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Step 1: CVS
DIT S-T
239
Medical
Graduate
03/21/2015

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
What adult structures are derived from the 3rd, 4th, and 6th aortic arches?
Definition

3rd arch: Common carotid arter and proximal internal carotid

 

4th arch: Left: aortic arch. Right: proximal right subclavian

 

6th arch: Proximal pulmonary arteries and ducus arteriosus

 

[image]

Term

What cell wall inhibitor matches the following statement?

• Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin


• Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis


• Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides


• Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis

  • Single dose treatment for gonorrhea
Definition
  • Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin: Amoxicillin with Clavulanic acid

• Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis

Penicillin V (oral), Aminopenicillins, Ampicillin or 1st generation cephalosporins


• Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides

Cephalosporins


• Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis

Penicillin G (IV)

  • Single dose treatment for gonorrhea 

Ceftriaxone

 

Term
What are the 3 pathologic truncus arteriosus manifestations and what causes them?
Definition

caused by failure or disruption in the migration of neural crest cells

 

Transposition of the great vessels

[image]

 

Tetrology of Fallot

[image]

 

Persistent truncus arteriosus

[image]

Term
Name 6 different truncoconical (spiral) septum defects.
Definition
Fenestrae
• Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
• Tetralogy of Fallot
• Persistent truncus arteriosus
• Transposition of the great vessels (RV → aorta, LV→ PA)
• Dextrocardia
Term
Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to the following aduft structure?
• Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
• Coronary sinus
• SVC
• Smooth parts of the left and right ventricle
• Smooth part of the right atrium
• Trabeculated left and right atrium
• Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle
Definition

• Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk :

Truncus arteriosus


• Coronary sinus: Left horn of sinus venosus


• SVC: Right common and anterior cardinal vein


• Smooth parts of the left and right ventricle: Bulbus Cordis
• Smooth part of the right atrium: Right horn of sinus venosus
• Trabeculated left and right atrium: Primitive Atria


• Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle: Primitive ventricle

Term

What structure divides the truncus arteriosus into the aortic and pulmonary trunks?

What is the cellular origin of this structure?

Definition

Spiral/ Aorticopulmonary septum

neural crest cells

 

[image]

Term
What is the most highly oxygenated structure in fetal circulation?
Definition

Umbilical VEIN

[image]

Term

What causes the foramen ovale and ducts arteriosus to close at birth?

 

What medication can help close the ducus arteriosus?

Definition

at birth the infant takes a breath which decreases pulmonary vasculature resistance and increases left atrial pressure in comparison. This increased pressure causes the foramen ovale to close. The increase in oxygen leads to a decrease in prostaglandins and the ductus arteriosus is closed.

 

Indomethacin will close it

 

Prostaglandins E1 and E2 keeps the PDA open

Term
What genetic abnormality is commonly associated with endocardial cushion defects?
Definition

Trisomy 21

[image]

 

Term
Which TB drug requires an acidic environment to exert its effects?
Definition

Pyrazinamide

[image][image]

Term
Metformin is absolutely contraindicated in patients with___ ; therefore, you should always check____ before prescribing this medication.
Definition

Renal Failure

[image]

Liver dysfunction

CHF

Alcoholism

 

Always check Serum Creatinine

[image]

 

Term
What are the common symptoms of carcinoid syndrome?
Definition

Bronchospasm (wheezing)

Right sided heart murmor or lesions

Diarrhea

Flushing

Term
What are the causes of Right to Left Shunts?
Definition

5 T's

 

Tetrology of Fallot (Pulmonary stenosis→RV Hypertrophy, overriding aorta, VSD)

 

Transposition of great vessels

 

Truncus Arteriosus (persistent)

 

Tricuspid Atresia

 

Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR)

 

Term
What are the risk factors for Tetrology of Fallot?
Definition

Trisomy 21

Trisomy 13

Trisomy 18

Cri-du-chat syndrome

Term
How is Tetrology of Fallot a right to left shunt?
Definition

The stenotic pulmonic valve causes an increase in pressure causing blood from the right ventricle to flow into the left ventricle throught the ventricular septal defect

 

[image]

Term
How can you immediately help an infant suffering a tet spell?
Definition
put their knees to their chest to increase the afterload to relieve the cyanotic spell
Term
Infants of Diabetic mothers are more likely to have what?
Definition

Transposition of the Great vessels

 

Hypoglycemia

 

Large for gestational age

(increased risk of clavicle fractures, shoulder dystocia, Erb-Duchenne palsy, failure to progress during delivery)

Term
What is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly?
Definition

Ventral Septal Defect

 

Left to Right Shunt

40% close in first 6 months

Term
What kind of heart sounds do you hear in an Atrial Septal Defect?
Definition

Loud S1

Wide, Fixed, Split S2

 

aortic valve is closing before the pulmonic valve because the pulmonary valve is overloaded with blood

Term

What is infantile coarctation of the aorta?

What genetic syndrome is this associated with?

Definition

narrowing of the aorta proximal to the ductus arteriosus

 

Associated with Turners syndrome.

can cause notching of the ribs

 

[image][image][image]

Term
Women with Turners syndrome are mores susceptible to what congenital heart defects?
Definition

aortic coarctation

bicuspid aortic valves-->increased risk of endocarditis

[image][image]

Term

What is Ebstein's anomaly? What causes it?

 

Definition

tricuspid leaflets are displaces into right ventricle, hypoplastic right ventricle, tricuspid regurg or stenosis

 

caused by maternal Lithium use

 

[image]

Term
Endocardial cushion defects are associated with what genetic syndrome?
Definition

Trisomy 21

 

AV canal defect leading to ASD, VSD, AVD or all four

[image]

Term
DiGeorge is associated with what congenital heart defect?
Definition

Truncus Arteriosis

Tetrology of Fallot

 

22q11 defect

[image]

Term
What congenital anomaly is congenital rubella associated with?
Definition

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

Pulmonary artery stenosis

Term
What heart defect is associated with the following disorder?
• Chromosome 22q 11 deletions
• Down syndrome
• Congenital rubella
• Turner's syndrome
• Marfan's syndrome
Definition

• Chromosome 22q 11 deletions

Truncus arteriosus, Tetrology of Fallot


• Down syndrome

Endocardial cushion defect: ASD,VSD,AVD, or all four


• Congenital rubella

PDA, Pulmonary artery stenosis, septal defect


• Turner's syndrome

Coarctation


• Marfan's syndrome

aortic insufficiency

Term

A 45-year-old male presents with a BP of 160/90 on the right arm and 170/92 on the left arm.

There are no palpable pulses in the feet/ankle.

What problem does this patient most likely have?

Definition

Coarctation of the aorta

adult type (distal to ligamentum arteriosum)

Term
What irreversible enzymes are involved in gluconeogenesis?
Definition

Pyruvate Carboxylase

(pyruvate→oxaloacetate)

____________________________

Pep Carboxykinase

(oxaloacetate→PEP)

________________________________

 

Fructose-1-6-Bisphosphatase

(Fructose-1-6-bisphosphate→Fructose-6-phosphate)

__________________________________________

 

Glucose-6-Phosphotase

(Glucose-6-phosphate→Glucose)

 

Term

What cranial nerves innervate the tongue in the following ways?

• Taste in the anterior 2/3
• Taste in posterior 1/3 (main innervation)
• Motor
• Sensation in the anterior 2/3
• Sensation in the posterior 1/3

Definition

• Taste in the anterior 2/3

Facial nerve


• Taste in posterior 1/3 (main innervation)

Glossopharyngeal


• Motor

Hypoglossal


• Sensation in the anterior 2/3

Mandibular division of the Trigeminal nerve


• Sensation in the posterior 1/3

Glossopharyngeal

Term

Which tumors arise centrally in the lung and are linked to smoking?

Which tumors arise peripherally in the lung and are less linked to smoking (if at all)?

Definition

Central:

Squamous cell and Small cell lung cancer


______________

 

Peripheral:

Adenocarcinoma and Large Cell carcinoma

Term
What is Cardiac output?
Definition
CO=SV x HR
Term
What is Fick's priniciple?
Definition
[image]
Term
How do you calculate MAP?
Definition
[image]
Term
What does Nitroglycerine do?
Definition
venodilates and cause a decrease in preload
Term
What does hydralazine do?
Definition
vasodilates (arteries) and decreases afterload (back pressure on the aorta)
Term
How do ACE inhibitors an ARBs effect preload and afterload?
Definition
decrease both preload and afterload
Term
What kind of receptor is found on cardiac myoctes?
Definition
[image]
Term
What is the pulse pressure in a patient with systolic BP of 150 and a MAP of 90?
Definition

MAP=1/3systolic + 2/3diastolic

90=1/3(150)+2/3 diastolic

90=50+2/3diastolic

40=2/3diastolic

120=2(diastolic)

60=diastolic

 

pulse pressure= systolic-diastolic

150-60=90

90mmHg

 

Term
What medications affect a heart's contractility?
Definition

Increase contractility:

Digoxin

Catecholamines

 

Decrease contractilty

Beta blockers

Non-dihydropyridine CCBs

Term
What ionic changes affect a heart's contractility
Definition

Increase: ↑intracellular Calcium

↓extracellular Na

Term
What ionic changes affect a heart's contractility
Definition

Increase contractility: ↑intracellular Calcium

↓extracellular Na

____________________________________

 

Decrease contractilty: acidosis

Term
How can the myocardial oxygen demand be decreased in circumstances where the heart is ischemic?
Definition

decrease afterload

decrease contractilty

decrease heart rate

Term
What can increase stroke volume for a given preload?
Definition

Increased ionotropy/contractility:

-sympathetic stimulation

-Inotropic drugs

-Increasing intracellular Calcium

-Decreasing extracellular Na

Term
What factors affect stroke volume?
Definition

afterload

 

 

preload

 

 

contractility

Term
What is the heart ejection fraction?
Definition

index of ventricular contractility

 

EF= SV/EDV

 

 

 

Term

What is the rate limiting of the citric acid cycle?

 

heavily regulated step?

Definition

Isocitrate dehydrogenase os rate limiting

 

alpha-ketoglutorate dehydrogenase is heavily regulated

Term
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is a good indicator of what?
Definition

Left atrial pressure

measured by a Swan Ganz catheter

 

ex:

wedge pressure is greater than left ventricular diastolic pressure in the setting of mitral stenosis

[image]

Term
What is Anemia?
Definition

a reduction in circulating RBC mass

resulting in hypoxia and presenting as weakness, fatigue, dyspnea, pale conjunctiva and skin,

 

possibly headache, lightheadedness, angina (especially with prexisting CAD)

Term
How do we measure anemia?
Definition

Hgb

Hematocrit

RBC count

 

each is concentration dependent so can be misleading of the change in RBC mass. For example, a preganant woman's blod volume increases which may cuase her hematocrit and Hgb to go down but her blood cell mass is still normal--only thing that changed was the volume causing dilution. But we use this as a way to determine anemia as best we can

Term
What are the normal values for Hemoglobin in males and females?
Definition

Hgb<13.5 g/dl males

 

Hgb<12.5 g/dl in females

(can be lower with mestrual cycle)

Term
What is normal MCV of a RBC?
Definition

80-100

 

below 80= microcytic

 

above 100=macrocytic

Term
What is the DIT explanation of micocytic anemia?
Definition

Microcytosis is due to an extra division due to a decreased production of hemoglobin

 

(think about it like the cells divide more and become smaller to try and maintain that optimal concentration and red color bc there is less hemoglobin)

Term
What are the four major causes of microcytic anemias?
Definition

1-Iron deficiency Anemia (most common type-low iron)

 

2-Anemia of Chronic disease (inaccessible, this decreased Iron)

 

3-Sideroblastic Anemia (decreased protoporphyrin)

 

4-Thalassemia (decreased globin)

Term
Where is Iron absorbed?
Definition

duodenum

 

enterocytes regulate absorption

Term

Why is entry so heavily regulated and bound?

How is it transported and stored in the body?

Definition

There is no way for the body to get rid of iron (outside of menses and sloughing the skin)

 

Iron can create free radicals so it is bound to transferrin in blood to be delivered to liver and bone marrow macrophages for storage

 

stored in ferrtin within the macrophages

 

Term
What are the lab measurements for Iron status?
Definition

Serum Iron (measures Iron in the blood)

 

TIBC (measures transferrin molecules in blood)

 

% saturation (measures bound transferrin molecules in blood)

 

Serum ferritin (measures stored iron in bone marrow macrophages and liver)

Term
What are the two general causes of Iron deficiency?
Definition
Dietary insufficiency or Blood loss
Term

What is the most common cause of Iron deficiency in:

Infants

Children

Adults

Elderly

Definition

Infants: breast feeding

 

Children: Poor diet

 

Adult males: peptic ulcer disease

Adult femailes: menorrhagia or pregnancy

 

Elderly: Colon polyps/carcinoma (Western)

Hookworm: majority countries

Term
Which form of Iron is more easily absorbed and what os the relation to gastrectomy?
Definition
Fe2+ is more easily absorbed and remains in this state in acidic environments. Those with gastrectomy lose the acidic stomach and some of that easily absorbable Iron resulting in an increased risk for iron deficiency
Term

What happens to ferritin and TIBC during the first stage of iron deficiency?

2nd, 3rd, 4th?

Definition

1)↓Ferritin ↑TIBC

 

storage iron is depleted first causing a decrease of the storage iron protein ferritin in the serum and an increase in the Total Iron Binding Capcity bc the liver pumps put more transferrin to pick up iron

 

2)Serum Iron ↓and

% saturation↓


less molecules of iron bound to transferrin molecules

 

3) Normocytic Anemia

initially the bone marrow will just make less, but normal RBCS

 

4)Microcytic Anemia

In this stage, the iron deficiency becomes so sever, and the bone marrow starts pumping out cells that have undergone more divisions so they will be microcytic and with less hemoglobin ( hypochromic) RBCs

 

 

Term
What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient that is anemic and presents with koilonychia and pica?
Definition

Iron Deficiency

 

koilonychia:[image]

Term
Why is the RDW increased in iron deficiency anemia?
Definition
RDW measures the distribution of sizes of RBCs. In the 3rd stage of Iron Defeiciency Anemia,  the cells are normocytci; however in the 4thstage the cells are microcytic. This increases teh range of sizes (or width) and increases RDW
Term
Why is FEP Increased in Iron Deficiecny Anemia?
Definition

FEP is Free Erythroctye Protoporphyrin

In thes etting of Iron Deficiency Anemia, the problem is iron not protoporphyrin. Heme is made up of Iron and protoporphyrin so because there isn't enough iron to bind protoporphyrin, there will be an increased amount of free protoporphyrin in the RBC

Term
How can you tell on histology with RBs and lymphocytes that the RBCs are larger or smaller than normal?
Definition

RBCs should be about the size of the nucleus of a lymphocyte

 

image of normocytic anemia

[image]

Term
What is the treatment of Iron deficiency anemia due to malnutrition?
Definition
Ferrous sulfate
Term

What is the most common anemia in hospitalized patients?

 

What is the pathogenesis?

Definition

Anemia of chronic disease (microcytic anemia)

 

chronic inflammation causes an increase in an acute phase reactant hepcidin which sequesters iron in storage sites and limits iron transfer from macrophages to erythroid precursors

 

hepcidin also suppresses EPO production

 

why?

the body thinks there is a microbe present causing inflammation and it holds onto the iron so that the "invading microorganism" can't use it to divide and be successful in the body. However this happens with chronic diseases that are not due to microbial infection all the time

 

Term
What happens to ferritin, TOBC, serum iron, FEP and & saturation in anemia of chronic inflammation?
Definition

↑ferritin ↓TIBC


↓serum iron

↓%saturation


↑FEP

Term
What is the treatment for anemia of chronic inflammation?
Definition

decrease inflammatory cause/ inflammation

 

EPO (especially in cancer patients)

Term
What is the underlying cause of sideroblastic anemia?
Definition

defective protoporphyrin synthesis causing

microcytic anemia

Term

What is the rate limitng step in the formation of protoporphyrin?

 

What is the enzymes responsible for this step and the next step?

Definition

1)ALAS (requires B6)

ALA Synthetase

 

Succinyl CoA--->ALA

 

2) ALAD (second step)

ALA-Dehydrogenase

 

ALA--->Porphobilinogen

 

 

 

 

Term
What is ferrochelatase?
Definition

the enzyme that catalyzes the joining of Iron and Protoporphyrin to make Heme

 

takes place in the mitochondria

[image]

Term
What are sideroblasts and why do they occur?
Definition

Sideroblasts are Erythroid precursors characterized by a ring of iron filled mitochondria surrounding the nucleus called a "ringed sideroblast.

 

This occurs in the setting of sideroblastic anemia due to deficiency in protoporphyrin.

 

Iron is transported into the erythroid precursor to bind with protoporphyrin to make heme, but if absent, iron has no way to exit the cell so it accumulates in the mitochondria

 

congenital: defect in ALAS (Rate limiting enzyme)

 

acquired: alcoholism (toxic to mitochondria),

lead poisoning (denatures ALAD and ferrochelatase), vitamin B6 deficiency (B6 is required for ALAS

 

*PHARM TIE IN: Isoniazid can cause a B6 depletion and sideroblastic anemia*

[image]

Term
What are the lab findings for sideroblastic anemia?
Definition

↑ferritin ↓TIBC

↑serum iron ↑%saturation

 

similar findings of hemachromatosis bc they are both an "iron overloaded state"

Term
Which diseases are characterized by a decrease in the synthesis of globin chains?
Definition

Thalassemia

 

inherited mutation and carriers are protected against the plasmodium falciparum malaria

Term
How many alpha globin alleles are there and what chromosome are they located on?
Definition

4 alpha alleles

chromosome 16

 

alpha thalassemia: gene deletion

Term
How many alpha genes are knocked out to result in severe anemia?
Definition

3 alpha genes

 

1-alpha gene: asymptomatic

2-alpha genes: mild anemia

3-alpha genes: severe anemaia

4-alpha genes: incompatabile with life (hydrops fealis)

Hgb Barts on electrophoresis (tetramer of gamma chains)

Term
What is Beta thalassemia minor?
Definition

β/β+

 

one normal/ one decreased synthesis

 

mildest beta thalassemia

asymptomatic

increased HbA2

microcytic. hypochromic anemia with target cells

Term

Which beta thalassemia results in a severe form of anemia a few months after birth?

 

Why?

Definition

βo/βo

 

presents a few months after birth bc fetal Hgb is α2/γ2 and it persists a little while after birth

 

but eventually the baby will change to α2/α2 because there is no Beta globulins. The alpha tetramers will precipitate and damage the RBCs causing ineffective erythropoiesis, extravascualr hemolysis due to destruction bythe spleen, and massive erythroid hyperplasia (expansion of hematopoiesis into marrow of skull and facial bones), hepatosplenomegaly, risk of aplastic crisis with parvovirus B19 (Virus that effects the erythroid precursors)

 

Tx: chronic transfusions which can cause secondary hemochromatosis (iron overload)

 

Labs: microcytic, hypochromic RBCs and target cells

HbA2 (alpha2 and delta2) and HbF (alpha 2 and gamma 2)  on electrophoresis

 

NO HbA. WHY?--bc HbA is made up of alpha2 and beta2 which these ppl dont have

 

crew cut skull

[image]

 

Chipmunk like face

[image]

Term

What is this image about? How does this relate to anemia?

[image]

Definition

The role of Folate, B12 and honocystein in DNA synthesis

 

1) THF enters the cell and is methylated

2) In order to participate in DNA synthesis it passes along the methyl group to B12

3) B12 passes the methyl group to homocysteine which then becomes methionine

 

B12.folate deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia

megaloblasts in rapidly defining cells

hypersegmented neutrophils

increased homocystein

 

normal methylmalonic acid(if only folate deficiency)

 

 

Term
Why does B12 deficiency cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?
Definition

Methylmalonic Acid cannot be converted into Succinyl CoA without B12

 

Methylmalonic acid will build up in particular within the myelin of the spinal cord and cause degeneration

 

NOT seen in folate deficiency

Term
What causes normocytic anemia?
Definition

peripheral destruction (good marrow response)

 

-or-

 

underproduction (poor marrow response)

 

determined by looking at reticulocytes on blood smear

which looks blue due to RNA in the cytoplasm

Term
What type of anemia would you see hemosiderinuria?
Definition
Normocytic anemia due to predominant intravascular hemolysis
Term
Hereditary spherocytosis
Definition

inherited defects of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins rendering the cells round instead of biconcave disc shape

 

most commonly:

spectrin

ankyrin

band 3.1

 

blebs are broken off and you get an increased RBW

hard to travel through the spleen and are destroyed

extracascular anemia

[image]

splenomegaly (hypertrophy as spleen eats up these RBCs)

jaundice: unconjugated bilirubin overload

increased risk of bilirubin gallstones:conjugated bilirubin overload

increased risk of aplastic crisis with infection of parvovirus B19

 

Dx: osmotic fragility test

increased fragility in hypotonic solution

 

Tx: splenectomy

 

 

 

Term
What causes the sickling of the cell?
Definition

Hypoxemia

Dehydration

Acidosis

 

polymerization when deoxygenated therefore a reversible reaction

 

can be irreversible and cause dactylitis: common sign in infants presenting with sickle cell anemia

Term

What is the most common cause of death in children with sickle cell ?

 

adults with sickle cell?

Definition

children:

 

adults: acute chest syndrome (vasoocclusion in pulmonary microcirculation) precipitated by pneumonia (inducing sickling in the lungs)

 

children: infection by encapsulated organisms

Term
Why don't people with sickle cell trait experience symptoms?
Definition

because they produce less than 50% HbS

 

50% or more is required for sickling to take place in vivo except in the renal medulla which these ppl can have microinfarctions and lead to a decreased ability to concentrate urine

 

can check if someone has trait with a metabisulfite screen or electrophoresis

Term
What is the difference between Sickle cell and HemoglobinC?
Definition

Hemoglobin C has glutamoic acid replaced by lysine

mild anemia

crystals on blood smear

 

Sickle cell has glutamic acid replaces by valine

Term
What is the main cause of death in Paroxysma Nocturnal hemoglobinema?
Definition

thrombosis

 

because as platelets are lysed the fragments can release cytoplasmic contents into circulation and induce thrombosis

 

mainly in hepatic, portal or cerebral veins

Term
What is the cause of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinemia?
Definition

acquired defect in PIGA gene myeloid cells of Gpi which is required for the expression of CD55(DAF) and MIRL

 

DAF and MIRL protect RBCs, WBCs and platelts from destruction by complement

 

At night this occurs in these patients because we normally breath more shallowly at night and are a little respiratory acidic--> this activates complement which normally doesn't have an effect but in these patients the RBCs, WBCs and platelets are lysed

 

They wake up in the morning with dark urine

 

labs: hemoglobinema

hemoglobinuria

hemosiderin (days later)

 

screen: sucrose test

confirm: acidified serum test or flow cytometry to look for CD55

 

 

Term
People with Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinemia are at an increased risk for what?
Definition

Iron deficiency anemia

 

10% develop AML (think bc PNH is acquired mutation so you are more likely to acquire other mutations)

Term
What causes G6PD Deficiency?
Definition

reduced half life of the enzyme cuasing a decreased ability to deal with neutralization of H202 in the cell resultin in oxidative stress and damage

 

causes intravascular hemolysys

 

due to infections, drugs (primaquine, sulfa drugs, dapsone), and fava beans

 

African variant: mild reduction in half life

Mediterranean variant: markedly reduced half life

 

enzyme studies confirm diagnosis--can only be done after the crisis

Term
Warm agglutination
Definition

IgG 37 degrees celsius

 

SLE

RA

CLL

 

 

Term
Cold agglutination
Definition

IgM and C3b

4 degrees celsius

warm body centers

 

Mononucleosis

Mycoplasma pneumonia

 

Raynauds Phenomenon

Term
What are the general features of vascultidis?
Definition

nonspecific inflammatory sympoms: fever, athralgia,fatigue, weight loss etc..

 

organ ischemia symptoms based on the vasculitis

(endothelium is damaged resulting in thrombis and/or inflammation followed by healing and fibrosis narrowing the lumen)

 

 

most are not infectious

Term
For what disease would you give a child aspirin?
Definition

Kawasaki's disease

 

Aspirin and IVIG are teatment to protect them against thrombus in coronary artery

 

only time bc aspirin is toxic to children

Term
What is Beurger Disease
Definition

necrotizing vascultitis involving the digits

Raynaud's phenomenon is often pressent

highly associated with smoking

 

[image]

Term
Wegener's vascultits?
Definition

"Wecener's"

 the C disease

 c-ANCA

Necrotizing granulomatous vascultis involving NASOPHARYNX, LUNGS, KIDNEY

[image]

sinusitis, ulcers in the nasopharynx, hemoptysis with bilateral lung infiltrates, hematuria due to RPGN

[image]

relapses are common

 

Tx Cyclophosphamide

Term
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Definition

necrotizing vascultits

lung and kidney involvement

p-ANCA

 

 

like wegeners but

 

NO GRANULOMAS

NO NASOPHARYNGEAL INVOLVEMENT

Term
Churg Strauss
Definition

p-ANCA

Asthma

peripheral eosinophilia

granulomatous necrotizing vasculitis

Term
What is a key blood/lab finding in a person with HTN due to renal artery stenosis?
Definition

increased plasma renin

 

atrophy of affected kidney

 

caused by

atherosclerosis (older males)

fibromuscular dysplasia (young female)

Term
What is atherosclerosis?
Definition

Intimal plaque that obstructs blood flow

 

cholesterol with fibromuscular cap

involves large and medium arteries

abdominal, coronary, popliteal and internal carotids

[image]

Term

When do you usually see symptoms of atherosclerosis?

What are the 4 complications of atherosclerosis?

Definition

greater than 70% stenosis

 

 

Stenosis:

PVD (EX.popluteal artery)

Angina (coronary artery)

Ischemic bowel disease (mesenteric artery)

 

other complications

 

Plaque rupture with thrombosis

MI (coronary artery)

Stroke (middle cerebral artery)

 

Plaque rupture with embolization

atherosclerotic emboli with cholesterol clefts

 

Weakining of the vessel wall

aneurysm (abdominal aorta ex.)

 

 

 

 

Term
Who classically gets hyaline arteriosclerosis?
Definition

ppl with benign HTN

(due to high pressures forcing proteins in)

ppl with Diabetes

(due to nonenzymatic glycosylation of basement membrane making wall leaky and protein comes in)

 

proteins leaking through vascular wall and organizing as hyaline membane around the lumen

[image]

results in ischemia especially to the kidney (glomerular scarring) and eventual renal failure

 

arteriolonephrosclerosis

[image]

Term
What causes hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis?
Definition

Malignant HTN

Onion skin appearance

and narrowing of the lumen

may lead to fibrinoid necrosis and end organ ischemia especially kidney (renal failure) with flea bitten appearance

[image]

Term

[image]

What is this a picture of?

Definition

Aortic dissection

 

occurs in proximal 10 cm of aorta (high pressure)

with pre-existing weakness of the media

 

commonly due to:

most common in HTN (hyaline arteriosclerosis of the arteries in he vaso vasorum of the adventitia)

 

inherited defect of connective tissue (Marfan's:fibrillin defect, also Ehler's Danlos: defective collagen)

 

presentation: sharp tearing chest pain that tears to the back and commonly causes pericardial tamponade that leads to death

 

can also rupture out into the mediastinum

or tear down the aortic intima and compress the renal artery

Term

What is the classic cause of thoracic aneurysm?

 

complications?

Definition

weakening of the aortic wall due to tertiary syphillis

with a tree bark apearance of the aorta

[image]

 

complications:

-dilation of the aortic valve root with insufficiency resulting in aortic insufficicency

 

-thrombosis-->thomboemboli

Term
What is the most common cause of abdominal aoortic aneuryms?
Definition

atherosclerosis

classically male smokers over 60 yo with HTN

pulsatile abdominal mass that grows with time

rupture at greatest risk >5cm in diameter

rupture triad: hypotension

pulsatime abdominal mass

flank pain

 

[image]

[image]

Term
What is the range for normal platelets?
Definition
150K-450K
Term
Tear drop RBCs are indicative of ..?
Definition
Myelopthisisc disorder
Term
Leukemia pts are ofen given leucovorin (N-formy THF) following treatment with the drug methotrexate. Why is Leukovorin a useful part of this treatment protocol?
Definition
It prevents the uptake of methotrexate by normal cells
Term
How does the Western blot test confirm HIV?
Definition

Gel electrophoresis and blot is formed on HIV protein standards

 

Blot is incubated with the patient's serum

 

Presence of anti-HIV antibodies in serum are detected

Term
Explain why a deficiency of the enzyme that is the rate-limiter for the HMP shunt can
result in hemolytic anemia.
Definition

deficienct in G6PD generate NADPH which produces reduced glutathione

without the enzyme, RBCs are more susceptible to  oxidative damage and hemolysis

Term
Explain the capillary-tissue fluid exchange from arterioles to capillaries to venules.
Definition
[image]
Term

How do the following circumstances impact the Starling forces of fluid movement through capillaries?
• Heart failure
• Liver failure
• Renal failure
• Infections and toxins
• Nephrotic syndrome
• Lymphatic blockage
• Bums
• Diuretic administration
• IV infusion of albumin or clotting factors

  • Venous insufficiency
Definition

• Heart failure

increased capillary pressure


• Liver failure

decreased oncotic pressure


• Renal failure

decreased plasma protein, decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure


• Infections and toxins

increased capillary permeability


• Nephrotic syndrome

increased plasma protein and decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure


• Lymphatic blockage

increased osmotic pressure *nonpitting edema*


• Burns

increased capillary permeabilityums


• Diuretic administration

osmotic agent that prevents water reabsorption


• IV infusion of albumin or clotting factors

increase plasma proteins and increase plasma colloid osmotic pressure

  • Venous insufficiency -increased capillary pressure
Term
What are the structures in the femoral region from lateral to medial?
Definition

Lateral to medial to find the NAVEL

Nerve Artery Vein Lymphatics

 

femoral nerve is outside the femoral sheath

[image]

Term
What serum lab marker is helpful in assessing the appropriate oxygenation of tissues?
Definition
Lactic acid
Term
How does an increase in afterioad affect the stroke volume of the heart assuming contractility remains the same?
Definition
decreases the stroke volume
Term
What impact does an increase in contractility have on stroke volume assuming preload and afterload remain constant?
Definition
increases stroke volume
Term
What is S3?
Definition

A sound heard in early diastole due to rapid ventricular filling

 

more common in dilated ventricles (CHF, dilated cardiomyopathy, mitral regurg, increased filling pressures, left to right shunting (VSD, ASD, PDA))

 

but considered normal in children and pregnant women

 

[image]

Term
What is the S4 Heart sound?
Definition

the atrial kick that occurs in late diastole due to high atrial pressure associated with ventricular hypertrophy

 

(aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, chronic hypertension, common after MI)

 

[image]

Term
What do S3 and S4 heart sounds tell us (generally)?
Definition

S3 whether the ventricles are dilated

 (early diastole)

_________________________________________

S4 whether the ventricles/valves are stiff

(late diastole)

Term
What are the different waves for the jugular venous pulse?
Definition
[image]
Term
Where can you hear normal physiologic splitting of S2?
Definition

during inspiration over the pulmonic region

[image]

caused when the closure of the aortic valve and pulmonic valve are not synchronized

 

 

If you hear persisitent fixed splitting throughout the cycle in other regions of the chest, consider

pulmonary hypertension

atrial septal defect

right heart failure


split only during expiration (paradoxical):

aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block and ventricular pacemaker (reverse splitting)


wide splitting with expiration:

pulmonic stenosis, right bundle branch block



http://www.bing.com/videos/search?q=splitting+heart+sounds&FORM=HDRSC3#view=detail&mid=437174925C45638C5CAB437174925C45638C5CAB

Term
What heart sound is associated with dilated congestive heart failure?
Definition
S3
Term
What heart sound is associated with chronic hypertension?
Definition
S4
Term
What gives rise to the jugular venous a,c and v waves?
Definition

a : atrial contraction

 

c:ventricular contraction

 

v:atrial filing with a closed tricuspid valve

Term
Where does the QRS wave fall in valvular dynamics?
Definition
mitral valve closure
Term
How does VSD eventually result in a right to left shunt and cyansosis?
Definition

This shunt reversal is called Eisenmenger Syndrome and is a large Septal defects

 

In the beginning, blood from the Left ventricle (high pressure) will preferentially move to the right ventricle (low pressure) creating a left to right shunt.

 

Over time, because the right side is so overloaded with blood and the pressure, pulmonary hypertension will develop.

 

The pressure on the right side will exceed that pf the left and blood from the right ventricle (deoxy) will move over to the left side of the heart and into systemic circulation resulting in cyanosis and a right to left shunt

 

[image]

 

 

Term
Which type of congenital septal defect is associated with Down's syndrome?
Definition

Ostium primum ASD

split S2 on auscultation bc the right side is getting extra volume resulting in delayed closure of the pulmonic valve

 

(Ostium secundum is the most common type however)

Term
What is associated with a holosystolic machine like murmur and lower extremeity cyanosis?
Definition

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

eisenmeger syndrome with lower extremeity cyanosis happens later on in the progression if not treated with Indomethicin

[image]

 

assoc. with congenital rubella

Term
Presents with early cyanosis
Definition

Ts

 

Tetralogy of Fallot

Tricuspid Atresia

Truncus Arteriosus

Transposition of the Great Vessels

Term

scarring of the aortic valve with fusion of the commisures with mitral stenosis.

What caused this and what murmur is associated with the aortic stenosis?

Definition

chronic rheumatic valve disease

systolic ejection click followed by

crescendo-decrescendo murmur

[image]

Term
What are some complications of aortic stenosis?
Definition

concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

angina and syncope with exercise

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

 

Term
What is the most common cause of aortic regurgitation?
Definition

Aortic regurg is backflow of blood from aorta into LV duing diastole

 

most common cause is aortic root dilation (syphilitic aneurysm) or valve damage from infectious endocarditis

[image]

 

Term
early blowing diastolic murmur, bounding pulses, pulsating nail bed and head bobbing is associated with?
Definition

aortic regurgitation

diastolic decrescendo murmur

widening pulse pressure/hyperdynamic circulation causes the bounding pulses, head bobbing, and pulsating nail bed

 

Clinical features:

LV dilation and eccentric hypertrophy

 

 

 

[image]

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IfJotUSNgdo

Term
mid systolic click
Definition
mitral valve prolapse
Term
What are the causes of mital regurgitation?
Definition

complication of MVP

LV dilation

infective endocarditis

acute rheumatic heart disease

papillary muscle rupture after MI

Term
What kind of murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation?
Definition
holosystolic blowing murmur that gets louder with expiration and squatting
Term

how do these effect valves:

chronic rheumatic disease___

acute rheumatic disease___

Definition

chronic: stenosis

 

acute: regurgitation

Term
Name the Systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmurs
Definition

AS (radiates to neck)

 

MVP (click, increases with valsalve)

 

HOCM (increases with valsalva move)

Term
Name the systolic, Holosystolic murmurs
Definition


[image]


MR

(high pitched blowing, increases with increased TPR : squatting and handgrip or increased LA return: expiration,radiates to axilla)

_______________________________________

TR

(high pitched blowing, increase w/ RA return- inspiration increases)

______________________________________

VSD

(harsh)

Term
Name the diastolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur
Definition

AR

 

best heard LSB with patient leaning forward

high pitched blowing heard at the end of expiration

 

[image]

Term
Name the diastolic holosystolic murmur
Definition

MS

 

opening snap due to tensing of chordae tenidinae

increases with increase LA pressure: expiration

late diastolic rumble heard best at the apex in left decubitus position

NO RADIATION

assoc. with rheumatic fever

 

Term
What are the 4 obligate aerobic bacteria?
Definition

Nagging Pests Must Breath

Nocardia

Pseudomonas

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Bacillus species

Term
Ejection click
Definition
Aortic/Pulmonic stenosis
Term
Holosystolic murmur
Definition
VSD, Tricuspid Regurg, Mitral Regurg
Term
Irregularly irregular heartbeat
Definition
Atrial fibrillation
Term
Valsalva Maneuver
Definition

MVP

HOCM

 

Term
Squatting does what to HOCM and MVP murmurs?
Definition
makes them softer
Term
Inspiration increases the volume of what kind of murmurs?
Definition
Tricuspid
Term
Which murmurs get louder with expiration?
Definition
Mitral murmurs
Term
Handgrip is used to make which murmur louder?
Definition
Mitral regurg (increases afterload)
Term
What organism is called the "pinworm"?
Definition
Enterobius Vermicularis
Term
Ejection click
Definition

Aortic stenosis

 

(no murmur at the beginning of systole, ejection click is the popping of the aortal valve open)

 

S1-ejection click-crescendo-decrescendo-S2

 

Radiates to carotid

weak pulses and syncope

Term

holosystolic murmur

loudest on inspiration

Definition

tricuspid regurgitation (IV drug user)

VSD (infant)

Term
Which heart murmur is associated with weak pulses?
Definition
Aortic stenosis
Term
What are the most common causes of Aortic Stenosis?
Definition

Bicuspid Valve

Unicuspid valve

Aging-Calficiation

Chronic Rheumatic Heart Disease

 

Term

Syncope

weak pulsus

harsh crescendo-decrescendosystolic ejection murmur

radiating to carotids

Definition
Aortic stenosis
Term
opening snap
Definition

mitral stenosis

 

OS/MS

Term
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
best heard in the 2nd-3rd right interspace
close to the sternum
Definition
Aortic Stenosis
Term
Early diastolic decrescendo murmur heard
best along the left side of the sternum
Definition
Pulmonic Regurgitation
Term
Late diastolic decrescendo murmur heard
best along the left side of the sternum
Definition
Tricuspid Stenosis
Term
Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform)
murmur best heard at the apex and often
radiates to the left axilla
Definition
Mitral Regurgitation
Term
Late systolic murmur usually preceded by
a mid-systolic click
Definition
Mitral Valve Prolapse
Term
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
best heard in the 2nd-3rd left interspaces
close to the sternum
Definition
Pulmonic Stenosis
Term
Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform)
murmur best heard along the left lower
sternal border and generally radiates to
the right lower sternal border
Definition
Tricuspid Regurg or VSD
Term
Rumbling late diastolic murmur with an
opening snap
Definition

Mitral Stenosis

 

Term
Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform)
murmur best heard at the 4th-6th left
intercostal spaces
Definition
Tricuspid Regurg or VSD
Term
High-pitched diastolic murmur associated
with a widened pulse pressure
Definition
Aortic regurgitation
Term
An 80-year-old man presents with a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur: What,
the most likely cause?
Definition
Aortic stenosis
Term
What is the murmur heard best in left
lateral decubitus position?
Definition

Mitral regur and stenosis

 

left sided S3 and S4

Term
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis?
Definition

Strep viridans

 

low virulence: small vegetations, but act as a trap for transient bacteria

Term
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users?
Definition

Staph Aureus

 

high virulence: infects normal valves

large vegetations-->acute endocarditis

tricuspid valve

Term
What is the most common cause of bacterical endocarditis of prosthetic valves?
Definition
Staph epidermidus
Term
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying colorectal carcinoma?
Definition
Strep bovis
Term
What organisms cause endocarditis with negative blood cultures?
Definition

HACEK organisms

Haemophilus,

Actinobacillus,

Cardiobacterium,

Eikenella,

Kingella

 

very hard to grow

Term
What are the clinical features of endocarditis?
Definition

Fever

Murmur

Janeway Lesions (septic emboli-painLess)

Osler nodes (septim emboli-painful Ouch)

Anemia of chronic disease

 

[image]

Term
Sterile vegetations on both sides of mitral valve associated with SLE
Definition

Libman-Sacks Endocarditis

 

results in mitral regurgitation

Term
What are the most common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Definition

Idiopathic

Genetic Mutation (AD)

Myocarditis

Drugs (Doxorubicin, Cocaine)

Alcohol abuse

Pregnancy (late 3rd trimester, soon after birth)

Term
What is the most common cause of myocarditis?
Definition

Coxsackie Virus B

 

tx:transplant

Term
What causes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Definition

genetic mutations in sarcomere proteins causing disorganized fibers and massive hypertrophy of the left ventricle

 [image]

most common cause of sudden death in young athletes

 

[image]

Term
Myofiber hypertrophy with disarray
Definition

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

[image]

Term
What is restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Definition
restricted filling of the heart during diastole due to decreased compliance of the ventricular endomyocardium
Term

What causes restrictive cardiomyopathy?

How does it present on EKG?

Definition

amloidosis

sarcoidosis

hemochromatosis

endocardial fibroelastosis(children)

Loeffler syndrome (eosinophilc infiltrate causing fibrosis)

 

presents as CHF

low voltage EKG with diminished QRS

Term
benign mesenchyma proliferation in the heart with a gelatinous appearance and abundant ground substance on histology
Definition

Myxoma

 

most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

Term
most common cardiac tumor in children associated with tuberous sclerosis
Definition

Rhabdomyoma

 

benign hamartoma of cardiac muscle

usually arises in ventricle

 

 

Term
What cancers commonly metastasis to the heart?
Definition

breast, lung,melanoma, lymphoma

pericardium

causing pericardial effusion

Term
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia matches the following statement?

- Mildly decreased UDPGT
-Completely absent UDPGT
- Grossly black liver
-Responds to phenobarbital
- Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy
-Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection)
Definition

- Mildly decreased UDPGT

Gilbert's syndrome

Crigler Najjar Type 2


-Completely absent UDPGT

Crigler Najjar Type 1


- Grossly black liver

Dubin Johnson Syndrome


-Responds to phenobarbital

Gilbert's Syndrome

Crigler-Najjar Type 2


- Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy

Crigler Najjar Type I


-Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection)

Gilbert's Syndrome

Term
What is a disulfiram-like reaction? What drugs cause a disulfiram-like reaction?
Definition

disulfuram like reaction: inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase so alcohol cannot be fully metablized

 

flushing, sweating, nausea, headache, hypotension

 

Meds:

Metronidazole

Cephalosporins (Cefotetan, Cefamandole, Cefoperazone)

1st gen Sulfonylureas (Tolbutamide)

Term
Which phase of the cardiac action potential do sodium blockers act on of the cardiac action potential?
Definition

Phase 0,  by blocking NA channels these anti-arrhythmics are prolonging phase 0 and thus increasing the refractory period which slows the heart down

[image]

Term
Which phase do the potassium channel blockers work on of the cardiac action potential?
Definition

Phase 3, these anti-arrhythmics work by blocking K you can prolong the refractory period and slow the heart.

[image]

Term
What causes the depolarization of phase 0 in pacemaker action potential?
Definition

Calcium channel openining

[image]

Term
How do beta blockers act on the pacemaker action potential?
Definition

Beta blockers decrease the slope of Phase 4 which slows the heart

 

Calcium channel blockers work on phase 0 here to increase the time required to reach threshold and slowing heart

[image]

[image]

Term
Draw the myocardial action potential and the ion channels responsible for each phase
Definition
[image]
Term
What physiology accounts for the automaticity of the AV and SA nodes?
Definition

The gradual increase of sodium conductance of Phase 4

 

[image]

Term
What are the classes of Antiarrhythmics?
Definition

No BadBoy Keeps Clean

 

Class I: Na channel blockers

 

Class II: Beta Blockers

 

Class III: K channel blockers

 

Class IV: Calcium channel blockers

Term
What are the Class IA antiarrhythmics?
Definition

Double Quarter Pounder

 

Disopyramide

Procainimide  (drug induced Lupus anti-histone)

Quinidine (torsades de pointes, thrombocytopenia)

 

[image]

Term

What are the Class IB Antiarrhythmics?

 

Definition

Lettuce Tomato Mexican Pickles

 

most commonly used antiarrhythmics!

Lidocaine (tachyarrhthmias after MI)

Tocanide

Mexelitine

Phenytoin (also an anticonvulsant)

 

 

[image]

Term
What are the Class IC Antiarrhythmics?
Definition

More Fries Please

not commonly used

 

Moricizine

Flecanide

Propafenone

 

[image]

Term
What are the class II, III, and IV antiarrhythmics?
Definition

Class II:Beta blockers

decrease cAMP, decrease Ca and suppress slope 4

lol

[image]

Propanolol

Atenolol

Metoprolol

Esmolol (most short acting-V-tac, a fib and A-flutter)


mask the effects of hypoglycemia,exacerbate asthma, bradycardia, AV block, CNS effects

 

overdose treatment: Glucagon

_________________________________

 

 

Class III: K channel blackers, work at phase 3, elongates refractory period

SAD

[image]

Sotalol

Amiodarone (WPW)

Dofetilide


A-fib, A-flutter


Amidoarone SE: Pulmonary fibrosis, heapotoxicity,hypo-,hyperthyroidism, BLUE-GREY skin discoloration, photodermatitis, corneal deposists, heart failure, has effects of all the classes so always check: PFTs, TFTs, LFTs

 

 

____________________________________

 

Class IV: Calcium channel blockers, decrease slope of Phase 0: VD

[image]

Verapamil

Diltiazem

 

Nondihydroperodines

 

Constipation, flushing, edema, heart failure, dont combine with beta blockers

Term
What is the action of Adenosine and what is it classically used for?
Definition

SVT

 

short acting drug that increases potassium leaving the cell and decreases permeability of calcium

 

so there is no depolarization

stops the heart for 5 seconds an starts the heart at a slower heart rate to diagnose SVT

very uncomfortable for patient

 

Flushing, hypotension, chest pain

 

 

Term

Label

[image]

Definition

0:Na influx (rapid depolarization)

 

1:K and Cl efflux (KClout)

 

2:Ca influx (plateau)

 

3:K efflux (Kout) (repolarization)

 

4: K permeability increases

Term
What does acidosis do to K levels?
Definition

increases them

 

acidoses is always associated with hyperkalemia

increased sodium causes sodium to enter the cells (down the gradient) and therefore K will be pushed out

[image]

 

Treat: Calcium and Bicarb especially when somone is coded for a long time

Term
Which antiarrhythmic has the side effect of cinchonism?
Definition

Quinidine

IA

Term
What is the characteristic EKG finiding with WPW?
Definition

Delta waves

 

syndrome of preexcitation of ventricles of the heart

from bundle of kent

 

[image]

Term

What are the two different types of second degree AV block?

 

How do they differ?

Definition

Mobitz Type I (Wenkebach gives a warning)

progressively prolonged PR intervals , then a blocked beat

[image]

 

 

Mobitz Type II

blocked beat without the progressive PR prolongation

 

[image]

Term
How does the cause of a narrow QRS complex differ from the cause of a wide QRS complex?
Definition

Narrow:

conducted through the normal pathway

 

Wide:

NOT CONDUCTED normally through normal conduction pathway

Term

What is the ECG axis given the QRS deflections in the following scenarios?
• Positive in lead I, positive in lead II


• Positive in lead I, negative in lead III

  • Negative in lead I, positive in lead III
  • Positive in lead I, negative in aVR
Definition

• Positive in lead I, positive in lead II

Normal axis


• Positive in lead I, negative in lead III

Left axis deviation

  • Negative in lead I, positive in lead III

Right axis deviation

  • Positive in lead I, negative in aVR

Normal Axis

Term

 

What is the treatment for ventricular fibrillation?

Definition
CPR and defibrillation
Term
What is the treatment for ventricular tachycardia when there is no pulse?
Definition
CPR and defibrillation
Term
What is the hallmark of a third degree heart block?
Definition

No correlation between P waves and QRS

 

[image]

Term
What drugs are known to prolong the QT interval, increasing the likelihood of torsades in those at risk?
Definition

Macrolides

Haloperidol

Chloroquine

Risperodone

Class IA Antiarrhythmics

Class III Antiarrhythmics

Protease Inhibitors

Term
What is the difference between primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Definition

PBC: autoimmune associated with CREST scleroderma

positive AMA, middle aged women

 

 

 

__________________________________________

 

SC:unknown etiology, p-ANCA

middle aged men, associated with ulcerative colitis

ERCP: alternating beads and stricturing

 

Term
How does increasing the diameter of a vessel by two times affect the resistance of the vessel?
Definition
decrease by power of 16
Term

What substances act on smooth muscle myosin light-chain kinase?

How does this effect blood pressure?

Definition

Dihyroperidone

Calcium channel blockers

Epinephrine (B2 receptors)

Prostaglandin E2

 

Relax vascular smooth muscle ---> decrease BP

 

Term
What category of BP medications is preferred in the treatment of aortic dissection?
Definition

Beta blocker

 

mediastinal widening on chest xray

 

Term
What marks hypertension? prehypertension?
Definition

HTN: >140/90

PreHTN: 120-139/80-89

Term

What would you most suspect the cause of hypertension to be in a patient with the following
clinical clues?


• Paroxysms of increased sympathetic tone: anxiety, palpitations, diaphoresis


• Age of onset between 20 and 50


• Elevated serum creatinine and abnormal urinalysis


• Abdominal bruit


• BP in arms > legs


• Family history of HTN


• Tachycardia, heat intolerance, diarrhea


• Hyperkalemia


• Episodic sweating and tachycardia


• Abrupt onset in a patient younger than 20 or older

than 50, and depressed serum K levels


• Central obesity, moon-shaped face, hirsutism


• Normal urinalysis and normal serum K levels


• Young individual with acute onset tachycardia

  • Hypokalemia
  • Proteinuria
Definition

• Paroxysms of increased sympathetic tone: anxiety, palpitations, diaphoresis: Pheochromocytoma


• Age of onset between 20 and 50: Primary HTN


• Elevated serum creatinine and abnormal urinalysis: Renal disease


• Abdominal bruit: Renal artery stenosis


• BP in arms > legs: Coarctation of the aorta


• Family history of HTN: Primary HTN


• Tachycardia, heat intolerance, diarrhea: Hyperthyroidism


• Hyperkalemia: Renal failure


Episodic sweating and tachycardia: Pheochromocytoma


• Abrupt onset in a patient younger than 20 or older than 50, and depressed serum K levels:Hyperaldosteronemia


• Central obesity, moon-shaped face, hirsutism: Cushing Syndrome


• Normal urinalysis and normal serum K levels: Primary HTN


• Young individual with acute onset tachycardia: Cocaine or amphetamines

  • Hypokalemia : Renal artery stenosis
  • Proteinuria: Renal disease
Term
Compensatory anomaly such as patent
ductus arteriosus necessary for survival
Definition
Transposition of the Great vessels
Term
Hypertension limited to the upper
extremities and cerebral vessels; notching
of the ribs seen on x-ray
Definition
congenital coarctation of the aorta
Term
A 42-year-old man is seen because of a
long history of slowly developing congestive
heart failure. His blood pressure is normal.
Coronary artery angiography reveals no vascular
disease. No heart murmurs are heard.
The white blood cell count, differential, and
erythrocyte sedimentation rate are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis ?
Definition

Cardiomyopathy

 

Cardiomyopathies are noninflammatory myocardial disorders that are not associated with coronary artery obstruction, hypertension, valvular disease, congenital
heart disease, or infectious disease. They are most often characterized by otherwise unexplained ventricular dysfunction, such as cardiac failure, ventricular enlargement, or ventricular arrhythmias.

Term
What is the most common cause of fibrinous pericarditis?
Definition

Uremia due to renal failure

[image]

Term
If the fetus lacks this enzyme, you could se maternal virilization
Definition
Aromatase
Term
Aflatoxin is associated with an increased risk of this cancer
Definition
Liver cancer
Term
Which group of medications inhibits the rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?
Definition
Statins inhibit HMGCoA reductase
Term
Name 8 different indirect cholinergic agonists and state the use for each.
Definition

Myasthenia Gravis

Neostigmine (post op neurogenic ileus too)

Pyridostigmine

 

Atropine overdose

Physiostigmine

 

Diagnose MG:

Edrophonium

 

Glaucoma

Echotiphate

 

Alzheimers:

Donepizil

Galantamine

Rivastigmine

 

Organophosphaste:

Parathion

 

Term
What does calcium bind to on the sarcomere?
Definition

Troponin

[image]

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