Term
what is produced by endothelial cells of the peritubular capillaries and interstitial cells? what does it do? |
|
Definition
erythropoietin
stimulates RBC production |
|
|
Term
what is produced by the juxtaglomerular cells? in response to what? |
|
Definition
renin, in response to Na depletion or low blood volume |
|
|
Term
the kidney is the site of activation of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what forms a filtration barrier in the glomeruli? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the two functions of mesangial cells? |
|
Definition
phagycytose macromolecules and immune complexes
contract to autoregulate glomerular blood flow |
|
|
Term
the renal tubules can regenerate provided:
[image] |
|
Definition
the basement membrane remains intact to act as a scaffolding for regenerating tubular epithelial cells. |
|
|
Term
the absence of one or both kidneys is called ______ and if one, then the other can be bigger due to________. |
|
Definition
renal agenesis/aplasia
compensatory hypertrophy |
|
|
Term
when kidneys are smaller than normal, it is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when kidneys are fused at one pole, roughly near midline, it is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
polycystic kidney disease in cats has a __________mode of inheritance, seen in __________ with renal dysfunction around _______and failure at ________. cysts can also be seen in ________and can arise from any segment of the nephron. 98% can be diagnosed by ________at 10 months |
|
Definition
- autosomal dominant
- persian cats
- 3-10yrs old
- >7 yrs old
- the liver
- ultrasound
|
|
|
Term
why are renal infarcts wedge shaped? what colors are they? |
|
Definition
blood supply anatomy in kidney
red for 2-3 days, then grey/pale/tan with fibrosis |
|
|
Term
papillary necrosis is common in horses, associated with ____________ use in dehydrated animals. why? |
|
Definition
NSAIDS
PGE2 maintains vasodilation; NSAIDS inhibit this, leading to ischemic necrosis |
|
|
Term
what is hydronephrosis/hydroureter? what is it due to? |
|
Definition
dilation of renal pelvis/calyces/ureter due to obstruction |
|
|
Term
what is the pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis? |
|
Definition
- circulating immune complexes deposit in or adjacent to glomerular basement membrane or Ab formed against basement membrane
- lattice formation of Ab less phagocytized by body
- complement fixation, inflam mediators, leukocytic infiltration
- filtration barrier compromisedàprotein loss
|
|
|
Term
which glomerulonephritis is characterized by thickened glomerular basement membranes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which glomerulonephritis is characterized by increase numbers of mesangial cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which glomerulonephritis is characterized by a combination of membranous and proliferative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which conditions are commonly associate with glomerulonephritis and chronic inflammatory stimuli? |
|
Definition
- viral
- bacteria
- parasitic/protozoal
- autoimmune
- neoplasia
|
|
|
Term
glomerular amyloidosis in animals is often __________, derived from _________. familial described in the _____(dog)___ and the _____(cat)_______. grossly, ________ can be used to stain fresh tissue to stain amyloid dark brown |
|
Definition
- systemic reactive amyloidosis
- SAA
- Sharpei
- Abyssinians
- Logol's iodine
|
|
|
Term
histologically describe glomerular amyloidosis and the stain used |
|
Definition
- amorphous to hyaline eosinophilic material in glomeruli, which may be enlarged.
- Congo red will turn apple green under polarization
|
|
|
Term
in cats, amyloid is most commonly deposited in: |
|
Definition
the medullary interstitium rather than the glomeruli |
|
|
Term
name the three most common causes of embolic suppurative nephritis/glomerulitis in the horse, the pig, and the cow. |
|
Definition
- equine: Actinobacillus equuli
- porcine: erysipelothris thusiopathiae
- cattle: truperella pyogenes (Arcanobacterium) from vegetative valvular endocarditis
|
|
|
Term
where will microabscesses by seen in embolic nephritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in ischemic tubular necrosis, which tubules are affected? what about the glomeruli and basement membranes? |
|
Definition
especially proximal, distal may be affected
glomeruli unaffected
basement membranes not preserved
|
|
|
Term
in nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis, the proximal tubules are especially sensitive due to ___________ and _____________ and the basement membranes are _______ |
|
Definition
- hi metabolic activity
- exposed to agents in large volume of ultrafiltrate they resorb
- basement membranes preserved
|
|
|
Term
grossly, kidneys with nephrotoxic ATN will look: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
nephrotoxic agents include: |
|
Definition
- heavy metals
- Abx
- plants
- oxalates (ethylene glycol)
- mycotoxins
- endogenous substancces (Hgb, Mgb)
- miscellaneous (canthardin)
|
|
|
Term
tubular necrosis can be distinguished by its (4)____________. |
|
Definition
- loss of cellular detail
- karyorrhexis, karyolysis, pyknosis
- increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia
- sloughing of epithelial cells
|
|
|
Term
tubular degeneration can be distinguished due to its __________ |
|
Definition
vacuolation of epithelial cells |
|
|
Term
tubular regeneration can be distinguished by its (4)__________. |
|
Definition
- increased cytoplasmic basophilia
- piling/crowding of epi cells
- nuclei with open chromatin pattern and prominent nucleoli
- mitotic figures
|
|
|
Term
where in the kidney will bacteria most often lodge in septicemia? |
|
Definition
glomeruli or peritubular capillaries |
|
|
Term
pyelonephritis is the inflammation of |
|
Definition
renal pelvis and parenchyma |
|
|
Term
describe interstitial (tubulointerstitial) nephritis including acute and chronic cases and two possible causes |
|
Definition
· very common to observe chronic interstitial nephritis lesions in older animals, cause not evident
· acute cases: edema, leuk infiltrate, focal tube necrosis
· chronic cases: leukocytic infiltrate, fibrosis, atrophy
· lumpy, bumpy, secondary cysts
e.g. leptospirosis and Encephalitozoon cuniculi |
|
|
Term
what two things are also usually found in patients with pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
why is pyelonephritis usually ascending? what infectious agents usually cause it? |
|
Definition
· vesicoureteral reflux-retrograde flow up ureters during micturition
- same as those that cause lower UTI's (E. coli, Staph, Strep, Pseudomonas, Proteus, Enterobacter, Coryne, Aranobacter pyogenes in cattle, Actinobaculum suis in swine
|
|
|
Term
what are the histo lesions in pyelonephritis? |
|
Definition
- acute lesions have suppurative exudates in pelvis, extending into tubules and interstitium
- medulla most severely affected, but lesions can extend into cortex
- in chronic fibrosis, inflammatory infiltrate more mononuclear
|
|
|
Term
what is stephanurus dentatus? |
|
Definition
kidney worm in swine, encysts in perirenal tissue and cysts communicate with renal pelvis to allow for passage of eggs |
|
|
Term
what is dioctophyma renale? |
|
Definition
giant kidney worm. piscivorous mammals (mink, dogs, cats), usually right kidney. adults live in renal pelvis |
|
|
Term
renal ademonas are rare, and benign tumors that arise from: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
renal adenocarcinomas occur in older animals, more in _____(gender)____, and are the most common primary renal tumors in _____,______, and _______ |
|
Definition
males
sheep, cattle, dogs |
|
|
Term
the two species associated with nephroblastomas are ________and _______ and kidneys look_______ |
|
Definition
chickens and pigs
grey-white to tan, soft masses, may have extensive hemorrhage. histo: primitive glomeruli, stroma, and tubules |
|
|
Term
neoplasms metastatic to the kidney include multiple neoplasms, and ____________is most common |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what non-urinary lesions are associated with renal failure? |
|
Definition
· gastric ulcers/uremic gastritis
· ulcerative glossitis/stomatitis, (lingual ulcers)
· mineralization of intercostal pleura
· uremic pneumonitis
· parathyroid hyperplasia- phosphate retention due to dec GFR,àdec plasma ionized Ca++àstims PTH release
· anemia-↓erythropoietin, hemolysis due to factors in uremic plasma, GI hemorrhage
|
|
|
Term
_____ureters can empty into somewhere else, (certain breed) are predisposed, and they can be uni or bilateral |
|
Definition
ectopic
golden retrievers |
|
|
Term
_______occurs with the failure of closure of urachal lumen resulting in dribbling. common in _________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
define urolithiasis and the predisposing factors |
|
Definition
- calculi from urethra to renal pelvis
- urine pH, hereditary factors (Dalmatians), dietary factors, UTIs, thick bladder
|
|
|
Term
what are the predisposing factors for cystitis? |
|
Definition
§ loss of normal voiding mechanisms
§ loss of acidic urine pH (carnivores)
§ glucosuria (great for bac growth)
§ proteinuria
§ mucosal trauma
§ degree of inflam seen on UA does not correlate well with histo inflam
§ females anatomically predisposed- short wide urethra |
|
|
Term
what is emphysematous cystitis, and how is it diagnosed? |
|
Definition
- rarely seen except in diabetic animals due to bacterial fermentation of urinary glucose into CO2,
- causes tiny bubbles seen on rads
|
|
|
Term
enzootic hematuria can occur in cattle ingesting __________. they form _____________ |
|
Definition
bracken fern
hematuria, hemorrhagic proliferative cystitis, bladder neoplasms, papillomas, hemangiosarcomas, leiomyosarcomas, fibrosarcomas |
|
|
Term
botryoid rhabdomyosarcomas occur in _____________ breed dogs |
|
Definition
young large or giant breed dogs |
|
|
Term
transitional cell carcinomas are most commonly seen in the region of ______with about _____% metastasizing |
|
Definition
bladder neck or trigone
50% |
|
|
Term
papillomas in the lower urinary tract are often multiple and covered by ___________epithelium. many ulcerate and cause hematuria, and in dogs may _________ |
|
Definition
- well-differentiated transitional
- undergo malignant transformation
|
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a stem cell for epithelial repair in bronchi/bronchioles?
a. mucous cells
b. ciliated cells
c. nonciliated cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cell serves as stem cells for epithelial repair in interalveolar septum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
anemia is associated with acute/chronic renal disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
describe bronchi cartilage and basic changes with inflammation |
|
Definition
1. cartilage maintains patency, prevents collapse
2. thick connective tissue prevents infection spread into surrounding alveolar parenchyma
3. chronic inflammation results in dilation
4. changes in diameter increase resistance markedly |
|
|
Term
in the bronchi: ciliary cells are ____________. the cells responsible for regeneration include (3): |
|
Definition
- terminally differentiated.
- a. mucous cells
- b. basal cells
- c. other nonciliated cells
|
|
|
Term
in the bronchioles, the nonregenerative and regeneratibve cells are: |
|
Definition
1. ciliated are terminally differentiated
2. epithelial regen capacity
a. mucous cells
b. nonciliated (Clara cells) |
|
|
Term
how are bronchioles different from bronchi in structure and with inflammation? |
|
Definition
- no cartilage or glands in walls
- airway patency maintained by tethering support of interalveolar septa on bronchiolar wall
- thin connective tissue in wall allows infection spread to surrounding alveoli
- chronic inflam result in stenosis of lumen
|
|
|
Term
what are the two types of epithelial cells and their functions within the interalveolar septa |
|
Definition
a. type 1
i. thin, large surface area, susceptible to damage, prevents interstitial fluid from leaking out, keeps surface tension low, incapable of division
b. type 2
i. produce surfactant, cuboidal, produce other mediators, stem cells for repair |
|
|
Term
what are the two functional consequences of bronchitis and bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
1. increased airway resistance
a. airway obstruction
b. ventilation/perfusion abnormàhypoxemia
2. decrease mucociliary clearance
a. predispose to secondary bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
what are some causes of bronchitis/bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
•Infectious: viral, bacterial, fungal, parasitic
•Toxic: e.g. - 4 -ipomeanol and other plant toxins
• Hypersensitivity |
|
|
Term
what are the epithelial, submucosa, and luminal changes in bronchitis/bronchiolitis? |
|
Definition
Epithelial Changes
• Degeneration/Necrosis
• Erosion/Hyperplasia
Submucosa/lamina propria
• Edema
• Hyperemia
• Cellular infiltration
Lumen obstruction
• Exudate fills
• Reduced diameter: Wall enlargement and contraction of muscle |
|
|
Term
describe bronchiectasis including causes and functional consequences |
|
Definition
1. chronic infection (usually bac)
2. neut-mediated tissue destruction
a. destruction of glands and cartilage
b. fibrosis
1. increase in airway resistance (turbulence and luminal obstruction)
2. poor mucociliary clearance
3. aspiration of infective material to alveoli |
|
|
Term
bronchitis and bronchiolitis are classified based on what three criteria? |
|
Definition
1. Duration: Acute, subacute, chronic
2. Distribution: Focal, multifocal, diffuse
3. Nature of exudate: Necrotic, suppurative, eosinophilic, erosive, hyperplastic, etc. |
|
|
Term
grossly, what is seen in bronchiectasis? |
|
Definition
Dilation of airway: saccular or cylindrical
2. Thick wall
3. Luminal exudate: grey, green, or tan
thick, mucoid or caseous |
|
|
Term
what is bronciolitis obliterans? |
|
Definition
obstruction of bronchiolar lumen by fibrous connective tissue
Atelectasis: collapse of the lung |
|
|
Term
what are the two types of bronchiolitis obliterans? |
|
Definition
1. neonatal (inadequate surfactant)
2. acquired
a. compressive
b. obstructive |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
a. viral infection
b. chronic dust inhalation c. chronic bacterial infection |
|
Definition
chronic bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
which of the following processes is reversible?
a. bronchiectasis
b. bronciolitis obliterans
c. atelectasis
d. alveolar emphysema |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the two types of emphysema? which is irreversible? |
|
Definition
1. alveolar
a. incidental in cats, old dogs, more relevant in smokers
Pathophys significance:
1. decreased alveolar and capillary surface area
2. loss of radial support for airways: early closure
3. dec elastic properties, increase complaiance and residual lung capacity
4. loss of capillary area, pulm hypertension
5. irreversible
2. interstitial
a. common, cattle-gas blown out into loose connective tissue
b. excess gas in pulmonary interstitium
c. forced expiration against obstructed airways
d. gas dissects into interstitial tissue
i. interlobular septa
ii. perivascular areas
iii. subpleural tissues
e. pathophys: restrictive lung disease
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the three mechanisms of alveolar emphysema? |
|
Definition
1. Airway obstruction and inflammation
2. Protease/Antiprotease imbalance
3. Post-obstructive pressure disruption |
|
|
Term
what are the major path mechanisms of pulmonary edema? |
|
Definition
a. Increased permeability of alveolar epithelial and endothelial cells
b. Increased pulmonary hydrostatic pressure
c. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
d. Lymphatic obstruction |
|
|
Term
describe bronchopneumonia |
|
Definition
o initial deposition of causative agent in terminal bronchioles and alveoli
o bacteria or aspiration
o early damage in proximal acinar areas with spread into surrounding alveolar parenchyma
o cranioventral
o may intercurrent fibrinous pleuritis
o may spread to lobular distrib
o chronicity: fibrosis and lymphadenomegally
o microscopic: abundant exudate in alveoli (neuts, fibrin, necrotic debris), lesions initially airway oriented
o airways obstructed
o infiltration of walls and filling of alveoli makes lung stiffer
o exudate and alveolar wall thickening creates diffuse barrier |
|
|
Term
describe interstitial pneumonia |
|
Definition
o primary injury to elements of interalveolar septum (epi, endothelium)
o virus (immune-suppressing), protozoa, some fungi, rarely bacteria (assoc with bacteremia)
o often diffuse or locally extensive firm, large, red, with muscle or liver consistency on cut surface
o microscopic: early type I epithelial necrosis
o subacute: type 2 epithelial hyperplasia alveolar septal thickening, mononuclear cells,
o chronicity marked by fibrosis
o thickening and infiltration of alveolar walls marked by increased stiffness and decreased compliance: restrictive
o decreased diffusion capacity: hypoxemia |
|
|
Term
describe acute viral pneumonia
|
|
Definition
1. Viruses replicate in respiratory airway and
alveolar epithelial cells
2. Virus induces inflammatory and immune
response
3. Inflammation in parenchyma is focused on
interalveolar septa
4. Viral replication is effectively halted before
diffuse interstitial pneumonia develops |
|
|
Term
describe chronic viral pneumonia including two examples |
|
Definition
1. Often associated with viruses that replicate in
macrophages and/or depress or escape antiviral
immunologic defense mechanisms
2. Virus spreads throughout the lung and induces
diffuse interstitial pneumonia
3. Examples: Ovine progressive pneumonia, canine
distemper virus |
|
|
Term
what are the five steps in bacterial pneumonia? |
|
Definition
1. Colonization of respiratory tract
2. Depression of pulmonary defense mechanisms
e.g., virus, stress, dehydration, particulates. etc
3. Exponential growth of Mannheimia haemolytica
with leukotoxin production
4. Damage to neutrophils, macrophages, release of
endotoxin
5. Leukotoxin and endotoxin-mediated tissue
damage accentuated by neutrophil release of toxic
molecules |
|
|
Term
The distribution of pneumonia is cranioventral, it is most likely:
a. aspiration pneumonia b. fungal pneumonia c. viral pneumonia d. bronchopneumonia e. interstitial pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If it is bronchopneumonia, the most likely cause(s) is/are:
a. bacteria b. virus c. aspiration d. A and B e. A and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the pneumonia is diffuse, the least likely cause is:
a. virus b. protozoa c. toxins d. aspiration e. bacterial septicemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
describe the five path essentials of toxic interstitial pneumonia |
|
Definition
1. Ingestion of pneumotoxin
2. Ruminal conversion and/or intestinal absorption
3. Activation of pneumotoxin by pulmonary
cytochrome P450 monooxygenase
4 . Covalent binding or free-radical damage by
metabolites and pulmonary cell death
5. Pulmonary cells most susceptible to toxic injury:
a. Nonciliated bronchiolar cells
b. Type 1 alveolar epithelial cells
c. Capillary endothelial cells
|
|
|
Term
what three cell types are most susceptible to toxic injury in the lungs? |
|
Definition
a. Nonciliated bronchiolar cells
b. Type 1 alveolar epithelial cells
c. Capillary endothelial cells
|
|
|
Term
what are four examples of pneumotoxins? |
|
Definition
a. L-tryptophane/3-methylindole
b. Moldy sweet potatoes (4-ipomeanol)
c. Perilla mint (purple mint)
d. Stinkwood (Ziera arborescens) |
|
|
Term
why are type I cells in the lungs susceptible to toxic injury? |
|
Definition
- Large surface area
- Susceptible to damage
- Incapable of division
|
|
|
Term
what are six viral diseases that can cause pneumonia in the dog? |
|
Definition
1. Canine Distemper
2. Canine Influenza
3.Canine Adenovirus type 2
4. Parainfluenza type 2 virus
5. Canine respiratory coronavirus
6.Canine herpesvirus 1 |
|
|
Term
describe the pathogenesis of canine distemper (4 steps) |
|
Definition
- Respiratory/OropharyngealInoculation
- Replication in oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue and viremia
- Replication in lymphocytes, epithelial cells, monocyte/macrophage cell lineages, nervous tissue cells
- failure of cell/humoral/natural immunity leads to penetration of blood-brain barrier and severe encephalomyelitis
|
|
|
Term
what respiratory lesions and cytopathology are associated with canine distemper? |
|
Definition
Rhinitis, pharyngitis, tracheitis, bronchitis, bronchiolitis
• Patchy to diffuse interstitial pneumonia (or
bronchointerstial pneumonia)
*May appear as bronchopneumonia if secondary
bacterial infection
• Cytopathic effects: intranuclear and intracytoplasmic
Inclusions in epithelial cells and macrophages
(cytoplasmic inclusions predominate); syncytial cells |
|
|
Term
acute respiratory viral infections often induce pulmonary lesions including:
a. bronchitis
b. bronchiolitis
c. patchy interstitial pneumonia
d. diffuse interstitial pneumonia
e. A, B, & C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what mechanism accounts for some respiratory viruses being able to induce chronic pneumonia and diffuse interstitial pneumonia?
a. replicate in type 1 cells
b. replicate in type 2 cells
c. evade or suppress |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which induces the most severe irreversible lung and pleural damage?
a. viral
b. bacterial
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following are reversible?
A. acute bronchitis
B. bronchiectasis
C. alveolar emphysema
D. bronchiolitis obliterans
E. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma |
|
Definition
A. acute bronchitis = reversible
B. bronchiectasis = mostly irreversible
C. alveolar emphysema = irreversible
D. bronchiolitis obliterans = mostly irreversible
E. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma = irreversible |
|
|
Term
where are the non-respiratory lesions associated with canine distemper? |
|
Definition
• Gastrointestinal
• Lymphoid (lymph nodes, spleen, thymus)
• Dermatitis, Conjunctivitis
• Cystitis, other urinary lesions
• Teeth: enamel hypoplasia
• Nervous tissues; Eyes |
|
|
Term
what are the respiratory histo lesions associated with canine influenza in greyhounds? |
|
Definition
- Erosive/hyperplastic tracheitis and bronchitis
- Tracheal / bronchial gland epithelial cell necrosis/hyperplasia with lymphocytes/ neutrophils
- Severe pulmonary hemorrhage
- Suppurative bronchopneumonia (mild to moderate)
- Mild lymphocytic rhinitis
|
|
|
Term
what breed is particularly susceptible to canine influenza? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the respiratory histo lesions associated with canine influenza in shelter dogs? |
|
Definition
- Erosive/hyperplastic tracheitis and bronchitis and bronchiolitis
- Tracheal / bronchial gland epithelial cell necrosis/hyperplasia with lymphocytes/ neutrophils
- Suppurative bronchopneumonia (mild to severe)
- Gram positive and / or negative bacteria in pneumonic lesions
- Lymphocytic or suppurative rhinitis
- No Severe pulmonary hemorrhage
|
|
|
Term
what are five causes of mycotic pneumonia in the dog? |
|
Definition
1. Blastomycosis
2. Histoplasmosis
3. Coccidioidomycosis
4. Pneumocystosis
5. Cryptococcosis |
|
|
Term
describe Blastomyces dermatitidis |
|
Definition
Granulomatous pneumonia and
Pyogranulomatous pneumonia
• Mycelial and yeast forms in lesions
• Yeast forms: 5-25 µm diameter
• Doubly refractile, broad-base
budding
• Stains: PAS and GMS |
|
|
Term
Lung lesions of Blastomyces dermatitidis are often confused with what?
|
|
Definition
disseminated carcinomas
(blastomycosis in young dogs:2-5
yrs) |
|
|
Term
Extrapulmonary lesions associated with Blastomyces dermatiditis are found where?
|
|
Definition
• Skin, liver, spleen, lymph nodes,
kidneys, eyes |
|
|
Term
describe coccidiosis immitis |
|
Definition
1. Granulomatous pneumonia and
Pyogranulomatous pneumonia
2. Spherules: 20-100 µm diameter
with endospores
3. Ruptured spherules: induce neutrophil
infiltrates
(pyogranulomouslesions)
4. Extrapulmonary lesions: lymph
nodes, spleen, bone |
|
|
Term
describe pneumocystis carinii |
|
Definition
1. Diffuse interstitial pneumonia
• Unusual manifestation for fungal disease
2. Associated with immunosuppression
3. Ribosomal RNA sequence: fungal
- most consistent with fungal (controversial)
4. “Trophozoites” (1-4 µm) attach to
type 1 cells, induce damage
5. Cysts (5-7 µm) in alveolar spaces
are detectable by GMS and PAS |
|
|
Term
describe cryptococcus neoformans |
|
Definition
1. More commonly induces
encephalitis and nasal/sinus infections
2. Pneumonia common if
immunosuppression
3. Induces granulomatous pneumonia
4. Organisms 1-7 µm diameter with
1-30 µm diameter capsule (PAS, GMSpositive) |
|
|
Term
what is the most common form of neoplasia in the lung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the most common canine and feline signalment for pulmonary neoplasia? |
|
Definition
- Dogs: 10-11 years
- Most common breeds reported: Boxer, Doberman Pinscher, Australian shepherd, Irish Setter, Bernese Mountain Dog
- No gender prevalence reported
- Cats: 12-13 years
- No breed or gender predisposition
|
|
|
Term
what distribution is most commonly associated with pulmonary neoplasia? |
|
Definition
caudal, but any lobe may be affected |
|
|
Term
if neoplasia is found in a cat's nailbed, what should be considered? |
|
Definition
pulmonary neoplasia with distant metastasis |
|
|
Term
what are two plants responsible for cleft palates and in what species? otherwise, what can be a cause? |
|
Definition
Veratrum californicum in sheep
poison hemlock in pigs
genetic |
|
|
Term
what is a common complication of cleft palate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the scientific terms for cleft palate and cleft lip? |
|
Definition
Palatoschisis and cheiloschisis |
|
|
Term
what are brachygnathia and prognathia and what are the possible causes? |
|
Definition
- overbite, underbite
- Genetic abnormalities
- Calcium deficiency
- Chondrodysplasia
|
|
|
Term
what are the causes of vesicular stomatitis/esophagitis? |
|
Definition
- Viral (usual)
- Thermal, toxic (rare)
|
|
|
Term
what are some causes of erosive/ulcerative stomatitis? |
|
Definition
Viral infection: e.g. calicivirus, BVD
• Toxic disease: e.g., phenybutazone
• Uremia
• Immune mediated disease: e.g., pemphigus, SLE |
|
|
Term
FMD would likely cause:
a. vesicular lesions
b. ulcerative lesions
c. proliferative lesions
d. necrotizing lesions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the likely cause of a proliferative stomatitis in a sheep is:
a. FMD
b. BVD
c. contagious ecthyma (parapox virus)
d. Actinobacillus |
|
Definition
c. proliferative stomatitis is often caused by parapox viruses e.g. Bovine papularstomatitis- calves
• Contagious ecthyma – sheep, goat |
|
|
Term
what are some causes of necrotizing stomatitis including specific examples? |
|
Definition
- bacterial (Fusobacterium necrophorum, Actinobacillus lignieresii)
- infarctive (Banamine in horses)
|
|
|
Term
a horse administered too much Banamine will likely demonstrate what oral lesions? |
|
Definition
necrotizing due to infarction |
|
|
Term
what are examples of causes of granulomatous and pseudomembranous oral lesions? |
|
Definition
- granulomatous-cryptococcal stomatitis
- pseudomembranous-Candida albicans (thrush)
|
|
|
Term
describe periodontal fibrinous epulis in the dog |
|
Definition
Age: Usually over 3 years of age; Mean 8.5 years
• Location: Anywhere on the gingiva
• Histologic features:
• Mesenchymalspindle to stellate cells (periodontal ligament)
• Odontogenic epithelium (cell rests of Malassez)
• Variable matrix with characteristics of bone, dentin or cementum
• Behavior if untreated:
• Expansile and non-invasive
• Excision is usually curative |
|
|
Term
describe acanthomatous ameloblastoma in the dog |
|
Definition
Age: Older than three years of age; Mean 8.8 years
• Location: Anywhere on the gingiva
• Histologic features:
• Interconnecting, invasive sheets of odontogenic
epithelium
• Behavior if untreated: Invasive into bone; No
metastasis |
|
|
Term
describe squamous cell carcinoma in the dog |
|
Definition
Age: Mean – 8 years old
• Location: Tonsil, gingiva, lip, tongue, palate,
pharynx
• Gross features: nodular, firm, often ulcerated
• Behavior if untreated:
• Tonsillar: Metastasis to regional nodes early (98%) with frequent more
distant metastasis (63%)
• Others: Locally invasive, lower percentage 5-10% metastasize |
|
|
Term
describe squamous cell carcinoma in the cat |
|
Definition
Most common oral tumor in the cat
• Age: Median – 12 years
• Location: Tongue and gingivamost common
• Gross and histologic features: similar to dog
• Behavior if untreated: Locally invasive and mass
producing; destructive to bone; 15% metastasis
rate to local nodes reported in one study |
|
|
Term
describe oral melanomas in the dog |
|
Definition
Age: Mean – 11 years
• Location: Gingiva and lips most common
• Behavior if untreated: 70% metastasize to regional
lymph nodes and 67% to distant sites (lung, brain,
eyes, liver, kidney)
• May be amelanotic |
|
|
Term
describe oral fibrosarcoma in the dog |
|
Definition
Age: Mean – 7.2 years
• Location: gingiva, hard/soft palate, lip, tongue
• Behavior if untreated: Local infiltration and tissue
destruction. Metastasis in 20% to local lymph
nodes and 10-20% to lungs. |
|
|
Term
megaesophagus is associated with dogs with what concurrent diseases? |
|
Definition
- Persistent right fourth aortic arch
- Idiopathic denervation
- Polymyositis
- Myasthenia gravis
- Hypothyroidism
- Trypanosoma cruzi
- Addison's
|
|
|
Term
what are three esophageal neoplasms? |
|
Definition
- Papilloma
- Leiomyoma/Leiomyosarcoma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mycotic omasitis: Acute multifocal necrotizing and hemorrhagic omasitis |
|
|
Term
vesicular oral lesions can be induced by all of following except:
a. FMD
b. thermal injury
c. vesicular stomatitis virus
d. swine vesicular disease virus
e. bovine papular stomatitis virus |
|
Definition
e. bovine papular stomatitis virus |
|
|
Term
ulcerative oral lesions can be induced by:
a. chronic uremia
b. calicivirus
c. BVDV
d. FMD
e. all above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which of the following oral neoplasms in dogs has the greatest probability of metastasis?
a. tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma
b. periodontal fibromatous epulis
c. acanthomatous ameloblastoma
d. squamous papilloma
e. leiomyoma |
|
Definition
a. tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma |
|
|
Term
which of the following oral neoplasms in dogs has the least probability of metastasis?
a. melanoma
b. periodontal fibromatous epulis
c. acanthomatous ameloblastoma
d. fibrosarcomas
e. leiomyomasarcoma |
|
Definition
b. periodontal fibromatous epulis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Carbohydrate overload
• Lactic acid burn of mucosa
• Acidosis
• Chronic complications
• Scars
• Mycotic infection
• Bacterial infection -----Hepatitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are five causes of ulcers? |
|
Definition
• Trauma, chemical injury
• High acidity
• Local ischemia
• Helicobacter spp.
• Neoplastic disease: mast cells and gastrin-producing tumors |
|
|
Term
abomasal ulcers can lead to what 3 things? |
|
Definition
May lead to fatal hemorrhage, chronic hemorrhage
or perforation and peritonitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are 8 causes of GI obstruction? |
|
Definition
- Gastric/abomasal volvulus
- Intestinal Volvulus/torsion
- Intestinal external herniation
- Intestinal internal herniation/ entrapment
- Intussusception
- Intestinal stenosis/atresia
- Intestinal stricture
- Enteroliths and impactions
|
|
|
Term
what are some predisposing factors for GDV? |
|
Definition
Initial gastric dilation
• Gas accumulation
• Dietary and feeding/exercise may influence
Volvulus that may be associated with:
• Deep chested body configuration
• Relaxation/stretching of gastrohepatic ligament |
|
|
Term
what are the 4 predisposing factors for displaced abomasum? |
|
Definition
- Conditions during first 6 weeks of lactation
- High production of volatile fatty acids with diet
- GI stasis allowing abomasalstasis and gas accumulation and decrease in size of rumen
- Deep body cavity
|
|
|
Term
what are the predisposing factors for intussusception? |
|
Definition
• Enteritis/altered motility
• Intestinal foreign body
• Intestinal polyp/neoplasm |
|
|
Term
what are the 3 mechanisms of diarrhea in enterocolitis? |
|
Definition
1. Maldigestion/Malabsorption –Osmotic
• Epithelial surface area loss via villous atrophy and
other mechanisms
2. Secretory mechanisms – Cl Secretion
• Many infectious agents act at the level of the
intestinal crypts
3. Increased permeability
• Mucosal epithelial damage
• Increase vascular permeability |
|
|
Term
[image]
what is this including morphologic diagnosis? |
|
Definition
BVD: Acute multifocal erosive enteritis with necrosis of Peyer’s patches |
|
|
Term
what diseases result in fibronecrotic lesions? |
|
Definition
- Salmonella
- Enterotoxigenic E coli
- Clostridium difficile
- Lawsonia intracellularis*
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fibrin cast likely due to salmonella |
|
|
Term
what are the 4 pathogenic mechanisms of salmonella? |
|
Definition
- Attach to M-cells, enterocytes and goblet cells
- Survive in phagosome (neutralize NO through SPI-2)
- Toxins inducing necrosis: Enterotoxin, Verotoxin, Endotoxin
- Upregulate chloride ion secretion via PGE2
|
|
|
Term
what are the 3 forms of salmonellosis? |
|
Definition
1. Peracute septicemia
Vasculitis, thrombosis
2. Acute enteric salmonellosis
Enterocolitis
Septicemia: hepatocellular necrosis,
lymphadenomegally, splenomegally, fibrinous
cholecystitis
3. Chronic enteric salmonellosis
Enterocolitis
Thrombosis
Rectal strictures in pigs |
|
|
Term
which diseases affect the intestinal crypts (5)? |
|
Definition
- parvovirus replication
- BVD
- rinderpest
- mycotoxins
- radiation
|
|
|
Term
which diseases affect the villar tips (3)? |
|
Definition
- rotavirus
- coronavirus replication
- cryptosporidium attach, replicate
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
pig rectal stricture due to salmonella |
|
|
Term
Lawsonia intracellularis in pigs can cause what three types of lesions? |
|
Definition
fibronecrotic, hemorrhagic, hyperplastic |
|
|
Term
what are 4 causes of hemorrhagic enterocolitis? |
|
Definition
• Clostridial perfringenstype C and other clostridia
• Shigellosis in primates
• Lawsonia intracellularisin pigs
• Coccidiosis |
|
|
Term
what are 2 causes of hypertrophic enterocolitis? |
|
Definition
- Lawsonia intracellularis
- Coccidiosis
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Johne's disease: Chronic diffuse granulomatous
enteritis and lymphangitis |
|
|
Term
what are the intestinal neoplasias (6)? |
|
Definition
- Lymphoma
- Epithelial tumors
- Adenoma
- Adenocarcinoma
- Leiomyoma/Leiomyosarcoma/GIST
- Carcinoid
|
|
|
Term
all the following result in decreased size of thymus and lymph node except:
a. parvo
b. lymphoma
c. corticosteroids
d. K9 distemper
e. A and D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
uniformly enlarged dog spleen that bleeds on cut surface is most likely:
a. hemangiosarc
b. hemangioma
c. lymphoma
d. congestion
e. nodular hyperplasia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
irregular dark red nodule in spleen that bleeds on cut surface could be all of the following except:
a. hemagiosarcoma
b. hemangioma
c. granulomatous splenitis
d. hematoma
e. nodular hyperplasia |
|
Definition
c. granulomatous splenitis |
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms are used synonymously with lymphoma in
veterinary medicine?
A. Malignant lymphoma
B. Lymphosarcoma
C. Myeloma
D. A,B
E. A,B,C |
|
Definition
D. malignant lymphoma and lymphosarcoma |
|
|
Term
The most common anatomic form of lymphoma in dogs is:
A. Multicentric
B. Alimentary
C. Thymic
D. Cutaneous
E. Solitary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common cardiac site for lymphoma in cattle is:
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
E. Aortic valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
viral infection has been identified as a cause of lymphoma in:
A. Dogs
B. Cats
C. Cattle
D. A,B,C
E. B,C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most common anatomic form of lymphoma in cats is:
A. Multicentric
B. Alimentary
C. Thymic
D. Cutaneous
E. Solitary |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the 3 forms of lymph node enlargement? |
|
Definition
1.Lymphadenitis
• Acute to chronic duration
• Infectious, immune, toxic etiology
2.Neoplasia
• Primary (e.g., lymphoma)
• Metastatic
3. Lymphoid Hyperplasia (Antigen driven) |
|
|
Term
what are 2 specific causes of lymph node hypoplasia? |
|
Definition
Primary immunodeficiency
1. Combined immunodefiency (CID) of Arab foals
- Genetic defect in DNA-dependent protein kinase
- Defective DNA repair
2. X-linked CID in dogs
Basset hounds, Jack Russell terriers, Welsh corgi
dogs |
|
|
Term
what are 3 causes of lymph node atrophy? |
|
Definition
1. Viruses that replicate in lymphocytes and induce
apoptosis/necrosis:
• Canine distemper virus
• Canine parvovirus
2. Glucocorticoids (endogenous, exogenous)
3. Chemotherapeutic drugs, ionizing radiation,
malnutrition, cachexia |
|
|
Term
what causes a decrease in spleen size (uncommon)? |
|
Definition
- immunodeficiency, senile atrophy, wasting/cachexia
- lymphoid necrosis alone isn’t enough to decrease
spleen size (usually) |
|
|
Term
what causes an increase in spleen size? |
|
Definition
- Uniform splenomegaly
- Splenic nodules and masses
|
|
|
Term
what splenomegaly diseases will be bloody on cut section? |
|
Definition
1. Congestion – terminal (euthanasia associated)
2. Torsion |
|
|
Term
what splenomegaly diseases will result in a firm, non-bleeding cut surface? |
|
Definition
1. Bacteremia/septicemia
2. Granulomatous splenitis
3. Hemolytic anemia (autoimmune, hemoparasitic)
4. Lymphoma (other lymphoid neoplasm/leukemia)
5. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
6. Amyloidosis, storage disease |
|
|
Term
which splenic nodules/masses will have a bloody consistency on cut section? |
|
Definition
1. Hematoma
2. Hemangioma/Hemangiosarcoma
3. Nodular hyperplasia with hyperemia
4. Splenic infarct
5. Incomplete splenic contraction (postmortem finding) |
|
|
Term
what splenic nodules/masses will be firm and non-bloody on cut section? |
|
Definition
1. Nodular hyperplasia
2. Granulomatous splenitis, Splenic abscess
3. Lymphoma (other lymphoid neoplasm)
4. Metastatic neoplasm |
|
|
Term
what are the 4 common sites of hemangiosarcoma in the dog? |
|
Definition
- spleen
- liver
- right atrium
- lung
|
|
|
Term
describe the thymus cortex and medulla cells |
|
Definition
a. Cortex
Primitive and maturing lymphocytes
b. Medulla
Thymic epithelial cells and Hassall’s corpuscles
Myoid cells
Interdigitating cells and dendritic cells
Lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
what are 4 diseases associated with a small thymus and their causative agents? |
|
Definition
1. Thymic hypoplasia (e.g., CID)
2. Maturation and Aging (involution)
3. Thymitis (e.g., porcine circovirus 2, epizootic bovine
abortion, salmon poisoning in dogs)
4. Thymic atrophy (lymphocyte apoptosis/necrosis)
a. Viral diseases: FeLV, FIV, canine distemper,
equine herpesvirus 1, feline panleukopenia,
Canine parvovirus
b. Glucocorticoids (exogenous/endogenous)
c. Nutritional deficiency (starvation, zinc deficiency,
protein deficiency)
d. Toxins – lead, mercury, polychlorinated biphenyls |
|
|
Term
what diseases are associated with a large thymus (3)? |
|
Definition
1. Thymic hemorrhage (young dogs)
2. Lymphoma
3. Thymoma
• Epithelial component is neoplastic |
|
|
Term
describe the signalment of lymphoma in dogs |
|
Definition
1. Most common in dogs 5-11 years old
2. 10% cases in dogs 1-4 years of age
3. Report of higher incidence in boxer and
Scottish terrier dogs
4. Gamma herpesvirus associated with some
B-cell lymphomas |
|
|
Term
what are the 5 distributions of lymphoma in the dog from most to least common? |
|
Definition
1. Multicentric
• Generalized lymphadenomegaly
• Liver and spleen
• Kidney, heart, tonsil, bone marrow, CNS
2. Alimentary
• Intestine and mesenteric lymph nodes
• Less common: Generalized lymph node and liver/spleen
3. Thymic
• Concentration in thymus and cranial medistinum
• Commonly associated with hypercalcemia
4. Cutaneous
• Infrequent
• T-cell cutaneous lymphoma in dogs (Mycosis fungoides)
• Cutaneous
5. Other
• Solitary: (brain, lung, etc.)
• Specialized: Lymphomatoid granulomatosis |
|
|
Term
what is the most common neoplasm in cats and what disease is often concurrent? |
|
Definition
1. lymphoma
2. Young cats affected by FeLV (>50% 5 years
old or less)
3. Until recent years, 70% of cats were viremic
with FeLV. Now decreasing percentage of
lymphoma cats are FeLV positive |
|
|
Term
what are the 4 distributions of lymphoma in cats from most to least common? |
|
Definition
1. Alimentary
• Jejunum / ileum
• Mesenteric nodes
• Liver and kidney
• Often FeLV negative
2. Thymic
• Concentration in thymus and cranial medistinal nodes
• Pleural effusion and compressive atelectasis common
• Often FeLV positive
3. Multicentric
• Generalized lymphadenomegally
• Liver / spleen
• CNS
• Often FeLV positive
4. Solitary
• Often kidneys |
|
|
Term
most forms of lymphoma in cattle are caused by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the 6 distributions of lymphoma in cattle? |
|
Definition
1.Multicentric
• Most common BLV association
• Lymph nodes, right atrium, abomasum, kidneys, uterus, spinal
epidural fat
• Intestine, liver, and spleen less common
2.Cutaneous
3.Thymic
• Adolescent cows (6-30 months)
• Bone marrow involvement
4.Calf form
• Less than 6 months old
• Generalized nodes, bone marrow, blood, liver, spleen
• 50% involve thymus, heart, kidneys, uterus
5.Alimentary form – Rare
6.Solitary – Spinal canal |
|
|
Term
Which of the following viruses in cattle commonly induce syncytial bronchiolar epithelial cells following respiratory infection (more than one)? A. Adenovirus B. Bovine herpesvirus type 1 C. Rhinovirus D. Parainfluenza
E. Rinderpest
F. Bovine Syncytial virus
|
|
Definition
Parainfluenza, Rinderpest, Bovine Syncytial Virus |
|
|