The muscularis of the GI tract is:

among the structural features of the small intestine are villi, microvilli, and circular folds. 

Their function is to: 

t/f

pyloric stenosis is caused by the prolapse of gastric tissue into the pylorus and results in edema and obstruction 

t/f

tracheoesophageal fistula is often associated with esophageal atresia 

t/f 

poor weight gain associated with gastroesophageal reflux may be ignored because it is a self-limiting disorder

t/f 

intussusception involves a blind pouch in te esophagus

t/f 

kernicterus is present in physiologic jaundice of the newborn

t/f 

increased gastrin secretion in pregnant women may contribute to pyloric stenosis in their infants

t/f 

Diabetes M. may be a complication of cystic fibrosis

t/f 

the pharmacologic approach to gastroesxophageal reflux includes pancreatic enzyme replacement

t/f

congenital aganglionic megacolon is the result of faulty innervation of the colon 

t/f

the pahrmacologic approach to cystic fibrosis includes the administration of medications that increase lower GI motility in an effort to aid passage of large, bulky stools 

t/f

rectal manometry is useful in the diagnosis of aganglionic megacolon 

considering the sequence of structures through which air enters the pulmonary system, the pharynx is to the trachea as the:

a. bronchioles are to the segmental bronchi

b. alveoli are to the alveolar ducts

c. alveolar ducts are to respiratory bronchioles

d. respiratory bronchioles are to the alveolar ducts

e. all of the above 

the cilia of the bronchial wall:

a. ingest bacteria

b . trigger the sneeze reflex

c. trap and remove bacteria

d. propel mucus and trapped bacteria toward the oropharynx

e. a and c 

as the terminal bronchioles are approached:

a. the epithelium becomes thicker

b. mucus-producing glands increase

c. the epithelium becomes thinner

d. cartilaginous support increases

e. the smooth muscle layer thickens 

the left bronchus:

a. is shorter and wider than the right

b. is symmetrical to the right

c. has a course more vertical than the right's

d. is more angled than the right

e. has more bronchial wall layers 

the respiratory unit consists of:

a. cilia

b. bronchiolar arteries and veins

c. goblet cells and alveoli

d. respiratory bronchioles and alveoli

e. all of the above 

alveoli are excellent gas exchange units because of:

a. their large surface area

b. very thin epithelial layer

c. extensive vascularization

d. b and c

e. a, b, and c 

a. their large surface area

b. very thin epithelial layer

c. extensive vascularization

surfactant:

a. facilitates O₂ exchange

b. produces nutrients for the alveoli

c. permits air exchange between alveolar ducts

d. facilitates alveolar expansion during inspiration

e. all of the above 

during expiration, which relationship is true?

a. as the lung vol decreases, the # of molecules of the gas increases

b. as the lung pressure increases, the # of molecules of the gas increases

c. as the lung vol. decreases, the pressure increases

d. as the partial pressure increases, less gas will dissolve in a liquid 

when the diaphragm and external intercostal contract:

a. intrathoracic volume increases

b. intrathoracic pressure increases

c. intrathoracic volume decreases

d. none of the above 

match the term:

inspiratory reserve volume

a. amt. of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration

b. taking an extra deep breath of air just before diving

c. includes sum of tidal, expiratory reserve, and inspiratory reserve volumes

d. the extra air pushed out during a forced exhalation 

match the term:

vital capacity

a. amt. of air remaining in the lungs after a forced expiration

b. taking an extra deep breath of air just before diving

c. includes sum of tidal, expiratory reserve, and inspiratory reserve volumes

oxygen diffusion from the alveolus to the alveolar capillary occurs because:

a. the pO₂ is less in the capillary than in the alveolus

b. the pO₂ is greater in the atmosphere than in the arterial blood

c. oxygen diffuses faster than CO₂

d. the pO₂ is higher in the capillary than in the alveolus

a shift to the right in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve:

a. prevents oxygen release at the cellular level

b. causes oxygen to bind tighter to hemoglobin

c. improves oxygen release and increases oxygen movement into the cells

d. a and b

e. none of the above 

in which sequence does pO₂ progressively decrease?

a. blood in the aorta, atmospheric air, body tissues

b. body tissues, arterial blood, alveolar air

c. body tissues, alveolar air, arterial blood

d. atmospheric air, aortic blood, body tissues 

most O₂ is carried in the blood _____; most CO₂ is carried ______.

a. dissoved in plasma, associated with salt or an acid

b. bound to hemoglobin, associated with bicarbonate/carbonic acid

c. combined with albumin, associated with carbonic acid and hemoglobin

d. bound to hemoglobin, bound to albumin 

alveoli are well-suited for diffusion of respiratory gases because:

a. they are small and thus have a small total surface area

b. vascularization is minimal, allowing greater air circulation

c. they contain four thich layers, preventing air leakage

d. they contain surfactant, which helps prevent alveolar collapse 

which ordinarily brings about the greatest increase in the rate of respiration?

a. excess carbon dioxide

b. increase O₂

c. increased arterial pH

d. sudden rise in blood pressure 

given that the oxygen content of blood equal (1.34 ml of O₂ per gram of hemoglobin) times arterial oxygen saturation percentage, if hemoglobin concentration is 15 g/dl and arterial saturation is 98%, what is the arterial oxygen content?

a. 13.2 ml/dl of blood

b. 19.7

c. 14.7

d. none of the above 

the major muscle(s) of inspiration is (are) the:

a. diaphragm

b. sternocleidomastoid

c. external intercostals

d. internal intercostals

e. a and c 

stretch receptors:

a. are sensitive to volume changes in the lung

b. are located in bronchial smooth muscles

c. decrease ventilatory rate when stimulated

d. prevent lung overinflation when stimulated

e. all of the above 

which of the following increases the respiratory rate?

a. increased pCO₂, decreased pH, decreased pO₂

b. increased pCO₂, increased pH, decreased pO₂

c. decreased pCO_2, decreased pH, increased pO₂

d. decreased pCO₂, decreased pH, decreased pO₂

the dorsal respiratory group (DRG) of neurons:

a. sets the automatic rhythm of respiration

b. modifies the rhythm of respiration

c. is active when increased ventilation is required

d. none of the above 

match the normal range of blood gasses with its arterial or venous state

pCO₂ of 40 mm Hg

a. arterial blood

b. mixed venous blood 

match the normal range of blood gasses with its arterial or venous state

oxygen saturation of 70%

a. arterial blood

b. mixed venous blood

match the normal range of blood gasses with its arterial or venous state

oxygen content of blood of 19-20 ml/dl

a. arterial blood

b. mixed venous blood

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

kussmaul respiration

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia 

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

hemoptysis

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

cyanosis

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

cheyne-stokes respiration

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

pleural space atelectasis

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

bronchiectasis

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

match the pulmonary condition with the characteristic or definition

pneumoconiosis

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

flail chest

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

flail chest

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

pneumothorax

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

abscess

a. inadequate alveolar ventilation

b. ventilation exceeding metabolic demand

c. coughing blood or bloody secretion

d. abnormal dilation of bronchi

e. fibrous tissue or nodules in lungs

f. fractered ribs or sternum

g. increased ventilatory rate, effortless tidal volume, and no expiratory pause

h. decreased arterial oxygenation

i. alveolar collapse

j. pleural space air

k. pleural space pus

l. apnea, increased ventilation, then apnea again

m. aspiration pneumonia

high altitudes may produce hypoxemia by:

a. right-to-left shunts 

b. hypoventilation

c. decreased oxygen inspiration

d. diffusion abnormalities

e. all of the above 

in ARDS, increased alveolocapillary membrane permeability is due to:

a. PAF

b. oxygen-free radicals

c. TNF

d. a and c

e. a, b, and c 

type II pneumocyte damage causes:

a. increased alveolocapillary permeability

b. chemotaxis for neutrophils

c. exudation of fluid from capillaries into interstitium

d. decreased surfactant production

e. all of the above 

pulmonary edema may be caused by abnormal:

a. capillary hydrostatic pressure

b. capillary oncotic pressure

c. capillary permeability

d. a and c

e. a, b, and c 

in bronchial asthma:

a. bronchial muscles contract

b. bronchial muscles relax

c. mucous secretions decrease

d.imbalances within the CNS develop 

asthma is precipitated by which of the following inflammatory mediators? (more than 1)

a. histamine

b. prostaglandins

c. leukotrienes

d. neutrophilic infiltration

a. histamine

b. prostaglandins

c. leukotrienes

d. neutrophilic infiltration

in emphysema:

a. there is increased area for gaseous exchange

b. there are prolonged inspirations

c. the bronchioles are primarily involved

d. there is increased diaphragm movement

e. none of the above 

chronic bronchitis (more than 1):

a. is caused by lack of surfactant

b. is caused by air pollutants

c. exhibits a productive cough

d. causes collapsed alveoli 

b. is caused by air pollutants

c. exhibits a productive cough

which is inconsistent with pneumonia?

a. chest pain, cough, and rales

b. involves only interstitial lung tissue

c. may be caused by mycoplasmas

d. can be lobar pneumonia or bronchopneumonia 

tuberculosis (more than 1):

a. is caused by an aerobic bacillus

b. may affect other organs

c. involves a type III hypersensitivity

d. antibodies may be detected by a skin test 

a. is caused by an aerobic bacillus

b. may affect other organs

d. antibodies may be detected by a skin test

pulmonary emboli usually (more than 1):

a. obstruct blood supply to lung parenchyma

b. originate from thrombi in the legs

c. occlude pulmonary vein branches

d. occlude pulmonary artery branches 

a. obstruct blood supply to lung parenchyma

b. originate from thrombi in the legs

d. occlude pulmonary artery branches

pulmonary hypertension:

a. is seen in elevated left arterial pressure

b. involves deep vein thrombosis

c. shows right ventricular hypertrophy

d. both a and c

e. a, b, and c 

cor pulmonale:

a. occurs in response to long-standing pulmonary hypertension

b. is right heart failure

c. is manifested by altered tricuspid and pulmonic valve sounds

d. b and c

e. a, b, and c 

a lung cancer characterized by many anaplastic figures and the production of hormones is most likely:

a. squamous cell carcinoma

b. small cell carcinoma

c. large cell carcinoma

d. adenocarcinoma

e. bronchial adenoma

the metastasis of lung squamous cell carcinoma is:

a. late

b. very early and widespread

c. early

d. early and widespread

e. never seen 

t/f:

inflammation above the epiglottis causes a "barking cough" 

t/f:

laryngotracheobronchitis is more severe than epiglottis 

t/f:

surfactant production accelerates airway lumenal growth 

t/f:

failure to produce surfactant at birth results in severe atelectasis and RDS 

t/f: 

cystic fibrosis is a disease process due primarily to hyperresponsive airways that are sensitive to cerain environmental triggers

t/f:

bronchiolitis and asthma produce similar symptoms 

epiglottitis is characterized by:

a. gradual onset

b. severe stridor

c. drooling

d. all of the above

e. b and c 

laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) is characterized by:

a. mild to moderate stridor, often worse at night

b. antecedent "cold" symptoms

c. swelling of subglottic tissues

d. a "barking" cough

e. all of the above 

the most common cause of bronchiolitis is:

a. H. influenzae

b. exposure to allergens

c. parainfluenza virus

d. respiratory syncytial virus 

streptococcal pneumonia in children is acute and tends to occur in:

a. the winter

b. the early spring

c. the fall months

d. the summer

e. any season 

staphylococcal pneumonia in children has its highest incidence at:

a. 2-3 yrs

b. 1-4 yrs

c. 1 week - 2 yrs

d. 1-12 yrs 

bronchiolitis:

a. causes destruction of ciliated cells

b. can cause atelectasis

c. can cause hyperinflation

d. all of the above 

all of the following statements about foreign body aspiration are true except:

a. the offending objects include food and toys

b. it is a relatievely commmon occurrence in childhool

c. can cause pneumonia and atelectasis

d. it may cause pneumonia and lung abcess

e. b and c 

which statement is ture concerning cystic fibrosis?

a. it is a multisystem disease

b. defect results in overproduction of viscous mucus

c. it is difficult to detect carriers through genetic testing

d. infectious complications are common

e. a, b, and d 

which statement is true concerning asthma?

a. its triggers include allergy, viruses, and exercise

b. once asymptomatic for a number of years, affected individuals may be assumed to be cured

c. it is characterized by hyperresponsive airways

d. both a and c

e. a, b, and c 

which statement is ture concerning childhood obstructive sleep apnea syndrome?

a. its estimated prevalence is 1-10%

b. its usually seen when accompanied by adenotonsillar hypertrophy\

c. there may be episodic increased respiratory effort but no audible airflow

d. all of the above 

match the char. or cause with the alt.

expiratory wheezing

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

f. respiratory distress syndrome 

match the char. or cause with the alt.

autosomal recessive disease

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

a right-to-left shunt

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

may be an outcome of prematurity

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

acute life threatening infection

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

parainfluenza virus

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

prone position increases incidence

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

spasm of vocal cords occurs as inflammation intensifies

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

match the char. or cause with the alt.

inflammatory basis with heperresponsive airways

a. asthma

b. cystic fibrosis

c. laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

d. SIDS

e. epiglottitis

which characterize(s) cancer cells?

a. poorly differentiated

b. metastasis

c. infiltrative growth mode

d. poor cellular cohesiveness

e. all of the above 

which is not a malignant tumor?

a. glioma

b. adenocarcinoma

c. rhabdomyoma

d. leukemia 

endomcrine hormone secretion is increased in:

a. benign tumors

b. nonencapsulated tumors

c. tumros having little resemblance to tissue of origin

d. tumors having a high fatality rate 

metastasis is:

a. an alteration in normal cellular growth

b. growth of benign or malignant neoplastic cells

c. mutational

d. the ability to establish a secondary neoplasm at a new site 

carcinoma is situ is;

a. preinvasive

b. a glandular or epthelial lesion

c. a teratoma

d. a carcinoma that has broken through the basement membrane

e. both a and b 

which are carcinogens?

a. viruses

b. chemicals

c. radiation

d. b and c

e. a, b, c 

tumor suppressor genes are:

a. genes having the ability to transform a normal cell into a cancerous cell

b. normal genes that regulate growth and development

c. genes that produce proteins that inhibit cellular division

d. b and c 

in the current theory of carcingenesis:

a. the sequence is initiation-promotion-progression

b. severat mutagenic "hits" are required

c. mutations in somatic cells are transmitted to future generations

d. sequential genetic changes occur

e. b and d 

proto-oncogenes:

a. induce end-stage differentiation

b. encode for growth factors

c. inhibit growth factor stimulation

d. stimulate cell death

e. all of the above 

oncogenic viruses are:

a. DNA viruses

b. RNA viruses

c. capable of incroporation into host genes

d. capable of transforming a normal cell inot a cancerous cell

e. all of the above 

the p53 gene:

a. enables cells to cope with DNA damage

b. blocks the proliferation of cells that havve suffered carcinogenic mutations

c. mutations are the most common genetic lesion in human cancer

d. mutations disable an emergency brake on cell proliferation

e. all of the above 

chemical carcinogens:

a. cause changes in the nucleotide sequence

b. cause chromosomal breaks

c. introduce foreign DNA into the cell

d. involve epigenetic changes

tumor suppressor genes are

a. genes having the ability to transform a normal cell into a cancerous cell

b. normal genes that restrict differentiation

c. genes that produce proteins that inhibit cellular division

d. converted to oncogenes 

an adenoma is

a. benign

b. a glandular epithelial neoplasm

c. a teratoma

d. a malignant epithelial tumor

e. a and b 

tumor spread depends on:

a. growth rate of the tumor and its degree of differentiation

b. unknown factors

c. the presence or absence of anatomic barriers

d. both a and c

e. a, b, c 

which is the correct sequence during the process of metastasis?

a. vascularizzation, adherence of neoplastic cells, invasion into lymph and vascular systems

b. transport, vascularization, adherence of neoplastic cells

c. local invasion, invasion into lymph and vascular systems, transport

d. vascularization, extravasation, transport 

in order for metastasis to occur, local invasive factors must include all of the following, except:

a. cellular multiplication

b. mechanical pressure

c. lytic enzyme release

d. increased cellular adhesion

e. increased individual tumor cells 

known routes for metastasis of malignant cells include:

a. continuous extension

b. lymphatic spread

c. bloodstream dissemination

d. b and c

e. a, b, c 

common sites for metastatic cells include all of the following except:

a. lung

b. liver

c. brain

d. bone

e. heart 

a malignant cell that becomes lodged in a lymph node may:

a. die

b. divide

c. become dormant

d. enter efferent lymphatics

e. all of the above 

the process by which tumors develop new vascular networks is:

a. heparinization

b. angiogenesis

c. anaplasia

d. autonomy

e. differentiation 

organ tropism involves:

a. local growth factors

b. chemotactic factors

c. tumor receptors

d. genetic determinants

e. all of the above 

likely causes for the fatigue abserved in individuals with cancer include:

a. biochem. changes because of tx

b. muscle loss

c. psychologic factors

d. all of the above

e. a and c 

neoplasms may cause all of the following except:

a. obstruction of passageways

b. hormonal imbalances

c. viral infections

d. nutrient depletion 

metastatic behavior may be cause by:

a.alt. cytoplasm

b. alt. ribosomes

c. alt. genetic code

d. chromosomal breakage 

the pain experienced with cancer:

a. affects the indiv. in the early stages of malignancy

b. occurs in bone metastasis

c. results from tissue necrosis

d. b and c

e. a,b,c 

the anorexia or loss of appetite seen in the syndrome of cancer cachexia ma occur b/c of:

a. alt. blood serum levels of glucose and amino acids

b. hyperinsulinism

c. late satiety

d. hypoproteinemia 

the anemia associated with malignancy can be:

a. due to depletion of hemoglobin building blocks

b. severe in the majority of cases

c. caused by destruction of bone marrow

d. all

e. a and c 

chemotherapy for cancer:

a. prevents transcription 

b. damages cells undergoing mitosis

c. a and b

d. none 

immunotherapy for cancer:

a. is a nonspecific tx

b. injures both transformed and normal cells

c. suppresses tumor-immune response

d. is augmented by memory cells

e. none 

BRMs:

a. directly kills cancer cells

b. augment the tumor-immune rejection response

c. modify the cancer cell's susceptibiltity to lysis

d. all

e. none 

which is not involved in metastasis?

a. initial establishment

b. interference

c. invasion

d. dissemination

e. proliferation 

debulking surgery

the skeletal system (1+):

a. supports tissue

b. binds organs together

c. protects CNS structures

d. participates in blood cell formation

e. lines body cavities 

a. supports tissue

c. protects CNS structures

d. participates in blood cell formation

sialoprotein:

a. promotes resorption

b  binds calcium

c. stabilizes teh  basement membrane of bones

d. promotes calcification 

the diaphysis is the:

a. rounded end of long bones

b. shaft of long bones

c. lattice framework of spongy bones

d. surface of a synovial cavity 

a function of the epiphyseal plate that is not a function of the articular cartilage is to:

a. enable articulation of bones

b. enable bone to increase in lenght

c. reapir damaged bone tiss

d. provide sensory nerves to bone 

the remodeling of bone is done by basic multicellular units that consist of bone precursor cells.  precursor cells:

a. differentiate into osteoclasts and osteoblasts

b. are located on free surfaces of bone and along vascular channnels

c. neither a or b

d. a and b 

1. hematoma formation

2. procallus formation

3. callus formation

4. callus replacement with lamelar or trabecular bone

5. periosteum and endosteum remodeling 

Joints are classified functionally and structurally.  which is a proper function and structural relationship?

a. amphiarthrosis/fibrous

b. diarthrosis/synovial

c. synarthrosis/synchondrosis

d. diarthrosis/fibrous

e. synarthrosis/cartilaginous 

in older individuals, the bone remodeling cycle:

a. is faster b/c osteoclastic activity is enhanced

b. is enhanced b/c mineralization increases

c. has more precursor cells

d. has fewer bone cells b/c the bone marrow becomes infiltrate w/ fat

e. both a and b 

which is not included in a motor unit?

a. muscle fibers

b. motor nerve axons

c.anterior horn cell

d. upper motor neuron 

the perimysium is to a fasciculus as the :

a. periosteum is to a bone

b muscle is to epimysium

c. myofibril is to a muscle fiber

d. epimysium is to the endomysium

e. muscle cell is to the endomysium 

which is not a characteristic of type I muscl fibers?

a. sparse capillary supply

b. slow contraction speed

c. high resistanced to fatigue

d. profuse capillary supply

e. oxidative metabolism 

which protein is found in the thick myofilaments?

a. actin

b. myosin

c. troponin

d. tropomyosin

e. a,c, and d 

an important function of the transverse tubules is to:

a. provide organic nutrients to muscle fibers

b. initiate fiber contraction

c. enable regeneration of muscle fibers

d. allow for intracellular calcium uptake 

the ion necessary for coupling is:

a. sodium

b. calcium

c. potasium

d. magnesium

e. phosphate 

aerobic respiration:

a. permits the body brief periods during which it does not require oxygen

b. causes and increase in teh amt. o lactic acid

c. yields more molecules of ATP than anaerobic respiration

d. uses more glycogen to produce ATP than anaerobic respiration

e. leads to oxygen debt 

repayment of oxygen debt:

a. convets lactic acid to glycogen

b. replensihes ATP stores

c. replinishes phosphocreatine stores

d. b and c

e. a, b, c 

the strenght of muscle contraction depends on the:

a. extent of the load

b. initial length of muscl fibers

c. recruitment of additional motor units

d. nerve innervtion ratios

e. all 

attempting to push an object that is too heavy to move is an example of a(n) _______ contraction.

a. isotonic

b. concentric

c. flaccid

d. tetanic

e. isometric 

which does not happen with muscle as individuals grow older?

a. type II fibers may decease

b. mitochondrial volume decreases

c. the amt. of RNA increases to compensate for decreased size of motor units

d. all 

in a complete fracture:

a. the fx crosss or involves the entire width or thickness of the bone

b. more than two bone fragments are present

c. separtion of ligaments exists

d. posttraumatic infection is always present

e. the surface opposite teh break is intact 

in an oblique fx, teh energy or force is:

a. twisting w/ the distal part unable to move

b. compressive and at an angle

c. directly to an already weakend bone

d. directly to the distal fragment 

which is a definite sign of a fx?

a. abrasion

b muscle spasm

c. shock

d. unnatural alignment

e. all 

secondary muscular dysfunctions:

a. involve lrg. compartments of hemorrhage

b. can display contractures

c. result from failure of calcium pump

d. are related to the muscle itself

e. b and c 

the most common cause of osteomyelitis is:

a. hematogenous spread of infection

b. theumatoid disease

c. dirct contamination of an open wound

d. formation of sclerotic bone

e. none 

osteoporosis is:

a. inadequate mineralization

b. impaired synthesis of bone organic matrix

c. reduced bone mass or density

d. formation of sclerotic bone

e. none 

osteomalacia causes:

a. loss of bone matrix

b. inadequate mineralization

c. radiolucency

d. all

e. b and c 

bone tumors may originate from all of the following except:

a. eptihelial tiss

b. cartilage

c. fibrous tiss

d. vascular tiss

e. mesoderm 

in benign bone tumors, there is:

a. a uniform and well-defined lytic area

b. a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction

c abnormal bone merging w/ surrounding normal bone tiss

d. an area of partially destroyed bone adjacent to completely lytic areas 

an osteosarcoma is a(n):

a. collagenic, malignant bone tumor

b. myelogenic, benign tumor

c. myelogenic, malignant tumor

d. osteogenic, benign bone tumor

e. osteogenic, malignant tumor 

a major symptom of bone cancer is a:

a. faltering gait

b. persistent pain that worsens at night

c. lack of sensation

d. general swelling over a bone

e. coolness over a bone 

giant cell tumors:

a. are collagnic tumors

b. are loacted in the diaphysis of a long bone

c. have extensive osteoblastic activity

d. have highrecurrence rates

e. are multifocal 

myeloma:

a. is a malignant proliferation of plasma cells

b. has a poor prognosis

c. infiltrates the bone marrow

d. a and c

e. a,b, c 

RA begins with:

a. destruction of the synovial membranes and subsynovial tiss

b. infalamm. of ligaments

c. destruction of the articular cargilage

d. softening of the articular cartilage

e. destruction of the joint capsule 

the causes of OA include which of the following? (1+)

a. enzymatic breakdown

b. proteoglycan destruction

c. rheumatoid factor

d. circulating immune complexes

e. infections 

a. enzymatic breakdown

b. proteoglycan destruction

the causes of OA include which of the following? (1+)

a. enzymatic breakdown

b. proteoglycan destruction

c. rheumatoid factor

d. circulating immune complexes

e. infections 

a. enzymatic breakdown

b. proteoglycan destruction

ankylosing spondylitis (1+):

a. is a systemic immune inflammatory disease

b. is char. by stiffening or fusion fo the spine

c/ causes instability of synovial joints

d. begins w/ infalmm. of fibrocartilage

e. is manifested early by low back pain adn stiffness 

a. is a systemic immune inflammatory disease

b. is char. by stiffening or fusion fo the spine

d. begins w/ infalmm. of fibrocartilage

e. is manifested early by low back pain adn stiffness

in gout:

a. the pathogenesis is formation of monsodium urate crystals in joints and tiss

b. purine metab. is altered

c. affected indiv. likely have an inherited enzyme defect 

d. all 

a muscle contracture is:

a. likely caused by increased activity in teh reticular activating syst. and the gamma loop in the muscle fiber

b. muscle shortening poss. b/c of CNS injury

c. often helped by relaxation training and biofeedback

d. a consequence of reduced muscle protein synthesis

e. all 

myotonia is all of the following except:

a. delayed relaxation after voluntary muscle contractions

b/ prolonged depolarization of muscle membrane

c. mostly inherited

d. unresponsiveness to neural stimulation

e. progressive atrophy of skeletal muscle 

which stratum of the epidermis contains dead keratinocytes?

a. corneum

b. lucidum

c. granulosum

d. spinosum

e. germinativum 

the dermis is composed of all of the following except:

a. melanocytes

b. collagen

c. elastin

d. apocrine sweat gland

e. sebaceous glands 

which does not occur as the skin ages?

a. more melanocytes

b. decreased langerhans cells

c. loss of rete pegs

d. loss of elastin fibers

e. depressed immune response 

arteriovenous anastomoses in the dermis:

a. prevent skin drying

b. regulate vasoconstriction

c. oppose evaporative heat loss

d. facilitate the regulation of body temp

e. none 

the cause of atopic dermatitis is:

a. unkown

b. venous stasis

c. mast cell degranulation, T cells, and monocyte interaction

d. increased activity of sebacceous glands

e. nonimmunologic inflammation to chemicals 

the skin lesion psoriasis is a:

a. nonscaling, violet-colored  pruritic papule

b. comedo

c. pruritic vesicle

d. erythematous, butterfly-shaped rash

e. thick, scaly, erythematous plaque 

a circular, demarcated, salmon-pink scale within a plaque is char. of:

a. psoriasis

b  seborrheic dermatitis

c. acne rosacea

d. pityriasis rosea

e. lichen planus 

the nikolsky sign is seen in:

a. herpes simplex

b. pemphigus

c. erythema multiforme

d. steven-johnson syndrome

e. b and d 

the cause of impetigo in the adult is:

a. streptococcus aureus

b. group A strep.

c. coagulase-positive staph

d. beta-hemolytic strep

e. c and d 

the usual manifestation of herpes simplex virus is a:

a. painful nodule

b. pustule

c. cold sore or fever blister

d. wheal 

of the benign tumors of the skin, keratoacanthomas are char. by:

a. proliferation of basal cells

b. hyperkeratotic scales

c. orgination from hair follicles

d. a proliferative stage that produces a nodule w/ a central crust

e. c and d 

which are most likely to undergo malignant transition?

a. seborrheic keratosis and kertoacanthoma

b. seborrheic keratosis and actinic keratosis

c. nevi and keratoacanthoma

d. nevi and actinic keratosis

e. none 

the cause of kaposi sarcoma likely is:

a. solar radiation

b steroidal hormones

c. precursor nevi

d. immunodeficiency

e. keratinization 

squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is manifested as:

a. irregular pigmentation

b  elevated, firm lesions

c. a smooth, pearly lesion w/ mult. telangiectasia

d. mulifocal purplish, brown macules 

an untreated basal cell carcinoma:

a. metastasizes freq.

b. often involves regional lymphatics

c. ulcerates and involves local tiss

d. grows rapidly

e. will eventually require removal of nearby lymph nodes 

which malignant skin lesion metastasizes the earliest?

a. basal cell carcinoma

b. squamous cell carcinoma

c. malignant melanoma

d. kaposi sarcoma

in which type of burn does skin function continue?

a. first-degree

b. superficial partial-thickness

c. deep partial-thickness

d. full-thickness 

a burn that destroys the epidermis and dermis is a:

a. first-degree burn

b. superficial partial-thickness burn

c. deep partial-thickness

d. full-thickness 

hypovolemic shock in sevely burned individuals is the result of:

a. dilation of capillaries

b,. increased capillary permeability

c. increased peripheral resistance

d. a and b

e. a,b, c 

in indiv. surviving burn shock, increased wound sepsis is due to:

a. released inflamm. cytokines

b. fewer opsonins

c. inability of phagocytes to migrate to the site of infection

d. all

e. b and c 

onychomycosis is

a. a fungal infection of the nail plate

b. caused by staph. or strep

c. an inflamm. of the cuticle

d. none