Term
Serological testing is based on which principle? |
|
Definition
Serological (immunologic) tests are based on antibodies specifically binding to an antigen |
|
|
Term
How are Ab-Ag reactions measured? |
|
Definition
Must be visible or measurable - visible by clumps, precipitates, color changes or release of radioactivity |
|
|
Term
What substance are you testing if you are testing for the antibody? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What about when you are testing for the antigen? |
|
Definition
An isolated colony or swab from the patient that contains antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Reacts only with the certain ab or ag that it is testing for |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
able to react with a very small amount of ab or ag |
|
|
Term
What are some types of immunologic assays? |
|
Definition
Agglutination tests; Precipitation reactions; Immunoelectrophoresis; Complement fixation; Fluorescent antibody tests; Immunoassay tests |
|
|
Term
A urine pregnancy test is which type of test? |
|
Definition
Latex aggultination - latex particles that are coated with the antigen |
|
|
Term
What type of sample is used for testing in the RPR, cold agglutinin, and Weil-Felix test? |
|
Definition
The patient’s serum – testing for antibodies |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between agglutination and precipitation? |
|
Definition
The size, solubility and location of the antigen – agglutination=whole cells (RBCs) or bacteria; precipitation=the antigen is soluble. Both will form a insoluble aggregate
|
|
|
Term
What is the tube agglutination test used for? |
|
Definition
Determining how many antibodies are in a patients serum – a titer |
|
|
Term
What is being testing in precipitation testing? |
|
Definition
Patient’s serum for antibodies |
|
|
Term
How is precipitation testing performed? |
|
Definition
Usually performed in an agar gel medium; Ouchterlony method is a double diffusion method – Ag and Ab are placed in wells in the agar; Antigen and antibody diffuse toward each other, forming a line of precipitate on contact |
|
|
Term
What are some examples of precipitation tests? |
|
Definition
VDRL, oucherlony method, immunoelectrophoresis, western blot |
|
|
Term
What is complement fixation testing for? |
|
Definition
Can be testing for the antigen or the antibody |
|
|
Term
What is the visible result if the Ab-Ag complex is present? |
|
Definition
There will be NO hemolysis of the sheep RBCs |
|
|
Term
How is the test interpreted if lysis does occur? |
|
Definition
As a negative response – no immune complexes were formed |
|
|
Term
How is the presence of an immune complex visualized in the fluorescent antibody test? |
|
Definition
a monoclonal antibody labeled by a fluorescent dye and interacts with antigens and antibodies |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between direct and indirect testing with fluorescent antibody testing? |
|
Definition
Direct=testing for antigen; indirect=testing for antibody |
|
|
Term
Give an example of each type (direct & indirect). |
|
Definition
Direct – syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, pertussis, plague; indirect - FTA-ABS |
|
|
Term
What types of tests are RIA and ELISA tests? |
|
Definition
Immunoassays - Extremely sensitive testing that permits rapid and accurate measurement of trace antigens or antibodies |
|
|
Term
What is principle of Radioimmunoassay (RIA)? |
|
Definition
RIA - Ags or Abs are labeled with radioactive isotopes and measured |
|
|
Term
What is the principle of Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent assay (ELISA)? |
|
Definition
ELISA - A positive result is visualized when a colored product is released by an enzyme-substrate reaction (Ab or Ag) |
|
|
Term
Give examples of ELISA testing. |
|
Definition
Antibody testing for HIV, Hep A & C, cholera, helicobacter, and rickettsia; antigen testing - useful for measuring nanogram (ng) amounts of hormones, drugs, and serum proteins |
|
|
Term
Which test is useful in following HIV patients? |
|
Definition
Specific testing for CD4 and CD8 t-cells |
|
|
Term
Which test is an example of in vivo testing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which types of cocci bacteria are the most clinically important? |
|
Definition
Staph, strep and neisseria. |
|
|
Term
Which are gram positive and gram negative? |
|
Definition
Staph and strep; neisseria |
|
|
Term
What test will differentiate staph species from streptococcus species? Which one is positive? |
|
Definition
Catalase – staph is catalase positive |
|
|
Term
What species appears as gram + cocci in chains? Gram + cocci in clusters? |
|
Definition
Streptococcus
staphylococcus |
|
|
Term
Why are cocci called pyogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What substance aids S. aureus in tissue destruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is S aureus isolated from in patients who are carriers of the organism? |
|
Definition
Anterior nasal pharynx (nares) |
|
|
Term
What are some local diseases that are caused by S. aureus? Systemic? Toxic diseases? |
|
Definition
Localized – abscess, folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, impetigo
Systemic – osteomyelitis, pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia
Toxigenic disease – food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome |
|
|
Term
You have a 2 y/o patient with yellow blisters and some erythema on his arm – what is the DX and the bacterial agent? |
|
Definition
Bullous impetigo – S. aureus |
|
|
Term
What substance is responsible for food poisoning from S aureus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What substance is responsible for a painful bright red rash occurs over the entire body then causes desquamation of the epidermis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which species of staphylococcus can cause wound infections? |
|
Definition
S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. hominis, S capitis |
|
|
Term
Which species of staphylococcus can cause UTI’s especially in sexually active adolescent females? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are penicillins effective against staph infections? Why?
|
|
Definition
No – they produce penicillinase |
|
|
Term
What is a common initial presentation of MRSA? |
|
Definition
“spider bite” or small pimple type lesion |
|
|
Term
What types of classification systems are used for streptococcus species? |
|
Definition
Lancefield and the hemolysis reaction on blood agar |
|
|
Term
Which species are Beta hemolyic?
Alpha hemolytic? |
|
Definition
A,B,C,G & some D strains;
S. pneumoniae and the viridans group |
|
|
Term
Which strep species causes the most serious disease? Why? |
|
Definition
Group A (S. pyogenes) – enzymes and toxins |
|
|
Term
What are some diseases caused by strep Gp A? |
|
Definition
Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, erysipalis, necrotizing fasciitis, pneumonia, rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis |
|
|
Term
Why is Gp B streptococcus medically significant? |
|
Definition
May cause premature delivery of the fetus and neonatal septicemia, meningitis and pneumonia |
|
|
Term
Why is the viridans group of bacteria medically significant? |
|
Definition
May cause subacute bacterial endocarditis |
|
|
Term
What is the most common pathogen of bacterial pneumonia? What else is it commonly seen in? |
|
Definition
S. pneumoniae; otitis media |
|
|
Term
What is unique about the structure of S. pneumoniae? |
|
Definition
Several strains form capsules providing virulence |
|
|
Term
Are there vaccines available for S. pneumoniae? Which ones? |
|
Definition
The capsular vaccine is for older patients and the new conjugate vaccine is for children. |
|
|
Term
Describe the gram stain results from the discharge in a patient with gonorrhea. |
|
Definition
Intracellular gram negative diplococci |
|
|
Term
What other disease commonly occurs with gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a serious disease seen in neonates born to moms with gonorrhea? How is it prevented? |
|
Definition
ophthalmia neonatorum – antibiotic eye drops given at birth to all babies |
|
|
Term
What is meningococcus? Why is it medically significant? |
|
Definition
N. Meningitis – epidemic bacterial meningitis - very rapid onset; endotoxin causes hemorrhage and shock; can be fatal quickly. |
|
|
Term
A 45 y/o male is complaining of fevers/chills, productive cough, and pleuritic chest pain. On exam, he has crackles/rales in his LLL. What is the most likely bacterial pathogen? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of skin lesions may be seen with bacterial meningitis? Why does it occur? |
|
Definition
Endotoxin causes vascular collapse, hemorrhage, clotting disorders and visible petechiae on the body. |
|
|
Term
Which species of bacteria form endospores? |
|
Definition
Bacillus spp and Clostridium spp |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of anthrax? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form of anthrax is most common and the least pathogenic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe a lesion of cutaneous anthrax. |
|
Definition
Starts as a papule that becomes necrotic which ruptures and becomes a painless black eschar |
|
|
Term
What is the major pathogenicity of pulmonary anthrax? |
|
Definition
Exotoxins that produce toxemia which results in capillary thrombosis and cardiovascular shock. Death can occur in a few hours. |
|
|
Term
How is it treated? Is there a vaccine? |
|
Definition
Treated with penicillin or tetracycline which is effective against the bacteria however does not resolve the effects of the toxins. Vaccine – purified toxoid given in 6 injections over 1.5 years with annual boosters |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 forms of illness seen with B. cereus? |
|
Definition
Emetic form and diarrheal form |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of gas gangrene? What type of environment is needed for optimal growth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes the RBC rupture, edema & tissue destruction seen in gas gangrene?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
rigorous cleansing of wounds, decubitus ulcers and surgical sites |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of antibiotic-associated colitis that is a major cause of diarrhea in hospitals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does it occur and what is the pathophysiology of the disease? |
|
Definition
Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics kills the other bacteria, allowing C. difficile to overgrow - Produces entertoxins that damage intestine – necrosis of the intestinal mucosa |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of tetanus? What toxin is responsible for the disease? |
|
Definition
Clostridium tetani ; Tetanospasmin |
|
|
Term
What causes the muscle spasms? |
|
Definition
Tetanospasmin stops the inhibition of contractions resulting in uncontrollable severe muscle contractions |
|
|
Term
How is tetanus treated? Is there a vaccine? |
|
Definition
Antitoxin – tetanus immune globulin (TIG); PCN or TCN and removing infected tissue; Vaccine – 5 doses during infancy/childhood with boosters every 10 years |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of botulism? What 3 diseases are caused by this agent? |
|
Definition
Clostridium botulinum – food poisoning, infant botulism, wound botulism |
|
|
Term
What is the most potent microbial toxin known? How does it cause disease? |
|
Definition
Botulin - prevents the release of acetylcholine preventing muscle contraction – death occurs from respiratory compromise |
|
|
Term
Is there a vaccine for botulism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What types of patients are most susceptible to Listeria monocytogenes? |
|
Definition
immunocompromised patients, fetuses (mother infected and passes through the placenta harming fetus) & neonates |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of erysipeloid? |
|
Definition
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of diphtheria? |
|
Definition
Corynebacterium diptheriae |
|
|
Term
What physical exam findings may be seen with diphtheria? |
|
Definition
sore throat, enlarged lymph nodes and severe swelling of the neck – Pseudomembrane of the oropharynx |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of acne?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Mycobacteria species have which type of staining properties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Mycobacteria species causes TB? Leprosy? Pneumonia in HIV patients? |
|
Definition
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium leprae, Mycobacterium avuim-M. intracellular complex |
|
|
Term
If a patient is exposed to TB, what is the likelihood that he will get the disease? |
|
Definition
Only 5% infected people develop clinical disease – generally humans are resistant to TB |
|
|
Term
Which organs may be affected by TB? |
|
Definition
Majority of cases (85%) are pulmonary but can occur in any organ of the body |
|
|
Term
What type of lung lesions may be seen in TB?
|
|
Definition
Tubercles, caseous lesions, cavitations, calcified lesions, tiny to small nodules |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Reactivation of bacilli - patient experiences more severe symptoms - Violent coughing, greenish or bloody sputum, fever, anorexia, weight loss, fatigue |
|
|
Term
What is the screening test for TB? What are some other tests?
|
|
Definition
tuberculin skin testing, Chest x-rays, Direct identification of acid-fast bacilli in specimen, Laboratory cultural isolation
|
|
|
Term
What are some contraindications to PPD testing?
|
|
Definition
previous + reactions, history of BCG vaccine
|
|
|
Term
Is the PPD test reliable in all patients?
|
|
Definition
No, false negatives occur in patients who lack t-cells |
|
|
Term
Which medications are used for the treatment of TB? Is there a vaccine?
|
|
Definition
Rifater (isoniazid (INH), rifampin, pyrazinamide) is considered the best combination to cure the disease and prevent further resistance. Yes, but not completely effective |
|
|
Term
How is M. Leprae cultured? What are the 2 forms of the disease? Which is worse?
|
|
Definition
It has never been grown in the lab – unable to be cultured; Tuberculoid and Lepromatous; Lepromatous |
|
|
Term
Which areas of the body are more prone to disfiguring lesions of leprosy?
|
|
Definition
Cooler areas like the nose, chin, brows, |
|
|
Term
What type of neurological symptoms are seen in leprosy?
|
|
Definition
Nerve damage leads to wasting of muscles – drop foot and claw hands. Sensory nerve damage leads to trauma and loss of fingers and toes. |
|
|
Term
What causative agent is involved with a complication of tooth extractions, necrotizing lung disease, peritonitis after trauma, ulcers and appendicitis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causative agent is causes a lung disease very similar to TB?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which gram negative bacilli are aerobic? Which of those are opportunistic pathogens?
|
|
Definition
Species, Brucella Species, Francisella Species, Bordetella Species, Alcaligenes Species; pseudomonas and Alcaligenes |
|
|
Term
What are some of the diseases caused by pseudomonas species? Is it easy to treat?
|
|
Definition
Otitis externa, hot tub folliculitis, pneumonia, UTI, abscesses, otitis, corneal disease, Endocarditis, meningitis – mostly as an opportunistic pathogen – not easy to treat |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of undulant fever? How is it contracted?
|
|
Definition
Brucella Species; zoonotic disease from infected animals |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of tularemia?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of pertussis? What are the 2 phases of the disease?
|
|
Definition
Bordetella pertussis; catarrhal and paroxysmal |
|
|
Term
Why is the incidence of pertussis increasing?
|
|
Definition
Decreased number of people getting immunized |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of Legionnaires disease & Pontiac fever? What is a common reservoir for this agent?
|
|
Definition
Legionella pneumophila - artificial aquatic environments like a water cooler or air conditioning systems |
|
|
Term
What are some of the clinical features of Legionnaires disease?
|
|
Definition
Fever, cough, diarrhea, abdominal pain, pneumonia fatality rate of 3-30% |
|
|
Term
Which bacterial species are considered enteric pathogens? Do they cause disease in the GI tract?
|
|
Definition
E.coli, klebsiella, proteus, enterobacter, serratia and citrobacter – usually pathogenic in other systems not the GI tract (opportunistic) |
|
|
Term
What is a coliform? Non-coliform?
|
|
Definition
Coliforms are gram neg bacteria that ferment lactose |
|
|
Term
Which strain of E.coli causes hemorrhagic syndrome & permanent kidney damage?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some diseases caused by E.coli?
|
|
Definition
traveler’s diarrhea, UTIs, neonatal meningitis, pneumonia, septicimia and wound infections
|
|
|
Term
Which coliform causes pneumonia and produces a red pigment?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which non-coliform lactose-negative enterics are true pathogens?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of typhoid fever?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which part of the GI tract is affected by salmonella species? Shigella species?
|
|
Definition
Small intestines, large intestines |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of dysentery?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of plague? What is the most common vector for plague?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What the 3 types of plague? Is there treatment available? Vaccine available?
|
|
Definition
Bubonic, pneumonic, septicemic; 95% survival rate with antibiotic Tx; Killed or attenuated vaccine available but only lasts for a few months
|
|
|
Term
What pathogen is implicated in animal bites?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the common causative agent of acute bacterial meningitis, epiglottitis, otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, & bronchitis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent in bacterial conjunctivitis?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of chancroid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which species are spirochetes? |
|
Definition
Treponema, Leptospira, Borrelia
1. Treponema had 8-20 evenly spacced coils
Lives in the oral cavity, intestinal tract and perigenital regions of humans and animals, strict parasites that can only be cultivated in live cells
2. Leptospira has numerous fine, regular coils and one or both ends curved
3. Borrelia has 3-10 loose irregular coils
|
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of syphilis? |
|
Definition
T. Pallidum
Other pallidum subspecies cause yaws and non-vernereal endemic syphilis |
|
|
Term
What is the hallmark of primary syphilis? |
|
Definition
Primary:Non-tender chancre; non-tender shallow crater with firm margins, lymphadenopathy is a comon finding and resolves spontaneously within 3 to 6 weeks |
|
|
Term
Can syphilis cross the placenta? |
|
Definition
Yes
A common characteristic of late congenital syphilis is notched, barrel shaped incisros |
|
|
Term
What are some tests used to diagnose syphilis? |
|
Definition
RPR, VDRL, FTA-Abs, dark field microscopy
screening are RPR and VDRL; confirm with FTA-Abs |
|
|
Term
What is the tx for syphilis? |
|
Definition
high doses of penicillin
parental PCN G is the drug of choice in all stages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
· generalized lymphadenopathy and rash; flu like symptoms
· About 6 weeks after chancre heals, 2ndary signs will appear, fever, headache, sore throat, generalized lymphadenopathy and a red/brown rash (doesn’t hurt or itch) on the palms and soles, lesions also have spirochetes present; can affect bones, hair follicles, joints, liver, eyes and brain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
neurological symptoms and gummas
tender tumor that can be errosive gumma apears on the nose of the pts |
|
|
Term
What is unusual about the rash of secondary syphilis? |
|
Definition
It can affect the hands and feet and spirochetes are in lesions
It can also be painful or itchy |
|
|
Term
What other symptoms may be present? |
|
Definition
HA, fevers, sore throat, lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
How long can the latency period of syphilis be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Tumors of tertiary syphilis that affect many organs, may be erosive |
|
|
Term
What is argyll-robertson pupil? |
|
Definition
Sign of tertiary syphilis-pupil reacts better to accomodation that reaction to light |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of leptospirosis? |
|
Definition
Leptospira interrogans
Bacteria shed in urine; infection occurs by contact (not human to human); targets kidneys, liver, brain, eyes 50-60 cases a year in US
Early tx with Penicillin or tetracycline reduces symptoms, vaccine for livesotck workers and military personnel |
|
|
Term
How is leptospirosis contracted? |
|
Definition
zoonotic disease from livestock |
|
|
Term
What are s/sx of leptosirosis? |
|
Definition
suddne high fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, conjunctivitis, petechial rash and vomitting |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the sking rash in secondary syphilis can form on the trunk, arms and even palms and soles. The rash does not hury or itch and can persist for months |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of relapsing fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is it called relapsing fever and what are other sx? |
|
Definition
an antigenic change occurs and a new immune response occurs causing a fever a few days later
2-15 day incubation; parasite changes and immune system tries to control it
Other sx: high fever, shaking, chills, headache & fatigue, nausea, vomiting, muscle aches, abdominal pain; extensive damage to lover, spleen, heart kidneys and cranial nerves |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?
What is the vector? |
|
Definition
Borrelia burgdorferi
non-fatal, slowly progressive syndrime that mimics neuromuscular and rheumatoid conditions
vectos is blacklegged (or deer) ticks |
|
|
Term
Describe the rash that often occurs with Lyme disease. |
|
Definition
bull's eye rash (erythema migrans) |
|
|
Term
Other sx and tx of Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
Fever, headache, stiff neck & dizziness with ccardiac damage, neurological s/x and polyarthritis
Tx: tetracycline or amoxicillin |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of cholera? |
|
Definition
Vibrio cholerae
a gram negative rod, comma shaped that possess unique O and H Ags |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Top 7 causes of morbidity and mortality |
|
|
Term
How is cholera contracted? |
|
Definition
Ingested with food or water
infects surface of small intesting, non-invasive, cholera toxin causes electrolyte and water loss through secretory diarrhea (rice water stool) resulting dehydration leads to muscle, circulatory and neurological sx |
|
|
Term
Most significant sx of cholera? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Oral rehydration and tetracycline
vaccines are available |
|
|
Term
What are the causative agents of gastroenteritis from eating raw seafood and oysters? |
|
Definition
Vibrio vulnificus and Vibrio parahaemolyticus
1. vibrio parahaemolyticus-gastroenteritis from raw seafood, shrimp, tuna, squid, crabs and others
2. Vibrio vulnificus-gastroenteritis from raw oysters, poor outcome in patients with diabetes or lover disease |
|
|
Term
What causes the symptoms related to C. jejuni? |
|
Definition
Heat-liable enterotoxin CJT, one of most common from poultry
C, jejuni is an important cause of bacterial gastroenteritis, incubation period is 1-7 days; it is tranmsitted by food and beverages; once it reaches the muscosa at the ileum near the colon it adheres and burrows through the mucous to multiply |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of C. jejuni? |
|
Definition
headaches, fever, abdominal pain, bloody or watery diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What bacterial agent causes 90% of stomach and duodenal ulcers?
How is it contracted? |
|
Definition
H. pylori
Also a factor in gastric adenocarcinomas; natural of human stomach (resistant to gastric acid)
Probbly transmitted from person to person |
|
|
Term
Which type of patients are the most at risk of developing gastritis or ulcers from H. pylori? |
|
Definition
Patients with type O blood and patients who take NSAIDS chronically
Produces a large amount of urease which can be measured by a urea breath test |
|
|
Term
How is H. pylori diagnosed?
Tx? |
|
Definition
biopsy, breath test or antibody test of serum
Tx: triple therapy provides a 95% cure rate-Proton pump inhibitor/ranitidine+amoxicillin+clarithomycin |
|
|
Term
What is unique about the rash caused by Rickettsia species? |
|
Definition
vasculitis, vascular leakage & thrombosis-the lesions will blanch with pressure |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of RMSF? |
|
Definition
Rickettsia rickettsii
Dog and wood ticks are principal vectors
Ticks are infected from a mammalian reservoir during a blood meal
TRansovarial passage of Rickettsia rickettsii to tick eggs serves as a continual source of infection within the tick population
A tick attaches to a human, embeds its head in the sking, feeds and shreds rickettsias into the bite
Systemic involvement includes severe headache, fever, rash, coma and vascualr damage such as blood clots and hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
Where do most Lyme disease cases occur in the US? |
|
Definition
Southeast and on eastern seaboard not often in the West
|
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of Q-fever? |
|
Definition
Coxiella burnetti
an intracellular parasite that produces an unusal resistant spore
Harbored by a wide assortment of vertebrates and arthropods especially ticks
Transmitted by air, dust unpasteurized milk and ticks |
|
|
Term
What is unique about Coxiella burnetti? |
|
Definition
produces unique endospores that are released when the cell disintergrates |
|
|
Term
What is cat-scratch fever?
What is the causative agent?
What are the symptoms? |
|
Definition
lymphatic infection associated with a clawing injury by cats
Batonella henselae
a small gram negative fastidious, not obligate parasites and ca nbe cultured on a blood agar
Starts as a small patch of papules then progresses to tender lymph nodes |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 stages of chlamydia lifecycle? |
|
Definition
Elementry body and reticulate body
Elementry body-smallmetabolically inactive, extracellular, infectious form
Reticulate body-grows with host cell vacuoles, differentiate into elementry bodies |
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Term
What test is used to differentiate staph aureus from other staph species? |
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Definition
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Term
What is immunoelectrophoresis used for? |
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Definition
used to detect disorders in the production of antibodies |
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Term
What is the western blot test used for? |
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Definition
confirmation of HIV antibodies in ap patient-can be used for other antibody and antigen testing |
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Term
What type of testing is utilized with ABO blood grouping? What substances are being tested? |
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Definition
agglutination; antisera combined with patient's RBCs |
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Term
Antigen-Antibody Reactions |
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Definition
Primary basis of the immunologic testing is the binding of antigens with specific antibodies
The tests must involve some type of visible endpoint.
Visible agglutination or precipitation
Dry, fluroescent reagents and radioactive isotopes are also used
May also be read as a titer using dilutions of serum and observing the rxn at the lowest concentration |
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