Shared Flashcard Set

Details

systemic path 2
round two
185
Veterinary Medicine
Graduate
03/03/2013

Additional Veterinary Medicine Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
what is produced by endothelial cells of the peritubular capillaries and interstitial cells? what does it do?
Definition

erythropoietin

stimulates RBC production

Term
what is produced by the juxtaglomerular cells? in response to what?
Definition
renin, in response to Na depletion or low blood volume
Term
the kidney is the site of activation of:
Definition
Vitamin D
Term
what forms a filtration barrier in the glomeruli?
Definition
podocytes
Term
what are the two functions of mesangial cells?
Definition

phagycytose macromolecules and immune complexes

contract to autoregulate glomerular blood flow

Term

the renal tubules can regenerate provided:

[image]

Definition
the basement membrane remains intact to act as a scaffolding for regenerating tubular epithelial cells.
Term
the absence of one or both kidneys is called ______ and if one, then the other can be bigger due to________.
Definition

renal agenesis/aplasia

compensatory hypertrophy

Term
when kidneys are smaller than normal, it is called:
Definition
renal hypoplasia
Term
when kidneys are fused at one pole, roughly near midline, it is called:
Definition
a horseshoe kidney
Term
polycystic kidney disease in cats has a __________mode of inheritance, seen in  __________ with renal dysfunction around _______and failure at  ________. cysts can also be seen in ________and can arise from any segment of the nephron. 98% can be diagnosed by ________at 10 months
Definition
  • autosomal dominant
  • persian cats
  • 3-10yrs old
  • >7 yrs old
  • the liver
  • ultrasound
Term
why are renal infarcts wedge shaped? what colors are they?
Definition

blood supply anatomy in kidney

red for 2-3 days, then grey/pale/tan with fibrosis

Term
papillary necrosis is common in horses, associated with ____________ use in dehydrated animals. why?
Definition

NSAIDS

PGE2 maintains vasodilation; NSAIDS inhibit this, leading to ischemic necrosis

Term
what is hydronephrosis/hydroureter? what is it due to?
Definition

dilation of renal pelvis/calyces/ureter due to obstruction

Term
what is the pathogenesis of glomerulonephritis?
Definition
  • circulating immune complexes deposit in or adjacent to glomerular basement membrane or Ab formed against basement membrane
  • lattice formation of Ab less phagocytized by body
  • complement fixation, inflam mediators, leukocytic infiltration
  • filtration barrier compromisedàprotein loss
Term
which glomerulonephritis is characterized by thickened glomerular basement membranes?
Definition
membranous
Term
which glomerulonephritis is characterized by increase numbers of mesangial cells?
Definition
proliferative
Term
which glomerulonephritis is characterized by a combination of membranous and proliferative?
Definition
membranoproliferative
Term
which conditions are commonly associate with glomerulonephritis and chronic inflammatory stimuli?
Definition
  • viral 
  • bacteria 
  • parasitic/protozoal 
  • autoimmune 
  • neoplasia

 

Term
glomerular amyloidosis in animals is often __________, derived from _________. familial described in the _____(dog)___ and the _____(cat)_______. grossly, ________ can be used to stain fresh tissue to stain amyloid dark brown
Definition
  • systemic reactive amyloidosis 
  • SAA
  • Sharpei
  • Abyssinians
  • Logol's iodine
Term
histologically describe glomerular amyloidosis and the stain used
Definition
  • amorphous to hyaline eosinophilic material in glomeruli, which may be enlarged. 
  • Congo red will turn apple green under polarization
Term
in cats, amyloid is most commonly deposited in:
Definition
the medullary interstitium rather than the glomeruli
Term
name the three most common causes of embolic suppurative nephritis/glomerulitis in the horse, the pig, and the cow.
Definition
  • equine: Actinobacillus equuli
  • porcine: erysipelothris thusiopathiae
  • cattle: truperella pyogenes (Arcanobacterium) from vegetative valvular endocarditis
Term
where will microabscesses by seen in embolic nephritis?
Definition
in cortex (glomeruli)
Term
in ischemic tubular necrosis, which tubules are affected? what about the glomeruli and basement membranes?
Definition

especially proximal, distal may be affected

glomeruli unaffected

basement membranes not preserved


Term
in nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis, the proximal tubules are especially sensitive due to ___________ and _____________ and the basement membranes are _______
Definition
  • hi metabolic activity
  • exposed to agents in large volume of ultrafiltrate they resorb
  • basement membranes preserved
Term
grossly, kidneys with nephrotoxic ATN will look:
Definition
pale and swollen
Term
nephrotoxic agents include:
Definition
  • heavy metals
  • Abx
  • plants
  • oxalates (ethylene glycol)
  • mycotoxins
  • endogenous substancces (Hgb, Mgb)
  • miscellaneous (canthardin)

 

Term
tubular necrosis can be distinguished by its  (4)____________.
Definition
  •  loss of cellular detail
  • karyorrhexis, karyolysis, pyknosis
  • increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia
  • sloughing of epithelial cells
Term
tubular degeneration can be distinguished due to its __________
Definition
vacuolation of epithelial cells
Term
tubular regeneration can be distinguished by its (4)__________.
Definition
  • increased cytoplasmic basophilia
  • piling/crowding of epi cells
  • nuclei with open chromatin pattern and prominent nucleoli
  • mitotic figures
Term
where in the kidney will bacteria most often lodge in septicemia?
Definition
glomeruli or peritubular capillaries
Term
pyelonephritis is the inflammation of
Definition
renal pelvis and parenchyma
Term
describe interstitial (tubulointerstitial) nephritis including acute and chronic cases and two possible causes
Definition

·         very common to observe chronic interstitial nephritis lesions in older animals, cause not evident

·         acute cases: edema, leuk infiltrate, focal tube necrosis

·         chronic cases: leukocytic infiltrate, fibrosis, atrophy

·         lumpy, bumpy, secondary cysts

e.g. leptospirosis and Encephalitozoon cuniculi

Term
what two things are also usually found in patients with pyelonephritis?
Definition

·         ureteritis, cystitis

Term
why is pyelonephritis usually ascending? what infectious agents usually cause it?
Definition

·         vesicoureteral reflux-retrograde flow up ureters during micturition

  • same as those that cause lower UTI's (E. coli, Staph, Strep, Pseudomonas, Proteus, Enterobacter, Coryne, Aranobacter pyogenes in cattle, Actinobaculum suis in swine
Term
what are the histo lesions in pyelonephritis?
Definition
  • acute lesions have suppurative exudates in pelvis, extending into tubules and interstitium
  • medulla most severely affected, but lesions can extend into cortex
  • in chronic fibrosis, inflammatory infiltrate more mononuclear
Term
what is stephanurus dentatus?
Definition

kidney worm in swine, encysts in perirenal tissue and cysts communicate with renal pelvis to allow for passage of eggs

Term
what is dioctophyma renale?
Definition
giant kidney worm. piscivorous mammals (mink, dogs, cats), usually right kidney. adults live in renal pelvis
Term
renal ademonas are rare, and benign tumors that arise from:
Definition
single small nodules
Term
renal adenocarcinomas occur in older animals, more in  _____(gender)____, and are the most common primary renal tumors in _____,______, and _______
Definition

males

sheep, cattle, dogs

Term
the two species associated with nephroblastomas are ________and _______ and kidneys look_______
Definition

chickens and pigs

grey-white to tan, soft masses, may have extensive hemorrhage. histo: primitive glomeruli, stroma, and tubules 

Term
neoplasms metastatic to the kidney include multiple neoplasms, and  ____________is most common
Definition
LSA
Term
what non-urinary lesions are associated with renal failure?
Definition

·         gastric ulcers/uremic gastritis

·         ulcerative glossitis/stomatitis,  (lingual ulcers)

·         mineralization of intercostal pleura

·         uremic pneumonitis

·         parathyroid hyperplasia- phosphate retention due to dec GFR,àdec plasma ionized Ca++àstims PTH release

·         anemia-↓erythropoietin, hemolysis due to factors in uremic plasma, GI hemorrhage

 

Term
_____ureters can empty into somewhere else,  (certain breed) are predisposed, and they can be uni or bilateral
Definition

ectopic

golden retrievers

Term
_______occurs with the failure of closure of urachal lumen resulting in dribbling. common in _________
Definition

patent urachus

foals

Term
define urolithiasis and the predisposing factors
Definition
  • calculi from urethra to renal pelvis
  • urine pH, hereditary factors (Dalmatians), dietary factors, UTIs, thick bladder
Term
what are the predisposing factors for cystitis?
Definition

§  loss of normal voiding mechanisms

§  loss of acidic urine pH (carnivores)

§  glucosuria (great for bac growth)

§  proteinuria

§  mucosal trauma

§  degree of inflam seen on UA does not correlate well with histo inflam

§  females anatomically predisposed- short wide urethra

Term
what is emphysematous cystitis, and how is it diagnosed?
Definition
  • rarely seen except in diabetic animals due to bacterial fermentation of urinary glucose into CO2,
  • causes tiny bubbles seen on rads
Term
enzootic hematuria can occur in cattle ingesting __________. they form _____________
Definition

bracken fern 

hematuria, hemorrhagic proliferative cystitis, bladder neoplasms, papillomas, hemangiosarcomas, leiomyosarcomas, fibrosarcomas

Term

botryoid rhabdomyosarcomas occur in _____________ breed dogs 

Definition
young large or giant breed dogs
Term
transitional cell carcinomas are most commonly seen in the region of ______with about _____% metastasizing
Definition

bladder neck or trigone

50%

Term
papillomas in the lower urinary tract are often multiple and covered by ___________epithelium. many ulcerate and cause hematuria, and in dogs may _________
Definition
  • well-differentiated transitional
  • undergo malignant transformation
Term

 

Which of the following is not a stem cell  for epithelial repair in bronchi/bronchioles?

a.      mucous cells

b.      ciliated cells

c.       nonciliated cells

Definition
b. ciliated cells
Term
Which cell serves as stem cells for epithelial repair in interalveolar septum?
Definition
type 2
Term
anemia is associated with acute/chronic renal disease?
Definition
chronic
Term
describe bronchi cartilage and basic changes with inflammation
Definition

1.      cartilage maintains patency, prevents collapse

2.      thick connective tissue prevents infection spread into surrounding alveolar parenchyma

3.      chronic inflammation results in dilation

4.      changes in diameter increase resistance markedly

Term
in the bronchi: ciliary cells are  ____________. the cells responsible for regeneration include (3):
Definition
  • terminally differentiated.
  • a.      mucous cells
  • b.      basal cells
  • c.       other nonciliated cells

 

 

Term
in the bronchioles, the nonregenerative and regeneratibve cells are:
Definition

1.      ciliated are terminally differentiated

2.      epithelial regen capacity

a.      mucous cells

b.      nonciliated (Clara cells)

Term
how are bronchioles different from bronchi in structure and with inflammation?
Definition
  1. no cartilage or glands in walls
  2.   airway patency maintained by tethering support of interalveolar septa on bronchiolar wall
  3.    thin connective tissue in wall allows infection spread to surrounding alveoli
  4.  chronic inflam result in stenosis of lumen

 

 

 

 

Term
what are the two types of epithelial cells and their functions within the interalveolar septa
Definition

a.      type 1

                                                                          i.      thin, large surface area, susceptible to damage, prevents interstitial fluid from leaking out, keeps surface tension low, incapable of division

b.      type 2

                                                                          i.      produce surfactant, cuboidal, produce other mediators, stem cells for repair 

Term
what are the two functional consequences of bronchitis and bronchiolitis?
Definition

1.      increased airway resistance

a.      airway obstruction

b.      ventilation/perfusion abnormàhypoxemia

2.      decrease mucociliary clearance

a.      predispose to secondary bacterial infection

Term
what are some causes of bronchitis/bronchiolitis?
Definition

•Infectious: viral, bacterial, fungal, parasitic

•Toxic: e.g. - 4 -ipomeanol and other plant toxins

• Hypersensitivity

Term
what are the epithelial, submucosa, and luminal changes in bronchitis/bronchiolitis?
Definition

Epithelial Changes

• Degeneration/Necrosis

• Erosion/Hyperplasia

Submucosa/lamina propria

• Edema

• Hyperemia

• Cellular infiltration

Lumen obstruction

• Exudate fills

• Reduced diameter: Wall enlargement and contraction of muscle

Term
describe bronchiectasis including causes and functional consequences
Definition

1.      chronic infection (usually bac)

2.      neut-mediated tissue destruction

a.      destruction of glands and cartilage

b.      fibrosis

1.      increase in airway resistance (turbulence and luminal obstruction)

2.      poor mucociliary clearance

3.      aspiration of infective material to alveoli

Term
bronchitis and bronchiolitis are classified based on what three criteria?
Definition

1. Duration: 
Acute, subacute, chronic


2. Distribution: 
Focal, multifocal, diffuse


3. Nature of exudate:
Necrotic, suppurative, eosinophilic, 
erosive, hyperplastic, etc.

Term
grossly, what is seen in bronchiectasis?
Definition

Dilation of airway: saccular or cylindrical

2. Thick wall

3. Luminal exudate: grey, green, or tan

thick, mucoid or caseous

Term
what is bronciolitis obliterans?
Definition

obstruction of bronchiolar lumen by fibrous connective tissue      

Atelectasis: collapse of the lung

Term
what are the two types of bronchiolitis obliterans?
Definition

1.      neonatal (inadequate surfactant)

2.      acquired

a.      compressive

b.      obstructive

Term

What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?

a. viral infection 

b. chronic dust inhalation
c. chronic bacterial infection

Definition
chronic bacterial infection
Term

which of the following processes is reversible?

a. bronchiectasis

b. bronciolitis obliterans

c. atelectasis

d. alveolar emphysema

Definition
c. atelectasis
Term
what are the two types of emphysema? which is irreversible?
Definition

1.      alveolar

a.      incidental in cats, old dogs, more relevant in smokers

Pathophys significance:

1.     decreased alveolar and capillary surface area

2.      loss of radial support for airways: early closure

3.      dec elastic properties, increase complaiance and residual lung capacity

4.      loss of capillary area, pulm hypertension

5.      irreversible

 

2.      interstitial

a.      common, cattle-gas blown out into loose connective tissue

b.      excess gas in pulmonary interstitium

c.       forced expiration against obstructed airways

d.      gas dissects into interstitial tissue

                                                              i.      interlobular septa

                                                            ii.      perivascular areas

                                                          iii.      subpleural tissues

            e.  pathophys: restrictive lung disease


Term
if it ain't firm.....
Definition
it ain't pneumonia
Term
what are the three mechanisms of alveolar emphysema?
Definition

1. Airway obstruction and inflammation

2. Protease/Antiprotease imbalance

3. Post-obstructive pressure disruption

Term
what are the major path mechanisms of pulmonary edema?
Definition

a. Increased permeability of alveolar epithelial and endothelial cells

b. Increased pulmonary hydrostatic pressure

c. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure

d. Lymphatic obstruction

Term
describe bronchopneumonia
Definition

o   initial deposition of causative agent in terminal bronchioles and alveoli

o   bacteria or aspiration

o   early damage in proximal acinar areas with spread into surrounding alveolar parenchyma

o   cranioventral

o   may intercurrent fibrinous pleuritis

o   may spread to lobular distrib

o   chronicity: fibrosis and lymphadenomegally

o   microscopic: abundant exudate in alveoli (neuts, fibrin, necrotic debris), lesions initially airway oriented

o   airways obstructed

o   infiltration of walls and filling of alveoli makes lung stiffer

o   exudate and alveolar wall thickening creates diffuse barrier

Term
describe interstitial pneumonia
Definition

o   primary injury to elements of interalveolar septum  (epi, endothelium)

o   virus (immune-suppressing), protozoa, some fungi, rarely bacteria (assoc with bacteremia)

o   often diffuse or locally extensive firm, large, red, with muscle or liver consistency on cut surface

o   microscopic: early type I epithelial necrosis

o   subacute: type 2 epithelial hyperplasia alveolar septal thickening, mononuclear cells,

o   chronicity marked by fibrosis

o   thickening and infiltration of alveolar walls marked by increased stiffness and decreased compliance: restrictive

o   decreased diffusion capacity: hypoxemia

Term

describe acute viral pneumonia

 

Definition

1. Viruses replicate in respiratory airway and 

alveolar epithelial cells

2. Virus induces inflammatory and immune 

response

3. Inflammation in parenchyma is focused on 

interalveolar septa

4. Viral replication is effectively halted before 

diffuse interstitial pneumonia develops

Term
describe chronic viral pneumonia including two examples
Definition

1. Often associated with viruses that replicate in 

macrophages and/or depress or escape antiviral 

immunologic defense mechanisms

2. Virus spreads throughout the lung and induces 

diffuse interstitial pneumonia

3. Examples: Ovine progressive pneumonia, canine 

distemper virus

Term
what are the five steps in bacterial pneumonia?
Definition

1. Colonization of respiratory tract 

2. Depression of pulmonary defense mechanisms

e.g., virus, stress, dehydration, particulates. etc

3. Exponential growth of Mannheimia haemolytica

with leukotoxin production

4. Damage to neutrophils, macrophages, release of 

endotoxin

5. Leukotoxin and endotoxin-mediated tissue 

damage accentuated by neutrophil release of toxic 

molecules

Term

The distribution of pneumonia is cranioventral, it is most likely:

a.      aspiration pneumonia 
b.      fungal pneumonia
c.      viral pneumonia
d.     bronchopneumonia
e.     interstitial pneumonia

Definition
d.     bronchopneumonia
Term

If it is bronchopneumonia, the most likely cause(s) is/are:

a.      bacteria
b.      virus
c.      aspiration
d.      A and B
e.      A and  C

Definition
e.    A and  C
Term

If the pneumonia is diffuse, the least likely cause is:

a.      virus
b.      protozoa
c.      toxins
d.      aspiration
e.      bacterial septicemia

Definition
d.      aspiration
Term
describe the five path essentials of toxic interstitial pneumonia
Definition

1. Ingestion of pneumotoxin

2. Ruminal conversion and/or intestinal absorption

3. Activation of pneumotoxin by pulmonary

     cytochrome P450 monooxygenase 

4 . Covalent binding or free-radical damage by

     metabolites and pulmonary cell death

5. Pulmonary cells most susceptible to toxic injury:

       a. Nonciliated bronchiolar cells

       b. Type 1 alveolar epithelial cells

       c. Capillary endothelial cells

 

Term
what three cell types are most susceptible to toxic injury in the lungs?
Definition

a. Nonciliated bronchiolar cells

       b. Type 1 alveolar epithelial cells

       c. Capillary endothelial cells

 

Term
what are four examples of pneumotoxins?
Definition

a. L-tryptophane/3-methylindole

b. Moldy sweet potatoes (4-ipomeanol)

c. Perilla mint (purple mint)

d. Stinkwood (Ziera arborescens)

Term
why are type I cells in the lungs susceptible to toxic injury?
Definition
  • Large surface area
  • Susceptible to damage
  • Incapable of division
Term
what are six viral diseases that can cause pneumonia in the dog?
Definition

1. Canine Distemper

2. Canine Influenza

3.Canine Adenovirus type 2

4. Parainfluenza type 2 virus

5. Canine respiratory coronavirus

6.Canine herpesvirus 1

Term
describe the pathogenesis of canine distemper (4 steps)
Definition
  1. Respiratory/OropharyngealInoculation
  2. Replication in oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue and viremia
  3. Replication in lymphocytes, epithelial cells, monocyte/macrophage cell lineages, nervous tissue cells
  4. failure of cell/humoral/natural immunity leads to penetration of blood-brain barrier and severe encephalomyelitis
Term
what respiratory lesions and cytopathology are associated with canine distemper?
Definition

Rhinitis, pharyngitis, tracheitis, bronchitis, bronchiolitis

• Patchy to diffuse interstitial pneumonia (or 

bronchointerstial pneumonia)

*May appear as bronchopneumonia if secondary

bacterial infection

• Cytopathic effects: intranuclear and intracytoplasmic

Inclusions in epithelial cells and macrophages 

(cytoplasmic inclusions predominate); syncytial cells

Term

acute respiratory viral infections often induce pulmonary lesions including:

 

a. bronchitis

b. bronchiolitis

c. patchy interstitial pneumonia

d. diffuse interstitial pneumonia

e. A, B, & C

Definition
e. A, B, and C
Term

what mechanism accounts for some respiratory viruses being able to induce chronic pneumonia and diffuse interstitial pneumonia?

a. replicate in type 1 cells

b. replicate in type 2 cells

c. evade or suppress

Definition
c. evade or suppress
Term

which induces the most severe irreversible lung and pleural damage?

a. viral

b. bacterial

 

Definition
b. bacterial
Term

which of the following are reversible?

A. acute bronchitis 

B. bronchiectasis

C. alveolar emphysema 

D. bronchiolitis obliterans 

E. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma 

Definition

A. acute bronchitis = reversible

B. bronchiectasis = mostly irreversible

C. alveolar emphysema = irreversible

D. bronchiolitis obliterans = mostly irreversible

E. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma = irreversible

Term
where are the non-respiratory lesions associated with canine distemper?
Definition

• Gastrointestinal

• Lymphoid (lymph nodes, spleen, thymus)

• Dermatitis, Conjunctivitis

• Cystitis, other urinary lesions

• Teeth: enamel hypoplasia

• Nervous tissues; Eyes

Term
what are the respiratory histo lesions associated with canine influenza in greyhounds?
Definition
  • Erosive/hyperplastic tracheitis and bronchitis
  • Tracheal / bronchial gland epithelial cell necrosis/hyperplasia  with lymphocytes/ neutrophils
  • Severe pulmonary hemorrhage
  • Suppurative bronchopneumonia (mild to moderate)
  • Mild lymphocytic rhinitis
Term
what breed is particularly susceptible to canine influenza?
Definition
greyhounds
Term
what are the respiratory histo lesions associated with canine influenza in shelter dogs?
Definition
  • Erosive/hyperplastic tracheitis and bronchitis and bronchiolitis
  • Tracheal / bronchial gland epithelial cell necrosis/hyperplasia with lymphocytes/ neutrophils
  • Suppurative bronchopneumonia (mild to severe)
  •  Gram positive and / or negative bacteria in pneumonic lesions 
  • Lymphocytic or suppurative rhinitis
  •  No Severe pulmonary hemorrhage
Term
what are five causes of mycotic pneumonia in the dog?
Definition

1. Blastomycosis

2. Histoplasmosis

3. Coccidioidomycosis

4. Pneumocystosis 

5. Cryptococcosis

Term
describe Blastomyces dermatitidis
Definition

Granulomatous pneumonia and 

Pyogranulomatous pneumonia

• Mycelial and yeast forms in lesions

• Yeast forms: 5-25 µm diameter

• Doubly refractile, broad-base

budding

• Stains: PAS and GMS

Term

 Lung lesions of Blastomyces dermatitidis are often confused with what? 

 

Definition

disseminated carcinomas 

(blastomycosis in young dogs:2-5

yrs)

Term
Extrapulmonary lesions associated with Blastomyces dermatiditis are found where? 
 
Definition
• Skin, liver, spleen, lymph nodes,
kidneys, eyes
Term
describe coccidiosis immitis
Definition

1. Granulomatous pneumonia and

Pyogranulomatous pneumonia

2. Spherules: 20-100 µm diameter

with endospores

3. Ruptured spherules: induce neutrophil

infiltrates 

(pyogranulomouslesions)

4. Extrapulmonary lesions: lymph 

nodes, spleen, bone

Term
describe pneumocystis carinii
Definition

1. Diffuse interstitial pneumonia

• Unusual manifestation for fungal disease

2. Associated with immunosuppression

3. Ribosomal RNA sequence: fungal

- most consistent with fungal (controversial)

4. “Trophozoites” (1-4 µm) attach to

type 1 cells, induce damage

5. Cysts (5-7 µm) in alveolar spaces 

are detectable by GMS and PAS

Term
describe cryptococcus neoformans
Definition

1. More commonly induces

encephalitis and nasal/sinus infections

2. Pneumonia common if

immunosuppression

3. Induces granulomatous pneumonia

4. Organisms 1-7 µm diameter with

1-30 µm diameter capsule (PAS, GMSpositive)

Term
what is the most common form of neoplasia in the lung?
Definition
metastatic
Term
what is the most common canine and feline signalment for pulmonary neoplasia?
Definition
  • Dogs: 10-11 years
  • Most common breeds reported: Boxer, Doberman Pinscher, Australian shepherd, Irish Setter, Bernese Mountain Dog
  • No gender prevalence reported

  • Cats: 12-13 years 
  • No breed or gender predisposition
Term
what distribution is most commonly associated with pulmonary neoplasia?
Definition
caudal, but any lobe may be affected
Term
if neoplasia is found in a cat's nailbed, what should be considered?
Definition
pulmonary neoplasia with distant metastasis
Term
what are two plants responsible for cleft palates and in what species? otherwise, what can be a cause?
Definition

Veratrum californicum in sheep

poison hemlock in pigs

genetic

Term
what is a common complication of cleft palate?
Definition
aspiration pneumonia
Term
what are the scientific terms for cleft palate and cleft lip?
Definition
Palatoschisis and cheiloschisis
Term
what are brachygnathia and prognathia and what are the possible causes?
Definition

 

  • overbite, underbite
  • Genetic abnormalities
  • Calcium deficiency 
  • Chondrodysplasia
Term
what are the causes of vesicular stomatitis/esophagitis?
Definition
  • Viral (usual)
  • Thermal, toxic (rare)
Term
what are some causes of erosive/ulcerative stomatitis?
Definition

Viral infection: e.g. calicivirus, BVD

• Toxic disease: e.g., phenybutazone

• Uremia

• Immune mediated disease: e.g., pemphigus, SLE

Term

FMD would likely cause: 

a. vesicular lesions

b. ulcerative lesions

c. proliferative lesions

d. necrotizing lesions

Definition
a. vesicular
Term

the likely cause of a proliferative stomatitis in a sheep is:

a. FMD

b. BVD

c. contagious ecthyma (parapox virus)

d. Actinobacillus

Definition

c. proliferative stomatitis is often caused by parapox viruses e.g. Bovine papularstomatitis- calves

• Contagious ecthyma – sheep, goat

Term
what are some causes of necrotizing stomatitis including specific examples?
Definition
  • bacterial (Fusobacterium necrophorum, Actinobacillus lignieresii)
  • infarctive (Banamine in horses)
Term
a horse administered too much Banamine will likely demonstrate what oral lesions?
Definition
necrotizing due to infarction
Term
what are examples of causes of granulomatous and pseudomembranous oral lesions?
Definition
  • granulomatous-cryptococcal stomatitis
  • pseudomembranous-Candida albicans (thrush)
Term
describe periodontal fibrinous epulis in the dog
Definition

Age: Usually over 3 years of age; Mean 8.5 years

• Location: Anywhere on the gingiva

• Histologic features: 

• Mesenchymalspindle to stellate cells (periodontal ligament)

• Odontogenic epithelium (cell rests of Malassez)

• Variable matrix with characteristics of bone, dentin or cementum

• Behavior if untreated: 

• Expansile and non-invasive

• Excision is usually curative

Term
describe acanthomatous ameloblastoma in the dog
Definition

Age: Older than three years of age; Mean 8.8 years

• Location: Anywhere on the gingiva

• Histologic features: 

• Interconnecting, invasive sheets of odontogenic

epithelium

• Behavior if untreated: Invasive into bone; No 

metastasis

Term
describe squamous cell carcinoma in the dog
Definition

Age: Mean – 8 years old

• Location: Tonsil, gingiva, lip, tongue, palate, 

pharynx

• Gross features: nodular, firm, often ulcerated

• Behavior if untreated:

• Tonsillar: Metastasis to regional nodes early (98%) with frequent more 

distant metastasis (63%)

• Others: Locally invasive, lower percentage 5-10% metastasize

Term
describe squamous cell carcinoma in the cat
Definition

Most common oral tumor in the cat

• Age: Median – 12 years

• Location: Tongue and gingivamost common

• Gross and histologic features: similar to dog

• Behavior if untreated: Locally invasive and mass 

producing; destructive to bone; 15% metastasis 

rate to local nodes reported in one study

Term
describe oral melanomas in the dog
Definition

Age: Mean – 11 years

• Location: Gingiva and lips most common

• Behavior if untreated: 70% metastasize to regional 

lymph nodes and 67% to distant sites (lung, brain, 

eyes, liver, kidney)

• May be amelanotic

Term
describe oral fibrosarcoma in the dog
Definition

Age: Mean – 7.2 years

• Location: gingiva, hard/soft palate, lip, tongue

• Behavior if untreated: Local infiltration and tissue 

destruction. Metastasis in 20% to local lymph 

nodes and 10-20% to lungs.

Term
megaesophagus is associated with dogs with what concurrent diseases?
Definition
  • Persistent right fourth aortic arch
  • Idiopathic denervation
  • Polymyositis
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Trypanosoma cruzi
  • Addison's
Term
what are three esophageal neoplasms?
Definition
  • Papilloma
  • Leiomyoma/Leiomyosarcoma
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
Term

[image]

what is this?

Definition
Mycotic omasitis: Acute multifocal necrotizing and hemorrhagic omasitis
Term

vesicular oral lesions can be induced by all of following except:

a.      FMD

b.      thermal injury

c.       vesicular stomatitis virus

d.      swine vesicular disease virus

e.      bovine papular stomatitis virus

Definition
e.      bovine papular stomatitis virus
Term

ulcerative oral lesions can be induced by:

 

a.      chronic uremia

b.      calicivirus

c.       BVDV

d.      FMD

e.      all above

Definition
e.      all above
Term

which of the following oral neoplasms in dogs has the greatest probability of metastasis?

 

a.      tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma

b.      periodontal fibromatous epulis

c.       acanthomatous ameloblastoma

d.      squamous papilloma

e.       leiomyoma

Definition
a.      tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma
Term

which of the following oral neoplasms in dogs has the least probability of metastasis?

 

a.      melanoma

b.      periodontal fibromatous epulis

c.       acanthomatous ameloblastoma

d.      fibrosarcomas

e.       leiomyomasarcoma

Definition
b.      periodontal fibromatous epulis
Term
describe rumenitis
Definition

 

Carbohydrate overload 

• Lactic acid burn of mucosa 

• Acidosis

• Chronic complications

• Scars

• Mycotic infection

• Bacterial infection -----Hepatitis

Term
[image]
Definition
banamine toxicity
Term
what are five causes of ulcers?
Definition

• Trauma, chemical injury

• High acidity

• Local ischemia

• Helicobacter spp.

• Neoplastic disease: mast cells and gastrin-producing tumors

Term
abomasal ulcers can lead to what 3 things?
Definition

May lead to fatal hemorrhage, chronic hemorrhage 

or perforation and peritonitis

Term

[image]

was ist das?

Definition
chronic abomasal ulcer
Term

[image]

what is this?

Definition
osteragiasis
Term
what are 8 causes of GI obstruction?
Definition
  1. Gastric/abomasal volvulus
  2.  Intestinal Volvulus/torsion
  3. Intestinal external herniation
  4. Intestinal internal herniation/ entrapment
  5.  Intussusception
  6. Intestinal stenosis/atresia
  7. Intestinal stricture
  8. Enteroliths and impactions
Term
what are some predisposing factors for GDV?
Definition

Initial gastric dilation

• Gas accumulation

• Dietary and feeding/exercise may influence

 

Volvulus that may be associated with:

• Deep chested body configuration

• Relaxation/stretching of gastrohepatic ligament

Term
what are the 4 predisposing factors for displaced abomasum?
Definition
  1. Conditions during first 6 weeks of lactation
  2.  High production of volatile fatty acids with diet
  3.  GI stasis allowing abomasalstasis and gas accumulation and decrease in size of rumen
  4.  Deep body cavity
Term
what are the predisposing factors for intussusception?
Definition

• Enteritis/altered motility

• Intestinal foreign body

• Intestinal polyp/neoplasm

Term
what are the 3 mechanisms of diarrhea in enterocolitis?
Definition

1. Maldigestion/Malabsorption –Osmotic

    • Epithelial surface area loss via villous atrophy and 

    other mechanisms

2. Secretory mechanisms – Cl Secretion

    • Many infectious agents act at the level of the 

    intestinal crypts 

3. Increased permeability

    • Mucosal epithelial damage 

    • Increase vascular permeability

Term

[image]

what is this including morphologic diagnosis?

Definition
BVD: Acute multifocal erosive enteritis with necrosis of Peyer’s patches
Term
what diseases result in fibronecrotic lesions?
Definition
  • Salmonella
  • Enterotoxigenic E coli 
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Lawsonia intracellularis*
Term

[image]

what is this?

Definition
fibrin cast likely due to salmonella
Term
what are the 4 pathogenic mechanisms of salmonella?
Definition
  1. Attach to M-cells, enterocytes and goblet cells
  2.  Survive in phagosome (neutralize NO through SPI-2)
  3. Toxins inducing necrosis: Enterotoxin, Verotoxin, Endotoxin
  4. Upregulate chloride ion secretion via PGE2
Term
what are the 3 forms of salmonellosis?
Definition

1. Peracute septicemia

    Vasculitis, thrombosis

2. Acute enteric salmonellosis

    Enterocolitis

    Septicemia: hepatocellular necrosis,       

    lymphadenomegally, splenomegally, fibrinous

    cholecystitis

3. Chronic enteric salmonellosis

    Enterocolitis

    Thrombosis

    Rectal strictures in pigs

Term
which diseases affect the intestinal crypts (5)?
Definition
  • parvovirus replication
  • BVD
  • rinderpest
  • mycotoxins
  • radiation
Term
which diseases affect the villar tips (3)?
Definition
  • rotavirus
  • coronavirus replication
  • cryptosporidium attach, replicate
Term

what is this?

[image]

 

 

Definition
pig rectal stricture due to salmonella
Term
Lawsonia intracellularis in pigs can cause what three types of lesions?
Definition
fibronecrotic, hemorrhagic, hyperplastic
Term
what are 4 causes of hemorrhagic enterocolitis?
Definition
• Clostridial perfringenstype C and other clostridia
• Shigellosis in primates
• Lawsonia intracellularisin pigs
• Coccidiosis
Term
what are 2 causes of hypertrophic enterocolitis?
Definition
  • Lawsonia intracellularis
  • Coccidiosis
Term
[image]
Definition
intestinal coccidiosis
Term
[image]
Definition

Johne's disease: Chronic diffuse granulomatous 

enteritis and lymphangitis

Term
what are the intestinal neoplasias (6)?
Definition
  1. Lymphoma
  2.  Epithelial tumors
  3. Adenoma
  4.  Adenocarcinoma
  5.  Leiomyoma/Leiomyosarcoma/GIST
  6.  Carcinoid
Term

all the following result in decreased size of thymus and lymph node except:

a.      parvo

b.      lymphoma

c.       corticosteroids

d.      K9 distemper

e.       A and D

Definition
b.      lymphoma
Term

uniformly enlarged dog spleen that bleeds on cut surface is most likely:

a.      hemangiosarc

b.      hemangioma

c.       lymphoma

d.      congestion

e.       nodular hyperplasia

Definition
d.      congestion
Term

irregular dark red nodule in spleen that bleeds on cut surface could be all of the following except:

a.      hemagiosarcoma

b.      hemangioma

c.       granulomatous splenitis

d.      hematoma

e.       nodular hyperplasia

Definition
c.       granulomatous splenitis
Term

Which of the following terms are used synonymously with lymphoma in 

veterinary medicine?

 

A. Malignant lymphoma

B. Lymphosarcoma

C. Myeloma

D. A,B

E. A,B,C

Definition
D. malignant lymphoma and lymphosarcoma
Term

 The most common anatomic form of lymphoma in dogs is:

 

A. Multicentric

B. Alimentary

C. Thymic

D. Cutaneous

E. Solitary

Definition
A. multicentric
Term

The most common cardiac site for lymphoma in cattle is:

 

A. Right atrium

B. Right ventricle

C. Left atrium

D. Left ventricle

E. Aortic valve

Definition
A. Right atrium
Term

viral infection has been identified as a cause of lymphoma in:

 

A. Dogs

B. Cats

C. Cattle

D. A,B,C

E. B,C

Definition
D. A,B,C
Term

 The most common anatomic form of lymphoma in cats is:

A. Multicentric

B. Alimentary

C. Thymic

D. Cutaneous

E. Solitary

Definition
B. Alimentary
Term
what are the 3 forms of lymph node enlargement?
Definition

1.Lymphadenitis

   • Acute to chronic duration

   • Infectious, immune, toxic etiology

2.Neoplasia 

   • Primary (e.g., lymphoma)

   • Metastatic

3. Lymphoid Hyperplasia (Antigen driven)

Term
what are 2 specific causes of lymph node hypoplasia?
Definition

Primary immunodeficiency 

1. Combined immunodefiency (CID) of Arab foals

- Genetic defect in DNA-dependent protein kinase

- Defective DNA repair

2. X-linked CID in dogs

Basset hounds, Jack Russell terriers, Welsh corgi 

dogs

Term
what are 3 causes of lymph node atrophy?
Definition

1. Viruses that replicate in lymphocytes and induce

apoptosis/necrosis:

• Canine distemper virus

• Canine parvovirus

2. Glucocorticoids (endogenous, exogenous)

3. Chemotherapeutic drugs, ionizing radiation,

malnutrition, cachexia

Term
what causes a decrease in spleen size (uncommon)?
Definition

- immunodeficiency, senile atrophy, wasting/cachexia

- lymphoid necrosis alone isn’t enough to decrease

spleen size (usually)

Term
what causes an increase in spleen size?
Definition
  • Uniform splenomegaly
  • Splenic nodules and masses 
Term
what splenomegaly diseases will be bloody on cut section?
Definition

1. Congestion – terminal (euthanasia associated)

2. Torsion

Term
what splenomegaly diseases will result in a firm, non-bleeding cut surface?
Definition

1. Bacteremia/septicemia

2. Granulomatous splenitis

3. Hemolytic anemia (autoimmune, hemoparasitic)

4. Lymphoma (other lymphoid neoplasm/leukemia)

5. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

6. Amyloidosis, storage disease

Term
which splenic nodules/masses will have a bloody consistency on cut section?
Definition

1. Hematoma

2. Hemangioma/Hemangiosarcoma

3. Nodular hyperplasia with hyperemia

4. Splenic infarct

5. Incomplete splenic contraction (postmortem finding)

Term
what splenic nodules/masses will be firm and non-bloody on cut section?
Definition

1. Nodular hyperplasia

2. Granulomatous splenitis, Splenic abscess

3. Lymphoma (other lymphoid neoplasm)

4. Metastatic neoplasm

Term
what are the 4 common sites of hemangiosarcoma in the dog?
Definition
  1. spleen
  2. liver
  3. right atrium
  4. lung
Term
describe the thymus cortex and medulla cells
Definition

a. Cortex  

    Primitive and maturing lymphocytes

 

b. Medulla

    Thymic epithelial cells and Hassall’s corpuscles

    Myoid cells

    Interdigitating cells and dendritic cells

    Lymphocytes

Term
what are 4 diseases associated with a small thymus and their causative agents?
Definition

1. Thymic hypoplasia (e.g., CID)

2. Maturation and Aging (involution)

3. Thymitis (e.g., porcine circovirus 2, epizootic bovine 

    abortion, salmon poisoning in dogs)

4. Thymic atrophy (lymphocyte apoptosis/necrosis)

    a. Viral diseases: FeLV, FIV, canine distemper,

        equine herpesvirus 1, feline panleukopenia, 

        Canine parvovirus

    b. Glucocorticoids (exogenous/endogenous)

    c. Nutritional deficiency (starvation, zinc deficiency, 

        protein deficiency)

d. Toxins – lead, mercury, polychlorinated biphenyls

Term
what diseases are associated with a large thymus (3)?
Definition

1. Thymic hemorrhage (young dogs)

2. Lymphoma

3. Thymoma

• Epithelial component is neoplastic

Term
describe the signalment of lymphoma in dogs
Definition

1. Most common in dogs 5-11 years old

2. 10% cases in dogs 1-4 years of age

3. Report of higher incidence in boxer and 

Scottish terrier dogs

4. Gamma herpesvirus associated with some 

B-cell lymphomas

Term
what are the 5 distributions of lymphoma in the dog from most to least common?
Definition

1. Multicentric 

• Generalized lymphadenomegaly

• Liver and spleen

• Kidney, heart, tonsil, bone marrow, CNS

2. Alimentary

• Intestine and mesenteric lymph nodes

• Less common: Generalized lymph node and liver/spleen

3. Thymic

• Concentration in thymus and cranial medistinum

• Commonly associated with hypercalcemia

4. Cutaneous

• Infrequent

• T-cell cutaneous lymphoma in dogs (Mycosis fungoides)

• Cutaneous

5. Other

• Solitary: (brain, lung, etc.)

• Specialized: Lymphomatoid granulomatosis

Term
what is the most common neoplasm in cats and what disease is often concurrent?
Definition

1. lymphoma

2. Young cats affected by FeLV (>50% 5 years 

old or less)

3. Until recent years, 70% of cats were viremic

with FeLV. Now decreasing percentage of 

lymphoma cats are FeLV positive

Term
what are the 4 distributions of lymphoma in cats from most to least common?
Definition

1. Alimentary 

• Jejunum / ileum

• Mesenteric nodes

• Liver and kidney

• Often FeLV negative

2. Thymic

• Concentration in thymus and cranial medistinal nodes

• Pleural effusion and compressive atelectasis common

• Often FeLV positive

3. Multicentric

• Generalized lymphadenomegally

• Liver / spleen

• CNS

• Often FeLV positive

4. Solitary

• Often kidneys

Term
most forms of lymphoma in cattle are caused by what?
Definition
Bovine leukemia virus
Term
what are the 6 distributions of lymphoma in cattle?
Definition

1.Multicentric

• Most common BLV association

• Lymph nodes, right atrium, abomasum, kidneys, uterus, spinal 

epidural fat

• Intestine, liver, and spleen less common

2.Cutaneous 

3.Thymic

• Adolescent cows (6-30 months)

• Bone marrow involvement

4.Calf form

• Less than 6 months old

• Generalized nodes, bone marrow, blood, liver, spleen

• 50% involve thymus, heart, kidneys, uterus

5.Alimentary form – Rare

6.Solitary – Spinal canal

Term

Which of the following viruses in cattle commonly induce syncytial bronchiolar epithelial cells following respiratory infection (more than one)?
A. Adenovirus
B. Bovine herpesvirus type 1
C. Rhinovirus
D. Parainfluenza

E. Rinderpest

F. Bovine Syncytial virus


Definition
Parainfluenza, Rinderpest, Bovine Syncytial Virus
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