Term
Which collagen is typically deficient in Ehler's Danlos Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Type III
collagen of blood vessels, skin, uterus and granulation tissue
[image] |
|
|
Term
What action does the Sympathetic Nervous System have on the eyes?
The parasympathetic? |
|
Definition
- Sympathetic : Mydriasis (d for dilation, big word, big pupil)
Parasympathetic: Miosis
[image] |
|
|
Term
What Cranial nerves innnervate the tongue in the following ways:
Taste in anterior 2/3:
Taste in posterior 1/3
Motor:
Sensation in Anterior 2/3:
Sensation in Posterior 1/3: |
|
Definition
Taste in anterior 2/3: Facial
Taste in posterior 1/3: Glossopharyngeal
Motor: Hypoglossal
Sensation in Anterior 2/3: Trigeminal (Mandibular diision-Lingual n)
Sensation in Posterior 1/3:Glossopharyngeal
[image] |
|
|
Term
What effect to salivary glands does Sympathetic and Parasympathetic tone have? |
|
Definition
Sympathetic: more viscous secretion *think of nervous lecturer needing a lot of water*
Parasympathetic: watery secretion (to aid in mastication and digestion) |
|
|
Term
What effect does sympathetic and parasympathetic tone have on bronchiolar smooth muscle? |
|
Definition
Sympathetic: relaxation (think of epi pen for asthma attacks)
Parasympathetic: Contraction (anti-parasymapthetics for asthma attacks) |
|
|
Term
What effect does Sympathetic and Parasympathetic on the penis? |
|
Definition
Parasympathetic: Point (erection)
Sympathetic: Shoot (ejaculation) |
|
|
Term
Nictonic and muscarinic receptors are both _____ receptors.
Nicotinic receptors are specifically _____ receptors.
Muscarinic receptors are specifically______ receptors. |
|
Definition
both are Acetylcholine receptors
Nicotinic is a ligated Na/K channel receptor, while muscarinic are G-protein coupled receptors
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of EXCESS Parasympathetic activity? |
|
Definition
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm
Bradycardia
Excitation of skeletal muscle/CNS
Lacrimation
Sweating
Salivation
DUMBBELSS |
|
|
Term
Name the 4 direct cholinergic agonists ad their function. |
|
Definition
aka muscarinic agonists
cholinomimetics: mimic ACh:directly activates receptor
Beth Can Pile Meth
Bethanachol: activates Bladder and Bowel; tx for post op, neurogenic ileus and urinary retention
Carbachol: Copy of ACh; tx for glaucoma, IOP, pupillary contraction
Pilocarpine: tx for open and closed angle glaucoma, resistant to ACHesterase
potent stimulator of sweat, tears and saliva
Methacholine: test dx for asthma; stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled |
|
|
Term
Name the 5 Indirect cholinergic agonists and their function. |
|
Definition
cholinomimetic
aka indirect muscarinic agonists
prevent the breakdown of ACh at nerve terminal: increasing endogenous ACh
Neostygmine: postop and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, Myasthenia grais, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade post op (No CNS penetration)
Pyridostygmine: long acting myasthenia gravis ; No CNS penetration
Edrophonium: extremely shot acting used for dx of myasthenia gravis
Physostigmine: anticholinergic (atropine overdose) toxicity ; physiologically crosses blood brain barrier
Donepizil: Alzheimer's "Done forget"
|
|
|
Term
With ALL cholinomimetics, watch for excacerbation of what 3 things? |
|
Definition
COPD
Asthma
Peptic ulcers |
|
|
Term
How do you treat organophophate poisoning? |
|
Definition
Atropine & Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
pralidoxime regenerates active AChesterase
Organophosphates, like insecticides (parathion) inhibit AChesterase so you get parasympathetic excess (DUMBBELSS) |
|
|
Term
What is Myasthenia Gravis and how do you diagnose and treat it? |
|
Definition
An autoimmune diesase that leads to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue cuased by circulating antibodies to ACh recptors that block ACh from binding to the receptors
Dx: ephodrium (if symptoms improve, positve)
Tx:pyridostigmine, thymectomy, steroids, plasmaphoresis
often pts have thymic hyperplasia, atrophy or tumor (thymoma)
crisis: weakness of respiratory muscles
[image]
ptosis that worsens throughout the day is a common manifestation, diplopia
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of inhibiting parasympathetic activity? |
|
Definition
Hot as a hare: hyperpyrexia
Dry as a bone: dry mouth, urine retention
Red as a beet: flushing (can't sweat)
Blind as a bat: cyclopegia, mydriasis
Mad as a hatter: delirium
Bloated as a toad: ileus(constipation), urine retention
tachycardia
|
|
|
Term
What is Atropine and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
muscarinic ANTAGONIST
used to treat:
bradycardia (beta blocker overdose ex.)
dilate pupils and produce cyclopegia for eye exams
decrease airway secretions (intubation etc..)
|
|
|
Term
Name the 9 muscarinic antagonists and what they are used for. |
|
Definition
Atropine: bradycardia, dilation of pupils and cyclopegia for eye exams
Homoatropine:dilation of pupils and cyclopegia for eye exams
Tropicamide:dilation of pupils and cyclopegia for eye exams
Benzotropine: Parkinson's disease (Park my Benz or I benz so shaky)
Scopolamine: motion sickness
Ipratropium, Tiotropium: COPD, asthma ( I pray Tio can breathe)
Oxybutinin: reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms
Glyc-opyrrolate: parenteral: pre-op- reduce airway secretions
oral: drooling, pepetic ulcers
|
|
|
Term
What patient populations is Atropine use contraindicated? |
|
Definition
Alzheimers
Huntingtons
BPH
Hyperthermia (especially infants)
Glaucoma
Elderly with delerium or dementia
Ileus or GI obstruction |
|
|
Term
What drugs interact with anticholinergics? |
|
Definition
Antihistamines (Diphenydramine)
Parkinson's drugs (Benzotrpine, Amantidine)
TCAs (Amitryptiline)
Neuroleptics (Haloperidol)
may all enhance the effects |
|
|
Term
A 30 year old schizophrenic man now has urinary retention due to his neuroleptic. What do you treat him with? |
|
Definition
A cholinergic agonist like bethanechol |
|
|
Term
What drug is used in urge incontinence? |
|
Definition
Oxybutinin: muscarinic antagonist |
|
|
Term
What genes are responsible for skeletal development? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice to treat narcolepsy? |
|
Definition
Modafinil (psychostimulant)
with scheduled daytime naps |
|
|
Term
How would you treat absence siezures? |
|
Definition
aka petit mal seizures
treat with ethosuximide or sodium valproate |
|
|
Term
What drives the transport of choline into the presynaptic cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What inhibits choline transport int the presynaptic cell?
What drives choline transport into the cell? |
|
Definition
hemicholinium inhibits
Na is required
[image] |
|
|
Term
What happens with choline immediately after its transported into the presynaptic cell?
|
|
Definition
Acetyl CoA + choline are combined by the enzyme
choline acetyltransferase and packaged into vesicles
[image] |
|
|
Term
What inhibits the packaging of Acetylcholine into vesicles within the presynpatic cell? |
|
Definition
Vesamicol : No ami (love)"Vesicol" for Acetylcholine
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is required for Acetylcholine that is packaged in vesicles to be released to the synapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Name some important functions of Ca in the body. |
|
Definition
cardiac muscle contraction
vesicle release
NT release
platelet functioning
activation of clotting cascade
smooth mucle contraction
skeletal contraction
bone
......on and on and on
|
|
|
Term
What can stimulate the release of Acetylcholine into the synapse? |
|
Definition
Black Widow spider toxin
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
What can inhibit the release of Acetylcholine into the synapse? |
|
Definition
Botulinum
CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM causing descending flaccid paralysis
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 fates of Acetylcholine once released into the synapse? |
|
Definition
a-bind to ACh receptor
b-bind to ACh autoreceptor on the presynaptic cell
c- diffuse away
d- degradation by AChesterase |
|
|
Term
How is Norepinephrine made? start from the begininng |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What cofactors are needed to make Catecholamines? |
|
Definition
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)
Vitamin C (Ascorbate)
know these especially and where on the timeline
know both names as well
[image] |
|
|
Term
What inhibits the enzyme that converts Tyrosine to DOPA? |
|
Definition
Metyrosine inhibits Tyrosine hydroxylase
[image] |
|
|
Term
What inhibits the packaging of NE into the vesicle in the presynaptic cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is required for the NE in the vesicle to be released into the synapse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What substances can stimulate the release of NE into the synapse? |
|
Definition
Ephedrines
Tyramine Amphetamines
think "ETA of NE is increased "
[image] |
|
|
Term
What substances can inhibit the release of NE into the synapse? |
|
Definition
Guanethidine
Bretylium
Go Back NE
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the 4 fates of NE after release into the synapse? |
|
Definition
autoreceptors:
a2 & m2:binding these on presynaptic cell inhibits more release of NE
AT-II: autoreceptor that stimulates more release of NE
postsynpatic cell receptor
a1, B1
reuptake into presynaptic cell
metabolized and dumped in urine
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What inhibits NE reuptake into the presynaptic cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What enzymes can metabolize NE, and how do they do it?
What will you see in the urine? |
|
Definition
COMT: methylates NE
MAO: oxidizes NE
will see metabolites: VMA, Metanephrine and Normetanephrine in the urine
|
|
|
Term
Which type of G-protein activates phospholipase C? |
|
Definition
Gq the "Cutesy" protein for
Phospholipase C
Calcium
Protein Kinase C |
|
|
Term
Which receptors are linked to Gq proteins? |
|
Definition
Histamine-1
Alpha-1
Vasopressin-1
M1 & M3
"Gq Cutesy's HAVe 1 M&M"
|
|
|
Term
What does binding to a1 receptors illicit? |
|
Definition
vasoconstriction-->increase PR-->increase BP
mydriasis
increase intestinal and bladder sphincter contraction
[image] |
|
|
Term
What G protein is linked to alpha-2 receptors and what rsponse do they illicit? |
|
Definition
Gi: inhibits sympathetic outflow
vasodilation
(remember it inhibits NE release as an autoreceptor on the presynaptic cell) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What G protein and second messenger is linked to Beta receptors? |
|
Definition
Gs-->Adenyly cyclase-->cAMP-->PKA
[image] |
|
|
Term
Match the G protein with each receptor:
alpha1
alpha2
beta1
beta2
M1
M2
M3
D1
D2
H1
H2
V1
V2
|
|
Definition
alpha1-q
alpha2-i
beta1-s
beta2-s
M1-q
M2-i
M3-q
D1-s
D2-i
H1-q
H2-s
V1-q
V2-s
"QISS (kiss) and QIQ (kick) til ur SIQ (sick) of SQS (Super kinky Sex)" |
|
|
Term
Which Histamine receptor increases gastric acid secretion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antihistamines taken for pruritis and congestion block which histamine receptor? |
|
Definition
H1 receptor: increases nasal and bronchial mucus, contaction of bronchioles, pruritis and pain |
|
|
Term
What do D1 and D2 receptors do? |
|
Definition
D1: relax renal vascular smooth muscle
D2: modulates transmitter release, esp in brain |
|
|
Term
Describe functions of these receptors
M1
M2
M3 |
|
Definition
M1:CNS enteric ganglion
M2: decrease HR and contractility of atria
M3: increase exocrine secretions, increase gut persitalsis, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle constriction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction accomodation |
|
|
Term
ADH works on which receptors? What do they do? |
|
Definition
V1:increases vascular smooth muscle contraction
V2:Increases water permeabilty and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney
Vasopressin: presses vasos (contraction) and presses in AQPs |
|
|
Term
Which G protein inhibits Adenylyl cyclase? |
|
Definition
Gi protein inhibits Adenylyl cyclase-->decreases cAMP--> decreases PKA "MAD 2s" M2,Alpha2,D2 RECEPTORS and PKA |
|
|
Term
Name the hormones that come from these glands and what they do:
Pineal:
Hypothalamus
Pituitary (distinguish Anterior and Posterior):
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Adrenal
Pancreas
Ovaries
Testes
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What hormone increases blood glucose levels, suppresses immune system and decreases protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does Calcitonin come from and what does it do? |
|
Definition
Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland
Calcitonin stimulates osteoblasts, decreases plasma calcium levels
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which hormones work by cAMP messenger system? |
|
Definition
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
MSH
CRH
B-HCG
ADH
PTH
calcitonin
GHRH
glucagon
|
|
|
Term
Which hormones use cGMP pathway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which hormones use IP3 pathway? |
|
Definition
GnRH
ADH
oxytocin
TRH
Histamine
Gastrin
Ang II
|
|
|
Term
What are the effects of increasing sex hormone binding globulin in a male? |
|
Definition
Steroid hormones, like sex hormone testosterone, have to be bound to binding proteins to pass through blood. The bound form is inactive; therefore, increasing the amount of globulins would lower the amount of free/active testosterone in a male resulting in gynecomastia and hypogonadism
normal to high levels of TOTAL testosterone
Low levels of FREE testosterone
[image] |
|
|
Term
What would be the effects of decreasing sex binding globulins in a woman? |
|
Definition
more free/active testosterone resulting in hursutism, irregular periods..
[image] |
|
|
Term
Where are steroid binding globulins made? |
|
Definition
like most blood proteins, they are made in the Liver
[image] |
|
|
Term
What inhibits prolactin? What drug is associated with prolactin inhibition?
What can promote prolactin secretion? |
|
Definition
dopamine (from arcuate nucleus of hypohalamus) inhibits prolactin
stress
bromocriptine is a dopamine analogue
_____________________________________
neuroleptics antagonize dopamine and increase prolactin secretion
nipple stimulation can prolactinomas can increase prolactin secretion also |
|
|
Term
What is the downstream mediator of Growth Hormone?
What inhibits GH? |
|
Definition
downstream mediator: IGF-1
inhibitor: somatostatin |
|
|
Term
What are the embryologic origins of: Posterior pituitary
Anterior Pituitary
|
|
Definition
Posterior Pituitary: neuroectoderm
Anterior Pituitar: Surface ectoderm (Rathke's pouch)
[image] |
|
|
Term
Why do pts with Addison's disease have increased pigmentation? |
|
Definition
low levels of cortisol cause the Pituitary gland to pump out a lot of ACTH which is made in conjunction with MSH(both from POMC
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which hormones share a common alpha subunit? |
|
Definition
"The BETA Family Love alphas"
TSH
Beta-HCG
FSH
LH |
|
|
Term
A 50 year old woman complains of double vision, amenorrhea and headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Prolactinoma
remember prolactinomas usually cause hypogonadism leading to amenorrhea and infertilty in both men and premenopausal women
no symptoms in postmenopausal women
gynecomastia in men
rarely see galactorrhea at all
|
|
|
Term
What kind of visual defect do pituitary adenomas usually cause? |
|
Definition
bitemporal hemianopsia
[image]
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What is Sheehan's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What hormone is responsible for contracting the uterus down after delivery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A pregnant woman comes in with skin changes seen below. What is this called and what do you tell her?
[image] |
|
Definition
Melasma: mask of pregnancy, normal, occurs because increased estrogens during pregnancy can produce more MSH production |
|
|
Term
What are some clincal symptoms of acromegaly?
|
|
Definition
Acromegaly caused by excess GH in adults: coarse face, large hands and feet, increased spacing in teeth due to large tongue, deep voice, impaired glucose tolerance
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are some clinical uses of somatostatin? |
|
Definition
Pituitary excess:Acromegaly, TSH-secreting tumor, ACTH-secreting tumor
GI endocrine excess: (Carcinoid syndrome, Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome, VIPoma, Glucagonoma, Insulinoma)
Diarrheal diseases (off label) not FDA approved
Reduce splanchnic circulation (off label): portal HTN with varices, bleeding peptic ulcers
|
|
|
Term
What are the layers of the Adrenal Cotex and what is synthesized in each layer? |
|
Definition
Glomerulosa: Mineralcoritcosteroids
Fasiculata: Glucocorticosteroids
Reticularis: Androgens
[image] |
|
|
Term
What induces the development of Type II pneumocytes and the development of surfactant in the developing fetus lung? |
|
Definition
Cortisol from the fetal adrenal gland |
|
|
Term
What is the most common adult tumor of the adrenal medulla?
|
|
Definition
Pheochromocytoma
can cause episodic tachycardia and hypertension
most are unilateral, in adults, benign, idiopathic
look for catechlamine metablites in serum and urine: VMA, Metanephrine, HVA, Normetanephrine
Tx: alphablocker (HTN) and beta blocker (Tachycardia) together and surgery
Symptoms: sympathetic overdrive: Panic attacks, Polycythemia(increase erythropoietin), Pain (headache), Pressure (BP), Pallor, Perfusion (sweating), Palpitations (tachycardia)
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
What stimulates the begininng of steroid synthesis |
|
Definition
ACTH: stimulates Desmolase to convert cholesterol to pregnenolone
[image] |
|
|
Term
What can inhibit desmolase? |
|
Definition
Ketoconazole : antifungal
inhibits cholesterol(ergosterol) formation |
|
|
Term
Outline the Pathway from Acetate to Aldosterone including enzymes |
|
Definition
Acetate-->
Cholesterol
(desmolase)
pregnenolone
(3-beta-hyroxysteroid dehydrogenase)
Progesterone
(21-alpha hydroxylase)
Deoxycorticosterone
(11beta-hydroxylase)
Corticosterone
(aldosterone synthetase)
Aldosterone
D-3-21-11-A |
|
|
Term
Outline the pathway from Acetate to Cortisol including enzymes |
|
Definition
Acetate
Cholesterol
(desmolase)
pregnenolone
(17alpha-hydroxylase)
17alpha-OH Pregenenolone
(3beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase)
17alpha-OH Progesterone
(21-alpha hydroxylase)
11-Deoxycortisol
(11beta- hydroxylase)
Cortisol
D-17-3-21-11
|
|
|
Term
Outline the pathway from Acetate to DHT including enzymes |
|
Definition
Acetate
Cholesterol
(desmolase)
Pregnenolone
(17alpha hydroxylase)
17alpha OH-Prognenolone
DHEA
(3beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase)
Androstenedione
Testosterone
(5alpha reductase)
DHT
D-17-3-5 |
|
|
Term
What enzyme makes Estrogen? |
|
Definition
Aromatase
estrogen is an 18 carbon molecule |
|
|
Term
What features characterize a deficiency in 17-alpha hydroxylase? |
|
Definition
Inability to produce sex hormones and cortisol and an excess of mineralcorticoid preoduction:
phenotypic female
no secondary sex characteristics
HTN
(1 in the first digit: HTN)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What features characterize a deficiency in 21-alpha hydroxylase? |
|
Definition
Inabilty to produce cortisol and mineralcorticosteroids
increased production of sex hormones
-elevated ACTH (no cortisol feedback)
-HYPOtension (no aldosterone)
-masculinization
(1 in the Second digit _ _: masculinization) |
|
|
Term
Wha features characterize 11-Beta hydroxylase deficiency? |
|
Definition
Inability to produce cortisol, aldosterone and corticosterone
increased DEOXYCORTICOSTERONE-->HTN
masculinization (increased sex hormones)
(1 in the first digit : HTN
1 in the second digit: masculinization)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
senses stress by optimizing the brain function in the following ways:
upregulates alpha1 receptors in arterioles:increase blood pressure
decreases bone formation for more calcium into blood:can cause osteoperosis chronically
anti-inflammaory & immune suppression (causes rebound leukocytosis): inhibits production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins, inhibits leukocyte adhesion, blocks histamine release from mast cells, reduces eoisinophils, blocks IL-2 production
stimulate gluconeogenesis in liver but also increases insulin resistance peripherally to preserve for the brain and RBCs: can exacerbate diabetes
increases lipolysis and proteolysis for more buiding blocks for energy
decrease collagen synthesis: thin the skin
increases apoptosis
|
|
|
Term
What would you give to a patient that is on long term steroids if you want to prevent osteoperosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Cushing's Syndrome? What causes it? |
|
Definition
excess cortisone.
#1 cause: steroid use
#2 cause: Cushings disease: ACTH producing tumor in pituitary
other causes: ectopic ACTH tumor (very high levels of ACTH)
(small cell lung cancer, bronchiole carcinoid tumor etc..)
adrenal adenoma secreting cortisol (low ACTH from feedback inhibition)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of endogenous cortisol? |
|
Definition
easy bruisability
tinninng of the skin
osteoperosis
adrenal-cortico atrophy
peptic ulcers
diabetes
immunosuppression
psychosis
insomnia
Cushing's syndome
|
|
|
Term
What are some forms of exogenous cortisone (drugs)? |
|
Definition
Hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
Prednisone
Triamcinolone
Dexamethasone
Beclomethasone
long acting highlighted
|
|
|
Term
What cells does Aldosterone work on? And what does it do? |
|
Definition
Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and K secretion primarily at the principal cells of the collecting tubules and at the sweat glands
Increases sodium reabsorption in the gut
increases blood volume and pressure
decreases heart contractility
|
|
|
Term
Why would you give Spironolactone to a patient with Heart failure? |
|
Definition
Sprinolactone is a K-sparing diuretic that acts as against aldosterone to prevent your body from absorbing too much salt and keeps your potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to diagnose and treat a condition in which you have too much aldosterone in your body.
Spironolactone also treats fluid retention (edema) in people with congestive heart failure because it decreases preload
Also used in cirrhosis of the liver, or a kidney disorder called nephrotic syndrome. This medication is also used to treat or prevent hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood).
|
|
|
Term
What stimulates Aldosterone secretion? |
|
Definition
High K levels
Angiotensin II |
|
|
Term
What drug would you give a patient that is deficient of Aldosterone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose and figure out the cause of yor patients Cushings Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Dexamethosone test
healthy patient: cortisol is suppresed
ACTH producing pituiary tumor low dose: elevated levels remain
ACTH producing pituitary tumor High Dose:cortisol is suppressed
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
primary hyperaldosteronism
increased BP
hypokalemia
metabolic alkalosis
low plasma renin (negative feedback inhibition)
|
|
|
Term
What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?
Treatment? |
|
Definition
Hyperaldosteronism caused by the kidneys hyersecretion of renin bc the JGA senses low volume due to:
renal artery stenosis
chronic renal failure
congestive heart failure
nephrotic syndrome
cirrhosis
Tx: spirinolactone (K sparing diurteics/aldosterone antagonist)
|
|
|
Term
What is Addison's disease? |
|
Definition
A primary adrenal insufficiency disease usually autoimmune causing adrenal atrophy
sx: hypotension
hyponatremia
hyperkalemia
weakness, fatigue
Anorexia
weightloss
hyperpigentation (MHS produced in excess with ACTH)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Acute primary adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage associated with Neisseria Meningitidis septic shock
characterized by acute pulmonary insufficiency petechial rash and coagulopathies, DIC
Tx: Fludrocortisone and Cortisol
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What would you see in a patient wih secondary adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
low cotisol
pituitary is not making ACTH
(no hyperpigmenation, no hypokalemia because you have sufficient Aldosterone-kidney can still make renin and trigger aldosterone synthesis)
|
|
|
Term
What causes Tertiary Adrenal Insufficiency? |
|
Definition
Abrupt withdrawal of exogenous steroids
--hypothalamus stops making CRH, and when the person stops taking meds they wont make endogenous cortisol right away)
low endogenous cortisol levels is main clinical sign
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in kids?
What is elevated? what is the oncogene associated?
What is the tumor marker and what is seen on immunohistochemical stain?
What is sigificant histlogically? |
|
Definition
Adrenal Neuroblastoma
can occur anywhere along the sympathetic chain
neural crest origin cell
elevated HVA
N-MYC oncogene
Bombesin tumor marker
neurofilament immunohistochemical stain
Homer-Wright Rosette (see slide)
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasias
MEN I: Pituitary, Pancreas, Parathyroid
MEN IIA: Parathyroids, Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Cancer
MEN IIB: Medullary Thyroid Cancer, Pheochromocytoma, Mucosal Neuromas or GI tumors
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
What tumor locations are associated with MEN I, MEN IIa & MEN IIb? |
|
Definition
MEN I: Pituitary, Pancreas, Parathyroid
MEN IIA: Parathyroids, Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Cancer
MEN IIB: Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Cancer, Mucosal Neuromas or GI tumors
|
|
|
Term
What does low dose Epinephrine do? |
|
Definition
mostly stimulates beta receptors :
increase heart rate and contractility (beta1)
and vasodilation (beta2)
they balance each other so NO EFFECT ON BP |
|
|
Term
What does high dose Epinephine do? |
|
Definition
Stimulates alpha1 and beta1 mostly
increases heart rate & contractility
vasoconstriction
increase in BP and increase HR
given as an agent to raise blood pressure in the setting od shock, severe hypotension |
|
|
Term
What does Norepinephrine do? |
|
Definition
primarily alpha1
vasocontriction--> elevates BP-->reflex bradycrdia
use for SEPTIC SHOCK
|
|
|
Term
What is the pressor of choice in a patient with septic shock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is isoproterenol used for? |
|
Definition
has beta 1 and beta 2 action
increase HR and reflexive tachycardia from vasodilation
used for AV block
not commonly used anymore |
|
|
Term
What is dopamine used for as a drug? |
|
Definition
direct sympathomimetic
low dose:D1-augment renal blood flow so use in conjunction with Norepinephrine to treatment of shock to prevent renal damage (not sure if beneficial)
medium dose: D1 and Beta-1: cardiogenic shock
high dose: D1, Beta-1, Alpha-1 vasoconstriction septic shock |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
primarily Beta 1- will increase contractility and HR
CHONO and IONO- tropic
cardiogenic shock
heart failure exacerbtion
cardiac stress test |
|
|
Term
What is phenylephrine used for? |
|
Definition
alpha-1 agonist
decongestant
vasoconstriction of sinuses
can also raise BP so dont give to HTN pts.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Alpha-1 agonist
vasoconstriction of sinuses but can also
raise blood pressure so dont give to HTN pts |
|
|
Term
What direct sympathomimetics are used for asthma and COPD? |
|
Definition
Albuterol
Levalbuterol
selective B2 agonists with some B1 effects
some tachycardia |
|
|
Term
Which direct sympathomimetic is used for reducing uterine contractions and delaying labor? |
|
Definition
Terbutaline
selective B2 agonists |
|
|
Term
What would you use Ephedrine or Amphetamines for? |
|
Definition
they are indirect sympathomimetics and stimulate te release of stored catecholamines (NE) into the synapse?
Excessive daytime sleepiness
obesity
ADD
Major Depressive Disorder
|
|
|
Term
What is Cocaine theoretically good for clinically? |
|
Definition
Causes vasoconstriction in a localized area: anesthesia so the local anethetic can't diffuse away rapidly |
|
|
Term
Name the direct sympathomimetics and their applications |
|
Definition
life DEPIND on it
Epinephrine:anaphylaxis shock, glaucoma (open), asthma, hypotension
Norepinephrine: hypotension, shock
Dopamine: shock (renal perfusion), heart failure, inotropic and chonotropic
Isoproterenol: torsade de poines, bradyarrythmias (can worsen ischemia)
Dobutamine: beta 1-heart failure, cardiac stress test, ionotropic and chonotropic
Phenylephrine: hypotension, ocular procedures, rhinitis
Salmeterol:long tem asthma, COPD
Albuterol: acute asthma
Metaproterenol: acute asthma
(SAM)
(Slow like a Tertle Ritard)
Terbutaline: reduce premature uterine contractions
Ritodrine:reduce premature uterine contractions |
|
|
Term
Name the indirect sympathomimetics and their applications |
|
Definition
If you take these indirectly, you will ACE your exam ;)lol
Amphetamine: narcolepsy, obesity, ADD
Ephedrine: nasal decongestant, urinary incontinence, hypotension
Cocaine: causes vasoconstricion and local anesthesia *(never give with Beta blockers--can cause EXTREME HTN from unopposed alpha 1 activation)* |
|
|
Term
Name the sympathoplegics and their applications |
|
Definition
Clonidine & alpha-methyldopa:
alpha2 agonist: decreases central sympathetic outflow: HTN especially with renal disease bc doesn't decrease blood flow to kidneys |
|
|
Term
Explain the actions of Norepinephrine and Isoproterenol on MAP and Heart Rate |
|
Definition
NE: alpha 1 agonist action causes vasoconstriction which increases both systolic and diastolic pressures--> MAP increases-->baroreceptors fire-->reflex bradycardia
NET EFFECT: increase MAP, decrease HR
(remember NE has no B2 action)
____________________________________
Isoproterenol: Beta-1 and 2 agonist causes vasodilation -->decrease MAP-->increase HR by both beta1 and reflex response
NET EFFECT: decrease MAP, increase HR |
|
|
Term
Name the alpha 1 selective blockers and their applications |
|
Definition
Prazosin
Terazosin
Doxazosin
Tamsulosin* (flomax)
for HTN and urinary retention in BPH
SIDE EFFECTS: 1st dose orthostatic Hypotension, dizziness, headache
[image] |
|
|
Term
Name the nonselective alpha1 blockers and their applications |
|
Definition
Phenoxybenzamine(irrerversible):
pheochromocytoma
[image][image]
Phentolamine(reversible):
pts on MAOIs that eat tyramine containing foods (fermented, ripe foods)
[image][image]
side effects for both: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia |
|
|
Term
Name the alpha 2 blockers and their applications |
|
Definition
Mirtazipine: depression -specifically pts that don't sleep well or eat well bc of side effects
side effects: sedation, increased cholesterol, increased appetite |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of Epiniphrine combined with an alpha 1 blocker? |
|
Definition
decreased blood pressure
explanation: alpha blocker will block the vasoconstiction, but Epinephrine will still bind to beta receptors. Beta 2 will cause vasodilation and decrease blood pressure while beta 1 will increase HR |
|
|
Term
What is the effect on blood pressure if you give phenylephrine with an alpha 1 blocker? |
|
Definition
none
explanation: phenylephrine mainly acts on alpha 1 receptors, so an alpha 1 blocker will simply cancel out the effects and there will be no change in BP |
|
|
Term
Name the Beta1 selective blockers and their applications |
|
Definition
A BEAM
Acebutlol
Betaxolol
Esmolol (short acting for SVT)
Atenolol
Metoprolol (SVT)
*these are best in pts with comorbid pulmonary disease*
applications:
angina pectoris: decreases O2 consumption
MI: decrease mortality
SVT: decreases AV conduction velocity
HTN:decrease cardiac output
decrease renin secretion
CHF: slows progression of chronic failure (wouldn't use this if acute heart failure-use the opposite like dobutamine) |
|
|
Term
What drug would you use for a pt experiencing thyroid storm? |
|
Definition
Propanolol (nonselective Beta blocker)
"Prop the umbrella up and prepare for the storm"
[image] |
|
|
Term
What drug would you use in a patient with heart failure that is currenctly experiencing tachycardia? |
|
Definition
Esmolol (selective beta 1 blocker, short acting) |
|
|
Term
Which beta blocker would you give to treat glaucoma? |
|
Definition
Timolol
decreases secretion of aqueous humor
|
|
|
Term
Name the nonselective beta blockers and their applications |
|
Definition
Propanolol
Timolol
Nadalol
Pindolol
[image] |
|
|
Term
Name the nonselective alpha and beta blockers |
|
Definition
Carvedilol
Labetalol
(vasodilatory)
strange ending bc they are strange acting |
|
|
Term
Which drugs reduce mortality in a patient with a history of MI? |
|
Definition
Metoprolol
Carvedilol
Myocardial Correction |
|
|
Term
Which beta blocker would you give to a patient with esophageal varices? |
|
Definition
Nadolol
"no quiere nadar en su sangre" |
|
|
Term
Would you give beta blockers to someone experiencing: aortic dissection:
cocaine induced MI:
|
|
Definition
aortic dissection: Yes, decreases blood pressure
Cocain induced MI:NO, will increase the blood pressure, cocaine acts similar to Epinephrine and stimulates all adrenergic receptors, by blocking the beta receptors, you will remove beta 2 stimulation (vasodilatory) by cocaine and now be left with unencumbered alpha 1 (vasoconstriction) stimulation and an increase in BP |
|
|
Term
Which portion of the hypothalamus is stimulated by leptin? |
|
Definition
leptin stimulates the ventromedial nucleus
leptin inhibits the lateral area
|
|
|
Term
Which CN relays information about hypoxia measured by the carotid body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CN relays motor information for swallowing? |
|
Definition
Vagus and Glossopharyngeal
CN X and IX |
|
|
Term
Which CN relays information about blood pressure from the aortic arch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CN relay information about salivation from the sublingual glands? |
|
Definition
Facial
CN VII
it innervates these glands
|
|
|
Term
Which CN relays information on salivation from the parotid gland? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which CN relays information about blood pressure from the carotid? |
|
Definition
Glossopharyngeal
CN IX
hypoxia and blood pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
failure of fusion of the maxillary and medionasal processes
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, nasal septum, and/or the medial palantine process
hard for baby to suck-need special nipple
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the underlying causes of cleft lip/palate? |
|
Definition
multifactorial
-genetic
-toxins
-folate deficiency |
|
|
Term
What would cause this:
[image] |
|
Definition
Glossitis: think glossy tongue
Vitamin B deficiencies
Iron deficiency
Plummer-Vinson syndrome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
White patch on the tongue caused by epstein barr virus
can be mistakened with thrush
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are Koplick spots associated with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome? |
|
Definition
aka hereditary hemorrhagic telengiectasia
AD disorder that causes lots of telangiectasias, aneuryms and Atrio-Ventricular Malformations
pts are prone to:
High output heart failure
nose bleeds
GI bleeds
Iron def
Visceral bleeds (even lung, liver, brain)
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
What drugs can cause hyperplastic gums?
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most squamous cell cancers of the head and neck are caused by what? |
|
Definition
HPV
(also remember tobacco and alcool increase risk) |
|
|
Term
What mutations are associated with squamous cell cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Xerostomia and what syndrome is it famously associated with? |
|
Definition
dryness of the mouth
Sjorgens syndrome
autoimmune
-dry eyes and dry mouth
drugs can cause xerostomia also
dry mouth leads to cavities and susceptibilty to candida and difficulty swallowing and speaking
[image] |
|
|
Term
What organisms can cause infection if the condition in this picture is not resolved
[image] |
|
Definition
sialolithiasis: stone in the salivary gland
staph aureus and strep viridans (mutans) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common benign salivary gland tumor and where is it usually found? |
|
Definition
Pleomorphic adenomas
benign and likely in the parotid gland
containing mesenchymal and epithelial differentiation
[image]
2nd most common benign: Warthin cystic tumor |
|
|
Term
What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What caues infectious rhinitis? |
|
Definition
Coronavirus
Adenovirus
Rhinovirus
Echovirus
When you have a cold, take CARE
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for nasal polyps and allergic rhinitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for eustachian tube dysfunction?
[image]
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Can you label the sinuses?
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
CT again of sinuses
[image] |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What patient populations are susceptible to infection by mucormycosis?
[image]
|
|
Definition
Diabetics with DKA
Leukemia
Immunocomprimised
Trauma/burns
Malnutrition
iron overload/ deferoxamine
|
|
|
Term
What cancers are associated with te RET oncogene? |
|
Definition
MEN 2A
MEN 2B
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Papillary thyroid carcinoma |
|
|
Term
What drugs would you use for
anaphylactic shock
cardiogenic shock
septic shock |
|
Definition
anaphylactic: epinephrine
cardiogenic: dobutamine
septic: norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
What tissue is the thyroid derived from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient comes in with this mass in the midline that moves wih swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis? What would you tell the pt?
[image] |
|
Definition
Thyroglossal duct cyst
need to be rmoved because can become infected
|
|
|
Term
Congenital deficiency of thyroid hormone results in: |
|
Definition
Cretinism:
failure of bone growth: short stature
lack of CNS maturation: mental retardation
[image]
|
|
|
Term
Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI) would be elevated in what disease? |
|
Definition
Grave's Disease
TSI stimulates the Thyroid receptor
[image] |
|
|
Term
How is Thyroid hormone synthesized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is organification in the context of the thyroid gland? |
|
Definition
binding of iodine to thyroglobulin |
|
|
Term
What oxidizes iodine after it enters the follicular cells of the thyroid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is thyroid hormone stored in the body? |
|
Definition
Follicle: months
Blood: 1-2 weeks
Cells: days or weeks |
|
|
Term
What does Thyroid hormone do? |
|
Definition
growth and maturation of bone (acts synergistically with growth hormone and somatomedin (IGF-1))
maturation of CNS (perinatal)
Beta-adrenergic effects on heart
increases BMR
Increases absorption of glucose from GI
Increases lipolysis
Increases glycogenolysis
Increases gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
What happens to the total thyroid levels in the setting of
-hepatic failure
-pregnancy
What tes would you use to diagnose an abnormality? |
|
Definition
hepatic failure: decreased TBG--> decreased total thyroid hormones but may have normal free hormone levels
pregnancy & oral contraceptive use: increased TBG-->increased total thyroid hormones but normal free hormone
TSH and free T4 are the two main tests to diagnose a thyroid disorder |
|
|
Term
What type of HSR is Grave's disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the classic arrhytmia with Thyrotoxicosis?
How do you treat? |
|
Definition
Atrial Fibrillation which causes a rapid ventricular rate
Tx:
beta-blocker: Propanolol
Anti-thyroid meds:
Propylthiouracil and Methimazole: inhibit peroxidase and prevent organification
PTU: blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 also
also best choice for pregnancy, less birth defects than methimazole
side effects: skin rash, aplastic anemia (one marrow suppression), agranulocytosis, hepatotoxicity
Our Method is to Prop the umbrella to Prepare for the storm. (Thyroid storm) |
|
|
Term
What is a Toxic Multinodular Goiter? |
|
Definition
focal patches of hyperfunctioning follicular cells that work independent of TSH
cause of hyperthyroidism
caused by a mutation of the TSH receptor
hot nodules: on radioactive throid scan, they show an increase of radioactive iodine uptake, usuallybenign
cold nodules: malignant
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the most common location for ectopic thyroid tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you expect to be the cause of hyperthyroidism in a pt. presenting with palpation of a single thyroid nodule? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you expect to be the cause of hyperthyroidism in a pt. presenting with a recent study using IV contrast? |
|
Definition
Jod-Basedow phenomenon:
thyrotoxicosis in a patent with iodine deficiency goiter is made iodine replete |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?
|
|
Definition
Hashimoto's thyroidits
increased risk of non-hodgkin's lymphoma
nontender thyroid
Hurthle cells
lymphocytic infiltrate |
|
|
Term
Pt comes in with a very tender thyroid and jaw pain. What is the most likely diagnosis and what would you see histologically? |
|
Definition
Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)
granulomatous inflammation
[image]
|
|
|
Term
A woman comes in complaining of weight gain and you notice a very hard, firm, fixed and painless goiter. What is the most likely diagnosis? |
|
Definition
Reidel's thyroiditis
cause of hypothyroidism
thyroid replaced by fibrous tissue
[image] |
|
|
Term
In what maligancies do you see psammoma bodies?
[image] |
|
Definition
"Sam Makes Me Pissed"
Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
Meningioma
Malignant mesothelioma
Papillary carcinoma of thyroid |
|
|
Term
Which thyroid cancer is associated with MEN 2A and MEN 2B? |
|
Definition
Medullary carcinoma of the parafollicular C cells
see sheets of cells in amyloid |
|
|
Term
Which thyroid cancers activate receptor tyrosine kinases? |
|
Definition
Papillary and medullary carcinoma |
|
|
Term
Which thyroid cancer is associated with the BRAF gene mutation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does N-acetylcysteine act to treat acetaminophen overdose? |
|
Definition
supplements sulfhydryl groups
and glutathione
[image] |
|
|
Term
An increase of acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid is indicative of what? |
|
Definition
Neural tube defect
failure of fusion
|
|
|
Term
HgC is due to what kind of genetic mutation? |
|
Definition
Missense mutation
Electrophoresis
(+) HgA>HgS>HgbC (-) |
|
|
Term
What does the psoas muscle do? |
|
Definition
stabalizes the lower spine and contributes to hip flexion, external rotation, side bending and raising yourself when lying on your back
[image] |
|
|
Term
Patients with an increased PCO2 will see what changes to their cerebral vasculature? |
|
Definition
PCO2 is a potent cerebral vasodilator
cerebral vascular resistance will decrease
|
|
|
Term
What enzyme synthesizes GTP in the citric acid cycle? |
|
Definition
Succinyl CoA synthetase in the reaction that converts Succinyl CoA to Succinate
[image] |
|
|
Term
What drug can we use to treat staph aureus endocarditis or sepsis, that has the side effect of myopathy and elevated CPK? |
|
Definition
Daptomycin is a lipopeptide antibiotic used in the treatment of systemic and life-threatening infections caused by Gram-positive organisms.
Cannot treat pneumonia because it binds to pulmonary surfactant
It inserts into the cell membrane in a phosphatidylglycerol-dependent fashion, where it then aggregates. The aggregation of daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in a loss of membrane potential leading to inhibition of protein, DNA, and RNA synthesis, which results in bacterial cell death |
|
|
Term
What contains elastase in the lungs? |
|
Definition
Neutrophils and alveolar macrophages contain proteases like elastase that can destroy lung parenchyma (emphysema) when secreted in excess or if left unchecked by deficient antiprotease activity |
|
|
Term
What acts as the feedback system that monitors and maintains force and are highly sensitive to increases in muscle tension? |
|
Definition
Golgi Tendon Organ
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which TCA would you use for OCD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 32-year-old female with a history of depression presents to the emergency department after a suspected ingestion. She is confused, reporting blurry vision, and responding to visual hallucinations. Vital signs are as follows: Temperature: 98.9 degrees Farenheit (37.2 Celsius) Heart Rate: 105 bpm Blood Pressure: 90/65 mmHg Respiratory Rate: 21 respirations per minute O2 Saturation: 99% on room air Upon reviewing her ECG , the emergency room physician orders sodium bicarbonate. What medication was the likely cause of this patient's cardiac abnormality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug can treat both depression and anorexia? |
|
Definition
Mirtazipine (Atypical antidepressant)
- α2 receptor antagonist
- ↑ release of NE and serotonin
- 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
|
|
|
Term
What drugs can cause gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
Spironolactone
Digitalis
Cimetidine
Chronic alcohol
Estogens
Ketoconazole
Marijuana |
|
|
Term
What drugs can cause hot flashes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drugs can cause hypothyroidism? |
|
Definition
Amiodarone
Lithium
Sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause gingival hyperplasia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug exacerbate gout? |
|
Definition
Diuretics
-Furosemide
Thiazides
Niacin
Cyclosporine
Pyrazinamide |
|
|
Term
What drugs are associated with myopathy? |
|
Definition
(muscle paine and elevated serum CPK)
Fibrates
Niacin
Statins
Cochicine
IFN-alpha
Hydroxychloroquine
Glucocorticoids
|
|
|
Term
What drugs cause osteoperosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is associated with tendon rupture and cartilage damage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fanconi Syndrome is caused by what? |
|
Definition
Proximal tubule defect
Expired Tetracyclines
heavy metal exposure
Wilsons disease |
|
|
Term
What drugs can cause seizures? |
|
Definition
Bupropion
Imipinem/Cilastatin
Isoniazid
Eveninf primrose oil
Enflurane
Tramadol
Metoclopramide
ALCOHOL AND bENZO WITHDRAWL |
|
|
Term
What drugs cause the disulfuram like reaction? |
|
Definition
Drink Corona at Midnight and Suffer Post Binge
Disulfuram
Cephalosporins (some not all)
Metronidazole
Sulfonylureas (1st gen)
Procarbazine |
|
|
Term
What drugs are both nephrotoxic and ototoxic? |
|
Definition
Aminoglycosides
Vancomycin
Loop Diuretics
Cisplatin |
|
|
Term
What are the p450 Inhibitors |
|
Definition
PICK EGS
Protease inhibitors
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Erythromycin
Grapefruit juice
Sulfonamides |
|
|
Term
How would you treat a beta blocker or verapamil overdose? |
|
Definition
calcium and atropine
glucagon |
|
|
Term
How do you treat an Amphetamine overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you treat and iron overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the antidote for arsenic, mercury, gold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you use to treat lead poisoning in a child? |
|
Definition
succimer, penicillamine, Dimercaprol commonly in kids
EDTA calcium for adults |
|
|
Term
How would you treat copper, arsenic, gold toxicity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the antidote for cyanide? |
|
Definition
Nitrites
thiosulfate
hydroxycobalamin
|
|
|
Term
What would you use to treat ethylene glycol toxicity (antifreeze)? |
|
Definition
Fomepizole
dialysis
can also use ethanol to compete with it, but not standard |
|
|
Term
How would you treat t-PA, streptokinase overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
unilateral painful cystic lesion located near the lower vestibule adjacent to vaginal canal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
post menopausal woman with very thin vulvar skin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes Vulvar Carcinoma? |
|
Definition
HPV related: dysplasia(VIN) from HPV 16 and 18 (younger women)
Non-HPV related: long standing Lichen sclerosis (postmenopausal) |
|
|
Term
PAS+ , keratin+, and S100-
sample from the vulva |
|
Definition
extramammary paget's disease
carcinoma (no underlying cancer like yo would see in the breast)
(Melanoma would ONLY be positive for S100) |
|
|
Term
persistence of columnar epithelium in the upper 1/3 of vagina |
|
Definition
Adenosis
associated with females exposed to DES in utero
increased risk of clear cell adenocarcinoma |
|
|
Term
positive IHC staining for desmin and myoglobin
cytoplasmic cross striations |
|
Definition
Rhabdomyosarcoma (rhabdomyoblast) |
|
|
Term
Where would a vaginal tumor of the lower 2/3 of the vagina spread? |
|
Definition
Inguinal nodes
(upper 1/3 goes to iliac nodes) |
|
|