

b. neuroleptics

c. serotonin blockers

d. tetrahydrocannabinoids 

which class of antinausea drugs has proven to be very effective in preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?  select all that apply

a. antihistamines

b. neuroleptics

c. serotonin blockers

d. anticholinergics

e. tetrahydrocannabinoids 

c. serotonin blockers

e. tetrahydrocannabinoids

a patient is undergoing chemotherapy.  when giving antiemetics, the nurse will remember that these drugs are most effective against nausea when given

a. before meals

b. at bedtime

c. before the chemotherapy begins

d. just after the chemotherapy begins 

when giving dronabinol to a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), the nurse knows that this drug may also have what effect in addition to reducing nausea?

a. euphoria

b. enhanced appetite

c. reduced pain

d. enhanced sleep 

match each definition with the corresponding term

specialized protein that catalyzes chemical reactions in organic matter

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

f. pellagra                            l. water-soluble vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a deficiency of cyanocobalamin

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

f. pellagra                            l. water-soluble vit

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a disease of the peripheral nerves caused by an inability to assimilate thiamine

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

an essential organic compound that can be dissolved in water but is not stored in the body for long periods of time

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

match each definition with the corresponding term

a disease resulting from a niacin deficiency or a metabolic defect that interferes with the conversion of tryptophan to niacin

a. beriberi                           g. pernicious anemia

b. coenzyme                        h. rickets 

c. enzyme                            i. scurvy

d. fat-soluble enzyme            j. tocopherols

e. mineral                            k. vitamin

when giving vitamins, the nurse needs to remember that certain vitamins can be toxic if consumed in excess amounts.  These include which of the following?  select all that apply

a. vitamin A

b. vitamin C

c. niacin

d. vitamin D

e. vitamin K

f. folic acid 

a. vitamin A

d. vitamin D

e. vitamin K

a patient believes that taking megadoses of vitamin C is healthy.  the nurse should tell the patient that megadoses of vitamin C

a. are usually nontoxic because vitamin C is water-soluble

b. can produce nausea, vomiting, headache, and abdominal cramps

c. can led to scurvy like symptoms

d. may cause dangerous heart dysrhythmias 

if excessive amounts of water-soluble vitamins are ingested, what usually happens?

a. the body will store them in muscle and fat tissue until needed.

b. they are stored in the liver until needed

c. they circulate in the blood, bound to proteins, until needed

d. excess amounts are excreted in the urine 

when reviewing the diet of a patient who has a calcium deficiency, the nurse recalls that efficient absorption of calcium in the diet requires adequate amounts of which of the following?

a. magnesium

b. intrinic factor

c. coenzymes

d. vitamin D 

when monitoring patients who are taking digoxin, the nurse keeps in mind that the serum digoxin level should be which of the following?

a. 0.1 to 0.5 ng/mL

b. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL

c. 2 to 5 ng/mL

d. 5 to 8.4 ng/mL 

a patient is experiencing digitalis toxicity.  The nurse would expect an order for which drug?

a. vitamin K

b. atropine

c. digoxin immune Fab

d. potassium 

before giving oral digoxin, the nurse discovers that the patient's radial pulse is 55 bpm.  the nurse's next action should be to

a. give the dose

b. delay the dose until later

c. hold the dose and notify the physician

d. check the apical pulse for one minute 

which statement regarding digoxin therapy and potassium levels is correct?

a. low potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity

b. high potassium levels increase the chance of digoxin toxicity

c. digoxin reduces the excretion of potassium in the kidneys

d. digoxin promotes the excretion of potassium in the kidneys 

when infuxing amrinone, the nurse should keep in mind which of the following?

a. the medication should be mixed in saline before administration

b. the true color of IV amrinone is clear yellow 

c. the drug may cause reddish discoloration of the extremeties

d. hypertension is the primary effect seen with excessive dose 

when caring for a patient who is taking digoxin, the nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of toxicity, including which of the following?  select all that apply.

a. anorexia

b. diarrhea

c. visual changes

d. nausea and vomiting

e. headache

f. bradycardia 

a. anorexia

c. visual changes

the antidysrhythmic drug lidocaine is used mainly to treat which of the following?

a. atrial fibrillation

b. bradycardia

c. complete heart block

d. ventricular dysrhythmias 

when monitoring a patient who is taking quinidine, the nurse recognizes that which of the following is a possible adverse effect of this drug?

a. weakness

b. tachycardia

c. gastrointestinal upset

d. hypertension 

when administering amiodarone, the nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

a. pulmonary toxicity

b. hypertension

c. urinary retention

d. visual halos 

a primary use of verapamil is to treat which of the following conditions?

a. cardiac asystole

b. heart block

c. ventricular dysrhythmia, including premature ventricular contraction

d. recurrent paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) 

a patient is experiencing a rapid dysrhythmia, and the nurse is preparing to administer adenosine.  Which is the correct administration technique for this drug?

a. it should be given as a fast IV push

b. it should be given IV, slowly, over at least 5 min. 

c. it should be taken with food or milk

d. it should be given as a IV drip infusion 

if a drug has a prodysrhythmic effect, then the nurse must monitor the patient for which of the following?

a. decreased heart rate

b. new dysrhythmias

c. a decrease in sysrhythmias

d. reduced blood pressure 

Match the site to its correct intrinsic rate:

sinoatrial node

1. 40 to 60 bpm

2. 40 or fewer bpm

3. 60 to 100 bpm 

Match the site to its correct intrinsic rate:

atrioventricular node

1. 40 to 60 bpm

2. 40 or fewer bpm

3. 60 to 100 bpm

Match the site to its correct intrinsic rate:

purkinje fibers

1. 40 to 60 bpm

2. 40 or fewer bpm

3. 60 to 100 bpm

the purpose of antianginal drug therapy is to

a. increase myocardial oxygen demand

b. increase blood flow to peripheral arteries

c. increase blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscle

d. decrease blood flow to ischemic cardiac muscle 

a patient taking nitroglycerin should be taught that a common adverse effect of this drug is

a. blurred vision

b. dizziness

c. headache

d. weakness

nitroglycerin is available in which of the following forms?  select all that apply

a. continuous IV drip

b. IV bolus

c. sublingual spray

d. oral dosage forms

e. topical ointment

f. rectal suppository 

for a patient using transdermal patches, the nurse recognizes that the best way to prevent tolerance to nitrates is to do which of the following?

a. leave the old patch on for 2 hours when applying a new patch

b. apply a new patch every other day

c. leave the patch off for 24 hours once a week

d. remove the patch at night for 8 hours and then apply a new patch in the morning 

patients who are taking β-blockers for angina need to be taught that these drugs

a. are for long-term prevention of angina episodes

b. should be taken as soon as angina pain occurs

c. should be discontinued if dizziness is experienced

d. should be carried with them at all times in case angina occurs 

which type of antianginal medication is most effective for the treatment of coranary atery spasms?

a. β-blockers

b. calcium channel blockers

c. nitrates

d. nitrites 

match each term with its corresponding definition

diuretics

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

j. an abnormal intraperitoneal accumulation of fluid 

match each term with its corresponding definition

potassium-sparing diuretics

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

ascites

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

CAIs

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

loop diuretics

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

nephron

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

match each term with its corresponding definition

GFR

a. potent diuretics that act along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; furosemide is an example

b. abbreviation for the term that describes an index of how well the kidneys are functioning as filters

c. a general term for drugs that accelerate the rate of urine formation

d. the main structural unit of the kidney

e. a term for diuretics that cause the body to lose potassium

f. diuretics that result in the diuresis of Na and H₂O and the retention of K; spironolactone is an example

g. diuretics that act on the distal convoluted tubule, where they inhibit Na and H₂O resorption; HCTZ is an example

h. abbreviation for a class of diuretics that inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase; acetazolamide is an example

i. drugs that induce diuresis by increasing the osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, which results in a rapid diuresis; mannitol is an example

which of the following are indications for the use of diuretics?  select all that apply

a. to increase urine output

b. to reduce uric acid levels

c. to treat hypertension

d. to treat open-angle glaucoma

e. to treat edema associated with heart failure 

when providing patient teaching to a patient who is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic such as spironolactone (aldactone), the nurse should include which dietary guidelines?

a. there are no dietary restrictions with this medication

b. the patient should consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas and orange juice

c. the patient should avoid foods high in potassium

d. the patient should drink 1 to 2 L of fluid/ day 

when teaching a patient about diuretic therapy, the nurse notes that which of the following is the best time of day to take these medications?

a. morning

b. midday

c. bedtime

d. time of day does not matter 

when monitoring a patient with hypokalemia related to diuretic use, the nurse looks for which possible symptoms?

a. nausea, vomiting, and anorexia

b. diarrhea adn abdominal pain

c. orthostatic hypotension

d. muscle weakness and lethargy 

a patient with severe heart failure has been started on therapy with a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (CAI), but the nurse mentions that this medication may be stopped in a few days.  which of the following is the reason for this short treatment?

a. CAIs are not the first choice for treatment of heart failure

b. CAIs lose their diuretic effect in 2-4 days because metabolic acidosis develops

c. it is expected that the CAIs will dramatically reduce the fluid overload related to the heart failure 

d. allergic reactions to the CAIs are common 

common uses of crystalloids include which of the following?  select all that apply

a. fluid replacement

b. promotion of urinary flow

c. transport of oxygen to cells

d. relacement of electrolytes

e. as maintenance fluids

f. replacement of clotting factors 

a. fluid replacement

b. promotion of urinary flow

d. relacement of electrolytes

e. as maintenance fluids

the IV arder for a newly admitted patient calls for "Normal saline to rum at 100 mL/hr".  the nurse will choose which concentration of normal saline?

a. 0.33%

b. 0.45%

c. 0.9%

d. 3% 

a patient has been admitted with severe dehydration after working outside on a very hot day.  the nurse expects which IV fluid to be ordered for rapid fluid replacement?

a. albumin

b. hetastarch

c. fresh frozen plasma

d. 3% sodium chloride 

when giving IV potassium, which of the following is important for the nurse to remember?

a. IV doses are preferred over oral dosage forms

b. IV solutions should contain at least 50 mEq/L

c. it must always be given in diluted form

d. it should be given by slow IV bolus 

when a patient is receiving blood products, the nurse monitors for signs of a possible transfusion reaction, such as which of the following?

a. subnormal temperature and hypertension

b. apprehension, restlessness, fever, and chills

c. decreased pulse and respirations and fever

d. headache, nausea, and lethargy 

which product is used to increase clotting factor levels in patients with a demonstrated deficiency rather than for routine fluid resuscitation?

a. plasma protein fraction

b. fresh frozen plasma

c. packed red blood cells

d. albumin 

high blood pressure associated with diseases such as renal, pulmonary, endocrine, and vascular diseases is known as _____ hypertension.

ace 

for which f the following conditions is the use of anticoagulants appropriate?  select all that apply

a. atrial fibrillation

b. thrombocytopenia

c. myocardial infarction

d. presence of mechanical heart valve

e. aneurysm

f. leukemia 

during teaching of a patient who will be taking warfarin sodium (coumadin) at home, which statement by the nurse is correct regarding over-the-counter drug use?

a. "choose NSAIDs as needed for pain relief"

b. "ASA products may result in increased anticoagulant effect"

c. "vit. E therapy is recommended to improve the effect of the coumadin"

d. "mineral oil is the laxative of choice while taking anticoagulants" 

which drug has antiplatelet properites?

a. aspirin

b. warfarin sodium

c. heparin

d. streptokinase 

when administering subcut. heparin, the nurse should rememeber to do which of the following?

a. use the same sites for injection to reduce trauma

b. use a 1" needle for SQ injections

c. inject the medication without aspirating for blood return

d. massage the site after the injection to increase absorption 

during thrombolytic therapy, the nurse monitors for bleeding.  which symptoms may indicate a serious bleeding problem?  select all that apply

a. hypertension

b. hypotension

c. decreased LOC

d. incresed pulse rate

e. restlessness 

which drug is indicated for the prevention and treatment of DVT after knee or hip replacement sx?

a. antiplatelet drugs, such as aspirin

b. adenosine diphosphate (ADP) inhibitors, such as clopidogrel (Plavix)

c. anticoagulants, such as warfarin sodium (coumadin)

d. low-molecular weight heparins, such as enoxaparin (Lovenox) 

pts. taking cholestryramine may experience which of the following adverse effects?

a. blurred vision and photophobia

b. drowsiness and difficulty concentrating

c. diarrhea and abdominal cramps

d. belching and bloating 

dietary measures for the pt. on antilipemic therapy include which of hte following?  select all that apply

a. taking supplements of fat-soluble vitamins

b. taking supplements of B vitamins

c. increasing fluid intake

d. choosing foods that are lower in cholesterol and saturated fats

e. increasing the intake of raw vegetables, fruit, and bran 

in reviewing the history of a newely admitted cardiac pt., the nurse recognizes that which of the following conditions she notes is a contraindication to antilipemic therapy?

a. liver disease

b. renal disease

c. CAD

d. DM 

a woman is being screened in the cardiac clinic for risks factors for coronary artery disease.  which of the following would be considered a negative, or favorable, risk factor for her?

a. HDL cholesterol level of 30 mg/dL

b. HDL cholesterol level of 75 mg/dL

c. early menopause

d. age of 57 years 

b. HDL cholesterol level of 75 mg/dL

a patient who has stared taking niacin complains that he "hates the side effects".  which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. "you will soon build up tolerance to these side effects"

b. "you should take the niacin on an empty stomach"

c. "you can take the niacin every other day if the side effects are bothersome"

d. "try taking a small dose of ibuprophen or antoher NSAID drug 30 min. before taking the niacin" 

which lipoprotein is often called the "good cholesterol"?

a. VLDL

b. LDL

c. HDL

d. trigylcerides