Term
| What are the Catalase (+) organisms? |
|
Definition
PLACESS- patients with CGD are at risk (NADPH oxidase deficiency)
1) Pseudomonas
2) Listeria
3) Aspergillus
4) Candida
5) E. coli
6) Staph
7) Serratia |
|
|
Term
| What organisms are dangerous in asplenic patients? |
|
Definition
Encapsulated: SHiNS SKis
1) Strep B
2) H. influenza B
3) N. Meningitis
4) Strep pneumo
5) Salmonella
6) Klebsiella |
|
|
Term
| Which viruses (RNA and DNA) lack envelopes? |
|
Definition
"CPR and PAPP smear"
Calici (norwalk), Picorna (PERCH), Reovirus, Parvo, Adeno, Papova, Polyoma |
|
|
Term
| What are the important histological features of Whipple's disease? |
|
Definition
"Foamy cream from a CAN"
1) Foamy PAS (+) macrophages
2) Cardiac, Arthritis and Neurological sequel |
|
|
Term
| What are the (-) strand RNA viruses? |
|
Definition
"Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication"
Arena, Bunya, Paramixo, Orthomixo, Filo, Rhabdo |
|
|
Term
| Which spirochetes can be seen by light microscopy and aniline dye? |
|
Definition
B is Big
Borrelia burdoferi, and not Leptospira or Treponema (need DFM) |
|
|
Term
| Which bugs can live intracellularly? |
|
Definition
"Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultiveLY"
Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacteria, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia
**Rickettsia and Chlamydia have no choice!" |
|
|
Term
| What are the segmented RNA viruses? |
|
Definition
BOAR
Bunya (hanta and arbo), Orthomixo (influenza), Arena (LMCV, lassa), Reovirus (colti and Rota) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major Picorna viruses? |
|
Definition
PERCH- all are icosahedral, enveloped, ssRNA (+), un-segmented viruses.
Polio, Echo, Rhino, Cocksackie, HAV |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common diseases caused by S. pneumonia? |
|
Definition
causes "MOPS"
Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the (+) strand RNA viruses? |
|
Definition
"went to a RETRO TOGA party and drank FLAVored CORONAs and ate CALIfornia HEPE PICkles"
Retro (HIV, HTLV-1), Toga (Rubella and EEE/VEE), Flavi (WNV, Dengue, Yellow fever), Corona, Calici (norwalk), Hepe (HDV), PIcorna (PERCH |
|
|
Term
| Which bugs are NOT covered by cephalosporins? |
|
Definition
LAME
Listeria, Atypicals, MRSA, Enterococci |
|
|
Term
| What diseases are commonly caused by H. influenza? |
|
Definition
HaEMOPhilus
Epiglottitis, Meningitis, Otitis media, PNeumonia |
|
|
Term
| What bugs are covered by Metronidazole? |
|
Definition
"GET GAP on the Metro"
Giardia, Entameoba histolytica, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Anaerobes, h. Pylori |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat MAC in an HIV patient? |
|
Definition
RAcES
Rifampin, Azithromycin, Ethambutol, Streptomycin |
|
|
Term
| Which organisms are obligate aerobes? |
|
Definition
"Nagging Pests Must Breathe"
Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Mycobacteria, Bacillus |
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria will not gram stain? |
|
Definition
"These Rascals May Microscopically Lose Color"
Treponema, Rickettsia, Mycoplasma, Mycoplasma, Legionella (silver stain), Chlamydia |
|
|
Term
| What are the Anaerobic bacteria? |
|
Definition
"Cant Breathe Air" found in GI
Clostridium, Bacteroides, Actinomyces |
|
|
Term
| What is the major side effect of using Trimethoprim? |
|
Definition
| TMP "Treats Marrow Badly"(similar to MTX, inhibiting DHFR) |
|
|
Term
| What are the important clinical findings associated with B. burdorferi infection? |
|
Definition
"BAKE a key Lime pie"
1) Bilateral bell's palsy (type II)
2) Arthritis (III)
3) Cardiac block (II)
4) Erythema migrans (I) |
|
|
Term
| What are the bacteria grow on Macconkey agar? |
|
Definition
Gram (-) lactose fermenters
Lactose is a KEE test with MacConKEES
1) Klebsiella (fast)
2) E. coli (fast)
3) Enterobacter (fast)
4) Citrobacter (slow)
5) Serratia (slow) |
|
|
Term
| Which antibiotics should NOT be given to pregnant women? |
|
Definition
“Countless SAFe Moms Take Really Good Care”
1) Clarithromycin (embryotoxin)
2) Sulfonamides
3) Aminoglycosides
4) FQs
5) Metronidazole
6) Tetracyclines (also QT)
7) Ribavirin
8) Griseofulvin
9) Chloramphenicol (UDG-transferase) |
|
|
Term
| What are the available live vaccines? |
|
Definition
“Small Yellow Chickens get vaccinated with Sabin’s and MMR”
Smallpox, Yellow fever, VZV, Polio (sabin), MMR |
|
|
Term
| What are the killed vaccines? |
|
Definition
RIP Always
Rabies, Influenza, Polio (salk), hAv |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining features of a HAV infection? |
|
Definition
"Asymptomatic, Acute and Alone"
No carriers, acute presentation and short incubation. |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining features of a HEV infection? |
|
Definition
| "Enteric, Expectant, Epidemic" |
|
|
Term
| What are the "urease-splitting" organisms? |
|
Definition
May produce MgNH4PO4 crystals.
"CHuck norris hates PUNKSS"
Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermitus, S. saprophyticus |
|
|
Term
| What are the "urease-splitting" organisms? |
|
Definition
May produce MgNH4PO4 crystals.
"CHuck norris hates PUNKSS"
Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermitus, S. saprophyticus |
|
|
Term
| Which neonatal infections are passed from mom? |
|
Definition
TORCHeS
Toxo, Rubella, CMV, HSV-2/HIV, Syphillis |
|
|
Term
| What are the common diseases produced by group A strep infection? |
|
Definition
Pharyngitis can result in rheumatic and scarlett Phever and glomerulonePHritis
1) Pharyngitis (Exotoxin)
2) Rheumatic fever (M protein)
3) Scarlett fever (Exotoxin)
4) PSGN (autoimmune) |
|
|
Term
| What are the Lysogenic toxin systems? |
|
Definition
Involve Phage modification and genetic expression of exotoxin.
ABCDE
shigA toxin, Botulinum, Cholera toxin, Diptheria toxin, Erythrotoxin (GAS) |
|
|
Term
| What are the ingested nematodes? |
|
Definition
those that EAT get sick.
Enterobius vermicularis, Ascariasis, Trichinella |
|
|
Term
| Which nematodes enter through the skin? |
|
Definition
"get in your free from the SANd"
Strongyloides, Ancyostoma duodenale, Necator americanus. |
|
|
Term
| What are the disease processes produced by Klebsiella? |
|
Definition
for A's of Klebsiella.
1) Aspiration
2) Abscess (lung and heart)
3) Alcohol
4) diAbetic |
|
|
Term
| How do you treat Actinomyces and Nocardia, respectively? |
|
Definition
SNAP
1) Sulfa for Nocardia
2) Actinomyces gets PCN |
|
|
Term
| What infections are caused by Pseudomonas? |
|
Definition
Wound or Respirator.
PSEUDOmonas
1) Pneumonia
2) Sepsis (black eschar)
3) External otitis
4) UTI
5) Drug use/Diabetic osteomyelitis
6) hOt tub folliculitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the CYP inducers in the liver? |
|
Definition
"Barb Steals Phen Phen and Refuses to eat Greasy Carbs Chronically"
Barbiturates, St. John's wart, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamezapine, Chronic alcohol |
|
|
Term
| What are the CYP inhibitors in the liver? |
|
Definition
MAGIC RACKS and Quinidine
Macrolides, Amiodarone, Grapefruit juice, INH, Cimetidine, Ritonavir, Acute Alcohol, Ciprofloxacin, Ketoconazole, Sulfonamide |
|
|
Term
| What are the class 1a anti-arrythmic drugs? |
|
Definition
"the Queen Proclaims Disorder"
1) Quinidine (Cyp inhibitor)
2) Procainamide
3) Disopyrazinamide |
|
|
Term
| What are the class 1b anti-arrythmic drugs? |
|
Definition
"Lisa cooks Mexican Tacos"
Lidocaine, Mixelitide, Tocainide |
|
|
Term
| What are the class III anti-arrythmic drugs? |
|
Definition
K+ channel blockers: K IS BAD
Ibutylide, Sotalol, Bretylium, Amiodarone, Dofetilide |
|
|
Term
| What are the major characteristics of Tetralogy of Fallot? |
|
Definition
"PROVe displacement of the infundibular septum"
1) Pulmonic stenosis
2) RVH
3) Overriding aorta
4) VSD |
|
|
Term
| What are the diagnostic characteristics of Rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
FEVERSS
Fever, Erythema marginum, valve damage, ESR, Red hot joints, St. vincents dance, Sub-q nodules |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
ABCCCD as well as peri-partum necrosis and hemochromatosis
1) Alcohol
2) Beri Beri (wet, high output)
3) Cocksackie virus
4) Chagas disease
5) Cocaine
6) Doxorubicin/Daunorubicin |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining features of Bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
FROM JANE
1) Fever
2) Roth spots
3) Osler nodes
4) Murmor
5) Janeway lesions
6) Anemia
7) Nail-bed hemorrhage
8) Emboli |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment protocol for Angina? |
|
Definition
Nevirapine and Nitrates both decrease preload
Verapamil and Beta blockers both decrease after load |
|
|
Term
| What are the major bones in the hand? |
|
Definition
"Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can't Handle"
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquitrium, Pisiform, Trapaezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate |
|
|
Term
| What are the lesion-defining characteristics of Melanoma? |
|
Definition
ABCD- Depth determines prognosis
Asymmetry, Boarders, Color, Diameter |
|
|
Term
| What the layers of the epidermis from top to bottom? |
|
Definition
Californian's Love Girls in String Bikinis
1) Corneum
2) Lucidum
3) Granulosum (decreased in Psoriasis)
4) Spinosum (increased in Psoriasis)
5) Basalis |
|
|
Term
| What are the major junctional complexes connecting epithelial cells? |
|
Definition
CADherens are Calcium-dependent adhesion molecules that bind to actin microfilaments.
1) Zona occludins (Claudins and Occludins)
2) Zona Adherens (Cadherins)
3) Macula Adherens (Desmosomes)
4) Gap junction
5) Hemidesmosome and Integrins. |
|
|
Term
| What structures are innervated by the radial nerve? |
|
Definition
C5-T1- Posterior Division medial to Axillary
BEST extensors
Brachioradialis, Extensors of wrist and fingers, Supinator, Triceps |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms associated with SLE? |
|
Definition
I'm DAMN SHARP
1) IG (anti-dsDNA, anti-SM, anti-phospholipid)
2) Discoid rash
3) Anti-nuclear antibody
4) Mucositis
5) Neurological
6) Serositis
7) Hemolytic (warm IgG)
8) Arthritis
9) Renal
10) Photosensitivity |
|
|
Term
| Describe the rash of hep C |
|
Definition
| Lichen Planus: Purple, Polygonal, Pruritic Papules |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic organization of the brachial plexus? |
|
Definition
Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beer
Root, Trunk, Division, Chord, Branches |
|
|
Term
| What are the major types of Epidermal appendages? |
|
Definition
SEA water.
1) Sebaceous (hair follicles)
2) Eccrine (Sweat)
3) Apocrine (Milky and bacteria-filled) |
|
|
Term
| Distinguish between the innervation pattern of the common peroneal and tibial nerves. |
|
Definition
Both are L4-S2
1) PED: Peroneal Everts and Dorsiflexes
2) TIP: Tibeal inverts and Plantarflexes |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics are unique to slow vs. fast muscle fibers? |
|
Definition
| Slow (1)= One Slow Red (myoglobin) OX (oxidation) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major muscles of the hand and their actions? |
|
Definition
All muscles OAF (oppose, adduct, flex)
DAB- dorsal interosseous aBduct
PAD- palmar interosseous aDduct |
|
|
Term
| What are the seronegative arthropathies? |
|
Definition
PAIR- B27 association
1) Psoriatic- pencil-in-a-cup, patchy
2) Ankylosing- Bamboo spine, AR and uveitis
3) IBD
4) Reiters (see, pee, climb tree) |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of presenting features of septic arthritis? |
|
Definition
STD- most likely N. gonorrhea
1) Senovitis
2) Tenosynovitis
3) Dermatitis |
|
|
Term
| What are the K+ sparing diuretics? |
|
Definition
the K STAys
1) Sprinolactone
2) Triamterene
3) Amiloride
**also eplenerone** |
|
|
Term
| What are the major side effects of using Loop diuretics? |
|
Definition
OH DANG (furosemide)
Ototoxicity, Hypokalemia, Diarrhea, Allergy, Nephritis, Gout
They lose K+, Ca+ but stimulate PGE2 (keep afferent arteriole dilated) |
|
|
Term
| What syndrome is associated with Wilm's tumor? |
|
Definition
11p deletion: WAGR
WT, Aniridia, GU malformation, Mental retardation |
|
|
Term
| What are the non-AG metabolic acidoses? |
|
Definition
HARD UP
Hyperalimentation, Acetazolamide, RTA, Diarrhea, Uretoenteral fistula, Pancreaticoduodenal fistula |
|
|
Term
| What are the AG metabolic acidoses? |
|
Definition
MUD PILES
Methanol, Uremia, DKA, Paraldehyde, INH, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, Salicylates (also causes respiratory alkylosis) |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of using Thiazide diuretics? |
|
Definition
HyperGLUC and hypokalemia metabolic alkylosis
Hyperglycemia, Hyperlipidemia, Hyperuricemia, Hypercalcermia, Sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are known to lead to transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder, renal pelvis and calyces? |
|
Definition
Pee SAC
Phenacetan, Smoking, Analine dyes, Cyclophosphamide |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of using Ace inhibitors? |
|
Definition
CAPTOpRIL
Cough, Angioedema, Pregnancy problems, Taste changes, hypOtension, Rash, Increased Renin, lower AT-II |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of treating with Acetazolamide? |
|
Definition
ACIDosis (hyperchloremic)
Also neuropathy, NH3 toxicity, Sulfa allergy |
|
|
Term
| What features are characteristic of Leu-Fremini Syndrome? |
|
Definition
AD germ line mutation in P53: SBLA cancer syndrome
Sarcoma, Breast, Leukemia, Adrenal |
|
|
Term
| What conditions cause granulomas? |
|
Definition
"Can Soon Make Clear Balls in Sarcoid Flare"
1) Cat Scratch (B. hensliae)
2) Syphillis
3) Mycobacteria
4) Crohn's
5) Berrylium
6) Sarcoid
7) Fungi (systemic) |
|
|
Term
| Which molecules are critical for leukocyte migration? |
|
Definition
smooth like "CILK"
C5a, IL-8, LTB4, Kalekrein |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are associated with Psammoma bodies? |
|
Definition
PSaMMOMa
1) Papillary thyroid cancer
2) Serous cystadenoma
3) Meningioma
4) Malignant mesothelioma |
|
|
Term
| Where do the right and left pulmonary arteries enter the lung in relation to the hilus? |
|
Definition
RALS
1) Right PA is anterior to hilus
2) Left PA is superior to hilus |
|
|
Term
| What are the major types of emboli? |
|
Definition
FAT BAT
Fat, Air, Thrombi, Bacteria, Amnionic, Tumor |
|
|
Term
| What are the common complications of lung cancer? |
|
Definition
SPHERE
1) SVC syndrome
2) Pancoast
3) Horner's
4) Endocrine
5) Recurrent laryngeal (hoarseness)
6) Effusion (pericardial or pleural) |
|
|
Term
| What are the cardiac features of Carcinoid syndrome? |
|
Definition
presents when tumor metastasizes to liver with flushing, wheezing and TIPS
1) Tricuspid insufficiency
2) Pulmonic stenosis |
|
|
Term
| How do you calculate alveolar dead space? |
|
Definition
Taco Paco Peco Paco
Vd= Vt (PaCo2 - PeCo2/PaO2)
Fraction represents “dilution” of alveolar PCO2 by dead-space air, which cannot contribute to exchange. |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of a right-shift in the Hb oxygen saturation curve? |
|
Definition
C-BEAT
CO2, BPG (2,3), Exercise, Acidosis, Temperature |
|
|
Term
| What structures puncture the diaphragm at T8, T10 and T12, respectively? |
|
Definition
I ate 10 eggs at 12
1) IVC (T8)
2) Esophagus and vagus (T10)
3) Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein (T12) |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical features of Neuroleptic malignant syndrome? |
|
Definition
FEVER (typical anti-psychotic agents)
Fever, Encephalopathy, Vitals, Elevated enzymes, Rigid muscles |
|
|
Term
| What are the high potency typical anti-psychotics |
|
Definition
Try to Fly HIgh- look out for extrapyramidal symptoms.
Trifluoperazine, Flurophenazine, Haloperidol |
|
|
Term
| What are the low potency typical anti-psychotics? |
|
Definition
Cheating Theives are low- anti-muscarinic, anti-histamine, anti-alpha
Chlorpromazine (corneal), Thiaridozene (retinal) |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of using Lithium to treat bipolar disorder (pretend you are not also giving an atypical anti-psychotic) |
|
Definition
MNOP
Movement (tremors), NDI, hypOthyroidism, Pregnancy problems |
|
|
Term
| What are the major diagnostic characteristics associated with MDD? |
|
Definition
SIGECAPS
Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetitie, Psychomotor, Suicidality |
|
|
Term
| What are the defining features of a manic episode? |
|
Definition
need 3 or more- DIG FAST
Distractible, Insensitive, Grandiosity, Flight of ideas, goal-directed Activity, decreased Sleep, Talkative |
|
|
Term
| What are the major atypical anti-psychotics? |
|
Definition
"its atypical for Old Closets to Risper Quietly from A to Z"
Olanzepine (weight), Clozapine (weight and aggranulocytosis), Reserpine, Quetiapine, Aripiprazole, Ziprasadone (QT) |
|
|
Term
| What are the mature ego defenses? |
|
Definition
Mature women wear a SASH
Suppression
Altruism
Sublimation
Humor |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of prescribing Trazadone as an atypical antidepressant? |
|
Definition
USed for depression with insomnia
TrazaBONE (gives you erections) |
|
|
Term
| What are the toxicities of using TCAs? |
|
Definition
(Iptylline, Ipramine + Doxepine and Amoxepin)
"Tri-C's"= Convulsions, Comas, Cardiotoxicity
Confusion and hallucinations in elderly patients from anti-cholinergic side effects. |
|
|
Term
| What are the MAO inhibitors? |
|
Definition
"MAO Takes Pride In Shanghai"
Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine, Isocarboxazide, Selegeline (selective MAO-B)
Associated with hypertensive crisis (tyramine) and serotonin syndrome (SSRI) |
|
|
Term
| What are the characteristic features of Panic Attacks? |
|
Definition
PANICS
Palpitations, Parasthesia, Abdominal distress, Nausea, Intense fear of dying or loosing control, Chest pain, Chills, Chocking, Sweating, Shaking, Shortness of breath. |
|
|
Term
| What are the class A personality disorders? |
|
Definition
Acussatory, Aloof and Awkard
a. Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal
b. Association with Schizophrenia |
|
|
Term
| What are the cluster B personality disorders? |
|
Definition
" Bad to the Bone"
1) Antisocial, Histrionic, Narcissistic, Borderline
2) Genetics related to mood disorders. |
|
|
Term
| What are the cluster C personality disorders? |
|
Definition
"Cowardly, Compulsive and Clingy"
1) Avoidant, OCPD, Dependent
2) Genetics with anxiety disorders |
|
|
Term
| Describe the evolution of extrapyramidal symptoms. |
|
Definition
4h, 4d, 4w, 4m
1) Acute dystonia
2) PD like
3) Restless
4) Tardive dyskinesia |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 signs of weak support of a new child? |
|
Definition
| Weak, Wordless, Wary, Wanting (socially) |
|
|
Term
| What are the risk factors for suicide completion? |
|
Definition
SAD PERSONS
Sex (M), Age (teen or elderly), Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol or drug, loss of Rational thought, Sickness, Organized plan, No spouse, lack of Social support |
|
|
Term
| What are the major SSRI's? |
|
Definition
Flashbacks PARalyze Senior CITizens
Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Citalopram
- Give cyrpoheptadine for 5-HT syndrome (blocks 5-HT2 receptors) |
|
|
Term
| Describe the basic structures of the branchial apparatus. |
|
Definition
CAP
1) Clefts (Ectoderm)
2) Arches (mesoderm and neural crest)
3) Pouches (endoderm) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major branchial arch derivatives by function? |
|
Definition
| “when at a restaurant of the golden Arches, children tend to first Chew (1), then Smile (2), then Swallow Stylishly (3), or Simply Swallow (4), and then speak (6). |
|
|
Term
| How does the location of Erythropoiesis change during development? |
|
Definition
Young Liver Synthesizes Blood
Yolk sac (3-10 weeks G), Liver (6w- birth), Spleen (15-30 weeks G), Bone marrow (22 weeks- Adult) |
|
|
Term
| What are the common Mesodermal defects? |
|
Definition
VACTERL
Vertebral, Anal atresia, Cardiac, TE fistula, Renal, Limb defects |
|
|
Term
| What are the major mesoderm derivatives? |
|
Definition
MESODERM
a. Muscle (skeletal, cardiac, smooth), Mesothelium (serosal linings)
b. Endothelium of vessels
c. Spleen
d. Osseous tissue, Ovaries, Outer layer of adrenal (cortex)
e. Dura, Ducts of genital system
f. Endothelium of lymphatics
g. Renal
h. Microglia, Male gonads |
|
|
Term
| Which organs have components derived from more than 1 embryological cell line? |
|
Definition
"Two Places At Once"
1) Thyroid- Follicular Cells (endoderm), Parafollicular cells (neural crest)
2) Pituitary- Adenohypophysis (Ectoderm, rathke's), Neurohypophysis (Neuroectoderm)
3) Adrenal- Cortex (mesoderm) and Medulla (neural crest)
4) Osteoid- most bones (mesoderm) and skull bones (NC) |
|
|
Term
| What are the Neural Crest derivatives? |
|
Definition
PC GAMES
1) Parafollicular (C) cells, Pigment (melanin) cells, Pharyngeal Cartilage
2) Ganglia (celiac)
3) Arachnoid (pia), AP septum
4) Medulla (adrenal)
5) Endocardial cushions and tEEth
6) Schwann cells |
|
|
Term
| What are the derivatives of the Neuroectoderm? |
|
Definition
NEURO
Neurons, Neuroglia (oligodendrocytes and astrocytes), piNEal gland, Neurohypophysis |
|
|
Term
| What are the derivatives of the Ectoderm? |
|
Definition
ECTADERM
1) Epidermis/Epithelial linings
2) Cochlear duct, semi-C canals
3) paroTid gland
4) ADenohypophesis
5) Enamel of teeth/lens of Eye
6) MaMMaRy gland |
|
|
Term
| What structures arise from the Mesonephric duct? |
|
Definition
SEED
Seminal vesicles, Epididymis, Ejaculatory duct, Ductus deferens |
|
|
Term
| What are the major branchial pouch derivatives? |
|
Definition
"Ear, Tonsils, Bottom to Top"
1) Middle ear cavity, Eustachian tube, Mastoid hair cells
2) Epithelial lining of palatine tonsils
3) Inferior parathyroids (Dorsal wings), Thymus (Ventral wings)
4) Superior parathyroids (Dorsal wings |
|
|
Term
| What are the major embryonic derivatives of the aortic arch? |
|
Definition
"first Make (1) Sexy Step (2), then Call (3) the Arches (4), sleep with Lungs (6)"
1) Maxillary artery (from external carotid)
2) Stapedial artery and hyoid artery
3) Common carotid and proximal internal carotid
4) Aortic arch (left) and Proximal subclavian (right)
6) Proximal pulmonary artery (left) and ductus arterioles |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic components of an APGAR score? |
|
Definition
2 points for each with a maximum of 10 taken 1 and 5 minutes post-birth.
Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respirations |
|
|
Term
| what are the core ethical principles of healthcare? |
|
Definition
All Bagels Need Jam
1) Autonomy
2) Beneficence
3) Non-malificience
4) Justice |
|
|
Term
| What are the major stages of sleep in terms of EEG waveforms? |
|
Definition
At night, BATS Drink Blood
Beta (eyes open awake)
Alpha (eyes closed awake)
Theta (early sleep)
Sleep spindles/K complexes
Delta waves (deep sleep)
Beta waves (REM) |
|
|
Term
| What are reportable conditions that do not violate patient rights? |
|
Definition
"Start Telling Her Friends"
STDs, TB, Hepatitis, Food poisoning |
|
|
Term
| What are the clinical features associated with the common complications of pre-ecclampsia (proteinuria, hypertension, edema) |
|
Definition
HELLP
Hemolytic anemia, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low platelets, |
|
|
Term
| What bugs are treated by Cefazolin? |
|
Definition
PEcK
Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella |
|
|
Term
| What bugs are treated by Cefazolin? |
|
Definition
PEcK
Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella |
|
|
Term
| What bugs are treated by Cefazolin? |
|
Definition
PEcK
Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella |
|
|
Term
| What bugs are treated by Ampicillin? |
|
Definition
HELPSS
H. influenza, E. coli, Listeria, Proteus, Salmonella, Shigella |
|
|
Term
| What bugs are treated with Cefuroxime? |
|
Definition
HEN PEcKS
H. influenza, Enterobacter, Neisseria, Proteus, E.coli, Klebsiella, Serratia |
|
|
Term
| What is the path that the sperm take from the seminiferous tubules out of the penis? |
|
Definition
SEVEN UP
S. tubules, Epidiymis, Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct, nothing, Urethra, Penis |
|
|
Term
| Which ovarian tumor is benign, unilateral and bladder-like? |
|
Definition
| Brenner's tumor- yellow tumor that is Benign and Bladder-like |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs cause gynecomastia? |
|
Definition
Some Drugs Create Awesome Knockers
Spironolactone, Digoxin, Cimetidine, Alcohol, Ketoconazole. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major ovarian ligaments? |
|
Definition
1) SuSpensory SuSpends the ovaries against the lateral pelvic wall (contains ovarian vessels)
2) Cardinal ligament connects uterus to lateral pelvic wall (contains uterine vessels)
3) Round ligament is remnant of gubernaculum and connects uterus to labia majora
4) Broad ligmanent (mesovariam, mesosalpinx, mesometrium) suspects tubes, ovaries and uterus against inferior pelvic wall
5) Ligament of ovary Latches ovary to Lateral uterus |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic features of menopause? |
|
Definition
HHAVOC
Hirsutism, Hot flashes, Atrophy of vagina, Osteoporosis, CAD (lack of HDL) |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of using Sildenafil? |
|
Definition
"Hot and Heavy, then Headache, Heartburn and Hypotension"
Headache, flushing, dyspepsia, impaired blue-green vision, life-threatening hypotension with nitrates. |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment protocol for post-gestational endometritis? |
|
Definition
"TCA is not just for the depressed"
Ticarcillin, Cefoxitin, Ampicillin |
|
|
Term
| What are the major stages of an erection/ejaculation in terms of neural control? |
|
Definition
"Penis Has Propulsion"
1) Erection: Parasympathetic (Pelvic nerve S2-S4)
2) Sympathetic: Hypogastric nerve (T12-L1)
3) Visceral/somatic: Pudendal nerve (S2-4) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics? |
|
Definition
PEA (shape of zero)
Phenytoin, Ethanol, Aspirin |
|
|
Term
| Which autonomic chemicals work via Gq GPCR's? |
|
Definition
"HAV 1 M & M"
H1, A1, V1, M1, M3
PLC...IP3/DAD....PKC/Ca |
|
|
Term
| Which autonomic chemicals work via Gi GPCR's? |
|
Definition
"MAD 2's"
M2, Alpha-2, D2
Inhibits AC/cAMP/PKA/MLCK |
|
|
Term
| Which autonomic chemicals act via Gs GPCR? |
|
Definition
"Have 2 Beers and Drink 2 Vodkas.
H2, B1/2, D1, V2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the therapeutic index of a drug and how is it calculated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you treat Digoxin toxicity? |
|
Definition
KLAM
Potassium, Lidocaine, Anti-Fab, Mg2+ |
|
|
Term
| What are the sulfa drugs? |
|
Definition
Popular FACTSSS
Probenecid, Furosemide, Acetazolamide, Celecoxib, Thiazide, Sulfonamide, Sulfonylurea, Sulfsalazine
Watch out for pruritis, fever, urinary retention, SJ syndrome, TP, HA, agranulocytosis. |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to cause cutaneous flushing? |
|
Definition
VANC
Vancomycin, Adenosine, Naicin, Calcium-channel blockers |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs cause hepatic necrosis? |
|
Definition
HAVAc
Halothane, Acetaminophin, Valproic acid, Amanita phalloides |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to cause aggranulocytosis? |
|
Definition
"Aggranulocytosis Can Certainly Cause Pretty Major Damage"
Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Colchicine, Propylthiouracyl, Methimazole, Dapsone |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs cause aplastic anemia? |
|
Definition
"Compounds Bring Many Problems with No cells"
Chloramphenicol, Benzene, Methimazole, Propylthiouracil, NSAIDS |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs cause G6PD deficiency? |
|
Definition
"hemolysis IS PAIN"
INH, Sulfonamide, Primaquine, Aspirin, Ibuprofin, Nitrofurantoin |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to cause Megaloblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
"having a Blast with PMS"
Phenytoin (intestinal conjugase), MTX, Sulfonamide |
|
|
Term
| What are the B1-selective beta blockers? |
|
Definition
"A-BEAM"
Atenolol, Betaxolol, Esmolol (short), Acetbutolol (partial), Metoprolol |
|
|
Term
| What are the non-selective beta blockers? |
|
Definition
"Please Try Not b-ing Picky"
Propranolol (anti-arrythmic), Timolol (ocular), Nadolol, Pindolol (partial
**PIndolol and Acetbutolol are partial agonists**
**Labetolol and Carvedilol also have alpha antagonism** |
|
|
Term
| Which beta blockers are partial agonists? |
|
Definition
PAPA
Partial Agonists: Pindolol (non-selective), Acetbutolol (B1 selective) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major uses of beta blockers? |
|
Definition
"HAMS Can Grub"
Hypertension (heart and kidney), Angina, MI, SVT (propranolol and esmolol), CHF, Glaucoma (timolol) |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are weak acids? What does this have to do with their excretion? |
|
Definition
"PAM Take your Base": get rid of them with NaHCO3
Phenobarbital, Aspirin, MTX, TCA
**Amphetamines are bases and must be treated with NH4Cl |
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of ACh-I/Organophosphate poisoning? |
|
Definition
Give atropine/pralidoxime
DUMBELLS
Diarrhea, Urination, Myosis, Bradycardia, Excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, Lacrimation, Salivation, Sweating |
|
|
Term
| What are the Phase 2 drug metabolism reactions? |
|
Definition
Geriatric patients get GAS (they lose phase 1 CYP)
Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to cause Stephen Johnson allergic reactions? |
|
Definition
"bad rash after a PEC SLAPP"
PCN, Ethosuxamide, Carbamezapine, Sulfonamide, Lamotrigine, Allopurinol, Phenobarbitol, Phenytoin |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs cause SLE-like symptoms? |
|
Definition
"Its not HIPP to have lupus"
Hydralazine, INH, Procainamide, Phenytoin |
|
|
Term
Which Cholinomietics are used to treat
1) Post-surgery paralytic illeus, bladder disfunction
2) Glaucoma
3) Produce lacrimation |
|
Definition
1) Bethanocol
2) Carbachol
3) Pilocarpine |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of Atropine overdose? |
|
Definition
| Hot as hair, Red as beet, Blind as bat, Mad as hatter, Dry as bone. |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to induce myopathies under certain conditions? |
|
Definition
"Fish N CHIPS can Give Myopathy"
Fibrates, Niacin, Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, IFN-a, Penicillamine, Statins, Glucocorticoids |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs are known to cause pulmonary fibrosis? |
|
Definition
BLAB
BLeomycin (test cancer), Amiodarone, Busulfan |
|
|
Term
| What are the beta-2 agonists? |
|
Definition
MAST
Metaproterenol, Albuterol, Salmeterol, Tolbutamine (All are B1> B2)
Ritodrine is ONLY B1 |
|
|
Term
| What drugs are known to cause photosensitivity? |
|
Definition
"SAT for a photo"
Sulfonamides, Amiodarone, Tetracycline |
|
|
Term
| How do DNA methylation and Acetylation affect transcription? |
|
Definition
Methylation makes it Mute
Acetylation makes it Active
HeteroChromatin is Highly Condensed |
|
|
Term
| What are the purines and pyrimidines? |
|
Definition
Purines- PURe As Gold
Pyrimidines- CUT the Pye
THYmine has a meTHYl |
|
|
Term
| Which amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis? |
|
Definition
GAG
- Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine |
|
|
Term
| What is the pathophysiology underlying Lesch Nyhan syndrome? |
|
Definition
"Hes Got Purine Recovery Trouble"
XLR defect in HGPRT, resulting in excess uric acid production (impaired purine recycling) and de novo synthesis.
Retardation, self-mutilation, aggression, gout, choeoathetosis. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major types of RNA and what are their defining characteristics? |
|
Definition
Rampant Massive Tiny
rRNA (RNA poli 1)
mRNA (RNA poli 2)
tRNA (RNA poli 3) |
|
|
Term
| What are the stop codons and what are they recognized by? |
|
Definition
UGA- U Go Away
UAG- U Are Gone
UAA- U Are Away
Termination factor will recognize it. |
|
|
Term
| What portion of a tRNA molecule binds an amino acid? |
|
Definition
| 3' CCA sequence- Can Carry Acid |
|
|
Term
| What is the differential role of ATP and GTP in protein synthesis? |
|
Definition
ATP- tRNA Activation (charging)
GTP- tRNA Gripping and Going places |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 major types of collagen and their derivatives? |
|
Definition
Be (So Totallly) Cool, Read Books
1) Bones, Skin, Tendon
2) Cartilage, vitreous body, nucleus pulposis
3) Reticulin
4) Basement membrane or basal lamina |
|
|
Term
| What are the XLR disorders? |
|
Definition
"Be Wise, Fool's Gold Heed's Silly Hopes"
- Brutons agammaglobulinemia
- Wiskott-Aldrich
- Freidrich's ataxia
- G6PD deficiency
- Ocular albinism
- Lesch Nyham
- Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
- Hunter's syndrome
- Hemophilia A/B |
|
|
Term
| What is the defect in Duchenne's muscular dystrophy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the tri-nucleotide repeat disorders? |
|
Definition
X-Girlfriends First Aid Helped Ace My Test
1) fragile X (CGG)
2) Friedrich's ataxia (GAA)
3) Huntington'ns (CAG)
4) Myotonic dystrophy (CTG) |
|
|
Term
| What are the physical findings associated with Fragile X? |
|
Definition
| eXtra large testes, jaws and ears |
|
|
Term
| What defects are seen in the 22q11 deletion syndromes? |
|
Definition
CATCH-22 (3/4 branchial arch)
Cleft palate, Abnormal facies, Thymic, Cardiac, Hypocalcemia
Velocardiafacial has Palate, Facies and Cardiac
DiGeorge has Thymic, Cardiac and Parathyroid |
|
|
Term
| Which molecules are derived from Riboflavin and what are their functions? |
|
Definition
FAD ad FMN are derived from RiboFlavin (B2)
They serve as cofactors in oxidation/reduction reactions (Succinate DH to make fumarater).
When depleted, they give the "2 C's of B2," Cheilosis and Corneal vascularization (scaling of mouth with difficulty seeing) |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic symptoms of B3 deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Diarrhea, Dementia and Dermatitis= Pellagra |
|
|
Term
| What kinds of defects might a patient have with B5 deficiency? |
|
Definition
DEAR
Dermatitis, Enteritis, Alopecia, adRenal insufficiency
Panthothenic acid is Coenzyme A, which is utilized in the TCA cycle and by fatty acyl transferase. |
|
|
Term
| What are the presenting features of Kwarshiorkor? |
|
Definition
MEAL
Malnutrition, Edema, Anemia, Liver (fatty) |
|
|
Term
| Which enzymatic reactions take place both in the mitochondria and the cytosol? |
|
Definition
"HUGs take 2"
Heme synthesis, Urea synthesis, Gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
| What are the major substrates of the TCA cycle? |
|
Definition
Citrate Is Krebs Starting Substrate For Making Oxaloacetate
Citrate (6C), Isocitrate (6C), a-KG (5C), Succinyl CoA (4C), Succinate (4C, Fumarate (4C), Malate (4C), OAA (4C) |
|
|
Term
| What are the essential amino acids? |
|
Definition
PVT TIM HALL
Phe, Valine, Tryptophan, Threonine, Isoleucine, Methionine, Histidine, Arginine, Leucine, Lysine |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 enzymes of gluconeogenesis? |
|
Definition
Pathways Produce Fresh Glucose
1) Pyruvate carboxylase (Pyruvate to OAA)
- mitochondria with biotin, ATP
2) PEPCK (OAA to PEP)
- cytosol with GTP
3) F1,6BP (F1,6BP to F6P)
- cytosol
4) Glucose 6 Phosphatase (G6P to Glucose)
- cytosol (think Von Gierke's) |
|
|
Term
| What are the major enzymes involved in disorders of fructose and galactose metabolism? |
|
Definition
FAB GUT
Fructose is to Aldolase B (Fructose intolerance) as Galactose is to UridylTransferase (Classic galactosemia).
1) Essential fructosurea- AR defect Fructokinase
2) Fructose intolerance- AR defect in aldolase B (Hypoglycemia, jaundice, cirrhosis, vomiting)
3) Galactokinase deficiency: AR defect with infantile cataracts, difficulty following objects and social smile
4) Classic Galactosemia: AR defect in UridylTransferase with Infantile cataracts, jaundice, hepatomegaly and failure to thrive. |
|
|
Term
| What are the major chemicals utilized in the urea cycle? |
|
Definition
"Ordinarily, Careless Crappers Are Also Frivolous About Urination"
1) Ornithine + Carbamoyl phosphase= Citrulline
2) Citrulline + Aspartate= Arginosuccinate
3) Arginosuccinate= Fumarate + Arginine
4) Arginine= Urea + Ornithine |
|
|
Term
| Which components cannot be degraded in Maple Syrup Urine disease? |
|
Definition
"I Love Vermont maple syrum from trees with branches"
Branched chain amino acid metabolism (Isoleucine, Leucine, Valine) leading to increased a-keto acids with severe CNS defects and death. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 Glycogen storage diseases? |
|
Definition
"Very Poor Carb Storage"
1) Von gierke (hepatomegaly + lactate): Glucose-6-Phosphatase
2) Pompe (heart): Lysosomal Alpha 1,4 glucosidase (acid maltase)
3) Cori (hepatomegaly - lactate): Alpha 1,6 glucosidase (debranching enzyme)
4) McArdle (muscle)- Glycogen phosphorylase in skeletal muscle |
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