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Test #5
Chapter 28, 31, 32, 33, 34
202
Pathology
Undergraduate 3
02/24/2012

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Term
Which sequence of structures does urine pass through as it leaves the body?
Definition
c. Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
Term
The functional unit of the human kidney is the:
Definition
a. nephron
Term
One unique feature of the renal blood circulation is that:
Definition
d. there are two sets of capillaries
Term
Which has the opposite effect on urine produciton from the others?
Definition
a. decreased solutes in blood
Term
The glomerular filtration rate is regulated by the:
Definition
a. autonomic nervous system
b. renin-angiotensin system
c. atrial natriuretic factor
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
Term
If the following hypothetical conditions exist in the nephron, what would be the net(effective) filtration pressure?
Definition
b. 30 mm HG
Term
The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from other capillary networks in the body because they:
Definition
b. branch from and drain into arterioles
Term
Which is NOT a function of the kidneys?
Definition
c. urine storage
Term
Potassium is secreted by the ______ and reabsorbed by the ______.
Definition
d. distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule
Term
ADH causes water to:
Definition
a. diffuse into the ascending limb of the vasa recta
b. return to the systemic circulation
d. Both a and b are correct
Term
Water reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate initially enters the:
Definition
e. vasa recta
Term
Plasma contains a much greater concentration of _______ than the glomerular filtrate.
Definition
b. protein
Term
An increase in water permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collection duct is the result of:
Definition
b. an increase in production of ADH
Term
The descending loop of the nephron allows:
Definition
d. water reabsorption
Term
Which most accurately describes the pressures affecting net glomerular filtration?
Definition
b. Blood hydrostatic opposes capsular hydrostatic and blood oncotic
Term
Tubular secretion of urea is accomplished in the:
Definition
d. distal convoluted tube
Term
Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion differ in that:
Definition
a. secretion adds material to the filtrate: reabsorption removes materials from the filtrate
Term
The kidneys:
Definition
c. eliminate H+
d. eliminate NH4+
e. conserve
Term
If a small person excretes about 1 liter of urine during a 24-hour period, estimate the total amount of glomerular filtrate formed.
Definition
d. 100 liters
Term
Which should NOT appear in the glomerular filtrate just after the process of glomerular filtration has been accomplished?
Definition
a. protein
Term
The loop of Henle is to vasa recta as convoluted tubules are to:
Definition
b. peritubular capillaries
Term
The two "currents" used in the countercurrent exchange system are the:
Definition
c. ascending and descending limbs
Term
The countercurrent exchange system:
Definition
facilitates osmosis
Term
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF):
Definition
c. increase urine output
Term
A waste product of protein metabolism is:
Definition
d. urea
Term
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone reaches the anterior pituitary gland and causes the release of which of the following?
Definition
b. follicile stimulation hormone
d.luteinizing hormone
Term
Which is NOT a structure of the female external genitalia?
Definition
a. vagina
Term
A new mentrual cycle has a rise in the levels of:
Definition
e. FSH
Term
Progesterone:
Definition
d. maintains the thickened endometrium
Term
The ovaries produce:
Definition
c. ova and estrogen
Term
During which days of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium achieve maximum development?
Definition
d. 20 and 24
Term
Hormones necessary for the growth and development of female breasts are:
Definition
a. estrogens and progesterone
Term
The structure that releases a mature ovum is the:
Definition
b. graafian follicle
Term
A major duct of the female reproductive system is the:
Definition
e. uterine tube
Term
Prostate is to the accessory gland as gonad is to the:
Definition
b. ovary
Term
Cells that produce testosterone are called:
Definition
a. interstitial endocrinocytes
Term
The function of testosterone includes:
Definition
a. development of male gonads
b. bone and muscle growth
c. influencing sexual behavior
d. growth of testes
e. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
Term
Immediately after the sperm cells leave the ductus epididymis, they enter the:
Definition
d. ductus deferns
Term
A substance produced in the reproductive system mainly by the bulbourethral glands is:
Definition
c. mucus
Term
Which structure(s) produce(s) a secretion that helps maintain the motility of spermatozoa?
Definition
a.prostate
b.penis
Term
Semen is:
Definition
c. the sperm and secretions of the seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral gland
Term
The vulva consists of the:
Definition
a. labia majora and minora
b. clitoris
c. vaginal orifice
e. a,b, and c are correct
Term
The major difference between female and male hormone production is:
Definition
c. hormonal production is relatively constant in the male.
Term
The primary spermatocyte has:
Definition
a. 46 chromosome
d. a diploid number of chromosomes
e. Both a and d are correct
Term
During the follicular/proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle:
Definition
a. vascularity of breat tissue decreases
Term
Most of the lymphatic drainage of the female breast occurs through the:
Definition
a. axillary nodes
Term
Secondary amenorrhea is:
Definition
d. the absence of menstruation following menarche.
Term
What is the likely pathophysiology of PMS?
Definition
c. an abnormal nervous, immunologic, vascular, and GI response to hormone fluctuations of the menstrual cycle likely occurs
Term
Acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID):
Definition
e. may cause infertility or tubular pregnancy
Term
Anovulatory cycles having prologned estrogen levels and absent progesterone production are found in:
Definition
d. endometrial hyperplasia
Term
Depressed T cell function is associated with:
Definition
e. endometriosis
Term
A 42 year-old retired prostitute who became sexually active at age 14 is at risk to develop:
Definition
b. cervical carcinome
Term
Polycystic ovary disease is:
Definition
a. the most common cause of infertility in the US
b. associated with hyperinsulinemia
c. sometimes a precursor of endometrial carcinoma
d. a,b, and c are correct
Term
Endometriosis:
Definition
a. has the ectopic endometrium responding to hormonal fluctuations of the menstrual cycle
Term
Phimosis:
Definition
c. a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted
d. caused by poor hygiene and chronic infection
e. Both c and d are correct
Term
A varicocele is an intrascrotal disorder:
Definition
b. that occurs because of independent or congenitally absent valves in the spermatic veins
Term
Cryptorchidism is:
Definition
d. failure of testes to descend into the scrotum
Term
The infectious cause of orchitis is:
Definition
d. mumps virus
Term
Which organisms can cause epididymitis?
Definition
a. Enterobacteriaceae
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
Term
In benign prostatic hyperplasia, enlargement of periurethral tissue of the prostate causes:
Definition
a. obstruction of the urethra
Term
Recurrent urninary tract infections in the male cause:
Definition
d. chronic bacterial prostatitis
Term
A symptom or sign of late-stage, metastatic prostate cancer is:
Definition
b. frequency of urination
Term
Male sexual dysfunction may be caused by:
Definition
a. infection around the introitus
b. diabetes mellitus
c. infected hymenal remnants
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
Term
The muscularis of the GI tract is:
Definition
d. composed of circular fibers and longitudal fibers
Term
The digestive functions performed by the saliva and salivary amylase, respectively, are:
Definition
d. lubrication and carbohydrate digestion
Term
The nervous pathway involved in salivary secretion requires stimulation of:
Definition
b. receptors in the mouth, sensory impulses, and parasympathetic impulses of salivary glands
Term
Food would pass rapidly from the stomach into the duodenum if it were not for the:
Definition
e. pyloric sphincter
Term
The secretion of gastric juice:
Definition
e. occurs in three phases: cephalic, gastric, and intestinal
Term
During nervous control of gastric secretion, the gastric glands secrete before food enters the stomach. This stimulus to the glands comes from:
Definition
d. parasympathetic impulses over the vagus nerve
Term
Pepsinogen:
Definition
a. must be activated by HCI
b. is secreted by the chief cells
c. is a precursor to pepsin
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE ARE CORRECT
Term
Beginning at the lumen of the tube, the sequence of layers of the GI tract is:
Definition
a. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa
Term
Normally, when chyme leaves the stomach:
Definition
d. the proteins have been partly digested into polypeptides
Term
Which layer of the small intestine includes microvilli?
Definition
b. mucosa
Term
Which is NOT an example of mechanical digestion?
Definition
d. conversion of protein molecules into amino acids
Term
Pancreatic juice is to trypsin as gastric juice is to:
Definition
b. pepsin
Term
Which part of the small intestine is most distal from the pylorus?
Definition
a. jejunum
Term
The pancreas:
Definition
c. is a gland with its duct ultimately opening into the duodenum
Term
The chief role played by the pancreas in digestion is to:
Definition
c. secrete enzymes, which digest food in the small intestine
Term
Among the structural features of the small intestine are villi,microvilli, and circular folds. Their function is to:
Definition
d. increase the surface area for absorption
Term
The fate of carbohydrates in the small intestine is:
Definition
a. digestion to monosaccharides
Term
The absorptive fate of the end products of digestion may be summarized by which of the following?
Definition
b. amino acids and monosaccharides are absorbed into the blood capillaries; most fatty acids are absorbed into lymph
Term
A lobule of the liver contains a centrally located:
Definition
a. vein with radiating hepatocytes and sinusoids
Term
An obstruction of the common bile duct would cause blockage of bile coming from:
Definition
c. both the liver and the gall bladder
Term
The human adult liver does NOT:
Definition
b. produce eryhtrocytes
Term
The chyme that enters the large intestine is converted to feces by activity of:
Definition
c. bacteria and water reabsorption
Term
During vomiting, there is:
Definition
b. deep inspiration, airway closure, forceful diaphragm and abdominal muscle contractions, and esophageal sphincter relaxation
Term
Which deos NOT cause constipation?
Definition
d. hyperthryroidism
Term
Osmotic diarrhea is caused by:
Definition
lactase deficiency
Term
Melena is:
Definition
e. black, tarry stools
Term
A common manifestation of hiatal hernia is:
Definition
a. gastroesophageal reflux
d. postprandial substernal pain
e. Both a and d are correct
Term
Gastroesophageal reflux is:
Definition
d. caused by spontaneously relaxing lower esophageal sphincter
Term
Intenstinal obstruction causes:
Definition
c. decreased nutrient absorption
Term
Peptic ulcers may be located in the:
Definition
a.stomach
b.esophagus
c.duodenum
d.colon
e. a,b, and c are correct
Term
Gastric ulcers:
Definition
a. may lead to malignancy
Term
Duodenal ulcers:
Definition
b. may be complicated by hemorrhage
Term
In malabsorption syndrome, flatulence and abdominal distention are likely caused by:
Definition
b. undigested lactose fermentation by bacteria
Term
The characteristic lesion of Crohn disease is:
Definition
a. found in the ileum
c. granulomatous
e. Both a and c are correct
Term
Low-residue diets and chronic constipation play a role in the pathogenesis of:
Definition
d. diverticulitis
Term
A 14-year-old male has been admitted to the emergency room suffering with acute-onset abdominal pain in the LRQ. Abdonimal rebound tenderness is intense, and he has a fever and leukocytosis. This individual most likely is suffering from:
Definition
a. acute appendicitis
Term
Leptin:
Definition
c. suppresses hunger/appetite at the hypothalamus
Term
Short-term starvation involves:
Definition
a. glycogenolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
d. Both a and b are correct
Term
The most common manifestation of portal hypertension is:
Definition
e. vomiting of blood from esophageal bleeding
Term
Hepatic encephalopathy is manifested by:
Definition
e. cerebral dysfunction
Term
Which would be consistent with a diagnosis of viral hepatitis? (More than one answer may be correct.)
Definition
a. elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) serum enzymes
b. decreased serum albumin levels
c. prolonged coagulation times
d. increased serum bilirubin levels
Term
Which viral hepatitis is NOT associated with a chronic state or a carrier state?
Definition
a. hepatitis A
Term
Which type of jaundice is caused by the increased destruction of erythrocytes?
Definition
b. hemolytic
Term
Which most often causes biliary cirrhosis?
Definition
e. biliary obstruction
Term
Symptoms of cholelithiasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
Definition
d. decreased serum bilirubin levels
Term
In pancreatitis:
Definition
a. the tissue damage likely results from release of pancreatic enzymes
Term
Predisposing factors in the development of colon cancer include all of the following EXCEPT:
Definition
d. high-fiber diet
Term
What is the appropriate term for when fluid moves from the tubular lumen to the pertibular capillary plasma?
Definition
b tubular reabsorption
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the three kinds of nephrons?
Definition
d. glomerular nephorns
Term
Which of the following is a correct finding finding is a normal urinalysis?
Definition
c. specific gravity 1.016 to 1.022
Term
Which muscle lies between the two openings of the ureter and urethra?
Definition
c. Trigone
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding renal blood flow?
Definition
a. The kidneys are highly vascular organs and receive 1000 to 1200 mL of blood per minute
Term
In the distal tubule, which cells reabsorb sodium and water but secrete potassium?
Definition
c. Principal cells
Term
A patient has a porterior pituitary tumor that is producing excess antidiuretic hormone. Her blood volume and blood pressure increase. What other hormonal altertations would be expected?
Definition
c. increased atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
Term
A patient experiences hypotension. Which of the following enzymes is primarily released?
Definition
a. Renin
Term
Ovulation marks the beginning of which phase of mentruation?
Definition
c. Luteal/secretory
Term
A patient is diagnosed with early puberty. Which of the following has been linked with this condition?
Definition
a. presence if leptin
Term
A patient has been diagnosed with cervical dysplasia. Which of the following anatomic locations is a common location for this type of cancer?
Definition
d. Squamous-columnar junction
Term
Which of the following is a factor that helps to maintain the self-cleansing action of the vagina?
Definition
a. Acid-base balance that discourages the proliferation of most pathogenic bacteria
Term
In the female reporductive system, which of the following is the appropriate term for the "thin perforate membrane that covers the vagina introiltus"?
Definition
d. hymen
Term
Which of the following hormones stimulates the ovary to release the ova and secrete progesterone?
Definition
b. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Term
Which of the following structures is a comma shaped and curves over the posterior portion of each of the testes?
Definition
c. epididymis
Term
Which structure secretes a thin, milky substance with an alkaline pH that helps sperm survive the alkaline environment?
Definition
a. Prostate gland
Term
A PPap test is a test that evaluates for which of the following?
Definition
c. Cervical cancer
Term
Which of the following is the appropriate term for "breast development"?
Definition
b. Thelarche
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the development of the reproductive structures?
Definition
a. Anterior pituitary development starts between the fourth and fifth weeks of fetal life.
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding breast cancer?
Definition
d. The median age for breast cancer is 64
Term
A male pt arrives complaining of unilateral pain in his scrotum. He has read and swollen area on his scrotum.He is sexually active, with many partners. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his pain?
Definition
c. Epididymitis
Term
Which of the following is the correct definition for papilloma?
Definition
a. multiple fingerlike projections.
Term
Which of the following is the most common cause of galactorrhea?
Definition
a. Hyperprolactinemia
Term
A male pt arrives complaining of an abnormal curvature of his penis. He states it has been getting worse since pruberty and that intercourse is painful. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Definition
a. Peyronie disease
Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding uterine fibroids?
Definition
c. decreases with menopause.
Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Definition
d. it may be problematic is urethral compression occurs.
Term
A male pt is diagnosed with a scrotal disorder. There is abnormal dilation of the veins in the spermatic cord. It feels like a "bag of worms". Which of the folloeing is the name for this condition?
Definition
a. Varicocele
Term
Which of the following terms is appropriate for painful mentruation associated with the release of prostaglandins in ovulatory cycles?
Definition
a. Primary dysmenorrhea
Term
Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Definition
d. pregnancy
Term
A male pt presents with inflammation of the glans penis. Which of the following is the correct medical term for this condition?
Definition
d. Balanitis
Term
Which of the following is NOT a nonproliferative change in breast tissue?
Definition
c. florid hyperplasia
Term
Which of the following is NOT a frequenst site for distant metastasis for prostate cancer?
Definition
a. Brain
Term
Which of the following types of cysts contains skin, hair, sebaceous and sweat glands?
Definition
b. Dermoid cysts
Term
A 24-year-old man has pain in his testes. He has just recovered from mumps. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this testicular pain?
Definition
a. Orchitis
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the possible causes of prostate cancer?
Definition
c. Obesity
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the three normal processes of sexual response?
Definition
c. Orgasm
Term
Which of the following is the most common cause of urethral stricture in a male?
Definition
c. Indwelling catheter
Term
A pt presents with an inflammation of one of the ducts that lead from the vaginal opening. Which of the following is the appropriate term for this condition?
Definition
c. Bartholinitis
Term
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ovarian cancer?
Definition
c. Multiparity
Term
A 24-year-old female presents with severe abdominal pain and fever. The pain worsens when walking, jumping, and with intercourse. She was recently treated for chlamydia. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms.
Definition
a. Pelvic infammatory disease
Term
A pt presents with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and infertility. She is also very obese. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Definition
b. Polycystic ovary syndrome
Term
Which of the following genes has not been linked with breast cancer?
Definition
d. psa
Term
Which of the following is considered a risk for vaginal cancer?
Definition
a. Prior or concurrent cervial cancer
Term
A pt has a prostate of a portion of her bladder. Which of the following is an appropriate term for this condition??
Definition
a. Cystocele
Term
Which of the following is the first sign of pubety in girls?
Definition
c. Thelarche (breast development)
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding gynecomastia in men?
Definition
c. Incidence is greatest among adolecents and older men
Term
Which of the following bacteria is NOT ONE of the most common in the intestinal tract?
Definition
d. Candida albicans
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the exocrine pancreas secretions?
Definition
d. Ca2+
Term
Which cell of the liver stores lipids?
Definition
c. Lipocytes
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases of digestion and absorpion of fat?
Definition
c. Hydrolysis
Term
Which of the following control the flow of digested material from the ileum into the large intestine?
Definition
b. Ileocecal valve
Term
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of stomach acid?
Definition
c. Convert intrinsic factor into its active form.
Term
Which of the following hormones if responsible for inhibition of the stomach contractio?
Definition
c. Secretin
Term
Which of the following is NOT part of the cephalic phase of secretion?
Definition
d. arrival of food in the stomach
Term
Which cells of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
Definition
a. Parietal cells
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding salivation?
Definition
b. Cholinergic fibers stimulate the salivary glands
Term
Which of the following is the appropriate description for unconjugated bilirubin?
Definition
a. It is bilirubin that binds to albumin
Term
Respiration is inhibited during which of the following phases?
Definition
a. Oropharyngeal
Term
When iron is being absorbed into the small bowel, to what protein is it bound in the epithelial cells?.
Definition
d. Ferritin
Term
Localized rhythmic contration of circular smooth muscles that divide and mix chyme is called:
Definition
a. haustral segmentation
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the esophagus?
Definition
d. The lower third is innervated by preganglionic fibers from the vagus nerve
Term
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
Definition
c. Vitamin K
Term
Which of the following regarding chronic gastritis is TRUE?
Definition
b. Type A, or fundal gastritis, is the most severe
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding retching?
Definition
c. Esophagus becomes distended
Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding Crohn's disease?
Definition
b. Skip lesions are common
Term
A pt experiences an inflammation of the gastric mucosa. Which of the following bacteria is associated with gastritis?
Definition
c. Helicobacter pylori
Term
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for esophageal carcinome?
Definition
c. Thin body habitus
Term
Which of the following extraintestinal manifestations is NOT found in ulcerative colitis?
Definition
d. Urinary tract infection
Term
A male IV drug-user develops hepatitis. He presents to his physician complaining of jaundice, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, Which of the following stages is he experiencing?
Definition
a. prodromal phase
Term
A pt experiences bright red blood from the rectum. Which of the following is the BEST term to describe this finding?
Definition
b. Hematochezia
Term
A male IV drug-user develops hepatitis. He presents to his physician complaining of jaundice, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, Which of the following stages is he experiencing?
Definition
a. prodromal phase
Term
A male IV drug-user develops hepatitis. He presents to his physician complaining of jaundice, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, Which of the following stages is he experiencing?
Definition
a. prodromal phase
Term
A male IV drug-user develops hepatitis. He presents to his physician complaining of jaundice, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, Which of the following stages is he experiencing?
Definition
a. prodromal phase
Term
A pt experiences bright red bloodfrom the rectum. Which of the following is the BEST term to describe this condition?
Definition
B. Hematochezia
Term
A ot is told that she has hepatitis. She is in a foreign country and was told that the form she has is self-limiting and is trasnferred via the fecal-oral route. Which of the following types of hepititis is most likely?
Definition
a. Hepatitis A
Term
Which of the following may cause constipation?
Definition
d. Opiates
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding cancer of the colon?
Definition
d. Cancer of the small intestine is rare
Term
A pt is diagnosed with portal hypertension due to liver disease. Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of protal hypertension?
Definition
a. Bleeding from varices
Term
A pt presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He is vomiting and is unable to keep down fluids. He is an alcoholic but never had problems like this in the past. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this pt?
Definition
c. Acute pancreatitis
Term
A pt experiences chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area. It begins 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating when the stomach is empty. The pain also occurs in the middle of the night. Based on this history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Definition
d. Duodenal ulcer
Term
A pt is diagnosed with colorectal cancer and was told that it is limited to the bowel wall. Which stage is this pts cancer?
Definition
a. stage a
Term
Which of the following is a cause of functional dysphagia?
Definition
d. Achalasia
Term
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding ulcerative colitis?
Definition
d. Lesions are limited to the mucosa
Term
A 20-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain, fever, and loss of appetite. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his abdominal discomfort?
Definition
c. Appendicitis
Term
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
Definition
c. Body weight 25% less than normal
Term
A pt esperiences severe head trauma in an accident. There is increased mucosal blood flow and overstimulation of the vagal nucleu, causung hypersecretion of acid. Which of the following stress-related mucosal diseases does this ot have?
Definition
c. Cushing ulcer
Term
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding cirrhois?
Definition
a. Cirrhosis develops rapidly
Term
A pt experiences diarrhea, which her physician contributes to increased mucosal secretion of chloride-or-bicarbonate-rich fluid. Which of the following types of diarrhea is this?
Definition
b. secretory
Term
Which of the following is TRUE regarding hiatal hernia?
Definition
c. Paraesophageal is herniation of the greater curvature of the stomach
Term
A pt experiences abdominal pain that is very localized and intense. Which type of pain does this describe?
Definition
a. Parietal
Term
A pt develops a peptic ulcer. Which of the following diseases has been linked to the development of a peptic ulcer?
Definition
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
Term
A pt experiences a large hematoma form a motor vehicle accident. The pt develops jaundice due to increased breakdown (hemolysis) of red blood cells. Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding this patients condition?
Definition
b. Increased unconjugated bilirubin
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