Term
What are the most common skin cancers? |
|
Definition
basal cell carcinoma- 75%
squamous cell carcinoma- 20%
melanoma |
|
|
Term
What are the most common sites for squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
sun exposure, pale skin, chronic inflammatory process, immunisuppression, xeroderma pigmentation, arsenic |
|
|
Term
What is the precursor lesion to squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
raised, slightly pigmented skin lesions
ulcerative/exudative
chronic scab
itching
what is it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how do u diagnose a squamous cell carcinoma?
What is the tx? |
|
Definition
diagnose:
small lesion: <1 cm- excise with .5 cm margin
large lesion: >1 cm: resect with 1 to 2 cm margins of normal tissue (may require skin graft/flap) |
|
|
Term
How can you predict the severity of squamous cell carcinoma? (ie. how bad the prognosis is..) |
|
Definition
size
grade:
ie. I: <25% undifferentiated cells
IV: greater than 75% undifferentiated cells |
|
|
Term
What is the most common site of squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a skin condition characterized by chronic scaling and occasionally by a crusted, purple, or erythematous raised lesion---it can become invasive squamous cell carcinoma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is follow up for pt diagnosed for squamous cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
carcinoma arising from epidermal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Carcinoma arising in the GERMINATING basal cell layer of epithelial cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are risk factors for basal cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
sun exposure, fair skin, radiation, chronic dermatitis, xeroderma pigmentation |
|
|
Term
What are the common sites for basal cell carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
slow growing skin mass (chronic, scaly); scab; ulceration, without without pigmentation
often described as "pearl"-like |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the difference between seborrheic and actinic keratosis? |
|
Definition
seborrheic: benign pigmented lesion in the elderly
actinic: premalignant skin lesion from sun exposure-surgical removal needed |
|
|
Term
What is a pilonidal cyst? |
|
Definition
air-containing sinus or abscess occurring in the intergluteal cleft. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
soft tissue tumor of hands or feet
They are cystic structures filled with a mucinous fluid but without a synovial or epithelial lining |
|
|
Term
What are the most common locations of ganglion cysts? |
|
Definition
wrist, digital flexor sheath, and distal interphalangeal joint |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
one that is relatively new (<12 hours) and has minimal contamination
|
|
|
Term
What is an avulsion injury? |
|
Definition
when the skin has been violated by shearing forces and underlying tissue has been undermined and elevated, creating a flap or total loss of skin
the flap or avulsed tissue is composed of skin with or without underlying fat and muscle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
superficial loss of epithelial elements with portion of the dermis and deeper structures remaining intact |
|
|
Term
what is a puncture wound? |
|
Definition
generally do not require closure |
|
|
Term
What abx can be used for appendectomy procedure? (3) |
|
Definition
second gen cephalosporin
broad spectrum PNC
combo of fluroquinolone and anerobic coverage with flagyl |
|
|
Term
If frank peritoneal performation and contamination or abscess are found, abx are typically continued until the patient is ____, ______ and _______. |
|
Definition
afebrile
normal WBC count
regained GI function |
|
|
Term
When can the appendix rupture? What is the time period? |
|
Definition
possibility of perforation increases after the first 24 to 36 hours of illness |
|
|
Term
What are two surgical approaches to appendicitis? |
|
Definition
laparoscopic: used when there is concern over the viability of the tissue at the appendicial base
open: done through a muscle splitting incision cented on McBurney's point in the RLQ |
|
|
Term
Pt presents with more advanced peritonitis and/or signif diagnostic uncertainty, what type of incision might be more appropriate? |
|
Definition
may be more appro to allow ider access to the pelvic peritoneal cavity |
|
|
Term
What surgical approach has been assoc with slightly less post op pain and lower wound infection rates? |
|
Definition
laparoscopic appendectomy |
|
|
Term
What complication is proven in studies to follow laparoscopic appendectomy? |
|
Definition
abscess in surgeries involving perforated appendectomy |
|
|
Term
What is the most common complication of appendectomy? |
|
Definition
post operative wound infection
pelvic abscess: common- particularly when frank perforation
fecal fistula |
|
|
Term
Name the procedure:
a transverse or oblique incision is made, usually over Mcburney's point (a point btw 11/2 and 2 inches superomedial to the ASIS, on a straight line joining that process and the umbilicus, where pressure elicits tenderness in.... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are five complications of appendectomy? |
|
Definition
wound infection
pelvic abscess
enterocutaneous fistula
pyelphlebitis
appendiceal perforation |
|
|
Term
When are indications for cholecystectomy? |
|
Definition
acute or chronic cholecystitis
cholellithiasis
choledocholithiasis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inflammation of the appendix caused by obstruction of the appendiceal lumen producing a closed loop with resultant inflammation that can lead to necrosis and perforation |
|
|
Term
What are the causes of appendicitis? |
|
Definition
lymphoid hyperplasia, fecalith
rare: parasite, foreign body, tumor |
|
|
Term
name this:
pain upon internal rotation of the leg with the hip and knee flexed; |
|
Definition
obturator sign
seen in pts with pelvic appendicitis |
|
|
Term
Name this sign:
Pain elicited by extending the hip with the knee in full extension or by flexing the hip against resistance |
|
Definition
psoas sign
Seen with retrocecal appendicitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Palpation or rebound pressure of the LLQ results in pain in the RLQ |
|
|
Term
What is Valentino's sign? |
|
Definition
RLQ pain/peritonitis from succus draining down to the RLW from a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer |
|
|
Term
What/where is McBurney's point? |
|
Definition
point one third from the ASIS to the umbilicus
often the pt of maximal tenderness |
|
|
Term
What labs should be ordered for appendicitis? |
|
Definition
CBC: increase WBC (>10,000 per mm)
UA: to r/o pyelonephritis or renal calculus |
|
|
Term
How can you differentiate gastroenteritis from appendicitis? |
|
Definition
in acute appendicitis pain usually comes then vomiting
gastroenteritis: vomiting then pain |
|
|
Term
What is different about how an appendectomy is closed in pt with perforated appendectomy? |
|
Definition
if perforated: IV fluid resucitation and prompt appendectomy
all pus is drained with post op abx continued for 3-7 days
wound is left open in most cases of perf after closing the fascia (heals by secondary intention or delayed primary closure) |
|
|
Term
How is an appendicieal abscess that is diagnosed preoperatively treated? |
|
Definition
usually by percutaneous drainage of the abscess, abx administration, and elective appendectomy approximately 6 weeks later |
|
|
Term
How long should you take abx in a nonruptured appendix? |
|
Definition
only take for 24 hours postoperatively |
|
|
Term
What abx do you take for perforated appendicitis? |
|
Definition
usually tripple abx
amp/cipro/clinda
OR
ZOsyn (broad spectrum PNC) |
|
|
Term
What two diagnostic studies are used in appendicitis? |
|
Definition
US and CT have >90% accuracy
Typical CT findings: “edematous appendix with periappendiceal fat stranding”
US is operator dependent and visualizes only one area, but is cheaper, faster and portable
|
|
|
Term
Name the skin prep:
§ Effective against Gram + and most Gram – organisms
§ NEVER use near eyes/ears (can cause deafness)
§ Blood/Pus DO NOT interfere
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the skin prep:
§ Effective against Gram + and some Gram – organisms
§ Blood/Pus/Serum DO interfere
§ Is readily absorbed through open skin, so keep away from burns / rashes / large wounds
§ Looks like milk
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the skin prep:
§ Works against Gram + and Gram –
§ Effective against Fungi / Viruses / Protozoa / Yeast
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the skin prep:
§ Weak germicidal action and easily breaks down
§ Mechanism of action is mechanical – bubbles of O2 loosen dead tissue and bacterial pockets
§ DON’T use on new forming epithelium
§ ALWAYS rinse off with NSS
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name this skin prep:
§ Doesn’t effect spores or viruses at all
§ Inactivated by soap
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the skin prep:
§ Effective against most pathogenic bacteria but erratic against Fungi / Viruses / Yeast
§ Will dry the skin, damage new epithelium and sting
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name five different types of absorbable sutures. |
|
Definition
catgut
polyglycolic acid
polyglyconate
polydioxanone
monocryl |
|
|
Term
Name six types of non-absorbable sutures. |
|
Definition
silk
nylon
polyesther
polypropylene
prolene
steel |
|
|
Term
How long do u keep sutures in scalp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in the ear in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do u keep sutures in eyelid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in face? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in the abdomen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in the back? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in the extremities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in the hand? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you keep sutures in the foot/sole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most frequent cause of nonsurgical perioperative morbidity and mortality in surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why do you ask pt if they have trouble walking up flight of stairs before surgery? |
|
Definition
if they cna't- higher chance of developing pneumonia post op |
|
|
Term
These five meds canNOT be continued through the perioperative period. |
|
Definition
aspirin,warfarin, NSAIDS
thienopyridines (clopidogrel or ticlopidine)
some hypoglycemic agents |
|
|
Term
When someone has a wound, what do you always want to ask? |
|
Definition
How (MOA) / When / Where / Why did the injury occur?
• Ask about
• Allergies
• Tetanus and Immunization hx
• Bleeding tendencies
• Any prior tx of the wound before coming to the office
• Estimated blood loss
|
|
|
Term
What are the effects of the "injury response" seen in pts after surgery? |
|
Definition
associated with protein catabolism, negative nitrogen balance and increased energy expenditure. |
|
|
Term
What do you tell patients about diet prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
A well-nourished pt should have a 7 to 10 day energy and protein reserve and should be able to tolerate the additional ntdt demands due to surgery.
|
|
|
Term
What labs can be used to detect nutritional deficiencies? |
|
Definition
· Albumin
· Total Lymphocyte Count
· Prealbumin
· Transferrin
· Retinal Binding Protein
· Carnitine
|
|
|
Term
What does it mean when someone has a positive nitrogen balance? |
|
Definition
o More nitrogen is consumed than is excreted
o Body is building more tissue than it is breaking down (Anabolism)
o Occurs during: Growth / Healing / Pregnancy
|
|
|
Term
What does it mean when someone has a negative nitrogen balance? |
|
Definition
o Less nitrogen is consumed than is excreted
o Body is breaking down more protein than it is building (Catabolism)
o Occurs during: Illness / Stress / Inadequate intake
|
|
|
Term
What does GALT stand for? What is assoc with? |
|
Definition
Gut associated lymphoid tissue
reason why you should use the gut!--enteral feeding when you can |
|
|
Term
What could be a sign of refeeding syndrome? what lab? why? |
|
Definition
hypophosphatemia
There is a sudden increase in insulin levels which leads to an increased cellular uptake of phosphate. |
|
|
Term
What is the clear liquid diet? |
|
Definition
juice with no pulp
broth
tea
gelatin |
|
|
Term
what is a full liquid diet? |
|
Definition
milk
ice cream
nutritional supplements |
|
|
Term
what is the low residue diet? |
|
Definition
low fiber
avoid vegetables |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
recommended
no dietary restrictions |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the diabetic diet? |
|
Definition
carb controlled
1800, 2000, 2200, 2400 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
reduced Na, K, Phosphorus |
|
|
Term
What supplement does the following:
fuels the immune system
essential precursor to protein synthesis
enhanced wound healing is observed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the nutritional supplement:
substrate in fast growing cells
stimulates proliferation of fibroblasts
major AA lost during tissue injury |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the nutritional supplement:
anti inflammatory agent
stimulate T-cell and natural killer cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the nutritional supplement:
aids in wound healing
essential in collagen synthesis, intracellular matrix of bone, skin and blood vessel walls and ct tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name the nutritional supplement:
Need is increased during cell proliferation
don't give this to cancer paitent bc we dont' want to help the cancer proliferate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what occurs that causes testicular torsion? |
|
Definition
torsion of the spermatic cord, resulting in venous outflow obstruction
and subsequent arterial occlusion causing infarction of the testicle |
|
|
Term
what could it be:
acute onset of scrotal pain usually after vigorous activity or minor trauma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you make a diagnosis of testicular torsion? |
|
Definition
surgical expoloration
U/S (solid mass)
Doppler flow study
cold Tc99m scan (nuclear study) |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for testicular torsion?
when should this be performed? |
|
Definition
surgical detorsion and bilateral orchioplexy to the scrotum
should be performed within 6 hours for best results |
|
|
Term
What's included in an upper airway physical exam? |
|
Definition
dentition
cervical spine mobility
airway examination
factors affecting ease of ventilation |
|
|
Term
What's a way to measure the mandibular space? |
|
Definition
thyromental distance-estimate the ant mandibular space by placing 3 fingers below the pt's chin |
|
|
Term
what's a class I mallampati? |
|
Definition
able to visualize the faucual pillars, uvula, soft palate, post pharync |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
can visualize the faucial pillars, soft palate
35% will have difficult intubation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
can ONLY visualize the soft palate
most will have difficulty intubating |
|
|
Term
What's the mallampati air way classification used for? |
|
Definition
clinical sign to predict difficult tracheal intubation |
|
|
Term
This procedure involves making an incision in hte eardrum, usually to initiatially drain pus from the middle ear OR to create an opening in which a tympanostomy (ventilating) tube can be inserted.
What is this procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the indications for a myringotomy? |
|
Definition
suspicion of impending complications from AOM (ie. facial paralysis ipsilateral to AOM, or vertigo secondary to AOM labrynthitis |
|
|
Term
Should myringotomy be used for chronic otitis media? |
|
Definition
no bc an incision without a ventilating tube will close within several days making it NOt an ideal scenario for a more persistent drainage path- such as with chronic otitis media or for complications of otitis media |
|
|
Term
Preop meds:
What do you stop? How many days before surgery?
What do you continue? |
|
Definition
diuretics stop before stugery
Digoxin should be continued for a fib but stopped if for CHF (why? dig toxicity is difficult to treat and hard to stop intraop)
NSAIDS stopped 10 days before surgery
Insulin-typically given in half the usual preop dose in conjunction with the establishment of a glucose containing IV |
|
|
Term
What are three benzos used as preop meds
What are two opiods used for preop? |
|
Definition
benzos:
midazolam (most freq used)
lorazepam
diazepam
Opiods:
fentanyl
morphine |
|
|
Term
What is it called when you can't retract the foreskin of a penis to view the glans?
What is it called when there is an inability to reduce a previously retracted foreskin? |
|
Definition
What is it called when you can't retract the foreskin of a penis to view the glans? PHIMOSIS
What is it called when there is an inability to reduce a previously retracted foreskin? PARAPHIMOSIS
|
|
|
Term
What can happen if there is paraphimosis?
What's the tx/how do you fix paraphimosis? |
|
Definition
With prolonged retraction, lymphedema of the prepuce exacerbates the condition and increases the circumferential pressure of the shaft proximal to the glans.
Manual reduction can usually be accomplished using the index fingers to pull the prepuce distally while pushing the glans into the prepuce. If this measure fails, the preputial cicatrix may be incised (dorsal slit) and the foreskin reduced with relative ease. Circumcision may be performed as an elective procedure once the edema has subsided.
|
|
|
Term
What are risk factors for developing urinary lithiasis? |
|
Definition
high animal protein diet
extremes of calcium ingestion
decreased fluid intake
sedentary lifestyle
excess oxalate consumption (ice tea, chocolate, and greens)
|
|
|
Term
If someone is found to have kidneys stones- specifically calcium phosphate stones, what type of disorders should you look into that they might have? |
|
Definition
renal tubular acidosis (type I)
hyperparathyroidism |
|
|
Term
Pts with chronic UTIs are at high risk for developing what type of kidney stone? |
|
Definition
struvite stone- composed of magnesium, ammonium and phosphate |
|
|
Term
What should be part of your differential for calcific densities within the renal collecting system? |
|
Definition
transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis- may occasionally calcify and have appearance of a stone |
|
|
Term
abrupt onset of sharp, cramping pain in the flankwith possible radiation to the groin or genitalia.
What's this called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the best method for looking at kidney stones?
What is another way? How do stones appear? |
|
Definition
CT without contrast
KUB: 90% of stones are radiopaque |
|
|
Term
What are the three most common sites of stone impaction? |
|
Definition
uteropelvic junction
pelvic brim as the stone passes over the iliac vessels
ureterovesical junction |
|
|
Term
When is definitive tx of kidney stone done? |
|
Definition
after the pt defervesces (fever) |
|
|
Term
Stones smaller than 4 mm have a ____ than 90% chance of spontaenous passage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you treat uric acid stones?
What can you do as preventative measure? |
|
Definition
alkalinization of urine through oral therapy
Preventative: give citrate containing alkalinizing agents |
|
|
Term
What meds can you give for hypercalciuria?
What preventive measures do you give pts?
|
|
Definition
low doses of HCTZ
increase fluid intake to several liters a day
mod calcium, low salt, low purine diet |
|
|
Term
What are indications for extracorpeal shock wave lithotripsy?
what are contraindications? |
|
Definition
for renal stones as large as 2 cm
contraindications: pregnancy, coagulopathy, uncontrolled HTN or active infection |
|
|
Term
What should you do for stones >2 cm? |
|
Definition
percutneous nephrolithotomy |
|
|
Term
What is the most common solid organ cancer in men? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's a normal PSA?
What is worrisome as far as increase/year |
|
Definition
normal is 4.0 ng/mL
worrisome: >.75 ng/mL/year |
|
|
Term
What are reasons for a high PSA? |
|
Definition
prostate cancer
benign prostatic hyperplasia
prostatis
cystitis
presence of foley
urinary retention |
|
|
Term
What may you feel when doing DRE (prostate focused) that is consistent with advanced carcinoma?
What else do you look for on PE? |
|
Definition
DRE: prostate feels hard, nodular
rest of PE: looking for signs of metastases: lower extremity weakness, decreased sensation, bowel and bladder dysfunction |
|
|
Term
What diagnostic tool is used to image the prostate and measure the size?
What is used to look for metastatic disease when PSA is greater than 20 ng/mL
What do you use when PSA is >10 or have tumor with high grade? |
|
Definition
transrectal ultrasonagraphy
if PSA > 20: CT
if PSA>10 OR high tumor grade: radionuclide bone scan |
|
|
Term
What does TNM classfication stand for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are common tx for clinically localized prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
radical prostatectomy or external beam radiation therapy |
|
|
Term
Wheat do you do for pt with prostate cancer and life expectancy of <10 years. |
|
Definition
observation alone "watchful waiting" |
|
|
Term
What lymphatics provide drainage to the prostate? |
|
Definition
hypogastric and obturator nodes |
|
|
Term
When should pts get PSA level checked? |
|
Definition
all men >50
>40 if first degree family hx or AA pt |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's included in a radical prostatectomy? |
|
Definition
prostate gland
seminal vesicles
ampullae of the vasa deferentia |
|
|
Term
What is hormonal therapy for prostate cancer? |
|
Definition
bilateral oriectomy
OR
LHRH agonists: decrease LH release from pituitary, which then decreases testosterone production in the testes |
|
|
Term
What is the most common malignancy among males aged 15 to 35? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is most common type of tumor found in testicular cancer? |
|
Definition
germ cell tumor foun din 95% of cases
two types:
1) seminomatous and nonseminomatous neoplasms |
|
|
Term
Who gets testicular cancer? ie. population
Is there a genetic/fam hx?
PMHx?
|
|
Definition
White males have high incidence than AA
Family hx significant
PMH of cryptorchidism: increase chances 40x |
|
|
Term
A painLESS testicular mass is a ____ until proven otherwaise |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with diffuse testicular pain. What do you want to do first? |
|
Definition
could be infectious epididymo orchtitis so try to treat with abx but if no improvement in 2 to 4 weeks then do a testicular US- be suspicious of testicular cancer |
|
|
Term
what are you looking for on PE for pt with testicular cancer? |
|
Definition
palpate testes for size, consistenc, tenderness and evidence of fixation
spermatic cord should be palpated for abnormal thickening
look for signs of pleural effusion and check supraclavicular nodes |
|
|
Term
What tests can you do to see if testicular cancer? |
|
Definition
alpha fetoprotein may be elevated with embryonal carcinoma, teratocarcinoma or yolk sac tumor
beta HCG: embryonal carcinoma, choriocarcnoma or pure seminoma
LDH: non specific
**all these levels should be checked before radical orchiectomy bc if these markers don't decline at approp rates after surgery then there is metastatic disease |
|
|
Term
What is tx for testicular carcinoma? |
|
Definition
radical inguinal orchiectomy: made as if performing inguinal hernia repair |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
failure of testicle to descend into the scrotum |
|
|
Term
What are the steps in a workup for testicular cancer? |
|
Definition
PE, scrotal US, check tumor markers, CXR, CT (chest, pelvis, abdomen) |
|
|
Term
What is the major side effect of retroperitoneal lymph node dissection?
related to testicular cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of testicular cancer is most sensitive to radiation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do you NOT clean lacerations with?
How should you clean lacerations |
|
Definition
do NOT clean with betadine: inhibits normal healthy tissue
lacerations: H20 irrigation "the solution to pollution is dilution." |
|
|
Term
What helps wound healing in pts taking steroids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What meds should be used to PREVENT early post traumatic seizures in pts at high risk for seizures after head injury? |
|
Definition
phenytoin (Dilantin) and carbamazepine (Tegretol) |
|
|
Term
What is assessed in GCS?
What is scoring system? |
|
Definition
eyes
verbal resonse
motor
score btw 3-15
15 is best
3 is lowest
<9 indicates coma
<8 needs to be intubated
|
|
|
Term
What is this called:
arms are tightly flexed over the best. Elbows, wrists and fingers are flexed and the legs are rigidly extended and internally rotated
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is this called:
arms are rigidly extended and close to the body. Legs are rigidly extended and the feet are plantar flexed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subdural hematoma:
where is collection of blood?
What usually causes injury (ie. what type of vasculature) |
|
Definition
collection of blood btw dura and brain surface
injury to cortical blood vessels or bridging veins
Usually underlying injury: contusions, lacerations, and hematomas |
|
|
Term
What is the most feared complication of surgery for subdural hematoma?
How do you usually control? |
|
Definition
malignant brain swelling- can cause massive herniation of the brain through the crainotomy defect
how do you control: hyperventilation and mannitol |
|
|
Term
What is tx for chronic SDHs?
Who typically gets? |
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Definition
infants and elderly usually get after minor head trauma; due to tears in bridging beins, blood liquifies
surgical tx: craniotomy or burr hole draining |
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Term
What wold you see on CT for pt with subdural hematoma? |
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Definition
curved, crescent shaped hematoma
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Term
Where does blood collect in an epidural hematoma?
what age group are susceptible? |
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Definition
blood locatd in the temporal region btw the dura and the inner table of the skull
usually due to middle meningeal artery
usually seen in pts 20 and 40 |
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Term
What is the classic CT finding with an epidural hematoma? |
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Definition
lenticular (lens) shaped hematoma |
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Term
What is classic presentation of pt with epidural hematoma? |
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Definition
LOC followed by lucid interval followed by neurologic deterioration |
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Term
These are signs of what type of fracture:
raccoon eyes
battle's sign
clear otorrhea or rhinorrhea
hemotympanum |
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Definition
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Term
What is normal ICP?
What is a worrisome ICP? |
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Definition
btw 5 and 15 mm H20
worrisome if > 20 |
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Term
What is acute tx of seizures after head trauma?
What is seizure prophylaxis after severe head injury? |
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Definition
What is acute tx of seizures after head trauma? ativan
What is seizure prophylaxis after severe head injury? pheyntoin for 7 days
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Term
What is hydrocephalus?
What causes it? |
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Definition
abnormal condition consisting of an increased spaces volume of CSF along with distention of CSF
causes:
increased production of CSF
decreased absorption of CSF
obstriction of normal flow |
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Term
What are signs/sxs of hydrocephalus?
How do you diagnose? |
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Definition
signs/sxs: signs of increased ICO: HA, nausea, vomiting, ataxia, increasing head circumference exceeding norms for age
diagnosis: CT, MRI, measurement of head circumference |
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Term
How do you treat hydrocephalus?
What are possible complications? |
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Definition
tx: 1. remove obvious offenders
2. perform bypass obstruction with ventriculoperitoneal shunt of ventriculoatrial shunt
complications: blockage/shunt malfunction or infection |
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Term
What is test of choice for pt with possible depressed skull fracture? |
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Definition
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Term
Where do basilar skull fractures typically occur? |
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Definition
skull fractures at the base of the skull, typically at the petrous portion of the temporal bone |
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Term
What is a depressed skull fracture? |
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Definition
a fracture in which one or more fragments of the skull are forced below the inner table of the skull |
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Term
What are indications for surgery for skull fracture?
(5) |
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Definition
1. contaminanted wound requiring cleaning and debridement
2. devere deformity
3. impingement on cortex
4.open fracture
5. CSF leak |
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Term
What is a intracerebral hemorrhage?
what causes? |
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Definition
bleeding into brain parenchyma
why?
HTN/atherosclerotic dease
Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms
other: coagulopathies, AVMs, amyloid angiopathy, bleeding into tumor, and trauma |
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Term
What area is most commonly affected by intracerebral hemorrhages? |
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Definition
two third occur in basal ganglia
putamen is structure most commonly affected |
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Term
What could it be:
Contralteral hemiplegia and hemisensory deficits, lateral gaze preference, aphasia, and homonymous hemianopsia.
What diagnostic tool would you use? |
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Definition
intracerebral hemorrhage- most likely in putamen
diagnose: CT |
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Term
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Definition
bleeding between the brain and the arachnoid membrane |
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Term
What could this be:
severe headache
photophobia
neck stiffness
what is common cause? |
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Definition
SAH
cause: most common: trauma
spontaneous SAH are due to cerebral aneurysms |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
What are risk factors for aneurysms and SAH? |
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Definition
cirgarette smoking, HTN, alcohol, cocaine |
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Term
Where did aneurysms typically occur? |
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Definition
at branch points or at the origin of smaller vessels |
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Term
What do you worry about after an initial hemorrhage? |
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Definition
cerebral vasospasm- critical narrowing of cerebral arteries that can lead to strokes, brain edema, and herniation |
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Term
Where are the vast majority of cerebral aneurysms? |
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Definition
ant part of the cerebral circulation (ie. internal carotid artery and the middle and anterior cerebral arteries), posterior communicating artery and the anterior communicating artery |
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Term
What determines tx for cerebral aneurysm?
(3) |
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Definition
location of aneurysm
age of pt
clinical grade |
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Term
What is the test of choice for SAH? |
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Definition
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Term
If initial CT scan is neg for SAH, what test should you do? |
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Definition
lumbar puncture to look for RBCs or xanthochromia must undergo cerebral angiography of both carotid and vertebral arteries |
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Term
What type of meds do you give pt with SAH? (2) |
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Definition
antiseizure prophylaxis
calcium channel blocker- helps with vasospasm
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Term
How do AVMs appear on studies?
What exactly are AVMs? |
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Definition
as "tangles" of vessels
AVMs consist of dilated arteries and veins within a capillary bed |
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Term
What is the gold standard for AVMs? |
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Definition
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Term
Localized area of tissue necrosis that develops when a soft tissue is compressed between a bony prominence and an external surface.
What is this?
What causes it? |
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Definition
Decubitus ulcer
Excessive pressure causes capillary collapse and impedes the delivery of nutrients to body tissues. Pressure ulcer formation is accelerated in the presence of friction, shear forces, and moisture. immobility, altered activity levels, altered mental status, chronic conditions, and altered nutritional status |
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Term
What are the four stages of decubitus ulcers? |
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Definition
four stages of pressure ulcer formation are as follows: stage I, nonblanchable erythema of intact skin; stage II, partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis or dermis, or both; stage III, full-thickness skin loss, but not through the fascia; and stage IV, full-thickness skin loss with extensive involvement of muscle and bone |
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