The preferred method to terminate pregnancy at 45 days in a cow is:

-intrauterine infusion of betadine solution

-crushing the conceptus

-prostaglandin injection

-estrogen injection

-dexamethasone injectioni

The preferred method to terminate pregnancy at 65 days in a cow is:

-prostaglandin injection

-crushing the conceptus

-intrauterine infusion of betadine

-dexamethasone injection

The recommended method for terminating pregnancy at 3 months gestation in a heifer is:

-fetal decapitation

-corticosteroid injection

-prostaglandin injection plus corticosteroid injection

-estrogen injection

-prostaglandin injection

To induce parturition in a cow at term, the recommended method is

-give dexamethasone per OS, expect parturition in 5-7 days

-give PGF 2 alpha IM, expect parturition in 24-72h

-give betamethasone IM, expect parturtion within 24h

-give PGF 2 alpha IM, repeat injection in 4hrs, expect parturition within 12h

-give oxytocin in multiple small boluses until parturition

The most effective abortifacient in cattle during months 4-6 of pregnancy is:

-prostaglandin F2 alpha

-dexamethasone and fenprostalene (PGF)

-dexamethasone

-corpus luteum enucleation

-fenprostalene

Induction of abortion in the cow can be done with:

-prostaglandin, dexamethasone, estrogen

-estrogen, progesterone, prolactin

-prostaglandin inhibitors, progesterone, prolactin inhibitors

-prostaglandin, progesterone or prolactin inhibitors

Tone in the cow's uterus during estrus is:

-spongy

-high

-non-palpable

-edematous

-low

Duration of estrus in the cow

-4h

-24h

-9d

-18h

-48h

Duration of the estrous cycle in the cow

-14 d

-25 d

-21 d

-18 d

-16 d

Select the correct statement concerning the cow's estrus cycle:

-standing heat is about 18 hours long

-uterine tone is higest during diestrus

-diestrus length varies by season

-a corpus luteum dominates the ovary during estrus

-it is normally 17 days long

A sanguineous discharge from the vulva of a heifer is most likely an indication of:

-recent ovulation

-early preganncy

-trauma

-early embryonic loss

During metestrus in the cow...

-the uterus feels flaccind and a large follicle is usually present on the ovary

-the uterus feels toned and a large follicle is usually present on the ovary

-the uterus feels edmatous on palpation and there may be a slight hemorrhagic discharge from the vulva

-the dose of PGF2alpha must be increased in order to "short cycle" the cow

-the uterus feels toned and a large CL is usually present on the ovary

-the uterus feels edematous on palpation and there may be a slight hemorrhagic discharge from the vulva

The cow is generally regarded as being responsive to PGF2 alpha (ie, PGF will cause luteolysis) beginning...

-11-12 days after ovulation

-4-5 days after ovulation

-8-9 days after ovulation

-1-2 days after ovulation

The bovine estrous cycle is _____days long, with estrus lasting approximately ____ hours and ovulation occuring _____.

-21/18/18 hours after the end of estrus

-21/18/18 hours after the onset of estrus

-18/21/21 hours after the onset of estrus

-18/18/18 hours after the onset of estrus

-21/21/21hours after the end of estrus

The cardinal sign that a cow is in estrus is...

-increased vocalization 

-standing to be ridden

-riding other cows

-clear vaginal discharge

-increased walking

The best method of heat detection in the cow that arries the least risk is...

-teaser bull

-pressure sensitive devices such as a Kamar patch

-milk progesterone tests combined with tail paint

-rectal palpation

-observation

Duration of gestation in the cow is...

-114 d

-63 d

-283 d

-57 d

-150 d

The preferred method of inducing parturition in the cow with the hopes of delivering a viable calf is...

-long acting corticosteroid injection

-oxytocin injections

-estrogen injection

-short acting corticosteroid injection

The corpus luteum in the cow is...

-contralateral to the horn of pregnancy, but regresses after day 120 of pregnancy

-produces prostaglandin to maintain pregnancy

-not needed until day 120 of pregnancy

-contralateral to the horn of pregnancy

-ipsilateral to the horn of pregnancy

A freemartin...

-is a heifer born co-twin to a bill and normally has no ovaries, uterus or cranial vagina

-is a heifer born co-twin to another heifer and normally has no ovaries, uterus or posterior vagina

-will normally start to cycle if given prostaglandin

-is a heifer born co-twin to another heifer and normally has no ovaries, uterus or cranial vagina

-is a heifer born co-twin to a bull and normally has no ovaries, uterus or posterior vagina

A beef producer calls you out because he is not seeing his cows in estrus for his artificial insemination program. You suggest the most likely cause for this is...

-poor pre-partum nutrition

-poor post-partum nutrition

-retained placentas

-cystic ovaries

-postpartum pyometras

Anestrus in cattle can be caused by...

-campylobacter

-IBR

-trichomoniasis

-BVD

-freemartinism

To get beef cows to cycle earlier...

-careful attention should be placed on giving adequate prepartum nutrition

-cows should be bred at least 2 weeks before heifers

-heifers should be bred on a decreasing plane of nutrition

-careful attention should be placed on giving adequate post-partum nutrition

-cows should be bred on a decreasing plane of nutrition

Palpation of the corpus luteum in the cow...

-is 100% specific in determining the absence of a CL

-is 100% sensitive in determining the presence of a CL

-is 100% sensitive in determining the absence of a CL

-none of the above

The main cause of anestrus in beef cows is...

-trichomoniasis/Vibriosis

-follicular cysts

-early embryonic death

-BVD

-poor nutrition

Uterine torsions in the cow can be treated by...

-using a detorsion bar if the cow is calving and the torsion is greater than 360 degrees

-using a detorsion bar if the cow is calving and the torsion is less than 270 degrees

-rolling the cow in the opposite direction of the tornsion if the torsion is >360 degrees

-rolling the cow in the direction of the torsion if the torsion is >360 degrees

The treatment of choice for a cow with a mummified fetus is...  

-oxytocin

-estrogen

-prostaglandin

-GnRH

-progesterone

In the case of a mummified fetus in the cow...

-recommend dexamethasone to induce abortion

-recommend prostaglandin to induce abortion

-recommend uterine lavage to remove debris

-recommend a c-section to remove the fetus

-recommend culling because her future fertility is poor

Which of the following IS NOT an emergency in the cow?   

-macerated fetus

-dystocia

-uterine prolapse

-uterine torsion

Which of the following would you NOT EXPECT to see in a cow with hydroallantois?

-clinically normal cow

-anorexia

-excess fluid in the uterus having a watery consistency

-fairly rapid increase in the size of the abdomen

In the case of a macerated fetus in the cow...

-recommend uterine lavage to remove debris

-recommend c-section to remove the fetus

-recommend culling because her future fertility is poor

-recommend dexamethasone to induce abortion

-recommend prostaglandin to induce abortion

Which of the following carries the WORST prognosis for future use of a cow?

-retained fetal membranes

-macerated fetus

-uterine torsion

Of the following cows, which should definitely be culled?

1 = mummified fetus

2 = macerated fetus

3 = uterine torsion

4 = uterine prolapse

5 = vaginal prolapse

-1 and 3

-2 and 5

-1 and 3

-2 and 4

-3 and 5

For which of the following conditions in cows is treatment with PGF2a NOT likely to help?

-postpartum metritis

-luteal cyst

-macerated fetus

-mummified fetus

Estrus syncronization in the cow is classically done...

-with GnRH only

-with prolactin inhibitors

-with hCG only

-as an 11 day double injection system of prostaglandin

-as an 11 day double injection system of progesterone

Estrus synchronization in the cycling cow may be done by...

-giving and injecitno of postaglandin, repeating the prostaglandin injection in 11 days and breeding

-giving an injecitno of prostaglandin and breeding those animals that show estrus, repeating the prostaglandin injection in 11 days to those animals not showing estrus adn breeding

-detecting estrus for 7 days and breeding all animals that show estrus, then injecting prostaglandin on day 7 to those animals not showing estrus and breeding them at estrus

-injecting estradiol valerate IM, implanting a SC implant of norgestamet for 9 days, removing the implant after 9 days

-all of the above

When administering prostaglandin to cows...

-it is best to give the drug during metestrus

-the drug is luteotropic in the cow

-the time to estrjs depends on the time it takes to lyse the corpus luteum

-the time to estrus depends on the stage of the follicular wave

-the drug causes severe sweating in cows as a side effect

In a group of randomly cycling cows, what percent should be seen in heat daily?

-20

-5

-10

-25

-15

Select the correct statement...

-when using a single injection prostaglandin synchronization scheme in a randomly cycling group of dairy cows you expect all the cows to come into estrus within 5 days of injection

-the 'synch' procedures to synchronize estrus in cows have a pregnancy rate twice that when using AI and heat detection

-when performing a 'synch' procedure to synchronize estrus, the GnRH is administered to reset the follicular waves to the same point

-palpation for corpora lutea in cows is a cost effective method to include or exclude cows from receiving a luteolytic drug

- the CIDR is injected IM into the cow and cotains estrogen that synchronizes the ovarian follicular waves

When giving a single prostaglandin injection to a group of randomly cycling cows...

-you expect the prostaglandin injection to cause regression of the follicular wave

-you expect them all to be in estrus within 3 days

-you expect them all to be in estrus within 5 days

-you expect about 30% to be inestrus within the next 5 days

-you expect about 60% to be in estrus within the next 5 days

The two basic mechanisms to contro the bovine estrus cycle are...

-stimulate follicle growth or create an artificial lluteal period

-stimulate follicle growth or lyse the CL

-lyse the CL or make an artificial luteal period

-repress follicular growth or create an artificial luteal period

-repress follicular growth or lyse the CL

In the classic double injection prostaglandin estrous synchronization system in cows...

-two injections of prostaglandin are tiven 15 days apart

-two injections of prostaglandin are given 9 days apart

-two injections of postaglandin are given 11 days apart

-two injections of prostaglandin are given 21 days apart

-two injections of prostaglandin are given 6 days apart

When performing a bull breeding soundness examination ...

-the penis should never be extended for fear of causing paraphimosis

-the penis should be extended to check for venereal diseases

-the penise should be extended to help ensure the bull can successfully penetrate the vagina

-the penis should never be extended for fear of causing phimosis

A normal bull breeding soundness examination will consist of...

-semen evaluation, physical exam, veneral disease check and scrotal circumference

-semen evaluation, physical exam, scrotal circumference

-semen evaluation and scrotal circumference

-semen evaluation

-semen evaluation, physical exam, libido testing and scrotal circumference

In performing a breeding soundness examination on a bull...

-libido is not normally checked

-venereal diseases are not normally checked

-social dominiance is not normally checked

-mating ability is not normally checked

-all of the above

In performing a BSE on a bull, the criteria in determining a sound breeder are...

-acceptable sperm output, acceptable sperm motility, acceptable minimal percent normal cells

-acceptable scrotal circumference, acceptable sperm motility, acceptable percent normal cells, and good physical condition

-a minimum total passing score composed of: scrotal circumference score or sperm motility scre and percent normal cells score

-a minimum total passing scre that is composed of sperm output, sperm motility score, and percent normal cells score

For a bull BSE, semen is normally collected...

-by using an electroejaculator in the prepuce

-by manual massage of the seminal vesicles

-using an artifical vagina

-using an electroejaculator in the rectum

-by manual massage of the penis

BSE of the bull consists of...

-measuring scrotal circumference, estimating gross and individual sperm motility, and counting individual sperm morphology

-semen pH measurement, semen count to determine total numbers of cells in the ejaculate, individual sperm motility

-semen pH measurement, semen count to determine total numbers of cells in the ejaculate and individual sperm morphology

-gross visual examination of a representitive ejaculate

-only estimating gross sperm motility and measuring scrotal circumference

In performing a BSE in a bull, the main criteria for classificaiton presently includes...

-sperm motility, sperm morphology, sperm count

-scrotal circumference, sperm motility, sperm count

-scrotal circumference, sperm motility, sperm morphology

-sperm motility, libido, sperm count

-scrotal circumference, libido, sperm count

Full extension of the penis during a bull BSE...

-cannot be achieved via electroejaculation

-cannot be achieved using an artifical vagina

-is not required because the lesions such as papillomas and persistent frenulums cannot be observed when the penis is extended

-is required as it may reveal abnormalities

-is not required because it is not taken into account in the BSE scoring system

In performing a BSE on a bull, sperm output is estimated by...

-counting the sperm concentration with a hemacytometer and multiplying the volume x the concentration to get the sperm output

-measuring the total scrotal width

-measuring the sperm concentration in a spectrophotometer and multiplying the volume x the concentration to get the sperm output

-measuring the scrotal circumference

-none of the above

The size of a penile hematoma in a bull is related to...

-the size of the rent in the tunica albuginea

-the number of breeding attempts post-trauma

-the way in which the injury occured

-the size of the penis

A three year old Hereford bull has a swelling in the neck of the scrotum on the left side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

-hematoma

-ingunial hernia

-hydrocele

-orchitis

Which penile deviation is most comon and most amenable to surgical correction?

-corkscrew deviation

-rainbow deviation

-s shaped deviation

-ventral deviation

All of the following anatomical features predisposed to development of preputial prolapse in the bull. Which is the most often associated with the polled breeds of cattle?

-abscence of retractor penis muscles

-pendulous sheath

-large preputial orifice

-long prepuce with excess elastic tissue

Which of the following anatomical features predisposes to development of preputial prolapse in the bull?

-pendulousness of the sheath

-size of the preputial orifice

-length of the prepuce

-presence of retractor prepuce muscles

-pendulousness of the sheath

-size of the preputial orifice

-length of the prepuce

-presence of retractor prepuce muscles

(all of them)

A three-year-old Hereford bull has a swelling in the neck of the scrotum on the left size. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. hematoma

b. inguninal hernia

c. hydrocele

d. orchitis

inguinal hernia

The size of a penile hematoma in a bull is related to:

a. the size of the rent in the tunica albuginea

b. the number of breeding attempts post-trauma

c. the way in which the injury occurred

d. the size of his penis

Which penile deviation is most common and most amenable to surgical correction?

a. corkscrew deviation

b. rainbow deviation

c. s-shaped deviation

d. ventral deviation

All of the following anatomical features predispose to development of preputial prolapse in the bull. Which is most often associated with the polled breeds of cattle?

a.     absence of retractor prepuce muscles

b.     pendulous sheath

c.      large preputial orifice

d.     long prepuce with excess elastic tissue

absence of retractor prepuce muscles

Which of the following anatomical features predisposes to development of preputial prolapse in the bull? (select those that apply)

a.     pendulousness of the sheath

b.     size of the preputial orifice

c.      length of the prepuce

d.     presence of retrector prepuce muscles

Prolapse of the prepuce in the bull may be associated with

a.     preputial trauma

b.     penile hematoma

c.      retropreputial abscess

d.     any of the above conditions

The structure used to extend the bovine penis during examination and/or treatment is called the

a.     distal sigmoid flexure

b.     dorsal apical ligament

c.      retractor penis muscle

d.     tunica albuginea

In the bull, when the prepuce tears away from the dorsum of the penis at the fornix during collection with an artificial vagina the injury is termed

a.     penile separation

b.     ruptured persistent frenulum

c.      preputial resectio

d.     preputial avulsion

All of the following statements concerning spiral deviation of the penis of the bull are true EXCEPT

a.     the condition can be diagnosed with the use of an electroejaculator

b.     the deviation occurs at the peak of erection

c.      the dorsal apical ligament slips off the left hand side of the penis during erection

d.     the condition occurs in up to 50% of normal bulls during copulation

Which of the following statements concerning persistent frenulum in the bull is correct?

a.     persistent frenulum can cause dorsal avulsion of the penis

b.     persistent frenulum is not considered to be hereditary in cattle

c.      persistent frenulum is a fibrous band that attaches the penis to the prepuce

d.     there is no effective treatment for this condition

Choose the correct statement concering fibropapilloma of the penis in the bull

a.     recurrence of the masses after treatment is not likely

b.     metastasis of these tumors to the lungs occurs readily

c.      warts occur most commonly in older bulls housed individually

d.     large warts may cause phimosis or paraphimosis

In general, development of a retropreputial abscess in the bull carries a guarded prognosis for complete healing and return to service

a.     true

b.     false

Match (name) the following conditions in the bull:

a.     circumscribed swelling at the preputial orifice…

b.     circumscribed swelling in the prescrotal area…

c.      diffuse swelling along the sheath from the scrotum…

The surgical procedure most commonly used to perform ovariectomy in heifers is called…

a.     urethrotomy

b.     vaginoscopy

c.      colpotomy

d.     laparotomy

Which of the following statements is inaccurate concerning cesearean section in cattle?

a.     the uterus can only be approached via a ventral midline incision

b.     the uterine incision should be made along the greater curvature of the uterus

c.      the Utrecht suture pattern is routinely used to close the uterine incision

d.     the surgery may be necessary in order to deliver an oversized fetus

The normal presentation, position and posture for parturition in the cow is…

a.     posterior, dorso-pelvic, bilateral foreleg flexion

b.     anterior, dorso-pelvic, bilateral foreleg flexion

c.      posterior, dorso-pubic, bilateral foreleg extension

d.     anterior, dorso-sacral, bilateral foreleg extension

e.     anterior, dorso-pubic, bilateral foreleg extension

Select the correct statement concerning obstetrics in the cow

a.     a calf can be extracted if the toes on the front legs can be seen out of the vulva

b.     the front and back legs have exactly the same joint directional movement

c.      Chains should be placed with one loop above the fetlock and a half=hitch below the fetlock

d.     The calf normally comes out backwards

e.     Fetotomy should only be considered as a “last resort” effort

Episiotomy is performed in cattle

a.     by making a lateral incision on the mid vulva

b.     by making a ventral incision direction below the vulva

c.      to help prevent rectovaginal lacerations

d.     by making a vertical incision directly between the anus and vuvla

The uterus of a cow should be involuted to approximately normal size (by rectal palpation) by…

a.     5 weeks

b.     3 weeks

c.      18 days

d.     2 weeks

e.     45 days

Trauma to the obturator nerve during parturition results in…

a.     inability to adduct the hind legs

b.     flaccid paralysis of the tail

c.      knuckling at the fetlock

d.     uterine inertia with subsequent delayed involution

If a dairy herd is experiencing an unusually high incidence of retained placentas, you should

a.     recommend evaluating the nutritional program with attention to calcium, vitamin A, E and selenium in the dry period

b.     routinely inducing parturition so that calving can be attended

c.      recommend treating each cow with prostaglandin and oxytocin at calving

d.     recommend manually cleaning all cows with retained placenta longer than 24h

Trauma to the peroneal nerve during calving results in

a.     uterine inertia with subsequent delayed involution

b.     inability to adduct the hind legs

c.      knuckling at the fetlock

d.     flaccid paralysis of the tail

Of the treatments listed below, which is the best for a cow with puerperal  metritis (febrile, dehydrated, off feed)

a.     prostaglandin only

b.     intrauterine antibiotics only

c.      systemic antibiotics only

d.     prostaglandin in combination with intrauterine antibiotics

Of the treatments listed below, treatment of the clinically normal cow (normal temp, hydration, appetite, milk yield) 20 days postpartum, with a purulent vaginal discharge and a corpus luteum on her ovary should include

a.     systemic penicillin and intrauterine furacin

b.     systemic oxytetracycline and intrauterine penicillin

c.      systemic prostaglandin and systemic penicillin

d.     systemic prostaglandin and nothing intrauterine

e.     systemic penicillin and intrauterine oxytetracycline

Of the treatments listed below, which is the best for a cow with postpartum metritis that is nonfebrile, with normal appetite and milk production

a.     intrauterine and systemic antibiotics

b.     systemic progesterone

c.      systemic penicillin

d.     prostaglandin

Uterine prolapse in cows

a.     is not necessarily an emergency situation

b.     tends to recur in subsequent pregnancies

c.      may occur secondary to dystocia

d.     occurs 2 months pre-calving

Which of the following statements is true concerning vaginal prolapse in cattle?

a.     increased progesterone levels in late pregnancy predispose cows to development of vaginal prolapse

b.     vaginal prolapse is unlikely to recur during subsequent pregnancies

c.      the Buhner suture technique is effective in treatment of vaginal prolapse

d.     it is most likely to occur in first calf heifers

Treatment of a cow, 2 days postpartum, temp 104, dehydrated and anorexic with a foul smelling vaginal discharge should include

a.     intrauterine anti-inflammatories

b.     systemic aminoglycosides

c.      systemic penicillin or cephalosporin

d.     intrauterine penicillin

e.     systemic progesterone

Trichomoniasis in cows is

a.     a protozoal disease that has the Argasid tick as a vector

b.     a viral disease that causes last trimester abortions with placentitis

c.      a bacterial disease that causes last trimester abortions with placentitis

d.     a protozoal disease that can be diagnosed by identifying hyphae on the aborted placenta

e.     a venereal disease that can be controlled with artificial insemination

Post-breeding pyometras in cows are almost pathognomonic for

a.     trichomoniasis

b.     poor sanitation at calving

c.      mycoplasma

d.     vibriosis (campylobacter)

e.     IBR

f.      BVD

Trichomoniasis and Campylobacter (Vibrio) are

a.     protozoal diseases that cause abortion

b.     bacterial diseases that cause prolonged interestrous intervals

c.      bacterial diseases that cause abortin

d.     protozoal diseases that cause prolonged interestrous intervals

e.     none of the above

Bovine Trichomoniasis most often presents clinically as

a.     posthitis in older bulls

b.     a temporary infertility that resolves after two to three estrous cycles

c.      cysts in the meat at slaughter

d.     a palpable lesion of the oviduct

all of the above

Select the correct statement

a.     Campylobacter is caused by a protozoa, causes repeat breeders and has an ineffective vaccine

b.     If a cow has Trichomoniasis, she will probably never become pregnant

c.      Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan, causes early embryonic death and “repeat breeders” and has an ineffective vaccine

d.     Trichomoniasis is caused by a bacteria, causes repeat breeders and has a very effective vaccine

e.     If a cow has Campylobacter, she will probably never become pregnant

Choose the correct statements about a dairy herd

___ a 30% conception rate is an acceptable goal for AI

___ an average “days open” of 83 days is acceptable

___ a 90% conception rate is an attainable goal for AI

___ a goal of 90% pregnant at pregnancy diagnosis is attainable

___ a 1 year calving interval is an acceptable goal

Choose the correct statement about a dairy herd

a.     cows will not lactate more than 305 days

b.     at least 283 days should elapse before breeding a cow back after calving

c.      most cows do not need to calve in order to lactate

d.     a standard lactation is 305 days

e.     pregnant cows cannot lactate

The “dry period” in the dairy cow should be approximately

a.     50 days

b.     80 days

c.      35 days

d.     21 days

Choose the correct statement about a dairy herd

a.     the voluntary waiting period is the time a producer would wait following parturition before breeding the cows using artificial insemination

b.     the most milk production is at the end of the lactation curve

c.      lactations may be should be no more than 60 days

d.     herd visits by the veterinarian should be done every 3 weeks

e.     the dry period should be 282 days

A well managed beef herd should

a.     have a 30-60 day breeding period

b.     have every cow calving once each calendar year

c.      breed heifers 2-3 weeks earlier can cows

d.     all of the above

When looking at beef cow reproductive performance

a.     it is most important to provide good nutrition postpartum to ensure postpartum anestrus

b.     it is most important to provide good nutrition prepartum to ensure postpartum cycling

c.      it is most important to provide good nutrition postpartum to ensure postpartum cycling

d.     it is most important to provide good nutrition prepartum to ensure postpartum anestrus

e.     none of the above

Choose the correct statement about a dairy herd

a.     a 90% conception rate is an attainable goal for AI

b.     a 50% conception rate is an attainable goal for AI

c.      a 30% conception rate is an attainable goal for AI

d.     a goal of 90% pregnant at pregnancy diagnosis is not attainable

e.     none of the above

When breeding cows in the summer in Louisiana

a.     summer heat stress affects embryos and decreases fertility in cows more than heifers

b.     summer heat stress is not a problem for fertility in cows or heifers

c.      summer heat stress is a factor in bovine fertility, but the long day lengths play a more important role

d.     summer heat stress affects embryos and decreases fertility in cows and heifers equally

e.     summer heat stress affects embryos and decreases fertility in heifers more than cows

A repeat breeder is defined as

a.     a cow that has calved before, is less than 2 years old, has normal heat cycles, has no palpable abnormalities and has been bred 3 or more times and is not pregnant

b.     a cow that has calved before, is less than 10 years old, has normal heat cycles, has palpable abnormalities of the uterus or ovaries and has been bred 3 or more times and is not pregnant

c.      a cow that has calved before, is less than 10 years old, has prolonged interestrus intervals, has no palpable abnormalities, has been bred 3 or more times and is not pregnant

d.     a cow that has calved before, is less than 10 years old, has normal heat cycles, has no palpable abnormalities and has been bred 5 or more times and is not pregnant

e.     a cow that has calved before, is less than 10 years old, has normal heat cycles, has no palpable abnormalities and has been bred 3 or more time sand is not pregnant

Which of the following is not a cause of “repeate breeder” in cattle?

a.     14, 20 Robertsonian translocation

b.     DUMPS (deficiency of Uridine MonoPhosphate Synthetase) Holstein

c.      Freemartin

d.     1,29 Robertsonian translocation

e.     aged oocytes during estrous synchronization

Which of the following would be considered as possible causes of “repeat breeder” or early embryonic death in cattle?

___ luteal cyst

___ BVD

___ Trich

___ follicular cyst

___ freemartin

___ leptospirosis

___ vibriosis

The normal incidence for “repeat breeders” (according to the definition of a repeat breeder) in a dairy herd is

a.     0%

b.     9%

c.      15%

d.     20%

e.     25%

9%

A cow with pyometra will have

a.     pus in the uterus, no CL and be treated with progesterone

b.     pus in the uterus, a CL and be treated with prolactin

c.      pus in the uterus, a CL and be treated with prostaglandin

d.     pus in the uterus, no CL and be treated with prolactin

e.     pus in the uterus, no CL and be treated with prostaglandin

pus in the uterus, a CL, and be treated with prostaglandin

The most effective treatment for bovine pyometra is

a.     parenteral penicillin

b.     parenteral prostaglandins to induce luteolysis

c.      repeated uterine flushes with tetracycline

d.     intrauterine infusion of furacin

e.     parenteral progesterone as a luteotropic agent

If you palpate a dairy cow that is 50 days postpartum, has not been seen in estrus, has fluid in the uterus and no positive signs of pregnancy and a CL3 on the ovary

a.     you would expect her to be in estrus in 1-3 days

b.     you would call her probably pregnant

c.      you would say she has a pyometra and treat her with fluids, local antibiotics and systemic antibiotics

d.     you would expect her to have ovulated in the last 2 days

e.     you would say she has a pyometra and treat with prostaglandin

A cow that has not been see in estrus and has a 3.5 com fluid filled structure on the ovary

a.     probably has a normal follicle and should be treated with progesterone

b.     probably has a normal follicle and should be treated with prostaglandin

c.      probably has a mature CL and should be treated with prostaglandin

d.     probably has follicular cyst and should be treated with GnRH

e.     probably has a follicular cyst and should be treated with prostaglandin

The best treatment for a cow with follicular cysts is

a.     manual rupture of the cyst

b.     no treatment has proven effective or economical

c.      parenteral estrogen if the cow is anestrus

d.     parenteral GnRH or its analogue

e.     parenteral prostaglandin if the cow is anestrus

The traditional definition of a follicular cyst does not contain which of the following

a.     a fluid filled structure greater than 2.5 cm in diameter

b.     presence on the uterine surface

c.      no CL on the ovary

d.     signs of consistent estrus or anestrus

When treating follicular cysts

a.     manual rupture is as effective as any treatment

b.     if a cow is not treated she will not come into estrus

c.      GnRH is approximately twice as effective as hCG

d.     A successful treatment is when the cow comes into estrus within 30 days

e.     Using ultrasound you can predict which cows will respond to treatment

If you check a dairy cow that is 50 days postpartum, has not been seen in estrus and has  a 3 cm fluid filled structure on one ovary and nothing on the other

a.     you should treat her with a prolactin inhibitor

b.     you should treat her with prostaglandin

c.      you should rupture the structure

d.     you should rupture the structure and treat her with GnRH

e.     you should treat her with GnRH

The best treatment for follicular cysts (cystic ovarian disease) in the bovine is

a.     manual rupture of the cyst

b.     a single intramuscular injection of GRH analogue

c.      manual rupture of the cyst followed by prostaglandin in 3 days

d.     a single intramuscular injection of prostaglandin or prostaglandin analogue

e.     none of the above