Someone with a hematocrit of 25 is

 A: anemic

B: normal

C: polycythemic

A: anemic

C: polycythemic

Fight or flight responses characterize the activation of the

A: cranial division of the central nervous system.

B: motor division of the somatic nervous system.

C: parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

D: sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

Which plasma protein is largely missing from serum?

 A: fibrinogen

B: hemoglobin

C: immunoglobulins

D: albumin

 Most of the erythropoietin needed for erythropoiesis comes from

A: bone marrow

B: kidneys

C: lymph nodes

D: spleen

In infants and in liver disease, the inability to metabolize bilirubin may result in

A: Jaundice

 B: Hemophilia

C: Cardiac arrest

D: Hypertension

The secretion of thromboxane A2 and ADP by activated platelets to surrounding cells is an example of

A: synaptic transmission

 B: paracrine transmission

C: endocrine transmission

D: signaling by direct contact

In thrombocytopenia pupura there are multiple small hemorrhages all over the body because small holes are not plugged due to a deficiency of

A: fibrin

  B: Ca++

C: factor VIII

D: platelets

Factor VIII deficiency:

A: Anemia

B: Hypertension

C: Hemophilia

D: Polycythemia

E: Heart attack

The intrinsic clotting pathway is initiated by _____. The extrinsic clotting pathway is initiated by _____.

A: The heart; Activated platelets

B: Activated platelets; Damaged tissue

C: Damaged tissue; Activated platelets

D: Erythrocytes; Damaged tissue

The main function of thrombin is to catalyze the production of

A: thromboplastin

B: prothrombinase

C: plasmin

D: fibrin

When atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, the cardiac cycle is in

A: atrial systole

B: arrest

C: ventricular systole

D: atrial diastole

A:atrial systole

Which receptor is activated to cause a decreased rate of firing of the pacemaker cells of the SA node?

A: nicotinic cholinergic

 B: muscarinic cholinergic

C: a1 adrenergic

D: b1 adrenergic

A prolonged bleeding time (on a bleeding time test) suggests

A: Increased blood volume

B: Low platelet count

C: Decreased production of clotting factors

D: High red blood cell count

What is the mechanism of action of Coumadin?

A: chelation (binding) of Ca++

B: inhibition of the function of coagulation factors

C: inhibition of the synthesis of coagulation factors

D: inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

A: pulmonary

 B: mitral

C: aortic

D: tricuspid

In cardiac muscle contraction, influx of extracellular calcium causes

A: release of Na+ from the extracellular fluid

B: release of Ca++ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

C: pumping of Ca++ into the mitochondria

D: pumping of K+ out of the cells

Electrical coupling between cardiac myocytes is facilitated by

A: Gap junctions

B: Desmosomes

C: Sarcomeres

D: I-bands

Rapid depolarization in cardiac myocytes is caused by the opening of _____.

A: voltage-gated Na+ channels

B: voltage-gated K+ channels

C: voltage-gated Ca++ channels

D: voltage-gated Cl- channels

The pacemaker region of the heart is (are) the

A: conduction myofibers (purkinje fibers)

B: AV bundle (bundle of His)

C: atrioventricular valve

D: sinoatrial node

Which phase of the cardiac action potential is caused by rapid entry of Na+ into the cell?

A: 0

B: 1

C: 2

D: 3

E: 4

During the plateau of the cardiac action potential, the potassium current leaving the cell is balanced by the ____ current entering the cell.

A: K+

B: Ca++

C: Na+

D: Cl-

The left and right branches of the vagus nerve carry what type of signals to the heart?

A: Somatic motor

B: Sympathetic

C: Parasympathetic

D: No signals

The main sources of epinephrine are

A: postganglionic sympathetic neurons

B: preganglionic sympathetic neurons

C: adrenal medullary cells

D: adrenal cortical cells

C: adrenal medullary cells

D: adrenal cortical cells

Intrinsic control of heart rate is mediated by

A: Cardiac myocytes

B: The vagus nerves

C: The sympathetic nervous system

D: Pacemaker cells

Blood that exits the right ventricle enters the

A: Pulmonary arteries

B: Pulmonary veins

C: Vena cava

D: Aorta

Norepinephrine is a positive chronotropic substance because it produces

A: decreased heart rate

B: decreased myocardial contractility

C: increased heart rate

D: increased myocardial contractility

Which receptor on cardiac myofibers mediates increased myocardial contractility?

A: a1 adrenergic receptor

B: a1 cholinergic receptor

C: b1 adrenergic receptor

D: b1 cholinergic receptor

E: b2 adrenergic receptor

Which pair is incorrect regarding the action potential of a cardiac myocyte?

A: Phase 4: Resting Membrane potential

B: Phase 3: Repolarization due to K+ efflux

C: Phase 0: Depolarization caused by rapid Ca++ influx

D: Phase 1: Na+ channel inactivation

An L-type calcium channel blocker will have the most significant effects on the action potential of

A: Pacemaker cells

B: Neurons

C: Skeletal muscle fibers

D: Cardiac myocytes

Which of the following expresses the Frank- Starling Law of the Heart (Starling's Law)

A: Î EDV ->Î SV

B: Î HR  ->Î CO

C: SV x HR = CO

D: Flow = Driving force x Resistance

As seen in the case study in class, hyperkalemia caused a shift in the resting membrane potential to more (+) (depolarized) This ultimately caused tachycardia by doing what in pacemaker cells?

A: Increasing the distance to threshold

B: Opening Na+ channels to depolarize more quickly in pacemaker cells

C: Decreasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

D: Increasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

C: Decreasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

D: Increasing the rate of rise of the pacemaker potential

A high afterload

A: Decreases cardiac output by decreasing stroke volume

B: Increases cardiac output by decreasing stroke volume

C: Increases cardiac output by increasing heart rate

D: Decreases cardiac output by decreasing heart rate

A:Decreases cardiac output by decreasing stroke volume

Which receptor when activated, stimulates postganglionic sympathetic neurons to secrete norepinephrine?

A: nicotinic cholinergic

B: muscarinic cholinergic

C: b1 adrenergic

D: a1 adrenergic

Place the following events of the cardiac cycle in proper sequence first heart sounds isovolumetric ventricular relaxation atrial systole opening of semilunar valves

A: iii, i, ii, iv

B: iii, i, iv, ii

C: i, iii, iv, ii

D: iii, ii, i, iv

Following completion of his exam, Reggie assumed rest and digest mode, and the following parameters existed: Stroke volume = 70 ml/ heartbeat and Heart rate = 70 heartbeats/min What was his cardiac output at the time?

A: 70 ml/heartbeat

B: 140 heartbeats/min

C: 49 ml/heartbeat

D: 4900 ml/min

E: 4900 beats/min

All of the following regulate stroke volume EXCEPT

A: The end diastolic volume

B: The inotropic state of the heart

C: The afterload

D: The heart rate

When left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, the heart is in

A: Ventricular systole

B: Ventricular diastole

C: Atrial systole

D: Isovolumetric relaxation

During atrial systole, which statement is false?

A: Ventricles are in diastole

B: Ventricles are filling

C: AV valves are open

D: Atria are filling

Beta blockers can cause decreased heart rate by antagonizing the effects of

A: norepinephrine on beta 1 adrenergic receptors

B: norepinephrine on alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

C: acetylcholine on muscarinic cholinergic receptors

D: acetylcholine on beta 1 adrenergic receptors

ECGs record

A: Electrical activity of the heart

B: Mechanical activity of the heart

C: Blood flow through the heart

D: Cardiac output from the heart

E: Oxygen cycling through the heart

In an ECG, the P wave represents

A: Atrial systole

B: Atrial depolarization

C: Ventricular systole

D: Ventricular repolarization

Which is the correct sequence of electrical conduction thought the heart?

A: AV node, atrial myocardium, SA Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium

B: SA Node, AV Node, Atrial myocardium, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium

C: Atrial myocardium, SA Node, AV bundle, AV Node, Ventricular myocardium, Purkinje fibers

D: SA node, atrial myocardium, AV Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, Ventricular myocardium

Which pair is correct?

A: P wave: atrial repolarization

B: T wave: ventricular depolarization

C: QRS complex: ventricular depolarization

D: PR interval: time for a full electrical cycle of the heart

Compared with both plasma and interstitial fluid, intracellular fluid is

A: high in protein

B: high in K+

C: high in Na+

D: high in Ca++

The inferior and superior vena cava empty into the

A: pulmonary artery

B: left ventricle

C: right atrium

D: left atrium

The most abundant protein of red blood cells is

A: spectrin

B: hemoglobin

C: pyruvate kinase

D: Na+/K+ ATPase

E: erythropoietin

The heart rate in this ECG trace is approximately

A: 50 beats/min

B: 60 beats/min

C: 75 beats/min

D: 90 beats/min

C: 75 beats/min

An ECG that appears almost like a “flat-line” is most characteristic of

A: Ventricular fibrillation

B: Premature ventricular contractions

C: AV node delay

D: Tachycardia

A: Ventricular fibrillation

In partial AV block, an ECG typically shows

A: Prolonged PR intervals

B: Premature beats

C: Elevated heart rate

D: Missing P waves

(Cardiac output) X (total peripheral resistance) =

A: left atrial pressure

B: right atrial pressure

C: mean arterial pressure

D: mean systemic filling pressure

C: mean arterial pressure

Capillaries can contain the same blood pressure as small arterioles without bursting because

A: their smooth muscles have a higher tone

B: their lumens have a smaller radius

C: blood flows slowly through capillaries

D: there is more collagen in the tunica externa

The addition of 70 ml of blood causes pressure to increase 40 mm Hg. This is characteristic of the

A: right atrium

B: left ventricle

C: arteries

D: veins

For veins a large change in volume produces only a small change in the venous pressure. Therefore, veins are very

A: compliant

B: inflated

C: rigid

D: elastic

A: compliant

If total peripheral resistance increases (e.g. due to increased sympathetic tone), what happens to mean arterial pressure (assuming cardiac output remains constant)?

A: increases

B: decreases

C: stays the same

A: increases

A layer of elastic fibers at the border between the tunica intima and the tunica externa is characteristic of

A: small arteries

B: large arteries

C: arterioles

D: veins

B: large arteries

Which artery supplies the stomach, liver, pancreas, spleen, etc.?

A: celiac

B: brachiocephalic

C: common iliac

D: femoral

E: carotid

"Increased perfusion of a tissue" means increased

A: blood flow through ateriovenous anastomoses

B: blood flow through tissue capillaries

C: ischemia of the tissue

D: cell size (hypertrophy) in that tissue

B: blood flow through tissue capillaries

The large drop in mean arterial pressure between large arteries and capillaries shows that are the major site of resistance in the circulatory system.

A: bronchioles

B: lymphatics

C: systemic small arteries and arterioles

D: systemic veins

E: pulmonary veins

C: systemic small arteries and arterioles

Which of the following statements about veins is false?

A: large lumens

B: thin, muscular walls

C: high pressure

D: carry blood to the heart

E: high compliance

C: high pressure

Using a Blood pressure cuff, blood pressure is directly measured from the

A: Aorta

B: Brachial artery

C: Vena cava

D: Pulmonary artery

B: Brachial artery

Connections between two arteries are called

A: metarterioles

B: endarterectomies

C: angioplasties

D: anastomoses

D: anastomoses

Which of the following does not contribute to the development of varicose veins?

A: standing for long periods of time

B: high blood pressure at venous valves due to gravity

C: increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. during pregnancy)

D: increased systolic pressure during exercise

Hardening of the arteries is called

A: atriosclerosis

B: artherosclerosis

C: arteriosclerosis

B: artherosclerosis

C: arteriosclerosis

One of the ways to increase systemic filling pressure (pressure in veins) is to

A: dilate veins

B: constrict arteries

C: inhibit angiotensin II

D: increase blood volume

In order for blood in systemic veins to return to the heart, venous pressure

A: must exceed arterial pressure

B: must be lower than right atrial pressure

C: must exceed right atrial pressure

D: must be lower than arterial pressure

C: must exceed right atrial pressure

Of the following cardiovascular components, which is the major one regulated by the kidneys

A: sympathetic tone

B: venoconstriction

C: blood volume

D: vagal discharge

E: total peripheral resistance

C: blood volume

Baroreceptors are part of the

A: Visceral sensory system

B: Somatic sensory system

C: Sympathetic nervous system

D: Central nervous system

A: Visceral sensory system

During “fight or flight” situations, what ensures that skeletal muscles will receive an adequate blood flow?

A: epinephrine at  b2 receptors

B: norepinephrine at  b2receptors

C: epinephrine at  a1 receptors

D: norepinephrine at a1 receptors

Which of the following hormones is secreted by the heart in response to increased pressure?

A: ADH

B: ANP

C: ATP

D: ASA

B: ANP

What directly stimulates the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?

A: renin

B: atrial natriuretic peptide

C: angiotensin II

D: angiotensin converting enzyme

A tumor that secretes norepinephrine and epinephrine (a pheochromocytoma) would

cause hypertension by

A: ↑ venous return

B: ↑ TPR

C: ↑ diuresis

The receptor that mediates ANS-induced vasoconstriction is

A: a1 adrenergic

B: a2 adrenergic

C: b1 adrenergic

D: b2 adrenergic

E: M2 cholinergic

Which of the following is not likely to cause dilation of precapillary sphincters?

A: ↑ - [lactate]

B:  - ↑ [adenosine]

C: - ↑ [O2]

D:  - ↑ [H+]

E:  - ↑ [CO2]

Where is the vasomotor center (cardiovascular center) located?

A: hypothalamus

B: carotid sinus

C: pons

D: medulla

E: cerebral cortex

D: medulla

Which pituitary hormone is a vasoconstrictor?

A: angiotensin

B: antidiuretic hormone

C: epinephrine

D: acetylcholine

E: aldosterone

When the rate of firing of the baroreceptors increases, some of the responses of the cardiovascular center are to

A: constrict the arterioles and dilate the veins

B: increase sympathetic tone to the heart and increase parasympathetic tone to the blood vessels

C: decrease all autonomic input to the body

D: decrease sympathetic tone to the blood vessels and increase parasympathetic tone to the heart

E: increase heart rate, resistance and venous return

D: decrease sympathetic tone to the blood vessels and increase parasympathetic tone to the heart

How does increasing parasympathetic tone help to decrease mean arterial pressure?

A: decreased myocardial contractility

B: decreased heart rate

C: decreased constriction of arteries

D: decreased constriction of veins

B: decreased heart rate

What is the major local vasodilator of coronary blood vessels?

A: H+

B: relaxin

C: kinins

D: adenosine

D: adenosine

The common name for a myocardial infarction is

A: palpitations

B: weak heart

C: heart attack

D: iron-poor blood

E: high blood pressure

C: heart attack

A direct effect of B-blockers, such as atenolol, is to

A: inhibit angiotensin

B: ↓ TPR

C: ↑ heart rate

D: ↓ myocardial contractility

E: ↑ venous return

Weakness and light-headedness are characteristic of

A: shock

B: block

C: flock

D: dock

A: shock

The major effect of nitroglycerin (via nitric oxide) is to dilate

A: pulmonary arteries

B: coronary arteries

C: systemic capillaries

D: portal veins

B: coronary arteries

Calcium channel blockers decrease MAP by causing

A: vasoconstriction and decreased TPR

B: vasodilation and decreased TPR

C: vasodilation and increased TPR

D: venodilation and increased TPR

Inadequate tissue perfusion due to hypersensitive immune reactions

A: cardiogenic shock

B: hypovolemic shock

C: anaphylactic shock

Hypertension makes it more difficult for the heart to eject blood. I.e., hypertension increases

A: myocardial contractility

B: venous pressure

C: afterload

D: preload

C: afterload

In the absence of other illnesses, the first therapy that should be tried for treating hypertension:

A: ACE inhibitors

B: diuretics

C: calcium channel blockers

D: behavioral changes

If behavioral changes are not sufficient in treating hypertension, the first pharmacological therapy usually used is/are

A: ACE inhibitors

B: diuretics

C: calcium channel blockers

D: beta blockers

E: angiotensin II receptor blockers

B: diuretics

A crushing pain in the chest caused by inadequate oxygenation of the myocardium is called

A: heart failure

B: angina pectoris

C: myocardial infarction

D: cardiogenic shock

E: heartburn

B: angina pectoris

Digoxin is a positive inotropic agent. Such agents are helpful in treating heart failure because they increase

A: heart rate

B: myocardial contractility

C: arterial tone

D: venous tone

E: parasympathetic tone

B: myocardial contractility

Postural hypotension and postural syncope result when is unable to compensate rapidly enough for venous pooling due to gravity.

A: the baroreceptor reflex

B: the chemoreceptor reflex

C: ADH secretion

D: atrial natriuretic peptid secretion

E: the renin-angiotensin system

A: the baroreceptor reflex

What are elevated in hypertension?

A: CO and TPR

B: MAP and CO

C: MAP and TPR

D: GFR and MAP

Left sided heart failure produces

A: pulmonary edema

B: septic shock

C: elevated MAP

D: elevated CO

E: hepatic congestion

A: pulmonary edema

Which of the following increases the afterload of the heart?

A: ↑ end diastolic volume

B: ↑ TPR

C: ↑ stroke volume

D: ↑ venous tone

E: ↑ heart rate

The major cause of hypertension is

A: unknown

B: pheochromcytoma

C: coarctation of the aorta

D: toxemia of pregnancy

If a 70 year old has a blood pressure of 150/85, that person has

A: hypertension

B: heart failure

C: arteriosclerosis

D: angina

E: hypovolemic shock

A: hypertension

Which type of capillary is found in the glomerulus?

A: sinusoidal

B: fenestrated

C: continuous

D: intersecting

B: fenestrated

In ultrafiltration in a typical capillary bed, the ultrafiltrate moves from

A: the vascular lumen to the interstitium

B: the interstitium to the vascular lumen

C: the tubular lumen to the interstitium

D: the capsular space to the vascular lumen

What is the single most important factor promoting reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary?

A: blood pressure

B: interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

C: interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

D: colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma

D: colloidal osmotic pressure of the plasma

A build-up of interstitial fluid in the lungs (e.g., secondary to left sided heart failure) is called pulmonary

A: embolism

B: edema

C: dyspnea

D: pneumonia

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) can cause constriction of the afferent arteriole. Thus, NSAIDS may

A: Promote filtration

B: Decrease GFR

C: Increase GFR

D: Function as diuretics

B: Decrease GFR

Tubular fluid from the loop of Henle flows into the

A: efferent arteriole

B: afferent arteriole

C: distal convoluted tubule

D: proximal convoluted tubule

C: distal convoluted tubule

The renal pyramids are part of the renal

A: calyx

B: medulla

C: capsule

D: cortex

B: medulla

The preganglionic neurons that control the detrusor muscle leave the sacral region. Therefore, emptying of the bladder is under _____ control.

A: parasympathetic

B: sympathetic

C: somatic

A: parasympathetic

The neuronal connections that allow brain control of bladder function take a couple of years to become established. For this and other reasons what is not possible before this time?

A: glomerular filtration

B: micturition

C: ureteral contractions

D: toilet training

What is the major tissue type of the detrusor?

A: smooth muscle

B: cardiac muscle

C: cardiac muscle

D: transitional epithelium

E: stratified squamous epithelium

A: smooth muscle

What type of receptors on the detrusor muscles are activated to cause urine storage(muscle relaxation)?

A: b2 adrenergic

B: Muscarinic cholinergic

C: Nicotinic cholinergic

D: a1 adrenergic

A: b2 adrenergic

What is the name of the long capillary loops that parallel the loop of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons?

A: vasa recta

B: vasa vasorum

C: vasa propria

D: vasa deferentes

A: vasa recta

One hypothesis for the diuretic effect of caffeine is that it causes dilation of the afferent arteriole, thereby causing a(n)

A: increase in tubular reabsorption

B: increase in tubular secretion

C: increase in glomerular filtration

D: decrease in urinary excretion

C: increase in glomerular filtration

A normal GFR for a young adult male is

A: 65 ml/min

B: 95 ml/min

C: 125 ml/min

D: 175 ml/min

E: 250 ml/min

C: 125 ml/min

Which vessels receive blood directly from the efferent arteriole?

A: interlobar veins

B: glomeruli

C: interlobular arteries

D: peritubular capillaries

Which of the following will most definitely cause an increase in the GFR?

A: dilation of the afferent arteriole

B: constriction of the afferent arteriole

C: dilation of the efferent arteriole

D: constriction of the efferent arteriole

How does dilation of the afferent arteriole produce an increase in GFR?

A: increased blood pressure and increased blood flow

B: increased blood pressure and decreased blood flow

C: decreased blood pressure and increased blood flow

D: decreased blood pressure and decreased blood flow

A: increased blood pressure and increased blood flow

During glomerular ultrafiltration, all of the following dissolved substances pass into the filtrate except

A: monosaccharides

B: urea

C: proteins

D: amino acids

E: electrolytes

C: proteins

Calculate the clearance of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Be sure to note units given below. Plasma concentration = 15ug / ml Urine Flow Rate = 1440 ml / 24 hrs Urine Concentration = 5.25 mg / ml

A: 0.35 ml/min

B: 2.9 ml/min

C: 78.2 mg/ml

D: 78.3 ml/min

E: 350 ml/min

From the calculation of acetaminophen clearance in the previous question, what does this number tell you about how the kidneys handle acetaminophen?

A: Acetaminophen is not filtered

B: Acetaminophen is filtered only

C: Acetaminophen is filtered and net secreted

D: Acetaminophen is filtered and net reabsorbed

C: Acetaminophen is filtered and net secreted

The clearance of albumins from plasma is 0 ml/min in a healthy individual. How do nephrons most likely deal with albumins?

A: Not filtered

B: Filtered only

C: Filtered and net secreted

D: Filtered and net reabsorbed

Substances with high clearances are actively

A: reabsorbed

B: filtered

C: excreted

D: secreted

D: secreted

Because of autoregulation, when MAP increases, GFR

A: increases proportionally

B: remains nearly unchanged

C: decreases

D: increases half as much as expected

B: remains nearly unchanged

In the first step of glucose reabsorption, what moves “downhill” to allow glucose to move“uphill” across the apical membrane?

A: Na+

B: K+

C: H2O

D: HCO3-

E: Cl-

A: Na+

As it leaves the proximal convoluted tubule, tubular fluid is

A: isotonic

B: hypotonic

C: hypertonic

A: isotonic

 The clearance of glucose is normally

A: 0 ml/min

B: 1 ml/min

C: 60 ml/min

D: 125 ml/min

E: 600 ml/min

A: 0 ml/min

Net movement of material from the tubular lumen into the blood is called

A: Ultrafiltration

B: Reabsorption

C: Secretion

D: Filtration

One way to increase the medullary osmotic gradient is to increase the reabsorption of

A: uric acid

B: urea

C: glucose

D: proteins

B: urea

Body osmolarity is approximately

A: 64 mOsm

B: 150 mOsm

C: 300 mOsm

D: 1200 mOsm

C: 300 mOsm

The juxtamedullary nephrons, with their long loops of Henle, are most important for

A: reabsorption of Na+

B: production of a dilute urine

C: reabsorption of glucose

D: reabsorption of HCO3-

E: secretion of HCO3-

F: production of a concentrated urine

A: reabsorption of Na+

F: production of a concentrated urine

What sort of urine is produced in the absence of ADH?

A: Isotonic to plasma

B: Hypertonic to plasma

C: Concentrated

D: Hypotonic to plasma

D: Hypotonic to plasma

Which diuretic blocks the Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter?

A: bumetanide (Osmotic diuretic)

B: chlorothiazide (Thiazide)

C: triamterene (Aldosterone antagonist)

D: furosemide (Loop diuretic)

D: furosemide (Loop diuretic)

Which of the following agents would address to problems of a person experiencing hypertension and hypokalemia?

A: Loop diuretic

B: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

C: Thiazide

D: Aldosterone antagonist

E: ADH antagonist

 The osmoreceptors that regulate ADH secretion are located in the

A: Kidneys

B: Medulla

C: Glomerulus

D: Pituitary gland

E: Hypothalamus

Water can be called a diuretic because when present in excess in blood, it inhibits the secretion of

A: atrial natriuretic peptide

B: ADH

C: aldosterone

D: urine

B: ADH

Aldosterone causes increased

A: Na+ and K+ reabsorption

B: Na+ and K+ secretion

C: Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption

D: Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

D: Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

The most important stimulus for producing the sensation of thirst is

A: ↑ environmental temperature

B: ↑ plasma osmolarity

C: ↓ plasma osmolarity

D: ↑ right atrial pressure

E: ↓ right atrial pressure

Which of the following is not an effect of aldosterone?

A: ↑ sodium reabsorption

B: ↑ water reabsorption

C: ↑ potassium reabsorption

D: ↑ synthesis of sodium channels for the apical membrane

E: ↑ activity of the sodium pump on the basolateral membrane

Hypokalemia means

A: a low level of calcium in the blood

B: a low level of potassium in the urine

C: a low level of potassium in the blood

D: a low level of calcium in the urine

C: a low level of potassium in the blood

The addition of water channels to the apical membranes of the cells of the collecting ducts, allowing increased water reabsorption, is caused by

A: ADH

B: renin

C: aldosterone

D: angiotensin II

A: ADH

The Na+/H+ antiporter that is essential for most bicarbonate reabsorption is located in the

A: loop of Henle

B: proximal convoluted tubule

C: glomerulus

D: collecting duct

B: proximal convoluted tubule

During respiratory or metabolic acidosis the renal tubules respond by increased secretion of

A: H+

B: CO2

C: HCO3-

D: Glutamate

A: H+

Urine can be made alkaline by giving an agent that inhibits the reabsorption of

A: bicarbonate

B: urea

C: H+

D: amino acids

A: bicarbonate

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors are found on

A: The afferent arteriole

B: The external urethral sphincter

C: The glomerular capillaries

D: The efferent arteriole

A: The afferent arteriole

Angiotensin II increases GFR by causing

A: constriction of the afferent arteriole

B: dilation of the afferent arteriole

C: constriction of the efferent arteriole

D: dilation of the efferent arteriole

Net movement of material from the blood into the tubular lumen is called

A: Ultrafiltration

B: Secretion

C: Reabsorption

D: Filtration

The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of angiotensin I is

A: Acetylcholinesterase

B: Aldosterone

C: ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)

D: Renin

What controls how concentrated urine can become?

A: Amount of reabsorption by the proximal convoluted tubule

B: Neural gradient of the medulla oblongata

C: Renal medullary salt gradient

D: Active transport of water by the collecting duct

Which is true about capillary exchange in Bowman's capsule?

A: Glomerular capillaries filter out all of the components of plasma

B: Glomerular capillaries filter out many components of plasma that are smaller than proteins

C: Glomerular capillaries filter out all of the components of plasma and reabsorb them on the venous side

B: Glomerular capillaries filter out many components of plasma that are smaller than proteins

In respiration O2 is brought in and used and _____ is given off.

A: CO

B: CO2

C: NO

D: NO2

E: N2

B: CO2

What moves mucus, with its trapped dirt and bacteria, out of the respiratory system?

A: villi

B: microvilli

C: vibrissae

D: cilia

What tissue keeps the trachea and bronchi open?

A: cartilage

B: bone

C: smooth muscle

D: skeletal muscle

A: cartilage

During an asthma attack, if radii of the bronchioles were decreased by 50%, in accordance with Poiseuille's Law, how much would the airflow to the alveoli be reduced, if the pressure gradient did not change?

A: 16%

B: 50%

C: 94%

D: 100%

Bronchiolodilation can be produced by a(n)

A: inhibition of a1 adrenergic receptors

B: stimulation of a2 adrenergic receptors

C: stimulation of b2 adrenergic receptors

D: inhibition of b1 adrenergic receptors

C: stimulation of b2 adrenergic receptors

The major contributor to passive recoil in the lungs is

A: Surfactant

B: Surface tension of water

C: Contraction of the diaphragm

D: Relaxation of internal intercostal muscles

Surfactant molecules reduce the surface tension of

A: Water

B: Lipoproteins

C: Triglycerides

D: Proteins

A: Water

The tidal volume for normal breathing at rest is

A: 100 ml/min

B: 500 ml

C: 500 ml/min

D: 5L/min

An increase in which of the following INHIBITS diffusion?

A: Surface area

B: Concentration gradient

C: Distance

D: Diffusion rate

In emphysema, there is less surface area available for gas exchange because

A: Alveolar walls have deteriorated

B: Bronchioles have collapsed

C: Alveoli have filled with fluid

D: Fluid has built up in the interstitium

Because it produces a right shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, the Bohr effect promotes

A: Increased O2 uptake in the lungs

B: Decreased O2 uptake in the lungs

C: Increased O2 delivery to the tissues

D: Decreased O2 delivery to the tissues

C: Increased O2 delivery to the tissues

As CO2 levels rise, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen

A: Increases

B: Decreases

C: Stays the same

B: Decreases

In auto regulation of airflow and blood flow in the lungs, when airflow increases

A: The pulmonary vessels constrict

B: The bronchioles constrict

C: The bronchioles dilate

D: The pulmonary vessels dilate

D: The pulmonary vessels dilate

For a VA/Q ratio of 1.0 and an alveolar ventilation rate of 16 L/min, what is the cardiac output?

A: 5 L/min

B: 6 L/min

C: 10 L/min

D: 16 L/min

E: 20 L/min

D: 16 L/min

The inspiratory and expiratory centers are located in the

A: medulla

B: midbrain

C: cerebrum

D: cerebellum

A: medulla

The majority of CO2 is _____ in the blood.

A: Carried as carbon monoxide

B: In dissolved form

C: Bound to hemoglobin

D: Carried as bicarbonate

Medullary chemoreceptors stimulate respiration

A: Only when O2 levels rise

B: Only when O2 levels fall

C: Only when CO2 levels rise

D: Only when CO2 levels fall

The nerve networks that exert regional (local) control of the GI tract include

A: Myenteric and submucosal plexuses

B: Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

C: Hypothalamic input

D: Frontal lobe plexuses

A: Myenteric and submucosal plexuses

Stimulation of what type of receptors in the gut causes increased motility?

A: Muscarinic cholinergic

B: Alpha 1 adrenergic

C: Beta 2 adrenergic

D: Nicotinic cholinergic

A: Muscarinic cholinergic

Which of the following agents would you use to treat diarrhea?

A: Muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist

B: Beta 1 adrenergic receptor agonist

C: Muscarinic cholinergic receptor antagonist

The defecation reflex is a parasympathetic reflex controlled by

A: Vagus nerve

B: Lumbar spinal cord

C: Phrenic nerve

D: Sacral spinal nerve

In general, what is the effect of increased parasympathetic tone have on the GI tract?

A: Stimulation

B: Inhibition

C: No effect

A: Stimulation

When thoughts of food activate your stomach, which phase of regulation of gastric secretion are you experiencing?

A: Cephalic

B: Intestinal

C: Gastric

A: Cephalic

Which hormone increases secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas?

A: Secretin

B: Gastrin

C: Insulin

D: Cholecystokinin

In a person who suffers from GERD (gastro esophageal reflux disease) a leaky lower esophageal sphincter allows what to come in contact with and damage the esophageal epithelium?

A: HCl

B: Lipase

C: Trypsin

D: Excessively large boli of food

A: HCl

Histamine receptor antagonists inhibit the secretion of gastric

A: mucus

B: acid

C: hormones

D: enzymes

B: acid

The stomach and portions of the intestines are contained within which cavity?

A: Pleural

B: Pelvic

C: Cranial

D: Pericardial

E: Peritoneal

The major function of the large intestine is

A: Digestion of organic nutrients

B: Absorption of water

C: Secretion of NaHCO3

D: Absorption of carbohydrates

B: Absorption of water

If a drug produces difficulty in defecation and dry mouth as side effects, these are

A: Adrenergic agonist side effects

B: Anti-adrenergic side effects

C: Cholinergic agonist side effects

D: Anti-cholinergic side effects

D: Anti-cholinergic side effects

Finger-like projections of the intestinal mucosa, covered by epithelium, and containing lymphatic and blood vessels:

A: Villi

B: Microvilli

C: Cilia

D: Papillae

A: Villi

The single most important protein for the absorption/reabsorption of water, salts and nutrients from the intestinal lumen into the body is

A: The H+/K+ ATPase

B: The Na+/K+ ATPase

C: The Ca++/Mg++ ATPase

D: The Na+/glucose symporter

B: The Na+/K+ ATPase

What process occurs in hepatocytes that typically allows a substance to be secreted into the bile?

A: Conjugation

B: Hydrolysis

C: Gastrocolic reflex

D: Enterohepatic circulation

A: Conjugation

The hunger and satiety centers are located in

A: The stomach

B: The small intestine

C: Adipose tissue

D: The cerebral cortex

E: The hypothalamus

E: The hypothalamus

Which substances are least likely to be subject to a first pass effect?

A: Lipids

B: Peptides

C: Nucleotides

D: Monosaccharides

E: Amino acids

The term otitis media refers to

A: An eye infection

B: A sinus infection

C: A middle ear infection

D: Inflammation of the cornea

E: An ear, nose and throat infection

C: A middle ear infection

Auditory information is processed in which region of the CNS?

A: Cochlea

B: Inner ear

C: Temporal Lobe

D: Vestibulocochlear nerve

C: Temporal Lobe

Infection of the membranes that line the eyelids and eyeballs

A: Conjunctivitis

B: Otitis media

C: Orbit atrophy

D: Glaucoma

A: Conjunctivitis

Constriction of the pupils in light is mediated by the action of _____ through ______.

A: Acetylcholine; muscarinic cholinergic receptors

B: Norepinephrine; alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

C: Acetylcholine; nicotinic cholinergic receptors

D: Epinephrine; beta 2 adrenergic receptors

A: Acetylcholine; muscarinic cholinergic receptors

What visual effects might be seen in a patient with an overactive adrenal medulla?

A: Dilation of the pupils in bright light

B: Constriction of the pupils in dark

C: Excessive tear production

D: Dry eyes due to impaired tear production

A: Dilation of the pupils in bright light

What is the meaning of normal amylase and lipase levels?

A: The brush border enzymes are functioning normally.

B: Gastric enzymes are functioning normally

C: Pancreatic enzymes are functioning normally.

The liver stores glucose and other organic nutrients as

A: Glycogen

B: Glucagon

C: Starch

D: Protein

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

What is stored in the gall bladder?

A: bile

B: fatty acids

C: micelles

D: digestive enzymes

A: bile

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

What is the function of this substance (bile)?

A: deliver fats to the blood via the lymphatics

B: detoxify toxic substances

C: allow fats to become mixed into the aqueous chyme

D: digest fats

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

The pain that radiates to the right shoulder

A: indicates that this patient is experiencing atypical symptoms

B: is called referred pain

C: is called phantom pain

D: indicates that the patient may be having a heart attack

B: is called referred pain

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

What hormone secreted by the small intestine causes the pain to intensify?

A: gastrin

B: cholecystokinin

C: insulin

D: secretin

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

What is the stimulus for secretion of this hormone (cholecystokinin)?

A: above average blood glucose levels

B: the presence of protein in the duodenum

C: the presence of fats in the duodenum

D: the presence of carbohydrates in the duodenum

C: the presence of fats in the duodenum

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

How would this hormone (cholecystokinin) cause pain to intensify?

A: increased smooth muscle contraction around the gall stones

B: intense constriction of the lower esophageal sphincter

C: increased smooth muscle contraction of the stomach

PROBLEM SOLVING EXERCISE: A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with the acute onset of abdominal pain. Her pain is located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) and radiates to the right shoulder. She reports nausea and vomiting but no fever or chills. The RUQ pain is worse after she eats fatty meals. On examination, the patient has severe RUQ tenderness. Her white blood cell count is elevated, as are her liver function tests and alkaline phosphatase. The pancreatic amylase and lipase levels are normal. An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged gallbladder with multiple stones and gallbladder wall thickening. She subsequently is admitted to the hospital and undergoes a cholecystectomy (removal of the gall bladder).

What does this hormone (cholecystokinin) do to the pancreas?

A: generalized inhibition of pancreatic function

B: increased secretion of pancreatic enzymes

C: increased secretion of pancreatic fluid rich in bicarbonate ions

D: increased secretion of glucagon