Shared Flashcard Set

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Step 1-pharm basics
pharm basics/neuro/endocrine from DIT
243
Medical
Graduate
03/01/2015

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Which collagen is typically deficient in Ehler's Danlos Syndrome?
Definition

Type III

collagen of blood vessels, skin, uterus and granulation tissue

[image]

Term

What action does the Sympathetic Nervous System have on the eyes?

The parasympathetic?

Definition
  • Sympathetic : Mydriasis (d for dilation, big word, big pupil)

Parasympathetic: Miosis

[image]

Term

What Cranial nerves innnervate the tongue in the following ways:

 

Taste in anterior 2/3:

Taste in posterior 1/3

Motor:

Sensation in Anterior 2/3:

Sensation in Posterior 1/3:

Definition

 

Taste in anterior 2/3: Facial

Taste in posterior 1/3: Glossopharyngeal

Motor: Hypoglossal

Sensation in Anterior 2/3: Trigeminal (Mandibular diision-Lingual n)

Sensation in Posterior 1/3:Glossopharyngeal

 

 

[image]

Term
What effect to salivary glands does Sympathetic and Parasympathetic tone have?
Definition

Sympathetic: more viscous secretion *think of nervous lecturer needing a lot of water*

 

Parasympathetic: watery secretion (to aid in mastication and digestion)

Term
What effect does sympathetic and parasympathetic tone have on bronchiolar smooth muscle?
Definition

Sympathetic: relaxation (think of epi pen for asthma attacks)

 

Parasympathetic: Contraction (anti-parasymapthetics for asthma attacks)

Term
What effect does Sympathetic and Parasympathetic on the penis?
Definition

Parasympathetic: Point (erection)

Sympathetic: Shoot (ejaculation)

Term

Nictonic and muscarinic receptors are both _____ receptors.

Nicotinic receptors are specifically  _____ receptors.

Muscarinic receptors are specifically______ receptors.

Definition

both are Acetylcholine receptors

Nicotinic is a ligated Na/K channel receptor, while muscarinic are G-protein coupled receptors

 

[image]

 

Term
What are the symptoms of EXCESS Parasympathetic activity?
Definition

 

Diarrhea

Urination

Miosis

Bronchospasm

Bradycardia

Excitation of skeletal muscle/CNS

Lacrimation

Sweating

Salivation

DUMBBELSS

Term
Name the 4 direct cholinergic agonists ad their function.
Definition

aka muscarinic agonists

cholinomimetics: mimic ACh:directly activates receptor

 

Beth Can Pile Meth

 

Bethanachol:  activates Bladder and Bowel; tx for post op, neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

 

Carbachol: Copy of ACh; tx for glaucoma, IOP, pupillary contraction

 

Pilocarpine: tx for open and closed angle glaucoma, resistant to ACHesterase

potent stimulator of sweat, tears and saliva

 

Methacholine: test dx for asthma; stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled

Term
Name the 5 Indirect cholinergic agonists and their function.
Definition

 

cholinomimetic

aka indirect muscarinic agonists

prevent the breakdown of ACh at nerve terminal: increasing endogenous ACh

 

Neostygmine: postop and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, Myasthenia grais, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade post op (No CNS penetration)

 

Pyridostygmine: long acting myasthenia gravis ; No CNS penetration

 

Edrophonium: extremely shot acting used for dx of myasthenia gravis

 

Physostigmine: anticholinergic (atropine overdose) toxicity ; physiologically crosses blood brain barrier

 

Donepizil: Alzheimer's "Done forget"

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
With ALL cholinomimetics, watch for excacerbation of what 3 things?
Definition

COPD

Asthma

Peptic ulcers

Term
How do you treat organophophate poisoning?
Definition

Atropine & Pralidoxime (2-PAM)


pralidoxime regenerates active AChesterase

Organophosphates, like insecticides (parathion) inhibit AChesterase so you get parasympathetic excess (DUMBBELSS)

Term
What is Myasthenia Gravis and how do you diagnose and treat it?
Definition

 

An autoimmune diesase that leads to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue cuased by circulating antibodies to ACh recptors that block ACh from binding to the receptors

Dx: ephodrium (if symptoms improve, positve)

Tx:pyridostigmine, thymectomy, steroids, plasmaphoresis

 often pts have thymic hyperplasia, atrophy or tumor (thymoma)

crisis: weakness of respiratory muscles

[image]

ptosis that worsens throughout the day is a common manifestation, diplopia

[image]

Term
What are the symptoms of inhibiting parasympathetic activity?
Definition

Hot as a hare: hyperpyrexia

Dry as a bone: dry mouth, urine retention

Red as a beet: flushing (can't sweat)

Blind as a bat: cyclopegia, mydriasis

Mad as a hatter: delirium

Bloated as a toad: ileus(constipation), urine retention

 

tachycardia

 

 

Term
What is Atropine and what is it used for?
Definition

muscarinic ANTAGONIST

used to treat:

bradycardia (beta blocker overdose ex.)

dilate pupils and produce cyclopegia for eye exams

decrease airway secretions (intubation etc..)

 

 

 

Term
Name the 9 muscarinic antagonists and what they are used for.
Definition

Atropine: bradycardia, dilation of pupils and cyclopegia for eye exams

 

Homoatropine:dilation of pupils and cyclopegia for eye exams

 

Tropicamide:dilation of pupils and cyclopegia for eye exams

 

Benzotropine: Parkinson's disease (Park my Benz or I benz so shaky)

 

Scopolamine: motion sickness

 

Ipratropium, Tiotropium: COPD, asthma ( I pray Tio can breathe)

 

Oxybutinin: reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms


Glyc-opyrrolate:  parenteral: pre-op- reduce airway secretions

oral: drooling, pepetic ulcers

 

Term
What patient populations is Atropine use contraindicated?
Definition

Alzheimers

Huntingtons

BPH

Hyperthermia (especially infants)

Glaucoma

Elderly with delerium or dementia

Ileus or GI obstruction

Term
What drugs interact with anticholinergics?
Definition

Antihistamines (Diphenydramine)

Parkinson's drugs (Benzotrpine, Amantidine)

TCAs (Amitryptiline)

Neuroleptics (Haloperidol)

 

may all enhance the effects

Term
A 30 year old schizophrenic man now has urinary retention due to his neuroleptic. What do you treat him with?
Definition
A cholinergic agonist like bethanechol
Term
What drug is used in urge incontinence?
Definition
Oxybutinin: muscarinic antagonist
Term
What genes are responsible for skeletal development?
Definition

HOX genes

 

[image]

Term
What is the drug of choice to treat narcolepsy?
Definition

Modafinil (psychostimulant)

with scheduled daytime naps

Term
How would you treat absence siezures?
Definition

aka petit mal seizures

treat with ethosuximide or sodium valproate

Term
What drives the transport of choline into the presynaptic cell?
Definition

Na (sodium)

[image]

Term

What inhibits choline transport int the presynaptic cell?

 

What drives choline transport into the cell?

Definition

hemicholinium inhibits

 

Na is required

[image]

Term

What happens with choline immediately after its transported into the presynaptic cell?

 

 

Definition

Acetyl CoA + choline are combined by the enzyme

choline acetyltransferase and packaged into vesicles

 

[image]

Term
What inhibits the packaging of Acetylcholine into vesicles within the presynpatic cell?
Definition

Vesamicol : No ami (love)"Vesicol" for Acetylcholine

[image]

Term
What is required for Acetylcholine that is packaged in vesicles to be released to the synapse?
Definition

Calcium

[image]

Term
Name some important functions of Ca in the body.
Definition

cardiac muscle contraction

vesicle release

NT release

platelet functioning

activation of clotting cascade

smooth mucle contraction

skeletal contraction

bone

......on and on and on

 

 

 

Term
What can stimulate the release of Acetylcholine into the synapse?
Definition

 

Black Widow spider toxin

[image]

[image]

Term
What can inhibit the release of Acetylcholine into the synapse?
Definition

Botulinum

CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM causing descending flaccid paralysis

[image]

Term
What are the 4 fates of Acetylcholine once released into the synapse?
Definition

a-bind to ACh receptor

 

b-bind to ACh autoreceptor on the presynaptic cell

 

c- diffuse away

 

d- degradation by AChesterase

Term
How is Norepinephrine made? start from the begininng
Definition
[image]
Term
What cofactors are needed to make Catecholamines?
Definition

 

 Vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)

Vitamin C (Ascorbate)

know these especially and where on the timeline

know both names as well

[image]

Term
What inhibits the enzyme that converts Tyrosine to DOPA?
Definition

Metyrosine inhibits Tyrosine hydroxylase

[image]

Term
What inhibits the packaging of NE into the vesicle in the presynaptic cell?
Definition

Reserpine

[image]

Term
What is required for the NE in the vesicle to be released into the synapse?
Definition

Calcium

[image]

Term
What substances can stimulate the release of NE into the synapse?
Definition

Ephedrines

Tyramine
Amphetamines

think "ETA of NE is increased "

[image]

Term
What substances can inhibit the release of NE into the synapse?
Definition

Guanethidine

Bretylium

Go Back NE

[image]

Term
What are the 4 fates of NE after release into the synapse?
Definition

 autoreceptors:

a2 & m2:binding these on presynaptic cell inhibits more release of NE

               AT-II: autoreceptor that stimulates more release of NE

 

 postsynpatic cell receptor

a1, B1

 

reuptake into presynaptic cell

 

metabolized and dumped in urine

[image]

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
What inhibits NE reuptake into the presynaptic cell?
Definition

Cocaine

TCAs

Term

What enzymes can metabolize NE, and how do they do it?

What will you see in the urine?

Definition

COMT: methylates NE

MAO: oxidizes NE

 

will see metabolites: VMA, Metanephrine and Normetanephrine in the urine

 

Term
Which type of G-protein activates phospholipase C?
Definition

Gq the "Cutesy" protein for

Phospholipase C

Calcium

Protein Kinase C

Term
Which receptors are linked to Gq proteins?
Definition

Histamine-1

Alpha-1

Vasopressin-1

M1 & M3

 

"Gq Cutesy's HAVe 1 M&M"

 

Term
What does binding to a1 receptors illicit?
Definition

vasoconstriction-->increase PR-->increase BP

mydriasis

increase intestinal and bladder sphincter contraction

 

 

[image]

Term
What G protein is linked to alpha-2 receptors and what rsponse do they illicit?
Definition

Gi: inhibits sympathetic outflow

vasodilation

(remember it inhibits NE release as an autoreceptor on the presynaptic cell)

Term
What do B1 receptors do?
Definition
[image]
Term
What do B2 receptors do?
Definition
[image]
Term
What G protein and second messenger is linked to Beta receptors?
Definition

 

Gs-->Adenyly cyclase-->cAMP-->PKA

[image]

Term

Match the G protein with each receptor:

alpha1

alpha2

beta1

beta2

M1

M2

M3

D1

D2

H1

H2

V1

V2

 

Definition

alpha1-q

alpha2-i

beta1-s

beta2-s

M1-q

M2-i

M3-q

D1-s

D2-i

H1-q

H2-s

V1-q

V2-s

 

"QISS (kiss) and QIQ (kick) til ur SIQ (sick) of SQS (Super kinky Sex)"

Term
Which Histamine receptor increases gastric acid secretion?
Definition

H2

 

Term
Antihistamines taken for pruritis and congestion block which histamine receptor?
Definition
H1 receptor: increases nasal and bronchial mucus, contaction of bronchioles, pruritis and pain
Term
What do D1  and D2 receptors do?
Definition

D1: relax renal vascular smooth muscle

 

D2: modulates transmitter release, esp in brain

Term

Describe functions of these receptors

M1

M2

M3

Definition

M1:CNS enteric ganglion


M2: decrease HR and contractility of atria


M3: increase exocrine secretions, increase gut persitalsis, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle constriction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction accomodation

Term
ADH works on which receptors? What do they do?
Definition

V1:increases vascular smooth muscle contraction

 

V2:Increases water permeabilty and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney

 

Vasopressin: presses vasos (contraction) and presses in AQPs

Term
Which G protein inhibits Adenylyl cyclase?
Definition
Gi protein inhibits Adenylyl cyclase-->decreases cAMP--> decreases PKA
"MAD 2s" M2,Alpha2,D2 RECEPTORS and PKA
Term

Name the hormones that come from these glands and what they do:

Pineal:

Hypothalamus

Pituitary (distinguish Anterior and Posterior):

Thyroid

Parathyroid

Adrenal

Pancreas

Ovaries

Testes

 

Definition

 

[image]

[image]

Term
What hormone increases blood glucose levels, suppresses immune system and decreases protein synthesis?
Definition

Cortisol

[image]

Term
Where does Calcitonin come from and what does it do?
Definition

Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland

 Calcitonin stimulates osteoblasts, decreases plasma calcium levels

[image]

Term
Which hormones work by cAMP messenger system?
Definition

FSH

LH

ACTH

TSH

MSH

CRH

B-HCG

ADH

PTH

calcitonin

GHRH

glucagon

 

 

 

Term
Which hormones use cGMP pathway?
Definition

ANP

EDRF

 

Term
Which hormones use IP3 pathway?
Definition

GnRH

ADH

oxytocin

TRH

Histamine

Gastrin

Ang II

 

Term
What are the effects of increasing sex hormone binding globulin in a male?
Definition

Steroid hormones, like sex hormone testosterone, have to be bound to binding proteins to pass through blood. The bound form is inactive; therefore, increasing the amount of globulins would lower the amount of free/active testosterone in a male resulting in gynecomastia and hypogonadism

normal to high levels of TOTAL testosterone

Low levels of FREE testosterone

[image]

Term
What would be the effects of decreasing sex binding globulins in a woman?
Definition

more free/active testosterone resulting in hursutism, irregular periods..

[image]

Term
Where are steroid binding globulins made?
Definition

like most blood proteins, they are made in the Liver

[image]

Term

What inhibits prolactin? What drug is associated with prolactin inhibition?

 

What can promote prolactin secretion?

Definition

dopamine (from arcuate nucleus of hypohalamus) inhibits prolactin

stress

bromocriptine is a dopamine analogue

_____________________________________

 

neuroleptics antagonize dopamine and increase prolactin secretion

nipple stimulation can prolactinomas can increase prolactin secretion also

Term

What is the downstream mediator of Growth Hormone?

What inhibits GH?

Definition

downstream mediator: IGF-1

inhibitor: somatostatin

Term

What are the embryologic origins of:
Posterior pituitary

Anterior Pituitary

 

Definition

 

 

Posterior Pituitary: neuroectoderm

Anterior Pituitar: Surface ectoderm (Rathke's pouch)

[image]

Term
Why do pts with Addison's disease have increased pigmentation?
Definition

low levels of cortisol cause the Pituitary gland to pump out a lot of ACTH which is made in conjunction with MSH(both from POMC

[image]

Term
Which hormones share a common alpha subunit?
Definition

"The BETA Family Love alphas"

TSH

Beta-HCG

FSH

LH

Term
A 50 year old woman complains of double vision, amenorrhea and headaches. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Definition

Prolactinoma

remember prolactinomas usually cause hypogonadism leading to amenorrhea and infertilty in both men and  premenopausal women

no symptoms in postmenopausal women

gynecomastia in men

rarely see galactorrhea at all

 

Term
What kind of visual defect do pituitary adenomas usually cause?
Definition

bitemporal hemianopsia

[image]

[image]

 

Term
What is Sheehan's syndrome?
Definition
[image]
Term
What hormone is responsible for contracting the uterus down after delivery?
Definition
oxytocin
Term

A pregnant woman comes in with skin changes seen below. What is this called and what do you tell her?

[image]

Definition
Melasma: mask of pregnancy, normal, occurs because increased estrogens during pregnancy can produce more MSH production
Term

What are some clincal symptoms of acromegaly?

 

Definition

Acromegaly caused by excess GH in adults: coarse face, large hands and feet, increased spacing in teeth due to large tongue, deep voice, impaired glucose tolerance

[image]

Term
What are some clinical uses of somatostatin?
Definition

Pituitary excess:Acromegaly, TSH-secreting tumor, ACTH-secreting tumor

GI endocrine excess: (Carcinoid syndrome, Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome, VIPoma, Glucagonoma, Insulinoma)

Diarrheal diseases (off label) not FDA approved

Reduce splanchnic circulation (off label): portal HTN with varices, bleeding peptic ulcers

 

Term
What are the layers of the Adrenal Cotex and what is synthesized in each layer?
Definition

Glomerulosa: Mineralcoritcosteroids

Fasiculata: Glucocorticosteroids

Reticularis: Androgens

[image]

Term
What induces the development of Type II pneumocytes and the development of surfactant in the developing fetus lung?
Definition
Cortisol from the fetal adrenal gland
Term

What is the most common adult tumor of the adrenal medulla?

 

Definition

Pheochromocytoma

can cause episodic tachycardia and hypertension

most are unilateral, in adults, benign, idiopathic

look for catechlamine metablites in serum and urine: VMA, Metanephrine, HVA, Normetanephrine

Tx: alphablocker (HTN) and beta blocker (Tachycardia) together and surgery

 

Symptoms: sympathetic overdrive: Panic attacks, Polycythemia(increase erythropoietin), Pain (headache), Pressure (BP), Pallor, Perfusion (sweating), Palpitations (tachycardia)

 

[image]

[image]

Term
What stimulates the begininng of steroid synthesis
Definition

ACTH: stimulates Desmolase to convert cholesterol to pregnenolone

[image]

Term
What can inhibit desmolase?
Definition

Ketoconazole : antifungal

 

 inhibits cholesterol(ergosterol) formation

Term
Outline the Pathway from Acetate to Aldosterone including enzymes
Definition

Acetate-->

Cholesterol

 (desmolase)

   pregnenolone

(3-beta-hyroxysteroid dehydrogenase)

Progesterone

(21-alpha hydroxylase)

Deoxycorticosterone

(11beta-hydroxylase)

Corticosterone

(aldosterone synthetase)

Aldosterone

 

D-3-21-11-A

Term
Outline the pathway from Acetate to Cortisol including enzymes
Definition

Acetate

Cholesterol

(desmolase)

pregnenolone

(17alpha-hydroxylase)

17alpha-OH Pregenenolone

(3beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase)

17alpha-OH Progesterone

(21-alpha hydroxylase)

11-Deoxycortisol

(11beta- hydroxylase)

Cortisol

 

D-17-3-21-11

 

Term
Outline the pathway from Acetate to DHT including enzymes
Definition

Acetate

Cholesterol

(desmolase)

Pregnenolone

(17alpha hydroxylase)

17alpha OH-Prognenolone

DHEA

(3beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase)

Androstenedione

Testosterone

(5alpha reductase)

DHT

 

D-17-3-5

Term
What enzyme makes Estrogen?
Definition

Aromatase

estrogen is an 18 carbon molecule

Term
What features characterize a deficiency in 17-alpha hydroxylase?
Definition

 

Inability to produce sex hormones and cortisol and an excess of mineralcorticoid preoduction:

phenotypic female

no secondary sex characteristics

HTN

 

(1 in the first digit: HTN)

 

 

[image]

Term
What features characterize a deficiency in 21-alpha hydroxylase?
Definition

Inabilty to produce cortisol and mineralcorticosteroids

increased production of sex hormones

-elevated ACTH (no cortisol feedback)

-HYPOtension (no aldosterone)

-masculinization

 

(1 in the Second digit _ _: masculinization)

Term
Wha features characterize 11-Beta hydroxylase deficiency?
Definition

Inability to produce cortisol, aldosterone and corticosterone

increased DEOXYCORTICOSTERONE-->HTN

masculinization (increased sex hormones)

 

(1 in the first digit : HTN

1 in the second digit: masculinization)

 

Term
What does Cortisol do?
Definition

senses stress by optimizing the brain function in the following ways:

 

upregulates alpha1 receptors in arterioles:increase blood pressure

 

decreases bone formation for more calcium into blood:can cause osteoperosis chronically

 

anti-inflammaory & immune suppression (causes rebound leukocytosis): inhibits production of leukotrienes and prostaglandins, inhibits leukocyte adhesion, blocks histamine release from mast cells, reduces eoisinophils, blocks IL-2 production

 

stimulate gluconeogenesis in liver but also increases insulin resistance peripherally to preserve for the brain and RBCs: can exacerbate diabetes

 

increases lipolysis and proteolysis for more buiding blocks for energy

 

decrease collagen synthesis: thin the skin

 

increases apoptosis

 

 

 

Term
What would you give to a patient that is on long term steroids if you want to prevent osteoperosis?
Definition

Bisphosphonates

[image]

Term
What is Cushing's Syndrome? What causes it?
Definition

 

excess cortisone.

 

#1 cause: steroid use


#2 cause: Cushings disease: ACTH producing tumor in pituitary


other causes: ectopic ACTH tumor (very high levels of ACTH)

(small cell lung cancer, bronchiole carcinoid tumor etc..)

 

adrenal adenoma secreting cortisol (low ACTH from feedback inhibition)

[image]

Term
What are the side effects of endogenous cortisol?
Definition

easy bruisability

tinninng of the skin

osteoperosis

adrenal-cortico atrophy

peptic ulcers

diabetes

immunosuppression

psychosis

insomnia

Cushing's syndome

 

 

Term
What are some forms of exogenous cortisone (drugs)?
Definition

Hydrocortisone

Prednisolone

Prednisone

Triamcinolone

 

Dexamethasone

Beclomethasone

long acting highlighted

 

Term
What cells does Aldosterone work on? And what does it do?
Definition

Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and K secretion primarily at the principal cells of the collecting tubules and at the sweat glands

Increases sodium reabsorption in the gut

increases blood volume and pressure

decreases heart contractility

 

 

Term
Why would you give Spironolactone to a patient with Heart failure?
Definition

Sprinolactone is a K-sparing diuretic that acts as against aldosterone to prevent your body from absorbing too much salt and keeps your potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to diagnose and treat a condition in which you have too much aldosterone in your body.

 

Spironolactone also treats fluid retention (edema) in people with congestive heart failure because it decreases preload

Also used in cirrhosis of the liver, or a kidney disorder called nephrotic syndrome. This medication is also used to treat or prevent hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

 

Term
What stimulates Aldosterone secretion?
Definition

High K levels

Angiotensin II

Term
What drug would you give a patient that is deficient of Aldosterone?
Definition
Fludrocortisone
Term
How do you diagnose and figure out the cause of yor patients Cushings Syndrome?
Definition

Dexamethosone test

 healthy patient: cortisol is suppresed

 

ACTH producing pituiary tumor low dose: elevated levels remain

ACTH producing pituitary tumor High Dose:cortisol is suppressed

 

 

 

Term
What is Conn's Syndrome?
Definition

primary hyperaldosteronism

increased BP

hypokalemia

metabolic alkalosis

low plasma renin (negative feedback inhibition)

 

Term

What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?

Treatment?

Definition

Hyperaldosteronism caused by the kidneys hyersecretion of renin bc the JGA senses low volume due to:

 

renal artery stenosis

chronic renal failure

congestive heart failure

nephrotic syndrome

cirrhosis

 

Tx: spirinolactone (K sparing diurteics/aldosterone antagonist)

 

Term
What is Addison's disease?
Definition

A primary adrenal insufficiency disease usually autoimmune causing adrenal atrophy

sx: hypotension

hyponatremia

hyperkalemia

weakness, fatigue

Anorexia

weightloss

hyperpigentation (MHS produced in excess with ACTH)

[image]

Term
What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome?
Definition

Acute primary adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage associated with Neisseria Meningitidis septic shock


characterized by acute pulmonary insufficiency petechial rash and coagulopathies, DIC

Tx: Fludrocortisone and Cortisol

[image]

 

Term
What would you see in a patient wih secondary adrenal insufficiency?
Definition

low cotisol

pituitary is not making ACTH

 

(no hyperpigmenation, no hypokalemia because you have sufficient Aldosterone-kidney can still make renin and trigger aldosterone synthesis)

 

Term
What causes Tertiary Adrenal Insufficiency?
Definition

Abrupt withdrawal of exogenous steroids

--hypothalamus stops making CRH, and when the person stops taking meds they wont make endogenous cortisol right away)

low endogenous cortisol levels is main clinical sign

 

 

Term

What is the most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in kids?

What is elevated? what is the oncogene associated?

What is the tumor marker and what is seen on immunohistochemical stain?

What is sigificant histlogically?

Definition

Adrenal Neuroblastoma

can occur anywhere along the sympathetic chain

neural crest origin cell

elevated HVA

N-MYC oncogene

Bombesin tumor marker

neurofilament immunohistochemical stain

Homer-Wright Rosette (see slide)

 

[image]

[image]

Term
What are MENs?
Definition

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasias

MEN I: Pituitary, Pancreas, Parathyroid

 

MEN IIA: Parathyroids, Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Cancer

 

MEN IIB: Medullary Thyroid Cancer, Pheochromocytoma, Mucosal Neuromas or GI tumors

 

[image]

[image]

Term
What tumor locations are associated with MEN I, MEN IIa & MEN IIb?
Definition

MEN I: Pituitary, Pancreas, Parathyroid

 

MEN IIA: Parathyroids, Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Cancer

 

MEN IIB:  Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Cancer, Mucosal Neuromas or GI tumors

 

Term
What does low dose Epinephrine do?
Definition

mostly stimulates beta receptors :

increase heart rate and contractility (beta1)

and vasodilation (beta2)

 

they balance each other so NO EFFECT ON BP

Term
What does high dose Epinephine do?
Definition

Stimulates alpha1 and beta1 mostly

increases heart rate & contractility

vasoconstriction

increase in BP and increase HR

 

given as an agent to raise blood pressure in the setting od shock, severe hypotension

Term
What does Norepinephrine do?
Definition

primarily alpha1

vasocontriction--> elevates BP-->reflex bradycrdia


use for SEPTIC SHOCK


 

Term
What is the pressor of choice in a patient with septic shock?
Definition
Norepinephrine
Term
What is isoproterenol used for?
Definition

has beta 1 and beta 2 action

increase HR and reflexive tachycardia from vasodilation

 

used for AV block

not commonly used anymore

Term
What is dopamine used for as a drug?
Definition

direct sympathomimetic

low dose:D1-augment renal blood flow so use in conjunction with Norepinephrine to treatment of shock to prevent renal damage (not sure if beneficial)

 

medium dose: D1 and Beta-1: cardiogenic shock 

 

high dose: D1, Beta-1, Alpha-1 vasoconstriction septic shock

Term
What is dobutamine?
Definition

primarily Beta 1- will increase contractility and HR

CHONO and IONO- tropic

cardiogenic shock

heart failure exacerbtion

cardiac stress test

Term
What is phenylephrine used for?
Definition

alpha-1 agonist

decongestant

vasoconstriction of sinuses

can also raise BP so dont give to HTN pts.

Term
What is pseudophedrine?
Definition

Alpha-1 agonist

vasoconstriction of sinuses but can also

raise blood pressure so dont give to HTN pts

Term
What direct sympathomimetics are used for asthma and COPD?
Definition

Albuterol

Levalbuterol

selective B2 agonists with some B1 effects

some tachycardia

Term
Which direct sympathomimetic is used for reducing uterine contractions and delaying labor?
Definition

Terbutaline

selective B2 agonists

Term
What would you use Ephedrine or Amphetamines for?
Definition

they are indirect sympathomimetics and stimulate te release of stored catecholamines  (NE) into the synapse?

Excessive daytime sleepiness

obesity

ADD

Major Depressive Disorder

 

Term
What is Cocaine theoretically good for clinically?
Definition
Causes vasoconstriction in a localized area: anesthesia so the local anethetic can't diffuse away rapidly
Term
Name the direct sympathomimetics and their applications
Definition

 

life DEPIND on it

 

Epinephrine:anaphylaxis shock, glaucoma (open), asthma, hypotension

 

Norepinephrine: hypotension, shock

 

Dopamine: shock (renal perfusion), heart failure, inotropic and chonotropic

 

Isoproterenol: torsade de poines, bradyarrythmias (can worsen ischemia)

 

Dobutamine: beta 1-heart failure, cardiac stress test, ionotropic and chonotropic

 

Phenylephrine: hypotension, ocular procedures, rhinitis

 

Salmeterol:long tem asthma, COPD

Albuterol: acute asthma

Metaproterenol: acute asthma

(SAM)

 

 

 (Slow like a Tertle Ritard)

Terbutaline: reduce premature uterine contractions

 Ritodrine:reduce premature uterine contractions

Term
Name the indirect sympathomimetics and their applications
Definition

If you take these indirectly, you will ACE your exam ;)lol

 

Amphetamine: narcolepsy, obesity, ADD

 

Ephedrine: nasal decongestant, urinary incontinence, hypotension

 

Cocaine: causes vasoconstricion and local anesthesia *(never give with Beta blockers--can cause EXTREME HTN from unopposed alpha 1 activation)*

Term
Name the sympathoplegics and their applications
Definition

Clonidine & alpha-methyldopa:

alpha2 agonist: decreases central sympathetic outflow: HTN especially with renal disease bc doesn't decrease blood flow to kidneys

Term
Explain the actions of Norepinephrine and Isoproterenol on MAP and Heart Rate
Definition

NE: alpha 1 agonist action causes vasoconstriction which increases both systolic and diastolic  pressures--> MAP increases-->baroreceptors fire-->reflex bradycardia

NET EFFECT: increase MAP, decrease HR


(remember NE has no B2 action)

____________________________________

 

Isoproterenol: Beta-1 and 2 agonist causes vasodilation -->decrease MAP-->increase HR by both beta1 and reflex response

NET EFFECT: decrease MAP, increase HR

Term
Name the alpha 1 selective blockers and their applications
Definition

Prazosin

Terazosin

Doxazosin

Tamsulosin* (flomax)

for HTN  and urinary retention in BPH

 

SIDE EFFECTS: 1st dose orthostatic Hypotension, dizziness, headache

[image]

Term
Name the nonselective alpha1 blockers and their applications
Definition

Phenoxybenzamine(irrerversible):

pheochromocytoma

 


[image][image]



Phentolamine(reversible):

pts on MAOIs that eat tyramine containing foods (fermented, ripe foods)


[image][image]

 

side effects for both: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia

Term
Name the alpha 2 blockers and their applications
Definition

Mirtazipine: depression -specifically pts that don't sleep well or eat well bc of side effects

 

side effects: sedation, increased cholesterol, increased appetite

Term
What is the effect of Epiniphrine combined with an alpha 1 blocker?
Definition

decreased blood pressure

 

explanation: alpha blocker will block the vasoconstiction, but Epinephrine will still bind to beta receptors. Beta 2 will cause vasodilation and decrease blood pressure while beta 1 will increase HR

Term
What is the effect on blood pressure if you give phenylephrine with an alpha 1 blocker?
Definition

none

 

explanation: phenylephrine mainly acts on alpha 1 receptors, so an alpha 1 blocker will simply cancel out the effects and there will be no change in BP

Term
Name the Beta1 selective blockers and their applications
Definition

A BEAM


Acebutlol

Betaxolol

                              Esmolol (short acting for SVT)

Atenolol

           Metoprolol (SVT)

*these are best in pts with comorbid pulmonary disease*


applications:

angina pectoris: decreases O2 consumption

MI: decrease mortality

SVT: decreases AV conduction velocity

HTN:decrease cardiac output

decrease renin secretion

CHF: slows progression of chronic failure (wouldn't use this if acute heart failure-use the opposite like dobutamine)

Term

What drug would you use for a pt experiencing thyroid storm?

Definition

Propanolol (nonselective Beta blocker)

 

"Prop the umbrella up and prepare for the storm"

[image]

Term
What drug would you use in a patient with heart failure that is currenctly experiencing tachycardia?
Definition
Esmolol (selective beta 1 blocker, short acting)
Term
Which beta blocker would you give to treat glaucoma?
Definition

Timolol

decreases secretion of aqueous humor

 

Term
Name the nonselective beta blockers and their applications
Definition

Propanolol

Timolol

Nadalol

Pindolol

[image]

Term
Name the nonselective alpha and beta blockers
Definition

Carvedilol

Labetalol

(vasodilatory)

 

strange ending bc they are strange acting

Term
Which drugs reduce mortality in a patient with a history of MI?
Definition

Metoprolol

Carvedilol

 

Myocardial Correction

Term
Which beta blocker would you give to a patient with esophageal varices?
Definition

Nadolol

 

"no quiere nadar en su sangre"

Term

Would you give beta blockers to someone experiencing:
aortic dissection:

cocaine induced MI:

 

Definition

aortic dissection: Yes, decreases blood pressure

 

Cocain induced MI:NO, will increase the blood pressure, cocaine acts similar to Epinephrine and stimulates all adrenergic receptors, by blocking the beta receptors, you will remove beta 2 stimulation (vasodilatory) by cocaine and now be left with unencumbered alpha 1 (vasoconstriction) stimulation and an increase in BP

Term
Which portion of the hypothalamus is stimulated by leptin?
Definition

 

leptin stimulates the ventromedial nucleus

 

leptin inhibits the lateral area

 

 

Term
Which CN relays information about hypoxia measured by the carotid body?
Definition

Glossopharyngeal

CN IX

Term
Which CN relays motor information for swallowing?
Definition

Vagus and Glossopharyngeal

CN X and IX

Term
Which CN relays information about blood pressure from the aortic arch?
Definition
Vagus CN X
Term
Which CN relay information about salivation from the sublingual glands?
Definition

Facial

CN VII

it innervates these glands

 

Term
Which CN relays information on salivation from the parotid gland?
Definition

Glossopharyngeal

CN IX

Term
Which CN relays information about blood pressure from the carotid?
Definition

Glossopharyngeal

CN IX

hypoxia and blood pressure

Term
What is cleft lip?
Definition

failure of fusion of the maxillary and medionasal processes

[image]

Term
What is cleft palate?
Definition

failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, nasal septum, and/or the medial palantine process

hard for baby to suck-need special nipple

[image]

Term
What are the underlying causes of cleft lip/palate?
Definition

multifactorial

-genetic

-toxins

-folate deficiency

Term

What would cause this:

[image]

Definition

Glossitis: think glossy tongue

Vitamin B deficiencies

Iron deficiency

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Term
What is Leukoplakia?
Definition

 

White patch on the tongue caused by epstein barr virus

can be mistakened with thrush

 

[image]

Term
What are Koplick spots associated with?
Definition
Measles
Term
What is Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome?
Definition

aka hereditary hemorrhagic telengiectasia

AD disorder that causes lots of telangiectasias, aneuryms and Atrio-Ventricular Malformations

pts are prone to:

High output heart failure

nose bleeds

GI bleeds

Iron def

Visceral bleeds (even lung, liver, brain)

 

[image][image]

Term

What drugs can cause hyperplastic gums?

[image]

Definition
phenytoin
Term
Most squamous cell cancers of the head and neck are caused by what?
Definition

HPV

(also remember tobacco and alcool increase risk)

Term
What mutations are associated with squamous cell cancer?
Definition

p16

p53

Cyclin D1

 

Term
What is Xerostomia and what syndrome is it famously associated with?
Definition

dryness of the mouth

Sjorgens syndrome

autoimmune

-dry eyes and dry mouth

 

drugs can cause xerostomia also

 

dry mouth leads to cavities and susceptibilty to candida and difficulty swallowing and speaking

[image]

Term

What organisms can cause infection if the condition in this picture is not resolved

[image]

Definition

sialolithiasis: stone in the salivary gland

staph aureus and strep viridans (mutans)

Term
What is the most common benign salivary gland tumor and where is it usually found?
Definition

Pleomorphic adenomas

benign and likely in the parotid gland

containing mesenchymal and epithelial differentiation

[image]

2nd most common benign: Warthin cystic tumor

Term
What is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor?
Definition
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Term
What caues infectious rhinitis?
Definition

 

Coronavirus

Adenovirus

Rhinovirus

Echovirus

When you have a cold, take CARE

 

[image]

Term
What is the treatment for nasal polyps and allergic rhinitis?
Definition

Nasal steroids

[image]

Term

What is the treatment for eustachian tube dysfunction?

 

[image]

 

Definition

nasal steroids

 

Term

Can you label the sinuses?

[image]

Definition
Did you know?
Term

CT again of sinuses

[image]

Definition

Did you know?

[image]

Term

What patient populations are susceptible to infection by mucormycosis?

[image]

 

Definition

Diabetics with DKA

Leukemia

Immunocomprimised

Trauma/burns

Malnutrition

iron overload/ deferoxamine

 

Term
What cancers are associated with te RET oncogene?
Definition

MEN 2A

MEN 2B

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

Term

What drugs would you use for

anaphylactic shock

cardiogenic shock

septic shock

Definition

anaphylactic: epinephrine

cardiogenic: dobutamine

septic: norepinephrine

Term
What tissue is the thyroid derived from?
Definition

endoderm

 

Term

Patient comes in with this mass in the midline that moves wih swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis? What would you tell the pt?

[image]

Definition

Thyroglossal duct cyst

need to be rmoved because can become infected

 

Term
Congenital deficiency of thyroid hormone results in:
Definition

Cretinism:

failure of bone growth: short stature

lack of CNS maturation: mental retardation

[image]

 

Term
Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI) would be elevated in what disease?
Definition

Grave's Disease

TSI stimulates the Thyroid receptor

[image]

Term
How is Thyroid hormone synthesized?
Definition
[image]
Term
What is organification in the context of the thyroid gland?
Definition
binding of iodine to thyroglobulin
Term
What oxidizes iodine after it enters the follicular cells of the thyroid?
Definition
peroxidase
Term
Where is thyroid hormone stored in the body?
Definition

Follicle: months

Blood: 1-2 weeks

Cells: days or weeks

Term
What does Thyroid hormone do?
Definition

growth and maturation of bone (acts synergistically with growth hormone and somatomedin (IGF-1))

 

maturation of CNS (perinatal)

 

Beta-adrenergic effects on heart

 

increases BMR

 

Increases absorption of glucose from GI

 

Increases lipolysis

 

Increases glycogenolysis

 

Increases gluconeogenesis

Term

What happens to the total thyroid levels in the setting of

-hepatic failure

-pregnancy

 

What tes would you use to diagnose an abnormality?

Definition

hepatic failure: decreased TBG--> decreased total thyroid hormones but may have normal free hormone levels

 

pregnancy & oral contraceptive use: increased TBG-->increased total thyroid hormones but normal free hormone

 

TSH and free T4 are the two main tests to diagnose a thyroid disorder

Term
What type of HSR is Grave's disease?
Definition

Type III HSR

 

[image]

 

Term

What is the classic arrhytmia with Thyrotoxicosis?

How do you treat?

Definition

Atrial Fibrillation which causes a rapid ventricular rate

 

Tx:

beta-blocker: Propanolol

 

Anti-thyroid meds:

Propylthiouracil and Methimazole: inhibit peroxidase and prevent organification

 

 

PTU: blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 also

also best choice for pregnancy, less birth defects than methimazole

 

 

side effects: skin rash, aplastic anemia (one marrow suppression), agranulocytosis, hepatotoxicity

 

Our Method is to Prop the umbrella to Prepare for the storm. (Thyroid storm)

Term
What is a Toxic Multinodular Goiter?
Definition

focal patches of hyperfunctioning follicular cells that work independent of TSH

cause of hyperthyroidism

caused by a mutation of the TSH receptor

hot nodules: on radioactive throid scan, they show an increase of radioactive iodine uptake, usuallybenign

 

cold nodules: malignant

 

[image]

Term
What is the most common location for ectopic thyroid tissue?
Definition

THE TONGUE

[image]

Term
What would you expect to be the cause of hyperthyroidism in a pt. presenting with palpation of a single thyroid nodule?
Definition
toxic thyroid adenoma
Term
What would you expect to be the cause of hyperthyroidism in a pt. presenting with a recent study using IV contrast?
Definition

Jod-Basedow phenomenon:

thyrotoxicosis in a patent with iodine deficiency goiter is made iodine replete

Term
What is a Struma Ovarii?
Definition

Thyroid tertoma

 

Term

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

 

Definition

Hashimoto's thyroidits

increased risk of non-hodgkin's lymphoma

nontender thyroid

Hurthle cells

lymphocytic infiltrate

Term
Pt comes in with a very tender thyroid and jaw pain. What is the most likely diagnosis and what would you see histologically?
Definition

Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)

granulomatous inflammation


[image]

Term
A woman comes in complaining of weight gain and you notice a very hard, firm, fixed and painless goiter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Definition

Reidel's thyroiditis

cause of hypothyroidism

thyroid replaced by fibrous tissue

 

[image]

Term

In what maligancies do you see psammoma bodies?

[image]

Definition

"Sam Makes Me Pissed"

 

Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary

Meningioma

Malignant mesothelioma

Papillary carcinoma of thyroid

Term
Which thyroid cancer is associated with MEN 2A and MEN 2B?
Definition

Medullary carcinoma of the parafollicular C cells

see sheets of cells in amyloid

Term
Which thyroid cancers activate receptor tyrosine kinases?
Definition
Papillary and medullary carcinoma
Term
Which thyroid cancer is associated with the BRAF gene mutation?
Definition
Papillary carcinoma
Term
How does N-acetylcysteine act to treat acetaminophen overdose?
Definition

supplements sulfhydryl groups

and glutathione

 

[image]

Term
An increase of acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid is indicative of what?
Definition

Neural tube defect

failure of fusion

 

Term
HgC is due to what kind of genetic mutation?
Definition

Missense mutation

 

Electrophoresis

(+) HgA>HgS>HgbC (-)

Term
What does the psoas muscle do?
Definition

stabalizes the lower spine and contributes to hip flexion, external rotation, side bending and raising yourself when lying on your back

 

[image]

Term
Patients with an increased PCO2 will see what changes to their cerebral vasculature?
Definition

PCO2 is a potent cerebral vasodilator

 

cerebral vascular resistance will decrease

 

Term
What enzyme synthesizes GTP in the citric acid cycle?
Definition

Succinyl CoA synthetase in the reaction that converts Succinyl CoA to Succinate

 

[image]

Term
What drug can we use to treat staph aureus endocarditis or sepsis, that has the side effect of myopathy and elevated CPK?
Definition

Daptomycin is a lipopeptide antibiotic used in the treatment of systemic and life-threatening infections caused by Gram-positive organisms.

 

Cannot treat pneumonia because it binds to pulmonary surfactant

 

It inserts into the cell membrane in a phosphatidylglycerol-dependent fashion, where it then aggregates. The aggregation of daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in a loss of membrane potential leading to inhibition of protein, DNA, and RNA synthesis, which results in bacterial cell death

Term
What contains elastase in the lungs?
Definition
Neutrophils and alveolar macrophages contain proteases like elastase that can destroy lung parenchyma (emphysema) when secreted in excess or if left unchecked by deficient antiprotease activity
Term
What acts as the feedback system that monitors and maintains force and are highly sensitive to increases in muscle tension?
Definition

 

Golgi Tendon Organ

[image]

Term
Which TCA would you use for OCD?
Definition

Clomipramine

[image]

Term
A 32-year-old female with a history of depression presents to the emergency department after a suspected ingestion. She is confused, reporting blurry vision, and responding to visual hallucinations. Vital signs are as follows: Temperature: 98.9 degrees Farenheit (37.2 Celsius) Heart Rate: 105 bpm Blood Pressure: 90/65 mmHg Respiratory Rate: 21 respirations per minute O2 Saturation: 99% on room air Upon reviewing her ECG , the emergency room physician orders sodium bicarbonate. What medication was the likely cause of this patient's cardiac abnormality?
Definition
Amitryptiline
Term
What drug can treat both depression and anorexia?
Definition

Mirtazipine (Atypical antidepressant)

  • α2 receptor antagonist
    • ↑ release of NE and serotonin
  • 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
Term
What drugs can cause gynecomastia?
Definition

Spironolactone

 

Digitalis

 

Cimetidine

 

Chronic alcohol

 

Estogens

 

Ketoconazole

 

Marijuana

Term
What drugs can cause hot flashes?
Definition

Tamoxifen

 

Clomiphene

Term
What drugs can cause hypothyroidism?
Definition

Amiodarone

 

Lithium

 

Sulfonamides

Term
What drugs cause gingival hyperplasia?
Definition

phenytoin

 

verapamil

Term
What drug exacerbate gout?
Definition

Diuretics

 

-Furosemide

Thiazides

 

Niacin

 

Cyclosporine

Pyrazinamide

Term
What drugs are associated with myopathy?
Definition

(muscle paine and elevated serum CPK)

 

Fibrates

 

Niacin

 

Statins

 

Cochicine

 

IFN-alpha

 

Hydroxychloroquine

 

Glucocorticoids

 

 

Term
What drugs cause osteoperosis?
Definition

Corticosteroids

Heparin

Term
What drug is associated with tendon rupture and cartilage damage?
Definition
flouroquinolones
Term
Fanconi Syndrome is caused by what?
Definition

Proximal tubule defect

 

Expired Tetracyclines

heavy metal exposure

Wilsons disease

Term
What drugs can cause seizures?
Definition

Bupropion

Imipinem/Cilastatin

Isoniazid

Eveninf primrose oil

Enflurane

Tramadol

Metoclopramide

ALCOHOL AND bENZO WITHDRAWL

Term
What drugs cause the disulfuram like reaction?
Definition

Drink Corona at Midnight and Suffer Post Binge

 

Disulfuram

Cephalosporins (some not all)

Metronidazole

Sulfonylureas (1st gen)

Procarbazine

Term
What drugs are both nephrotoxic and ototoxic?
Definition

Aminoglycosides

Vancomycin

Loop Diuretics

Cisplatin

Term
What are the p450 Inhibitors
Definition

PICK EGS

 

Protease inhibitors

Isoniazid

Cimetidine

Ketoconazole

 

Erythromycin

Grapefruit juice

Sulfonamides

Term
How would you treat a beta blocker or verapamil overdose?
Definition

 

calcium and atropine

glucagon

Term
How do you treat an Amphetamine overdose?
Definition
Ammonium chloride
Term
How do you treat and iron overdose?
Definition
deferoxamine
Term
What is the antidote for arsenic, mercury, gold?
Definition

Dimercaprol

Succimer

Term
What would you use to treat lead poisoning in a child?
Definition

succimer, penicillamine, Dimercaprol commonly in kids

 

EDTA calcium for adults

Term
How would you treat copper, arsenic, gold toxicity?
Definition
penicillamine
Term
What is the antidote for cyanide?
Definition

Nitrites

thiosulfate

hydroxycobalamin

 

Term
What would you use to treat ethylene glycol toxicity (antifreeze)?
Definition

Fomepizole

 

dialysis

 

can also use ethanol to compete with it, but not standard

Term
How would you treat t-PA, streptokinase overdose?
Definition
Aminocaproic acid
Term
unilateral painful cystic lesion located near the lower vestibule adjacent to vaginal canal
Definition

Bartholin cyst

[image]

Term
post menopausal woman with very thin vulvar skin
Definition
Lichen sclerosis
Term
What causes Vulvar Carcinoma?
Definition

HPV related: dysplasia(VIN) from HPV 16 and 18 (younger women)

 

Non-HPV related: long standing Lichen sclerosis (postmenopausal)

Term

PAS+ , keratin+, and S100-

sample from the vulva

Definition

extramammary paget's disease

carcinoma (no underlying cancer like yo would see in the breast)

 

 

(Melanoma would ONLY be positive for S100)

Term
persistence of columnar epithelium in the upper 1/3 of vagina
Definition

Adenosis

 

associated with females exposed to DES in utero

increased risk of clear cell adenocarcinoma

Term

positive IHC staining for desmin and myoglobin

cytoplasmic cross striations

Definition
Rhabdomyosarcoma (rhabdomyoblast)
Term
Where would a vaginal tumor of the lower 2/3 of the vagina spread?
Definition

Inguinal nodes


 

(upper 1/3 goes to iliac nodes)

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