Term
What kind of a learning is pedagogy? |
|
Definition
dependent, passive subject oriented indoctrination |
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Term
What kind of a learning is andragogy? |
|
Definition
active life/experience oriented self-directed |
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Term
What are the series of steps when mastering a technique? |
|
Definition
unconsioculy incompetent consciously incompetent consciously competent unconsciously competent |
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Term
Who said this: they who do not know history are condemned to repeat it? |
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Definition
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Term
What kind of surgery did Theodore Coker perfect in the 20th century? |
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Definition
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Term
What did surgery evolve from? |
|
Definition
the treatment of injuries |
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Term
Who developed the care and tx of wounds during surgery? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Who is the father of our current medical education system? |
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Definition
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Term
Age, gender and history are components of the pt history, what types of pathologies are related to these factors? |
|
Definition
congenital diseases neoplasms hormonal/sex specific organs ethnic predilections |
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Term
What 2 classes of meds do surgeons mostly give? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What 2 classes of meds do surgeons mostly give? |
|
Definition
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Term
What are the key PE elements when evaluating skin? |
|
Definition
changes in color texture (clues to nutritional diseases) turgor (volume issues) temperature touch |
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Term
What are the key PE elements when evaluating the chest? |
|
Definition
look, listen and feel -alterations in movement -difference in sounds -differences in feel (subQ emphysema) -differences in tympany (dullness or hyperresonance) |
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Term
What does SubQ Emphysema feel like? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are the key PE elements when evaluating the heart? |
|
Definition
look listen and feel: perfusion heart sounds and rhythm pulses temperature |
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Term
What are the key PE elements when evaluating the abdomen? |
|
Definition
inspect, auscultate, palpate and percuss scars, masses, pulsations, color gentler 2 handed systemic evaluation (begin away from area of pain/ concern) guarding rebound/ resonance always a rectal! |
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Term
What are the key PE elements when evaluating the GU? |
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Definition
look, listen and feel: finger in every orifice manual exam: -males inguinal anatomy best examined upright -females: in stirrups with chaperone |
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Term
A HIDA scan tests the function of what organ? |
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Definition
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Term
In the pt history, what needs to be analyzed for surgery? |
|
Definition
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Term
What does AMPLE stand for when taking a surgical EMERGENCY history? |
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Definition
Allergies Medications PMH Last Meal Events preceding emergency |
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Term
Why is knowledge of the last meal important when performing clinical procedures? |
|
Definition
increased risk of aspiration (wait 6 hrs after last meal if possible) |
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Term
What technique is best when intubation is needed during emergency surgery to avoid aspiration? |
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Definition
Rapid Sequence Intubation |
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Term
Medications and their issues with surgery... |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Use of beta blockers can cause what? |
|
Definition
loss of chronotropic response to infection or blood loss -although abrupt discontinuation increases risk of MI
-a BB slows down the rate of the heart |
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Term
Use of anticoagulants causes what 2 problems? |
|
Definition
exert effects on the synthetic function of the liver platelet fxn |
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|
Term
What needs to be monitored with ventricular antiarrhythmics? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What happens to the absorption of transdermal nitrates perioperatively? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
With a diabetic pt on insulin, what should be given intraoperatively and postop? |
|
Definition
5% dextrose solutions intravenously |
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Term
Metformin should be held for at least 1 day preop to prevent what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
SERMs are associated with increased risk of what? |
|
Definition
DVTs -SERMs should be held for at least 1 wk preop |
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Term
nutriceuticals and their interactions with surgery... |
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Definition
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|
Term
What can echinecea cause? |
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Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
vasoconstriction/ MI/ CVA |
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Term
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Definition
enhanced sedative effects, withdrawal |
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Term
What does St. John's Wort interact with? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
extrapyramidal effects GI discomfort HTN urinary retention |
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Term
Normal lab results obtained within _______ of elective surgery do not need repeating. |
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Definition
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|
Term
Who should receive a baseline CBC/BMP? (this is usually performed in radical surgeries where blood loss is an issue) |
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Definition
Anemia/malignant disease/renal insufficiency/cardiac disease/DM/pregnant/HTN/ hepatic disease/long-term vomiting/elderly/or unable to give any history |
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Term
What type of pts should get an electrolyte screening? |
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Definition
elderly, any pt with a chronic medical dz |
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Term
What type of pts should get a baseline UA? |
|
Definition
urinary tract symptoms chronic urinary dz urology procedures |
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Term
What pts should receive a baseline CXR? |
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Definition
S/S of active pulmonary dz. |
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Term
What pts need a baseline EKG? |
|
Definition
Male >40 Female >50 Symptomatic CV disease HTN, DM If undergoing thoracic, intraperitoneal, aortic, emergent surgery |
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Term
What 2 events happen postoperatively that put stress on the myocardium? |
|
Definition
1. catecholamine surge in response to the pain and anxiety-->results in increased oxygen requirement -myocardial blood flow is reduces by vasoconstriction effect of alpha-1 receptor and a reduced diastolic time reducing the time for blood flow thru the myocardium (eg increasHow ed HR)
2. Suppression of th fibrinolytic system (predisposing the pt to thrombosis and then myocardial ischemia |
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|
Term
How should the pt who is asymptomatic for heart dz be treated pre-operatively? |
|
Definition
check vital signs -are there rubs, murmurs or 3rd heart sounds? -tachy? BP irregularities? JVD? bruits? |
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|
Term
A pt with MV insufficiency has increased risk for postoperative what? |
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Definition
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|
Term
Is mild/chornic CHF associated with increased risk of infarction? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the 2 cardiac abns that will cause surgery to be postponed? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What do abn 3rd heart sounds/JVD indicate? |
|
Definition
decompensation of cardiac fxn (in jeopardy of serious heart complications) |
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|
Term
What should you order if bruits are heard? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How long after an MI could a pt consider a surgery? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How do you evaluate a pt with heart dz? |
|
Definition
is there a hx of dyspnea, arrhythmias, rheumatic heart dz which would require prophlactic abx (to prevent endocarditis)
hx of CAD, previous MI, pacemaker? |
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|
Term
A pt without risks has a ____ chance of MI. A pt with risks has a __ chance of perioperative MI. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A perioperative MI has a __-__% mortality rate. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A pt with an MI within 3 mos of OR has a __-__% reinfarction rate. A pt with an MI within 3-6 mos of OR has a __% reinfarction rate. A pt with an MI within >6 mos of OR has a __-__% reinfarction rate. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Surgery should be avoided with unstable angina, unless the surgery is what? |
|
Definition
coronary artery bypass -with bypass there is a decrease in danger of post-op infarction at about 1% |
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Term
There is no clear evidence of increased risk of complications with what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
A pt with a hx of DM, has an increased index of suspicion for what? |
|
Definition
occult cardiac pathology -increased risk of mortality after MI for DM compared to those without DM |
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|
Term
|
Definition
Ischemic event w/out symptoms with DM -often found: breathlessness, mild CHF |
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|
Term
If a pt has a hx of DM for 5-10 yrs, what percent have diffuse vascular changes? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If a pt has a hx of DM for >20 yrs, what percent have diffuse vascular changes? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does a pt with hx of rheumatic fever, prosthetic heart valve or other cardiac abns require? |
|
Definition
pre-op Abx prophylaxis to prevent endocarditis -dental: amoxicillin (or emycin or clindamycin with pcn allergy -GI/GU: amoxicillin (or vanco+gentamycin with pcn allergy) |
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|
Term
Dropps-American Surgical Association classify cardiac pts from I-V, what does this not identify? |
|
Definition
pts at risk for post-op MIs |
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|
Term
Define the five classes of cardiology pts. |
|
Definition
Class I: healthy Class II: mild to moderate systemic illness Class III: severe systemic disturbance Class IV: life threatening disturbance Class V: not expected to survive (with or without surgery) |
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Term
What are the 9 factors that play into Goldman's assessment of individual risk factors of myocardial infarction during surgery? |
|
Definition
third heart sound or JVD MI in past 6 mos rhythm other than sinus >5 PVCs/min age>70 yrs Emergency procedure Hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis Aortic, intraabdominal, intrathoracic procedure poor general health |
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|
Term
So, age alone then is not a RF HOWEVER for emergent intrathoracic, surgical risk factor is directly related to what? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is given to pts with CAD or risk factors for CAD pre-op and peri-op? |
|
Definition
beta blocker: Atenolol -reduces MI by 50% in the first 48 hrs -reduces the 2 year mortality from 21% to 10% |
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|
Term
Besides atenolol what else can decrease cardiac events, especially arrhtymias? |
|
Definition
maintaining perioperative normothermia |
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|
Term
Besides normothermia and atenolol, what third thing prevents cardiac events perioperatively? |
|
Definition
treatment of perioperative hypertension |
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|
Term
What is the most common cause of postop morbidity? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What surgical procedures come with increased pulmonary complications? |
|
Definition
abd sx with upper midline incision or involving dissection in upper abdomen any thoracotomy incision medial sternotomy longer surgery time |
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|
Term
abdominal incisions-->pain-->decreased fxn residual capacity---> increased what? |
|
Definition
pulmonary complication rate |
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|
Term
Anesthesia produces an __% reduction in functional residual capacity (FRC). |
|
Definition
11 -post-op coughing is also weakened which depresses mucociliary clearence. -depressed resp drive post-op -anticholinergic drugs thicken mucus -infection |
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|
Term
What type of colonization of upper airway occurs with tracheal intubation? by suction catheters? |
|
Definition
GN organisms nosocomial infections |
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|
Term
What else is increased secondary to anesthesia? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Smokers need to quit _ _____ prior to surgery. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What general factors predispose a pt to pulmonary complications? |
|
Definition
cigarette smoking asthma neuromuscular dz obesity nutritional depletion acidosis COPD Prolonged operative time hypoalbuminemia extended stay in the hospital (preoperative) chronic bronchitis occupational lung dz coma tracheal intubation hypotension hypoxemia azotemia age >60 yrs thoracic/ abd procedure. |
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|
Term
What pulmonary complications are you looking for when preoperatively evaluating a pt? |
|
Definition
pursed lip breathing, clubbing, cyanosis respiratory pattern chest wall A/P diameters |
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|
Term
An obese pt has decreased what (3)? and increased what (4) |
|
Definition
decreased lung capactiy, FRC, VC increased WOB/ATX/secretions/hypoxemia |
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|
Term
With unxeplained dyspnea, cough, reduced exercise tolerance, OSA, wheezes, rhonchi, increased expiratory time, decreased bowel sounds or loose rattle with forced cough the pt is ___ times more likely to develop pulmonary complications. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If the pt is over 40, what should be considered pre-operatively? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Is there a role for routine use of ABGs? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Who should have risks of death PNA, long term ventilation explained in full terms? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
When should formal pulmonary fxn tests be done? |
|
Definition
in any pt with significant abns |
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|
Term
|
Definition
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|
Term
Should a pt be denied a necessary procedure based on a hx of renal dz alone? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the electrolyte values in patients with renal dysfxn? |
|
Definition
increased: K, Mg, Phos decreased: Ca, HCO3 these labs are important to check before surgery bc they can be readily reversed by giving them bicarb or K-succinate |
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|
Term
What should be avoided with renal failure pts? |
|
Definition
nephrotoxic agents succinylcholine: causes increased K |
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|
Term
What needs to be monitored in renal dysfxn pts? |
|
Definition
volume status electrolytes BUN/Cr CBC |
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|
Term
What abx should bot be given to a pt with kidney failure? |
|
Definition
aminoglycosides and some others |
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|
Term
what can be done pre-op to improve electrolytes and volume status in renal failure pts? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In the MIVF (maintenance IV fluid), what electrolyte should not be included? when should MIVF be given? |
|
Definition
K should be given NPO -Be judicious with the MIVF (don't give them as much a you might give someone else bc they aren't excreting it as well) |
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|
Term
What is the cornerstone of mgmt of a pt with liver dz (with or without ascites)? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In pts with primary hepatic dysfunction, what happens to sodium levels? |
|
Definition
excretion of Na is decreased intravascular Na is also depleted
so not in the blood or being excreted!!! (need to Na restrict) |
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|
Term
Withdrawal symptoms occur within 1-5 days, what treatment can be done to help this? |
|
Definition
treat pt with benzos prophylactically |
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|
Term
Alcoholics have an altered platelet fxn, in what way? |
|
Definition
vitamin K dependent coag factors are decreased, causing increased bleeding -this can be seen as esophageal varices |
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|
Term
Why should thiamine be given in alcoholics? |
|
Definition
to help with vitamin deficiencies and to prevent ataxia, opthalm probs, confusion (Wernicke Korsakoff) -delirium tremens could kill pt |
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|
Term
What are the 3 etiologies of liver dz? |
|
Definition
nutritional (alcohol abuse) infectious idiopathic |
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|
Term
What is the lab work up of a surgical pt with liver failure? |
|
Definition
LFTs, hepatic screening (before surgery), PT/INR/PTT, platelets, bleeding time. |
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|
Term
with liver disease, you need to protect what you can during surgery, via what? |
|
Definition
FFP Vit K anticipate bleeding/complications. |
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|
Term
In a diabetic pt, what is desired before surgery? |
|
Definition
euglycemia or modest hyperglycemia -if blood glucose is too low, death is quick due to starvation of glucose dependent tissue (esp the brain) |
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|
Term
Diabetic pts are at an increased risk for what? |
|
Definition
metabolic problems CV problems infection |
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|
Term
What needs to be done with a diabetics meds perioperatively? |
|
Definition
change oral meds to insulin reduce AM insulin dose to 1/2 of regular or intermediate continuous infusion of D5 Fingerstick q6h, maintain 150-200 |
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|
Term
Although we don't want hypoglycemia in the diabetic pt, watch out for DKA (glucose is too high), what are the signs? What should you check for? |
|
Definition
mimics ileus: N/V/abd distention/polyuria check urine ketones |
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|
Term
What is DKA dependent on? |
|
Definition
on the absence of insulin (not on the presence of glucose) -give them IV insulin SQ |
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|
Term
Diabetic men are at a _x greater risk of CV mmortality and women are at a _x greater risk. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
With gastroparesis, have an increased chance of what? what should be done before these s/s develop? |
|
Definition
aspiration place an NG tube |
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|
Term
How is the diabetic at an increased risk for infection? |
|
Definition
hyperglycemia affects phagocytes warm medium with food for bacteria decreased blood flow w/ vascular pathology slows healing |
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|
Term
What two anatomical things need to be kept in mind with the pregnant patient? |
|
Definition
uterus can displace abdominal viscera IVC can be compressed |
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|
Term
What are the physiologic changes during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
increased HR, SV, plasma volume and Hgb decreased PCO2, gastric emtying |
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|
Term
Which trimester is the optimal time for surgery? |
|
Definition
2nd trimester 1st: risk of miscarriage is highest 3rd: uterus is too big |
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|
Term
The pt with a hemostatic disorder might have what on PE? |
|
Definition
ecchymosis HSM (Henoch Schonlein Purpura) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the halting of blood flow |
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|
Term
What are the lab tests of bleeding fxn? |
|
Definition
PT/INR: prothrombin time PTT partial thromboplastin time: intrinsic pathway and common pathway pltlt count quantifies pltlts TEG study |
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|
Term
What does a PT/INR measure? |
|
Definition
factor VII and common pathway factors -factor X, prothrombin/thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin |
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|
Term
What does the TEG studt measure? |
|
Definition
thrombosis tendencies -tests the efficiency of coagulation in the blood -tests how well or poorly different factors are contributing to clot formation -how wel lthe blood can perform hemostasis |
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|
Term
What are 4 iatrogenic anticoagulation agents? |
|
Definition
warfarin aspirin heparin thienopyridines |
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|
Term
How does warfarin work? how is it's effect measured? in general where do we want pts PT/INR? |
|
Definition
Blocks vit K dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) Effect measured with PT / INR In general, want patients < 1.5 |
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|
Term
How does aspirin affect coag? |
|
Definition
Irreversibly acetylates COX production, which blocks production of thromboxane A2
decreases platelet aggregation
Renders platelet dysfunctional for life |
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|
Term
The higher the INR, the _______ their blood is. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How are the effects of heparin measured? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What reaction might heparin cause? |
|
Definition
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia |
|
|
Term
Does lovenox require less or more frequent monitoring than heparin? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What does a thienopyridine inhibit? what is one example? |
|
Definition
ADP-induced pltlt aggregation Plavix (clopidogrel) |
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|
Term
Pregnancy is a _____coaguable state. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are 3 inherited bleeding disorders? |
|
Definition
hemophilia A hemophilia B (Christmas Dz) von Willebrand's Dz |
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|
Term
Hemophilia A involved which coag factor? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hemophilia B involves which coag factor? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
von Willebrand/s Dz is a deficiency of which coag factor? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What are the 3 purposes of the medical record? |
|
Definition
1. common and accessible place to record data and tx plan 2. transmit instruction about pt care record of events that occurred during patient care |
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|
Term
Should notes be used to relay messages among consultants about personal opinions? |
|
Definition
No, if disagree with plan, give reasons to support plan |
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|
Term
The medical record should not be repetitively documenting the tx course... when is this okay? |
|
Definition
in teaching hospitals with students, residents and attending physicians. |
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|
Term
What should be recorded in the input/output portion of a medical record? |
|
Definition
output of fluid from drain/tube fluid intake: surgical drain, tube. |
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|
Term
What should be recorded in the fluids portion of the medical record? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
There is a preop, operative and a post-op note, what all is included in the operative note? |
|
Definition
procedure diagnosis estimated blood loss (EBLs) crystalloid/ blood replaced anesthesia complications tubes drains disposition signature |
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|
Term
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Definition
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|
Term
What are the 4 types of GI tract tubes? |
|
Definition
nasogastric nasobiliary T-tube Gastrotomy tube Jejunostomy tube |
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|
Term
What does a nasogastric tube do? |
|
Definition
evacuates gastric contents for ileus/obstruction |
|
|
Term
What are the two types of NG tubes and what does each do? |
|
Definition
sump tube: prevents suction bw tube and gastric wall; continuous suction
non-sump tube: intermittent suction to break seal bw tube and gastric wall |
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|
Term
How do you confirm the placement of an NG tube? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
If you don't drain the stomach during an ileus or obstruction, what complications could occur? |
|
Definition
aspirations more obstruction nausea vomiting |
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|
Term
What is the fxn of a nasobiliary tube? How is it placed? |
|
Definition
drains biliary tree when there is an obstruction (stone, tumor, stricture, fistula) it is placed endoscopically |
|
|
Term
What is the fxn of the t-tube? |
|
Definition
it is placed within the common bile duct to drain bile |
|
|
Term
What does a gastrotomy tube (PEG or G-tube) used for? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is a jejunostomy tube (J-tube) used for? |
|
Definition
used for feeding -bypasses stomach and tube feeds directly into the intestine |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 respiratory tract tubes? |
|
Definition
chest tube endotracheal tube tracheostomy tube. |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of a chest tube? |
|
Definition
placed into pleural cavity to evacuate air, blood or fluid |
|
|
Term
A chest tube is connected to a three-chamber system, what are those three chambers? |
|
Definition
collecting chamber suction system (permits constant suction) water seal (prevents air entering into pleural space) |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of an endotracheal tube? |
|
Definition
short term mechanical ventilation |
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of a tracheostomy tube? |
|
Definition
placed directly into trachea used for long term mechanical ventilation |
|
|
Term
What is the goal as soon as you get a pt off of a ventilator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 urinary tract tubes? |
|
Definition
bladder/foley catheter nephrostomy tube |
|
|
Term
When and where is the bladder/foley cath placed? |
|
Definition
when pt undergoing trauma or surgery, so pt doesn't contaminate the bed. placed directly into the bladder |
|
|
Term
Where is the neprhostomy tube placed, and what does it do? |
|
Definition
into the renal pelvis (above ureter) drains urine above an obstruction |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 types of surgical drains? |
|
Definition
closed suction sump suction drain passive tube (Penrose) |
|
|
Term
What are the two types of closed suction drains? |
|
Definition
Jackson Pratt: connected to a collapsable bulb
Hemovac:connected to a compressible box on a spring |
|
|
Term
What do closed suction drains do? |
|
Definition
evacuate actual or potential fluid collections. |
|
|
Term
What type of suction does the sump suction drain do? |
|
Definition
continuous suction used when drainage is thick |
|
|
Term
What type of drainage does passive tube (penrose) do? |
|
Definition
maintains a pathway for fluid to follow without suction |
|
|
Term
What is primary intention wound healing? |
|
Definition
wound edges have been apposed (sutures, staples, dermal adhesive) |
|
|
Term
What is secondary intention wound healing? |
|
Definition
wound edges left unapposed. -moist gauze packed into wound/ tract to heal from inside out (ie abscess) |
|
|
Term
With regards to pain management and the intubated pt, how much is enough? |
|
Definition
enough to be kept comfortable but not overly sedated |
|
|
Term
Post-op, when is pain the worse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can PAs write narcotics in the state of tn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Virchow's triad defines the risk factors for DVT, what are they? |
|
Definition
venous stasis -due to alterations in blood flow (varicose veins, immobility)
hypercoaguability -pregnancy, malignancy
Vessel injury -trauma and venipuncture |
|
|
Term
What is used for chemical DVT prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
heparin low molecular weight heparin (lovenox) |
|
|
Term
If giving a pt heparin, and they have had heparin induced thrombocytopenia before, what should you do? |
|
Definition
pltlt count check at least every other day |
|
|
Term
Lovenox tends to be used except when? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Lovenox should be checked every _ days, while heparin is everyday. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used for mechanical DVT prophylaxis? |
|
Definition
IPC (Intermittent Pneumatic Compression) Devices -prevents blood stasis |
|
|
Term
What 5 post-op complications are we worried about? |
|
Definition
malignant hyperthermia atelectasis surgical wound failure (dehiscence) surgical site infections fever |
|
|
Term
What is malignant hyperthermia? |
|
Definition
Life threatening autosomal dominant condition resulting in disruption of the calcium release channel (ryanodine receptor)
-massive build up of intracellular calcium-muscle contraction -heat production -acidosis |
|
|
Term
What does malignant hyperthermia lead to? |
|
Definition
violent and sustained muscle contractions leading to rhabdo and muscle necrosis |
|
|
Term
What are some triggers of malignant hyperthermia? |
|
Definition
inhalational halogenated anesthetic agents succinylcholine (depolarizing muscle relaxant) |
|
|
Term
What are the first signs of malignant hyperthermia? |
|
Definition
abrupt rise in end tidal carbon dioxide temp elevation may not present for up to 36 hrs. |
|
|
Term
After you discontinue the offending agent, how is malignant hyperthermia treated? |
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Definition
dantrolene (m. relaxant blocks calcium release) |
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Term
What is the supportive care of malignant hyperthermia? |
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Definition
mechanical ventilation to correct respiratory component of acidosis |
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Term
Atelectasis is the _____ _______ of alveoli of lung. |
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Definition
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Term
How can atelectasis be prevented? |
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Definition
inspiratory exercises re-expansion techniques (incentive spirometer) early mobilization to help improve lung inflation |
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Term
Who does micro-collapse hapen to? |
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Definition
pretty much anybody under anesthesia, that's why you want to take preventative measures to prevent atelectasis |
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Term
What is surgical wound failure (dehiscence)? |
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Definition
disruption in fascial closure of wound -force exerted across the wound is greater than the strength off the suture. |
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Term
What can cause dehiscence? |
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Definition
sutures being closed too tightly resulting in ischemia of tissue |
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Term
What is the first sign of wound failure? |
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Definition
copious serous fluid drainage |
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Term
Can dehiscience of abd closure have evisceration of abd organs? what should you do? |
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Definition
yes -cover with sterile towels soaked in saline and return to operating room immediately |
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Term
What can dehiscience be a sign of? |
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Definition
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Term
What are 5 signs of surgical site infection? |
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Definition
Redness (rubor) Swelling (tumor) Localized heat/erythema (calor) Increased pain (dolor) Tachycarida may be first sign |
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Term
When is a fever a high enough to initiate investigation? |
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Definition
101.5 (per UT) 38.3 C or 100.9 F (per the book) |
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Term
What are some nosocomial causes of a fever? |
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Definition
Ventilator associated pneumonia Catheter related sepsis-gram negative Clostridium difficile colitis Complicated wound infectinos |
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Term
What are some non-infectious causes of fever? |
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Definition
post-transfusion MI Subarachnoid hemorrhage IV contrast reaction DVT |
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Term
The increase in metabolic demand that is associated with fever is poorly tolerated in who? |
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Definition
elderly cardiac pulmonary conditions |
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