Term
What adult structures are derived from the 3rd, 4th, and 6th aortic arches? |
|
Definition
3rd arch: Common carotid arter and proximal internal carotid
4th arch: Left: aortic arch. Right: proximal right subclavian
6th arch: Proximal pulmonary arteries and ducus arteriosus
[image] |
|
|
Term
What cell wall inhibitor matches the following statement?
• Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin
• Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis
• Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides
• Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis
- Single dose treatment for gonorrhea
|
|
Definition
- Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin: Amoxicillin with Clavulanic acid
• Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis
Penicillin V (oral), Aminopenicillins, Ampicillin or 1st generation cephalosporins
• Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
• Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis
Penicillin G (IV)
- Single dose treatment for gonorrhea
Ceftriaxone
|
|
|
Term
What are the 3 pathologic truncus arteriosus manifestations and what causes them? |
|
Definition
caused by failure or disruption in the migration of neural crest cells
Transposition of the great vessels
[image]
Tetrology of Fallot
[image]
Persistent truncus arteriosus
[image] |
|
|
Term
Name 6 different truncoconical (spiral) septum defects. |
|
Definition
Fenestrae • Ventricular septal defect (VSD) • Tetralogy of Fallot • Persistent truncus arteriosus • Transposition of the great vessels (RV → aorta, LV→ PA) • Dextrocardia |
|
|
Term
Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to the following aduft structure? • Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk • Coronary sinus • SVC • Smooth parts of the left and right ventricle • Smooth part of the right atrium • Trabeculated left and right atrium • Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle |
|
Definition
• Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk :
Truncus arteriosus
• Coronary sinus: Left horn of sinus venosus
• SVC: Right common and anterior cardinal vein
• Smooth parts of the left and right ventricle: Bulbus Cordis • Smooth part of the right atrium: Right horn of sinus venosus • Trabeculated left and right atrium: Primitive Atria
• Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle: Primitive ventricle
|
|
|
Term
What structure divides the truncus arteriosus into the aortic and pulmonary trunks?
What is the cellular origin of this structure? |
|
Definition
Spiral/ Aorticopulmonary septum
neural crest cells
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the most highly oxygenated structure in fetal circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes the foramen ovale and ducts arteriosus to close at birth?
What medication can help close the ducus arteriosus? |
|
Definition
at birth the infant takes a breath which decreases pulmonary vasculature resistance and increases left atrial pressure in comparison. This increased pressure causes the foramen ovale to close. The increase in oxygen leads to a decrease in prostaglandins and the ductus arteriosus is closed.
Indomethacin will close it
Prostaglandins E1 and E2 keeps the PDA open |
|
|
Term
What genetic abnormality is commonly associated with endocardial cushion defects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which TB drug requires an acidic environment to exert its effects? |
|
Definition
Pyrazinamide
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
Metformin is absolutely contraindicated in patients with___ ; therefore, you should always check____ before prescribing this medication. |
|
Definition
Renal Failure
[image]
Liver dysfunction
CHF
Alcoholism
Always check Serum Creatinine
[image]
|
|
|
Term
What are the common symptoms of carcinoid syndrome? |
|
Definition
Bronchospasm (wheezing)
Right sided heart murmor or lesions
Diarrhea
Flushing |
|
|
Term
What are the causes of Right to Left Shunts? |
|
Definition
5 T's
Tetrology of Fallot (Pulmonary stenosis→RV Hypertrophy, overriding aorta, VSD)
Transposition of great vessels
Truncus Arteriosus (persistent)
Tricuspid Atresia
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR)
|
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for Tetrology of Fallot? |
|
Definition
Trisomy 21
Trisomy 13
Trisomy 18
Cri-du-chat syndrome |
|
|
Term
How is Tetrology of Fallot a right to left shunt? |
|
Definition
The stenotic pulmonic valve causes an increase in pressure causing blood from the right ventricle to flow into the left ventricle throught the ventricular septal defect
[image] |
|
|
Term
How can you immediately help an infant suffering a tet spell? |
|
Definition
put their knees to their chest to increase the afterload to relieve the cyanotic spell |
|
|
Term
Infants of Diabetic mothers are more likely to have what? |
|
Definition
Transposition of the Great vessels
Hypoglycemia
Large for gestational age
(increased risk of clavicle fractures, shoulder dystocia, Erb-Duchenne palsy, failure to progress during delivery) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly? |
|
Definition
Ventral Septal Defect
Left to Right Shunt
40% close in first 6 months |
|
|
Term
What kind of heart sounds do you hear in an Atrial Septal Defect? |
|
Definition
Loud S1
Wide, Fixed, Split S2
aortic valve is closing before the pulmonic valve because the pulmonary valve is overloaded with blood |
|
|
Term
What is infantile coarctation of the aorta?
What genetic syndrome is this associated with? |
|
Definition
narrowing of the aorta proximal to the ductus arteriosus
Associated with Turners syndrome.
can cause notching of the ribs
[image][image][image] |
|
|
Term
Women with Turners syndrome are mores susceptible to what congenital heart defects? |
|
Definition
aortic coarctation
bicuspid aortic valves-->increased risk of endocarditis
[image][image] |
|
|
Term
What is Ebstein's anomaly? What causes it?
|
|
Definition
tricuspid leaflets are displaces into right ventricle, hypoplastic right ventricle, tricuspid regurg or stenosis
caused by maternal Lithium use
[image] |
|
|
Term
Endocardial cushion defects are associated with what genetic syndrome? |
|
Definition
Trisomy 21
AV canal defect leading to ASD, VSD, AVD or all four
[image] |
|
|
Term
DiGeorge is associated with what congenital heart defect? |
|
Definition
Truncus Arteriosis
Tetrology of Fallot
22q11 defect
[image] |
|
|
Term
What congenital anomaly is congenital rubella associated with? |
|
Definition
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Pulmonary artery stenosis |
|
|
Term
What heart defect is associated with the following disorder? • Chromosome 22q 11 deletions • Down syndrome • Congenital rubella • Turner's syndrome • Marfan's syndrome |
|
Definition
• Chromosome 22q 11 deletions
Truncus arteriosus, Tetrology of Fallot
• Down syndrome
Endocardial cushion defect: ASD,VSD,AVD, or all four
• Congenital rubella
PDA, Pulmonary artery stenosis, septal defect
• Turner's syndrome
Coarctation
• Marfan's syndrome
aortic insufficiency |
|
|
Term
A 45-year-old male presents with a BP of 160/90 on the right arm and 170/92 on the left arm.
There are no palpable pulses in the feet/ankle.
What problem does this patient most likely have? |
|
Definition
Coarctation of the aorta
adult type (distal to ligamentum arteriosum) |
|
|
Term
What irreversible enzymes are involved in gluconeogenesis? |
|
Definition
Pyruvate Carboxylase
(pyruvate→oxaloacetate)
____________________________
Pep Carboxykinase
(oxaloacetate→PEP)
________________________________
Fructose-1-6-Bisphosphatase
(Fructose-1-6-bisphosphate→Fructose-6-phosphate)
__________________________________________
Glucose-6-Phosphotase
(Glucose-6-phosphate→Glucose)
|
|
|
Term
What cranial nerves innervate the tongue in the following ways?
• Taste in the anterior 2/3 • Taste in posterior 1/3 (main innervation) • Motor • Sensation in the anterior 2/3 • Sensation in the posterior 1/3 |
|
Definition
• Taste in the anterior 2/3
Facial nerve
• Taste in posterior 1/3 (main innervation)
Glossopharyngeal
• Motor
Hypoglossal
• Sensation in the anterior 2/3
Mandibular division of the Trigeminal nerve
• Sensation in the posterior 1/3
Glossopharyngeal |
|
|
Term
Which tumors arise centrally in the lung and are linked to smoking?
Which tumors arise peripherally in the lung and are less linked to smoking (if at all)? |
|
Definition
Central:
Squamous cell and Small cell lung cancer
______________
Peripheral:
Adenocarcinoma and Large Cell carcinoma |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Fick's priniciple? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you calculate MAP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does Nitroglycerine do? |
|
Definition
venodilates and cause a decrease in preload |
|
|
Term
What does hydralazine do? |
|
Definition
vasodilates (arteries) and decreases afterload (back pressure on the aorta) |
|
|
Term
How do ACE inhibitors an ARBs effect preload and afterload? |
|
Definition
decrease both preload and afterload |
|
|
Term
What kind of receptor is found on cardiac myoctes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the pulse pressure in a patient with systolic BP of 150 and a MAP of 90? |
|
Definition
MAP=1/3systolic + 2/3diastolic
90=1/3(150)+2/3 diastolic
90=50+2/3diastolic
40=2/3diastolic
120=2(diastolic)
60=diastolic
pulse pressure= systolic-diastolic
150-60=90
90mmHg
|
|
|
Term
What medications affect a heart's contractility? |
|
Definition
Increase contractility:
Digoxin
Catecholamines
Decrease contractilty
Beta blockers
Non-dihydropyridine CCBs |
|
|
Term
What ionic changes affect a heart's contractility |
|
Definition
Increase: ↑intracellular Calcium
↓extracellular Na |
|
|
Term
What ionic changes affect a heart's contractility |
|
Definition
Increase contractility: ↑intracellular Calcium
↓extracellular Na
____________________________________
Decrease contractilty: acidosis |
|
|
Term
How can the myocardial oxygen demand be decreased in circumstances where the heart is ischemic? |
|
Definition
decrease afterload
decrease contractilty
decrease heart rate |
|
|
Term
What can increase stroke volume for a given preload? |
|
Definition
Increased ionotropy/contractility:
-sympathetic stimulation
-Inotropic drugs
-Increasing intracellular Calcium
-Decreasing extracellular Na |
|
|
Term
What factors affect stroke volume? |
|
Definition
afterload
preload
contractility |
|
|
Term
What is the heart ejection fraction? |
|
Definition
index of ventricular contractility
EF= SV/EDV
|
|
|
Term
What is the rate limiting of the citric acid cycle?
heavily regulated step? |
|
Definition
Isocitrate dehydrogenase os rate limiting
alpha-ketoglutorate dehydrogenase is heavily regulated |
|
|
Term
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is a good indicator of what? |
|
Definition
Left atrial pressure
measured by a Swan Ganz catheter
ex:
wedge pressure is greater than left ventricular diastolic pressure in the setting of mitral stenosis
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a reduction in circulating RBC mass
resulting in hypoxia and presenting as weakness, fatigue, dyspnea, pale conjunctiva and skin,
possibly headache, lightheadedness, angina (especially with prexisting CAD) |
|
|
Term
How do we measure anemia? |
|
Definition
Hgb
Hematocrit
RBC count
each is concentration dependent so can be misleading of the change in RBC mass. For example, a preganant woman's blod volume increases which may cuase her hematocrit and Hgb to go down but her blood cell mass is still normal--only thing that changed was the volume causing dilution. But we use this as a way to determine anemia as best we can |
|
|
Term
What are the normal values for Hemoglobin in males and females? |
|
Definition
Hgb<13.5 g/dl males
Hgb<12.5 g/dl in females
(can be lower with mestrual cycle) |
|
|
Term
What is normal MCV of a RBC? |
|
Definition
80-100
below 80= microcytic
above 100=macrocytic |
|
|
Term
What is the DIT explanation of micocytic anemia? |
|
Definition
Microcytosis is due to an extra division due to a decreased production of hemoglobin
(think about it like the cells divide more and become smaller to try and maintain that optimal concentration and red color bc there is less hemoglobin) |
|
|
Term
What are the four major causes of microcytic anemias? |
|
Definition
1-Iron deficiency Anemia (most common type-low iron)
2-Anemia of Chronic disease (inaccessible, this decreased Iron)
3-Sideroblastic Anemia (decreased protoporphyrin)
4-Thalassemia (decreased globin) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
duodenum
enterocytes regulate absorption |
|
|
Term
Why is entry so heavily regulated and bound?
How is it transported and stored in the body? |
|
Definition
There is no way for the body to get rid of iron (outside of menses and sloughing the skin)
Iron can create free radicals so it is bound to transferrin in blood to be delivered to liver and bone marrow macrophages for storage
stored in ferrtin within the macrophages
|
|
|
Term
What are the lab measurements for Iron status? |
|
Definition
Serum Iron (measures Iron in the blood)
TIBC (measures transferrin molecules in blood)
% saturation (measures bound transferrin molecules in blood)
Serum ferritin (measures stored iron in bone marrow macrophages and liver) |
|
|
Term
What are the two general causes of Iron deficiency? |
|
Definition
Dietary insufficiency or Blood loss |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of Iron deficiency in:
Infants
Children
Adults
Elderly |
|
Definition
Infants: breast feeding
Children: Poor diet
Adult males: peptic ulcer disease
Adult femailes: menorrhagia or pregnancy
Elderly: Colon polyps/carcinoma (Western)
Hookworm: majority countries |
|
|
Term
Which form of Iron is more easily absorbed and what os the relation to gastrectomy? |
|
Definition
Fe2+ is more easily absorbed and remains in this state in acidic environments. Those with gastrectomy lose the acidic stomach and some of that easily absorbable Iron resulting in an increased risk for iron deficiency |
|
|
Term
What happens to ferritin and TIBC during the first stage of iron deficiency?
2nd, 3rd, 4th? |
|
Definition
1)↓Ferritin ↑TIBC
storage iron is depleted first causing a decrease of the storage iron protein ferritin in the serum and an increase in the Total Iron Binding Capcity bc the liver pumps put more transferrin to pick up iron
2)Serum Iron ↓and
% saturation↓
less molecules of iron bound to transferrin molecules
3) Normocytic Anemia
initially the bone marrow will just make less, but normal RBCS
4)Microcytic Anemia
In this stage, the iron deficiency becomes so sever, and the bone marrow starts pumping out cells that have undergone more divisions so they will be microcytic and with less hemoglobin ( hypochromic) RBCs
|
|
|
Term
What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient that is anemic and presents with koilonychia and pica? |
|
Definition
Iron Deficiency
koilonychia:[image] |
|
|
Term
Why is the RDW increased in iron deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
RDW measures the distribution of sizes of RBCs. In the 3rd stage of Iron Defeiciency Anemia, the cells are normocytci; however in the 4thstage the cells are microcytic. This increases teh range of sizes (or width) and increases RDW |
|
|
Term
Why is FEP Increased in Iron Deficiecny Anemia? |
|
Definition
FEP is Free Erythroctye Protoporphyrin
In thes etting of Iron Deficiency Anemia, the problem is iron not protoporphyrin. Heme is made up of Iron and protoporphyrin so because there isn't enough iron to bind protoporphyrin, there will be an increased amount of free protoporphyrin in the RBC |
|
|
Term
How can you tell on histology with RBs and lymphocytes that the RBCs are larger or smaller than normal? |
|
Definition
RBCs should be about the size of the nucleus of a lymphocyte
image of normocytic anemia
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of Iron deficiency anemia due to malnutrition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common anemia in hospitalized patients?
What is the pathogenesis? |
|
Definition
Anemia of chronic disease (microcytic anemia)
chronic inflammation causes an increase in an acute phase reactant hepcidin which sequesters iron in storage sites and limits iron transfer from macrophages to erythroid precursors
hepcidin also suppresses EPO production
why?
the body thinks there is a microbe present causing inflammation and it holds onto the iron so that the "invading microorganism" can't use it to divide and be successful in the body. However this happens with chronic diseases that are not due to microbial infection all the time
|
|
|
Term
What happens to ferritin, TOBC, serum iron, FEP and & saturation in anemia of chronic inflammation? |
|
Definition
↑ferritin ↓TIBC
↓serum iron
↓%saturation
↑FEP |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for anemia of chronic inflammation? |
|
Definition
decrease inflammatory cause/ inflammation
EPO (especially in cancer patients) |
|
|
Term
What is the underlying cause of sideroblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
defective protoporphyrin synthesis causing
microcytic anemia |
|
|
Term
What is the rate limitng step in the formation of protoporphyrin?
What is the enzymes responsible for this step and the next step? |
|
Definition
1)ALAS (requires B6)
ALA Synthetase
Succinyl CoA--->ALA
2) ALAD (second step)
ALA-Dehydrogenase
ALA--->Porphobilinogen
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the enzyme that catalyzes the joining of Iron and Protoporphyrin to make Heme
takes place in the mitochondria
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are sideroblasts and why do they occur? |
|
Definition
Sideroblasts are Erythroid precursors characterized by a ring of iron filled mitochondria surrounding the nucleus called a "ringed sideroblast.
This occurs in the setting of sideroblastic anemia due to deficiency in protoporphyrin.
Iron is transported into the erythroid precursor to bind with protoporphyrin to make heme, but if absent, iron has no way to exit the cell so it accumulates in the mitochondria
congenital: defect in ALAS (Rate limiting enzyme)
acquired: alcoholism (toxic to mitochondria),
lead poisoning (denatures ALAD and ferrochelatase), vitamin B6 deficiency (B6 is required for ALAS
*PHARM TIE IN: Isoniazid can cause a B6 depletion and sideroblastic anemia*
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the lab findings for sideroblastic anemia? |
|
Definition
↑ferritin ↓TIBC
↑serum iron ↑%saturation
similar findings of hemachromatosis bc they are both an "iron overloaded state" |
|
|
Term
Which diseases are characterized by a decrease in the synthesis of globin chains? |
|
Definition
Thalassemia
inherited mutation and carriers are protected against the plasmodium falciparum malaria |
|
|
Term
How many alpha globin alleles are there and what chromosome are they located on? |
|
Definition
4 alpha alleles
chromosome 16
alpha thalassemia: gene deletion |
|
|
Term
How many alpha genes are knocked out to result in severe anemia? |
|
Definition
3 alpha genes
1-alpha gene: asymptomatic
2-alpha genes: mild anemia
3-alpha genes: severe anemaia
4-alpha genes: incompatabile with life (hydrops fealis)
Hgb Barts on electrophoresis (tetramer of gamma chains) |
|
|
Term
What is Beta thalassemia minor? |
|
Definition
β/β+
one normal/ one decreased synthesis
mildest beta thalassemia
asymptomatic
increased HbA2
microcytic. hypochromic anemia with target cells |
|
|
Term
Which beta thalassemia results in a severe form of anemia a few months after birth?
Why? |
|
Definition
βo/βo
presents a few months after birth bc fetal Hgb is α2/γ2 and it persists a little while after birth
but eventually the baby will change to α2/α2 because there is no Beta globulins. The alpha tetramers will precipitate and damage the RBCs causing ineffective erythropoiesis, extravascualr hemolysis due to destruction bythe spleen, and massive erythroid hyperplasia (expansion of hematopoiesis into marrow of skull and facial bones), hepatosplenomegaly, risk of aplastic crisis with parvovirus B19 (Virus that effects the erythroid precursors)
Tx: chronic transfusions which can cause secondary hemochromatosis (iron overload)
Labs: microcytic, hypochromic RBCs and target cells
HbA2 (alpha2 and delta2) and HbF (alpha 2 and gamma 2) on electrophoresis
NO HbA. WHY?--bc HbA is made up of alpha2 and beta2 which these ppl dont have
crew cut skull
[image]
Chipmunk like face
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is this image about? How does this relate to anemia?
[image] |
|
Definition
The role of Folate, B12 and honocystein in DNA synthesis
1) THF enters the cell and is methylated
2) In order to participate in DNA synthesis it passes along the methyl group to B12
3) B12 passes the methyl group to homocysteine which then becomes methionine
B12.folate deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia
megaloblasts in rapidly defining cells
hypersegmented neutrophils
increased homocystein
normal methylmalonic acid(if only folate deficiency)
|
|
|
Term
Why does B12 deficiency cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
Methylmalonic Acid cannot be converted into Succinyl CoA without B12
Methylmalonic acid will build up in particular within the myelin of the spinal cord and cause degeneration
NOT seen in folate deficiency |
|
|
Term
What causes normocytic anemia? |
|
Definition
peripheral destruction (good marrow response)
-or-
underproduction (poor marrow response)
determined by looking at reticulocytes on blood smear
which looks blue due to RNA in the cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
What type of anemia would you see hemosiderinuria? |
|
Definition
Normocytic anemia due to predominant intravascular hemolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inherited defects of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins rendering the cells round instead of biconcave disc shape
most commonly:
spectrin
ankyrin
band 3.1
blebs are broken off and you get an increased RBW
hard to travel through the spleen and are destroyed
extracascular anemia
[image]
splenomegaly (hypertrophy as spleen eats up these RBCs)
jaundice: unconjugated bilirubin overload
increased risk of bilirubin gallstones:conjugated bilirubin overload
increased risk of aplastic crisis with infection of parvovirus B19
Dx: osmotic fragility test
increased fragility in hypotonic solution
Tx: splenectomy
|
|
|
Term
What causes the sickling of the cell? |
|
Definition
Hypoxemia
Dehydration
Acidosis
polymerization when deoxygenated therefore a reversible reaction
can be irreversible and cause dactylitis: common sign in infants presenting with sickle cell anemia |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of death in children with sickle cell ?
adults with sickle cell? |
|
Definition
children:
adults: acute chest syndrome (vasoocclusion in pulmonary microcirculation) precipitated by pneumonia (inducing sickling in the lungs)
children: infection by encapsulated organisms |
|
|
Term
Why don't people with sickle cell trait experience symptoms? |
|
Definition
because they produce less than 50% HbS
50% or more is required for sickling to take place in vivo except in the renal medulla which these ppl can have microinfarctions and lead to a decreased ability to concentrate urine
can check if someone has trait with a metabisulfite screen or electrophoresis |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between Sickle cell and HemoglobinC? |
|
Definition
Hemoglobin C has glutamoic acid replaced by lysine
mild anemia
crystals on blood smear
Sickle cell has glutamic acid replaces by valine |
|
|
Term
What is the main cause of death in Paroxysma Nocturnal hemoglobinema? |
|
Definition
thrombosis
because as platelets are lysed the fragments can release cytoplasmic contents into circulation and induce thrombosis
mainly in hepatic, portal or cerebral veins |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinemia? |
|
Definition
acquired defect in PIGA gene myeloid cells of Gpi which is required for the expression of CD55(DAF) and MIRL
DAF and MIRL protect RBCs, WBCs and platelts from destruction by complement
At night this occurs in these patients because we normally breath more shallowly at night and are a little respiratory acidic--> this activates complement which normally doesn't have an effect but in these patients the RBCs, WBCs and platelets are lysed
They wake up in the morning with dark urine
labs: hemoglobinema
hemoglobinuria
hemosiderin (days later)
screen: sucrose test
confirm: acidified serum test or flow cytometry to look for CD55
|
|
|
Term
People with Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinemia are at an increased risk for what? |
|
Definition
Iron deficiency anemia
10% develop AML (think bc PNH is acquired mutation so you are more likely to acquire other mutations) |
|
|
Term
What causes G6PD Deficiency? |
|
Definition
reduced half life of the enzyme cuasing a decreased ability to deal with neutralization of H202 in the cell resultin in oxidative stress and damage
causes intravascular hemolysys
due to infections, drugs (primaquine, sulfa drugs, dapsone), and fava beans
African variant: mild reduction in half life
Mediterranean variant: markedly reduced half life
enzyme studies confirm diagnosis--can only be done after the crisis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
IgG 37 degrees celsius
SLE
RA
CLL
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
IgM and C3b
4 degrees celsius
warm body centers
Mononucleosis
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Raynauds Phenomenon |
|
|
Term
What are the general features of vascultidis? |
|
Definition
nonspecific inflammatory sympoms: fever, athralgia,fatigue, weight loss etc..
organ ischemia symptoms based on the vasculitis
(endothelium is damaged resulting in thrombis and/or inflammation followed by healing and fibrosis narrowing the lumen)
most are not infectious |
|
|
Term
For what disease would you give a child aspirin? |
|
Definition
Kawasaki's disease
Aspirin and IVIG are teatment to protect them against thrombus in coronary artery
only time bc aspirin is toxic to children |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
necrotizing vascultitis involving the digits
Raynaud's phenomenon is often pressent
highly associated with smoking
[image] |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
"Wecener's"
the C disease
c-ANCA
Necrotizing granulomatous vascultis involving NASOPHARYNX, LUNGS, KIDNEY
[image]
sinusitis, ulcers in the nasopharynx, hemoptysis with bilateral lung infiltrates, hematuria due to RPGN
[image]
relapses are common
Tx Cyclophosphamide |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
necrotizing vascultits
lung and kidney involvement
p-ANCA
like wegeners but
NO GRANULOMAS
NO NASOPHARYNGEAL INVOLVEMENT |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
p-ANCA
Asthma
peripheral eosinophilia
granulomatous necrotizing vasculitis |
|
|
Term
What is a key blood/lab finding in a person with HTN due to renal artery stenosis? |
|
Definition
increased plasma renin
atrophy of affected kidney
caused by
atherosclerosis (older males)
fibromuscular dysplasia (young female) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
Intimal plaque that obstructs blood flow
cholesterol with fibromuscular cap
involves large and medium arteries
abdominal, coronary, popliteal and internal carotids
[image] |
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Term
When do you usually see symptoms of atherosclerosis?
What are the 4 complications of atherosclerosis? |
|
Definition
greater than 70% stenosis
Stenosis:
PVD (EX.popluteal artery)
Angina (coronary artery)
Ischemic bowel disease (mesenteric artery)
other complications
Plaque rupture with thrombosis
MI (coronary artery)
Stroke (middle cerebral artery)
Plaque rupture with embolization
atherosclerotic emboli with cholesterol clefts
Weakining of the vessel wall
aneurysm (abdominal aorta ex.)
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Term
Who classically gets hyaline arteriosclerosis? |
|
Definition
ppl with benign HTN
(due to high pressures forcing proteins in)
ppl with Diabetes
(due to nonenzymatic glycosylation of basement membrane making wall leaky and protein comes in)
proteins leaking through vascular wall and organizing as hyaline membane around the lumen
[image]
results in ischemia especially to the kidney (glomerular scarring) and eventual renal failure
arteriolonephrosclerosis
[image] |
|
|
Term
What causes hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis? |
|
Definition
Malignant HTN
Onion skin appearance
and narrowing of the lumen
may lead to fibrinoid necrosis and end organ ischemia especially kidney (renal failure) with flea bitten appearance
[image] |
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|
Term
[image]
What is this a picture of? |
|
Definition
Aortic dissection
occurs in proximal 10 cm of aorta (high pressure)
with pre-existing weakness of the media
commonly due to:
most common in HTN (hyaline arteriosclerosis of the arteries in he vaso vasorum of the adventitia)
inherited defect of connective tissue (Marfan's:fibrillin defect, also Ehler's Danlos: defective collagen)
presentation: sharp tearing chest pain that tears to the back and commonly causes pericardial tamponade that leads to death
can also rupture out into the mediastinum
or tear down the aortic intima and compress the renal artery |
|
|
Term
What is the classic cause of thoracic aneurysm?
complications? |
|
Definition
weakening of the aortic wall due to tertiary syphillis
with a tree bark apearance of the aorta
[image]
complications:
-dilation of the aortic valve root with insufficiency resulting in aortic insufficicency
-thrombosis-->thomboemboli |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of abdominal aoortic aneuryms? |
|
Definition
atherosclerosis
classically male smokers over 60 yo with HTN
pulsatile abdominal mass that grows with time
rupture at greatest risk >5cm in diameter
rupture triad: hypotension
pulsatime abdominal mass
flank pain
[image]
[image] |
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|
Term
What is the range for normal platelets? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Tear drop RBCs are indicative of ..? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Leukemia pts are ofen given leucovorin (N-formy THF) following treatment with the drug methotrexate. Why is Leukovorin a useful part of this treatment protocol? |
|
Definition
It prevents the uptake of methotrexate by normal cells |
|
|
Term
How does the Western blot test confirm HIV? |
|
Definition
Gel electrophoresis and blot is formed on HIV protein standards
Blot is incubated with the patient's serum
Presence of anti-HIV antibodies in serum are detected |
|
|
Term
Explain why a deficiency of the enzyme that is the rate-limiter for the HMP shunt can result in hemolytic anemia. |
|
Definition
deficienct in G6PD generate NADPH which produces reduced glutathione
without the enzyme, RBCs are more susceptible to oxidative damage and hemolysis |
|
|
Term
Explain the capillary-tissue fluid exchange from arterioles to capillaries to venules. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How do the following circumstances impact the Starling forces of fluid movement through capillaries? • Heart failure • Liver failure • Renal failure • Infections and toxins • Nephrotic syndrome • Lymphatic blockage • Bums • Diuretic administration • IV infusion of albumin or clotting factors
|
|
Definition
• Heart failure
increased capillary pressure
• Liver failure
decreased oncotic pressure
• Renal failure
decreased plasma protein, decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
• Infections and toxins
increased capillary permeability
• Nephrotic syndrome
increased plasma protein and decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
• Lymphatic blockage
increased osmotic pressure *nonpitting edema*
• Burns
increased capillary permeabilityums
• Diuretic administration
osmotic agent that prevents water reabsorption
• IV infusion of albumin or clotting factors
increase plasma proteins and increase plasma colloid osmotic pressure
- Venous insufficiency -increased capillary pressure
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|
Term
What are the structures in the femoral region from lateral to medial? |
|
Definition
Lateral to medial to find the NAVEL
Nerve Artery Vein Lymphatics
femoral nerve is outside the femoral sheath
[image] |
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|
Term
What serum lab marker is helpful in assessing the appropriate oxygenation of tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does an increase in afterioad affect the stroke volume of the heart assuming contractility remains the same? |
|
Definition
decreases the stroke volume |
|
|
Term
What impact does an increase in contractility have on stroke volume assuming preload and afterload remain constant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A sound heard in early diastole due to rapid ventricular filling
more common in dilated ventricles (CHF, dilated cardiomyopathy, mitral regurg, increased filling pressures, left to right shunting (VSD, ASD, PDA))
but considered normal in children and pregnant women
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is the S4 Heart sound? |
|
Definition
the atrial kick that occurs in late diastole due to high atrial pressure associated with ventricular hypertrophy
(aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, chronic hypertension, common after MI)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What do S3 and S4 heart sounds tell us (generally)? |
|
Definition
S3 whether the ventricles are dilated
(early diastole)
_________________________________________
S4 whether the ventricles/valves are stiff
(late diastole) |
|
|
Term
What are the different waves for the jugular venous pulse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where can you hear normal physiologic splitting of S2? |
|
Definition
during inspiration over the pulmonic region
[image]
caused when the closure of the aortic valve and pulmonic valve are not synchronized
If you hear persisitent fixed splitting throughout the cycle in other regions of the chest, consider
pulmonary hypertension
atrial septal defect
right heart failure
split only during expiration (paradoxical):
aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block and ventricular pacemaker (reverse splitting)
wide splitting with expiration:
pulmonic stenosis, right bundle branch block
http://www.bing.com/videos/search?q=splitting+heart+sounds&FORM=HDRSC3#view=detail&mid=437174925C45638C5CAB437174925C45638C5CAB
|
|
|
Term
What heart sound is associated with dilated congestive heart failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What heart sound is associated with chronic hypertension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What gives rise to the jugular venous a,c and v waves? |
|
Definition
a : atrial contraction
c:ventricular contraction
v:atrial filing with a closed tricuspid valve |
|
|
Term
Where does the QRS wave fall in valvular dynamics? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How does VSD eventually result in a right to left shunt and cyansosis? |
|
Definition
This shunt reversal is called Eisenmenger Syndrome and is a large Septal defects
In the beginning, blood from the Left ventricle (high pressure) will preferentially move to the right ventricle (low pressure) creating a left to right shunt.
Over time, because the right side is so overloaded with blood and the pressure, pulmonary hypertension will develop.
The pressure on the right side will exceed that pf the left and blood from the right ventricle (deoxy) will move over to the left side of the heart and into systemic circulation resulting in cyanosis and a right to left shunt
[image]
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|
Term
Which type of congenital septal defect is associated with Down's syndrome? |
|
Definition
Ostium primum ASD
split S2 on auscultation bc the right side is getting extra volume resulting in delayed closure of the pulmonic valve
(Ostium secundum is the most common type however) |
|
|
Term
What is associated with a holosystolic machine like murmur and lower extremeity cyanosis? |
|
Definition
Patent Ductus Arteriosus
eisenmeger syndrome with lower extremeity cyanosis happens later on in the progression if not treated with Indomethicin
[image]
assoc. with congenital rubella |
|
|
Term
Presents with early cyanosis |
|
Definition
Ts
Tetralogy of Fallot
Tricuspid Atresia
Truncus Arteriosus
Transposition of the Great Vessels |
|
|
Term
scarring of the aortic valve with fusion of the commisures with mitral stenosis.
What caused this and what murmur is associated with the aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
chronic rheumatic valve disease
systolic ejection click followed by
crescendo-decrescendo murmur
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are some complications of aortic stenosis? |
|
Definition
concentric left ventricular hypertrophy
angina and syncope with exercise
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of aortic regurgitation? |
|
Definition
Aortic regurg is backflow of blood from aorta into LV duing diastole
most common cause is aortic root dilation (syphilitic aneurysm) or valve damage from infectious endocarditis
[image]
|
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|
Term
early blowing diastolic murmur, bounding pulses, pulsating nail bed and head bobbing is associated with? |
|
Definition
aortic regurgitation
diastolic decrescendo murmur
widening pulse pressure/hyperdynamic circulation causes the bounding pulses, head bobbing, and pulsating nail bed
Clinical features:
LV dilation and eccentric hypertrophy
[image]
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IfJotUSNgdo |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the causes of mital regurgitation? |
|
Definition
complication of MVP
LV dilation
infective endocarditis
acute rheumatic heart disease
papillary muscle rupture after MI |
|
|
Term
What kind of murmur is associated with mitral regurgitation? |
|
Definition
holosystolic blowing murmur that gets louder with expiration and squatting |
|
|
Term
how do these effect valves:
chronic rheumatic disease___
acute rheumatic disease___ |
|
Definition
chronic: stenosis
acute: regurgitation |
|
|
Term
Name the Systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmurs |
|
Definition
AS (radiates to neck)
MVP (click, increases with valsalve)
HOCM (increases with valsalva move) |
|
|
Term
Name the systolic, Holosystolic murmurs |
|
Definition
[image]
MR
(high pitched blowing, increases with increased TPR : squatting and handgrip or increased LA return: expiration,radiates to axilla)
_______________________________________
TR
(high pitched blowing, increase w/ RA return- inspiration increases)
______________________________________
VSD
(harsh) |
|
|
Term
Name the diastolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur |
|
Definition
AR
best heard LSB with patient leaning forward
high pitched blowing heard at the end of expiration
[image] |
|
|
Term
Name the diastolic holosystolic murmur |
|
Definition
MS
opening snap due to tensing of chordae tenidinae
increases with increase LA pressure: expiration
late diastolic rumble heard best at the apex in left decubitus position
NO RADIATION
assoc. with rheumatic fever
|
|
|
Term
What are the 4 obligate aerobic bacteria? |
|
Definition
Nagging Pests Must Breath
Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Bacillus species |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
VSD, Tricuspid Regurg, Mitral Regurg |
|
|
Term
Irregularly irregular heartbeat |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Squatting does what to HOCM and MVP murmurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inspiration increases the volume of what kind of murmurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which murmurs get louder with expiration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Handgrip is used to make which murmur louder? |
|
Definition
Mitral regurg (increases afterload) |
|
|
Term
What organism is called the "pinworm"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Aortic stenosis
(no murmur at the beginning of systole, ejection click is the popping of the aortal valve open)
S1-ejection click-crescendo-decrescendo-S2
Radiates to carotid
weak pulses and syncope |
|
|
Term
holosystolic murmur
loudest on inspiration |
|
Definition
tricuspid regurgitation (IV drug user)
VSD (infant) |
|
|
Term
Which heart murmur is associated with weak pulses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the most common causes of Aortic Stenosis? |
|
Definition
Bicuspid Valve
Unicuspid valve
Aging-Calficiation
Chronic Rheumatic Heart Disease
|
|
|
Term
Syncope
weak pulsus
harsh crescendo-decrescendosystolic ejection murmur
radiating to carotids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard in the 2nd-3rd right interspace close to the sternum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Early diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the left side of the sternum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Late diastolic decrescendo murmur heard best along the left side of the sternum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform) murmur best heard at the apex and often radiates to the left axilla |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Late systolic murmur usually preceded by a mid-systolic click |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur best heard in the 2nd-3rd left interspaces close to the sternum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform) murmur best heard along the left lower sternal border and generally radiates to the right lower sternal border |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Rumbling late diastolic murmur with an opening snap |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pansystolic (AKA holosystolic or uniform) murmur best heard at the 4th-6th left intercostal spaces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
High-pitched diastolic murmur associated with a widened pulse pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An 80-year-old man presents with a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur: What, the most likely cause? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the murmur heard best in left lateral decubitus position? |
|
Definition
Mitral regur and stenosis
left sided S3 and S4 |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis? |
|
Definition
Strep viridans
low virulence: small vegetations, but act as a trap for transient bacteria |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users? |
|
Definition
Staph Aureus
high virulence: infects normal valves
large vegetations-->acute endocarditis
tricuspid valve |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of bacterical endocarditis of prosthetic valves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying colorectal carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What organisms cause endocarditis with negative blood cultures? |
|
Definition
HACEK organisms
Haemophilus,
Actinobacillus,
Cardiobacterium,
Eikenella,
Kingella
very hard to grow |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical features of endocarditis? |
|
Definition
Fever
Murmur
Janeway Lesions (septic emboli-painLess)
Osler nodes (septim emboli-painful Ouch)
Anemia of chronic disease
[image] |
|
|
Term
Sterile vegetations on both sides of mitral valve associated with SLE |
|
Definition
Libman-Sacks Endocarditis
results in mitral regurgitation |
|
|
Term
What are the most common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
Idiopathic
Genetic Mutation (AD)
Myocarditis
Drugs (Doxorubicin, Cocaine)
Alcohol abuse
Pregnancy (late 3rd trimester, soon after birth) |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of myocarditis? |
|
Definition
Coxsackie Virus B
tx:transplant |
|
|
Term
What causes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
genetic mutations in sarcomere proteins causing disorganized fibers and massive hypertrophy of the left ventricle
[image]
most common cause of sudden death in young athletes
[image] |
|
|
Term
Myofiber hypertrophy with disarray |
|
Definition
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
[image] |
|
|
Term
What is restrictive cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
restricted filling of the heart during diastole due to decreased compliance of the ventricular endomyocardium |
|
|
Term
What causes restrictive cardiomyopathy?
How does it present on EKG? |
|
Definition
amloidosis
sarcoidosis
hemochromatosis
endocardial fibroelastosis(children)
Loeffler syndrome (eosinophilc infiltrate causing fibrosis)
presents as CHF
low voltage EKG with diminished QRS |
|
|
Term
benign mesenchyma proliferation in the heart with a gelatinous appearance and abundant ground substance on histology |
|
Definition
Myxoma
most common primary cardiac tumor in adults |
|
|
Term
most common cardiac tumor in children associated with tuberous sclerosis |
|
Definition
Rhabdomyoma
benign hamartoma of cardiac muscle
usually arises in ventricle
|
|
|
Term
What cancers commonly metastasis to the heart? |
|
Definition
breast, lung,melanoma, lymphoma
pericardium
causing pericardial effusion |
|
|
Term
Which hereditary hyperbilirubinemia matches the following statement?
- Mildly decreased UDPGT -Completely absent UDPGT - Grossly black liver -Responds to phenobarbital - Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy -Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection) |
|
Definition
- Mildly decreased UDPGT
Gilbert's syndrome
Crigler Najjar Type 2
-Completely absent UDPGT
Crigler Najjar Type 1
- Grossly black liver
Dubin Johnson Syndrome
-Responds to phenobarbital
Gilbert's Syndrome
Crigler-Najjar Type 2
- Treatment includes plasmapheresis and phototherapy
Crigler Najjar Type I
-Asymptomatic unless under physical stress (alcohol, infection)
Gilbert's Syndrome |
|
|
Term
What is a disulfiram-like reaction? What drugs cause a disulfiram-like reaction? |
|
Definition
disulfuram like reaction: inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase so alcohol cannot be fully metablized
flushing, sweating, nausea, headache, hypotension
Meds:
Metronidazole
Cephalosporins (Cefotetan, Cefamandole, Cefoperazone)
1st gen Sulfonylureas (Tolbutamide) |
|
|
Term
Which phase of the cardiac action potential do sodium blockers act on of the cardiac action potential? |
|
Definition
Phase 0, by blocking NA channels these anti-arrhythmics are prolonging phase 0 and thus increasing the refractory period which slows the heart down
[image] |
|
|
Term
Which phase do the potassium channel blockers work on of the cardiac action potential? |
|
Definition
Phase 3, these anti-arrhythmics work by blocking K you can prolong the refractory period and slow the heart.
[image] |
|
|
Term
What causes the depolarization of phase 0 in pacemaker action potential? |
|
Definition
Calcium channel openining
[image] |
|
|
Term
How do beta blockers act on the pacemaker action potential? |
|
Definition
Beta blockers decrease the slope of Phase 4 which slows the heart
Calcium channel blockers work on phase 0 here to increase the time required to reach threshold and slowing heart
[image]
[image] |
|
|
Term
Draw the myocardial action potential and the ion channels responsible for each phase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What physiology accounts for the automaticity of the AV and SA nodes? |
|
Definition
The gradual increase of sodium conductance of Phase 4
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the classes of Antiarrhythmics? |
|
Definition
No BadBoy Keeps Clean
Class I: Na channel blockers
Class II: Beta Blockers
Class III: K channel blockers
Class IV: Calcium channel blockers |
|
|
Term
What are the Class IA antiarrhythmics? |
|
Definition
Double Quarter Pounder
Disopyramide
Procainimide (drug induced Lupus anti-histone)
Quinidine (torsades de pointes, thrombocytopenia)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the Class IB Antiarrhythmics?
|
|
Definition
Lettuce Tomato Mexican Pickles
most commonly used antiarrhythmics!
Lidocaine (tachyarrhthmias after MI)
Tocanide
Mexelitine
Phenytoin (also an anticonvulsant)
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the Class IC Antiarrhythmics? |
|
Definition
More Fries Please
not commonly used
Moricizine
Flecanide
Propafenone
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the class II, III, and IV antiarrhythmics? |
|
Definition
Class II:Beta blockers
decrease cAMP, decrease Ca and suppress slope 4
lol
[image]
Propanolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
Esmolol (most short acting-V-tac, a fib and A-flutter)
mask the effects of hypoglycemia,exacerbate asthma, bradycardia, AV block, CNS effects
overdose treatment: Glucagon
_________________________________
Class III: K channel blackers, work at phase 3, elongates refractory period
SAD
[image]
Sotalol
Amiodarone (WPW)
Dofetilide
A-fib, A-flutter
Amidoarone SE: Pulmonary fibrosis, heapotoxicity,hypo-,hyperthyroidism, BLUE-GREY skin discoloration, photodermatitis, corneal deposists, heart failure, has effects of all the classes so always check: PFTs, TFTs, LFTs
____________________________________
Class IV: Calcium channel blockers, decrease slope of Phase 0: VD
[image]
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Nondihydroperodines
Constipation, flushing, edema, heart failure, dont combine with beta blockers |
|
|
Term
What is the action of Adenosine and what is it classically used for? |
|
Definition
SVT
short acting drug that increases potassium leaving the cell and decreases permeability of calcium
so there is no depolarization
stops the heart for 5 seconds an starts the heart at a slower heart rate to diagnose SVT
very uncomfortable for patient
Flushing, hypotension, chest pain
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
0:Na influx (rapid depolarization)
1:K and Cl efflux (KClout)
2:Ca influx (plateau)
3:K efflux (Kout) (repolarization)
4: K permeability increases |
|
|
Term
What does acidosis do to K levels? |
|
Definition
increases them
acidoses is always associated with hyperkalemia
increased sodium causes sodium to enter the cells (down the gradient) and therefore K will be pushed out
[image]
Treat: Calcium and Bicarb especially when somone is coded for a long time |
|
|
Term
Which antiarrhythmic has the side effect of cinchonism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the characteristic EKG finiding with WPW? |
|
Definition
Delta waves
syndrome of preexcitation of ventricles of the heart
from bundle of kent
[image] |
|
|
Term
What are the two different types of second degree AV block?
How do they differ? |
|
Definition
Mobitz Type I (Wenkebach gives a warning)
progressively prolonged PR intervals , then a blocked beat
[image]
Mobitz Type II
blocked beat without the progressive PR prolongation
[image] |
|
|
Term
How does the cause of a narrow QRS complex differ from the cause of a wide QRS complex? |
|
Definition
Narrow:
conducted through the normal pathway
Wide:
NOT CONDUCTED normally through normal conduction pathway |
|
|
Term
What is the ECG axis given the QRS deflections in the following scenarios? • Positive in lead I, positive in lead II
• Positive in lead I, negative in lead III
- Negative in lead I, positive in lead III
- Positive in lead I, negative in aVR
|
|
Definition
• Positive in lead I, positive in lead II
Normal axis
• Positive in lead I, negative in lead III
Left axis deviation
- Negative in lead I, positive in lead III
Right axis deviation
- Positive in lead I, negative in aVR
Normal Axis |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for ventricular fibrillation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for ventricular tachycardia when there is no pulse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the hallmark of a third degree heart block? |
|
Definition
No correlation between P waves and QRS
[image] |
|
|
Term
What drugs are known to prolong the QT interval, increasing the likelihood of torsades in those at risk? |
|
Definition
Macrolides
Haloperidol
Chloroquine
Risperodone
Class IA Antiarrhythmics
Class III Antiarrhythmics
Protease Inhibitors
|
|
|
Term
What is the difference between primary biliary cirrhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis? |
|
Definition
PBC: autoimmune associated with CREST scleroderma
positive AMA, middle aged women
__________________________________________
SC:unknown etiology, p-ANCA
middle aged men, associated with ulcerative colitis
ERCP: alternating beads and stricturing
|
|
|
Term
How does increasing the diameter of a vessel by two times affect the resistance of the vessel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What substances act on smooth muscle myosin light-chain kinase?
How does this effect blood pressure? |
|
Definition
Dihyroperidone
Calcium channel blockers
Epinephrine (B2 receptors)
Prostaglandin E2
Relax vascular smooth muscle ---> decrease BP
|
|
|
Term
What category of BP medications is preferred in the treatment of aortic dissection? |
|
Definition
Beta blocker
mediastinal widening on chest xray
|
|
|
Term
What marks hypertension? prehypertension? |
|
Definition
HTN: >140/90
PreHTN: 120-139/80-89 |
|
|
Term
What would you most suspect the cause of hypertension to be in a patient with the following clinical clues?
• Paroxysms of increased sympathetic tone: anxiety, palpitations, diaphoresis
• Age of onset between 20 and 50
• Elevated serum creatinine and abnormal urinalysis
• Abdominal bruit
• BP in arms > legs
• Family history of HTN
• Tachycardia, heat intolerance, diarrhea
• Hyperkalemia
• Episodic sweating and tachycardia
• Abrupt onset in a patient younger than 20 or older
than 50, and depressed serum K levels
• Central obesity, moon-shaped face, hirsutism
• Normal urinalysis and normal serum K levels
• Young individual with acute onset tachycardia
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Definition
• Paroxysms of increased sympathetic tone: anxiety, palpitations, diaphoresis: Pheochromocytoma
• Age of onset between 20 and 50: Primary HTN
• Elevated serum creatinine and abnormal urinalysis: Renal disease
• Abdominal bruit: Renal artery stenosis
• BP in arms > legs: Coarctation of the aorta
• Family history of HTN: Primary HTN
• Tachycardia, heat intolerance, diarrhea: Hyperthyroidism
• Hyperkalemia: Renal failure
• Episodic sweating and tachycardia: Pheochromocytoma
• Abrupt onset in a patient younger than 20 or older than 50, and depressed serum K levels:Hyperaldosteronemia
• Central obesity, moon-shaped face, hirsutism: Cushing Syndrome
• Normal urinalysis and normal serum K levels: Primary HTN
• Young individual with acute onset tachycardia: Cocaine or amphetamines
- Hypokalemia : Renal artery stenosis
- Proteinuria: Renal disease
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Term
Compensatory anomaly such as patent ductus arteriosus necessary for survival |
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Definition
Transposition of the Great vessels |
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Term
Hypertension limited to the upper extremities and cerebral vessels; notching of the ribs seen on x-ray |
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Definition
congenital coarctation of the aorta |
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Term
A 42-year-old man is seen because of a long history of slowly developing congestive heart failure. His blood pressure is normal. Coronary artery angiography reveals no vascular disease. No heart murmurs are heard. The white blood cell count, differential, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis ? |
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Definition
Cardiomyopathy
Cardiomyopathies are noninflammatory myocardial disorders that are not associated with coronary artery obstruction, hypertension, valvular disease, congenital heart disease, or infectious disease. They are most often characterized by otherwise unexplained ventricular dysfunction, such as cardiac failure, ventricular enlargement, or ventricular arrhythmias. |
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Term
What is the most common cause of fibrinous pericarditis? |
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Definition
Uremia due to renal failure
[image] |
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Term
If the fetus lacks this enzyme, you could se maternal virilization |
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Definition
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Term
Aflatoxin is associated with an increased risk of this cancer |
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Definition
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Term
Which group of medications inhibits the rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis? |
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Definition
Statins inhibit HMGCoA reductase |
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Term
Name 8 different indirect cholinergic agonists and state the use for each. |
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Definition
Myasthenia Gravis
Neostigmine (post op neurogenic ileus too)
Pyridostigmine
Atropine overdose
Physiostigmine
Diagnose MG:
Edrophonium
Glaucoma
Echotiphate
Alzheimers:
Donepizil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
Organophosphaste:
Parathion
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Term
What does calcium bind to on the sarcomere? |
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Definition
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