Term
physiologic jaundice of new born |
|
Definition
mild jaundice occuring in most newborns (and especially in premies) due to immaturity of the baby's liver, which leads to slow processing of biliruinb |
|
|
Term
clinical signs of physiologic jaundice of new born |
|
Definition
jaundice appearing at 2-4 days of age & typically disappearing by 1-2 weeks (longer in premies)
jaundice appears first in the face then proceeds to the truck /extremities. |
|
|
Term
Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS) |
|
Definition
rare, autosomal recessive disorder that results from absence or decreased levels of functional UDP glucoronosyltranferase (UDPGT), which results in insufficiencnt conjugation of bilirubin |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS), type I |
|
Definition
Jaundice (icterus) appearing at or soon after birth that gets worse over time. |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS), type II |
|
Definition
Jaundice that appears appears in late infancy or childhood, and gets worse over time. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
common autosomal dominant disorder that results in decreased levels of UDPGT (less severe than CNS type II), which results in abnormal unconjugated bilirubin metabolisms
(note: Gilbert's is LESS UDPGT; CNS is less EFFECTIVE UDPGT) |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Gilbert's syndrome |
|
Definition
asymptomatic until teens or 20s jaundice exacerbated by strenuous exercise, stress, fasting, dehydration, or infections
fatigue & weakness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
autosomal recessive genetic disorder resulting in increases of conjugated bilirubin without elevation of liver enzymes (ALT, AST) due to a defective canalicular transport of conjugated bilirubin from hepatocytes into the biliary system. Usually asymptomatic. Pigment deposition in lysosomes causes the liver to turn black. |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Dubin-Johnson syndrome |
|
Definition
may be asymptomatic possible hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice & icterus, and hyperbilirubinemia
worsened bu illnesses, some drugs, or pregnancy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
very rare syndrome of idiopathic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, usually presenting in infancy or childhood |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Rotor syndrome |
|
Definition
chronic jaundice without evidence of hemolysis
attacks of intermittent epigastric discomfort and abdominal pain may occur, but are rare |
|
|
Term
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC) |
|
Definition
a chronic, cholestatic liver disease characterized by destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts (non-supurative, destructive choangitis)
progressive disease characterized by cholestasis
cirrhosis is a late complication |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)
(early, middle, & late signs) |
|
Definition
indolent course (slow to develop) starts with fatigue, pruritis, high serum AP & GGT with normal or slightly elevated serum bilirubin
as disease progresses, jaundice appears (bilirubin increases), steatorrhea (fat malabsorption), osteomalacia & osteoporosis (vitamin D malabsorption)
eventually develop cirrhosis, hepatic failur, & complications of portal hypertensions |
|
|
Term
Secondary biliar cirrhosis |
|
Definition
a disease that results from an obstruction of the biliary system (ex., gallstone, tumor, etc.), and progresses to cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
Primary Sclerosin Cholangitis (PSC) |
|
Definition
an inflammatory & fibrosing process that narrows & eventually obstructs intrahepatic & extraheptaic bile ducts, eventually progressing to secondary biliary sclerosis (cirrhosis from bile duct obstruction) |
|
|
Term
Clinical signs of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC) |
|
Definition
jaundice (from progressive biliary obstruction)
liver toxicity (from buildup of bilirubin)
eventual progression to secondary biliary cirrhosis
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis--chronic inflammation of the walls of the bile ducts (cholangitis) that can lead to fibrosis (sclerosing); probably auto-immune
|
|
|
Term
Autoimmune Hepatitis (AIH) |
|
Definition
hepatitis due to an immunologic abberrancy
different types of AIH have different clinical presentations |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Autoimmune Hepatitis (AIH) |
|
Definition
may show acute hepatitis, chronic hepatitis, or well-established cirrhosis fever, hepatic tenderness, & jaundice (some variation; different types of AIH have different clinical presentations) signs & symptoms of cirrhosis may have symptoms of other autoimmune mediated diseases |
|
|
Term
Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) |
|
Definition
autosomal recessive disorder caused by defective production of alpha-1-antitrypsin (A1AT) in liver, resulting in decreased A1AT activity in the blood & lungs (which damages the lungs), and deposition of excessive abnormal A1AT protein in liver cells; more than 30 variants exist |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) |
|
Definition
variable presenttation (from rapidly fatal neonatal hepatitis to absence of any symptoms) may be limited to emphysema & other respiratory symptoms liver cirrhosis & liver failure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
autosomal recessive disease that leads to mutations of CF gene, which results in a protein (CFTR) with impaired chloride anion transport into mucosal epithelium
end result: thick mucus obstructs lumina of airways, pancreatic & biliary ducts, and fetal intestine |
|
|
Term
What clinical signs and symptoms does Cystic Fibrosis (CF) cause due to its effects in the liver? |
|
Definition
mucus obstruction in biliary system will lead to jaundice/icterus, and eventual cirrhosis due to secondary biliary cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
autosomal recessive disorder that results in excess copper deposition (mostly in liver & brain)
it is normal for there to be some copper in the body, but excess copper is ONLY removed by the liver through the biliary system (and secreted in feces) |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Wilson's disease |
|
Definition
indolent (slow to develop); symptoms take 6-20 years to show up neurologic dysfunctions hepatic disease (5% have acute liver failure; others go on to have chronic liver disease) Kayser-Fleisher rings (brown or black ring around the outside edge of the iris of the eye) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
disease characterized by a progressive increase in total body iron stores, resulting in abnormal iron deposition in multiple organs
2 types: primary hemochormatosis--autosomal recessive; mutation in HFE gene causes increased iron absorption secondary hemochromatosis--iron overload (ex., taking a lot of iron pills, transfusions) |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Hemochromatosis (HC) |
|
Definition
asymptomatic at first, but chronic liver disease develops symptoms arise from chronic liver disease eventually, cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hepatitis due to infectious agent (may be viral, bacterial, or parasitic)
95% causes by a hepatitis virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
liver disease the occurs due to excessive alcohol consumption (alcohol is a hepatotoxin) |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Alcoholic Liver Disease |
|
Definition
usually asymptomatic until cirrhosis develops |
|
|
Term
Non-alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) |
|
Definition
liver disease the presents identical to alcoholic hepatitis in patients not known to abuse or consume alcohol |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) |
|
Definition
usually asymptomatic until cirrhosis occurs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
idiopathic, potentially fatal disease that mostly affects children acutely (especially brain & liver)
associated with aspirin consumption in children with viral illnesses (especially chickenpox or flu) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
sustained increased portal venous pressure, almost always due to obsturction of blood flow in portal vasculature |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
end stage liver disease; irreversible end result of chronic destruction of normal hepatic architecture by fibrous septa (bands) that surround regenerative nodules of hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) |
|
Definition
a hyperplastic (note: NOT neoplastic) growth of hepatic tissue, which includes hepatocytes, bile ducts,and vasculature
unknown etiology; does not progress to hepatocellular cancer |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) |
|
Definition
asymptomatic in 80% abdominal pain in other 20% |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
benign tumors of hepatocytes (growth of only hepatocytes) does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Hepatic Adenoma |
|
Definition
often asymptomatic 1/3 of tumors bleed into peritoneal cavity (emergency surgery needed) often disappear after discontinuation of oral contraceptives |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
benign, intrahepatic vascular tumor similar to other hemangiomas of other body parts |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Hepatic Hemangioma (HH) |
|
Definition
usually asymptomatic unless blunt trauma causes rupture with circulatory shock & hemoperitoneum (presence of blood in the peritoneal cavity) |
|
|
Term
Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) |
|
Definition
primary malignant neoplasm of liver arising from hepatocytes
Usually secondary to established cirrhosis. |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) |
|
Definition
jaundice bloating from ascites abdominal pain easy bruising from blood clotting abnormalities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
aka bile duct carcinomas primary malignant neoplasm of bile ducts (includes intrahepatic & extrahepatic biliary system)
do not confuse with cancers of the biliary tract that do NOT arise in the liver (ex., pancreatic cancer, gallbladder cancer, cancer of the ampulla of Vater, etc.) |
|
|
Term
Clinical presentation of cholangiocarcinoma |
|
Definition
generalized itching, weight loss, fever, changes in stool (pale, chalky) or urine (dark yellow) color
jaundice (if extrahepatic)
abdominal pain (if intrahepatic)
cholangiocarcinoma--cancer of the glandular epithelium of the bile duct |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
yellowing of the eyes and skin due to high levels of bilirubin
some people use "jaundice" to mean yellowing of the skin; "icterus" to mean yellowing of the conjunctiva |
|
|
Term
Jaundice/icterus is apparent when what lab result is reached? |
|
Definition
total bilirubin >2-2.5 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a thin tube that collects bile secreted by hepatocytes. The bile canaliculi merge and form bile ductules, which eventually become common hepatic duct. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
being thickened, dried, or made less fluid by evaporation. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a condition where bile cannot flow from the liver to the duodenum due to mechanical blockage in the duct system or problems with bile formation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the abnormal retention of lipids within a cell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fatty liver--abnormal retention of lipids within hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inflammation of the liver that lasts <6 months, producing acute inflammation and some necrosis Most commonly due to acute viral hepatitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
refers to presence of inflammation and necrosis in liver for more than 6 months Most often due to Hep B & C |
|
|
Term
Acute hepatitis is most commonly due to ____________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 2 viruses most often cause chronic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
clinical syndrome characterized by jaundice, encephalopathy, and other metabolic derangements due to decreased hepatocytes or functional impairment. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
refers to a variety of neurologic signs and symptoms in patients with chronic liver failure or when portal circulation is diverted. (ranges from lethargy to coma). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
renal failure that occurs due to acute hepatic failure. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
abnormally high levels of nitrogen-containing compounds, such as urea, creatinine, various body waste compounds, and other nitrogen-rich compounds in the blood. It is largely related to insufficient filtering of blood by the kidneys |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
low output of urine. The decreased output of urine may be a sign of dehydration, renal failure, hypovolemic shock, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, or urinary obstruction/urinary retention. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
output of no urine; uria is often caused by failure in the function of kidneys. It may also occur because of some severe obstruction like kidney stones or tumours. It may occur with end stage renal disease. |
|
|
Term
RBCs are disposed of in the spleen when they get old or damaged. This releases hemoglobin, which is broken down to heme and amino acids. The heme is then turned into _________ __________ inside cells of the spleen. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does unconjugated bilirubin get from the spleen to the liver? |
|
Definition
It is not water-soluble, so it is bound to albumin & and sent via the bloodstream. |
|
|
Term
The spleen turns heme from old blood cells into ________ bilirubin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the liver, _________ bilirubin is converted into __________ bilirubin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is conjugated or unconjugated bilirubin soluble in water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does conjugated bilirubin go from the liver? |
|
Definition
it is excreted via the bile duct into the small intestine |
|
|
Term
In the liver, uncojugated bilirubin is conjugated with _____________ by the enzyme ________ |
|
Definition
glucuronic acid
UDP-GT (Uridine 5'-diphospho-glucuronosyltransferase) |
|
|
Term
Why is bilirubin conjugated with an acid in the liver? |
|
Definition
n order for bilirubin to be excreted into bile and, therefore, eliminated from the body, it must be made more soluble. |
|
|
Term
Most newborns have some jaundice because they have decreased activity of ____________ enzyme in their livers. |
|
Definition
UDP-GT (Uridine 5'-diphospho-glucuronosyltransferase) |
|
|
Term
What would lab results from a jaundiced newborn most likely look like? |
|
Definition
isolated increased unconjugated bilirubin normal AST & ALT |
|
|
Term
Treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborn. |
|
Definition
No treatment is usually needed for most patients. If total serum bilirubin greater than 21 mg/dL should receive phototherapy. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
damage to an neonate's brain caused by very high levels of unconjugated bilirubin
it is only seen in jaundiced infants because the blood-brain barrier is immature in infants & can't keep bilirubin out |
|
|
Term
What is the difference between type I and type II Criggler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS)? |
|
Definition
Type I – No UDP glucuronosyltransferase (UDP-GT) can be detected in the hepatic tissue. Type II – Decrease UDP glucuronosyltransferase (UDP-GT) levels are detected in hepatic tissue. |
|
|
Term
How common is Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS)? |
|
Definition
very rare <50 reported cases in US |
|
|
Term
What causes Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS)? |
|
Definition
Genes that produce functional UDPGT do not produce UDPGT (type I) or decreased amounts (type II), which leads to elevation of unconjugated bilirubin. |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the labs of a child with Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS)? |
|
Definition
normal to mildly elevated AST & ALT elevated unconjugated bilirubin |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS)? |
|
Definition
Clinical history high serum bilirubin level (increased unconjugated bilirubin) with normal liver function tests Diagnosis can be confirmed with measurements of UDPGT activity. |
|
|
Term
Treatment for Crigler-Najjar Syndrome (CNS). |
|
Definition
Treatment usually involves plasma exchange transfusion in the neonatal paeriod (removes bilirubin-saturated protein from the blood).
Long-term phototherapy . |
|
|
Term
Why is it important to promptly treat infants with Crigler-Najjar syndrome (especially type 1)? |
|
Definition
to prevent kernicterus.
Criggler-Najjar--a very rare syndrome (more common in the Amish) characterized by a lack or deficiency of UGT, an enzyme necessary to conjugate bilirubin
type 1 has no UGT
kernicterus--unconjugated bilirubin moves into the brain of a newborn (who have an incomplete BBB) & causes damage |
|
|
Term
Is Gilbert's syndrome common? |
|
Definition
yes--5-10% of the population has it most common hereditary cause of increased bilirubin
(recall Gilbert's is Gormless--UDPGT is present, but doesn't work well
Crigler-Najjar is Not Copious--not enough UDPGT) |
|
|
Term
What causes Crigler-Najjar syndrome? |
|
Definition
Mutations in promoter region for UDP-Glucuronyltransferase(UDP-GT) lead to reduced transcription of gene, thus decreased amount of enzyme.
UDP-GT is the enzyme that conjugates bilirubin in the liver, so this can lead to high levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood.
Coding region of UDPGT is normal. |
|
|
Term
When does Gilbert syndrome become symptomatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does Crigler-Najjar syndrome become symptomatic? |
|
Definition
neonate period to early childhood (type I shows up earlier than type II) |
|
|
Term
Is Dubin-Johnson syndrome common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Among what group is Dubin-Johnson syndrome not rare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes Dubin-Johnson disorder? |
|
Definition
mutational defect in multispecific anion transporter (cMOAT) gene that tranports conjugated bilirubin from hepatocytes into biliary system.
conjugated bilirubin can't get into the canaliculi & spills into the blood, resulting in high levels of conjugated bilirubin |
|
|
Term
In Dubin-Johnson disorder, Pigment deposition in lysosomes causes the liver to turn _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Macroscopic signs of Dubin-Johnson syndrome. |
|
Definition
Jaundice & icterus Liver becomes black |
|
|
Term
Expected lab results for someone with Dubin-Johnson syndrome |
|
Definition
normal to mildly increased AST & ALT increased conjugated bilirubin |
|
|
Term
Microscopic signs of Dubin-Johnson syndrome |
|
Definition
accumulation of coarsely granular pigment, most pronounced in the centrilobular zones No associated scarring, hepatocellular necrosis, or distortion of zonal architecture is present.
(Biopsy is not needed Dubin-Johnson, but if it's taken, this is what would be seen) |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Dubin-Johnson Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Clinical presentation (possible hepatosplenomegaly; jaundice; Hyperbilirubinemia and clinical icterus worsened by intercurrent illnesses, drugs, or pregnancy) High levels of conjugated bilirubin High levels of gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) Normal AST & ALT No signs of other biliary disease confirmed by demonstrating an increase in the ratio of bilirubin being excreted in the urine over the amount excreted in the feces |
|
|
Term
Treatment for Dubin-Johnson syndrome. |
|
Definition
Benign course; Life expectancy is normal;
Patients should be warned that pregnancy, oral contraceptive use, and intercurrent illness can exacerbate the icterus.
Correct diagnosis important to prevent unnecessary tests and procedures.
Can occasionally progress to liver failure if there is another cause of hepatic compromise.
(Dubin-Johnson--mutation in cMOAT transporter protein means that hepatocytes can't excrete conjugated bilirubin into the bile ducts) |
|
|
Term
Is Rotor syndrome common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes Rotor syndrome? |
|
Definition
Impairment of excretion of bile from hepatocytes into canaliculi (similar to Duben-Johnson syndrome, butmechanism is unknown) |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in a person with Rotor syndrome, macroscopically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the labs of a person with Rotor syndrome? |
|
Definition
normal to mildly increased AST & ALT
increased conjugated bilirubin |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Rotor syndrome? |
|
Definition
High levels of GGT & conjugated bilirubin normal AST and ALT confirmed by demonstrating an increase in the ratio of urinary coproporphyrin I to fecal coproporphyrin III (getting rid of bilirubin in via the kidneys because you can’t get rid of it via the liver) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Rotor syndrome? |
|
Definition
you don't. relatively benign course; Life expectancy is normal
Can occasionally progress to liver failure if there is another cause of hepatic compromise. |
|
|
Term
Name 4 inherited hyperbilirubinemias. |
|
Definition
Gilbert’s syndrome (most common; UGT doesn't work properly-->not enough conjugation)
Crigler-Najjar syndrome (not enough UGT-->not enough conjugation)
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome (mutation in cMOAT transporter protein-->hepatocytes can't excrete conjugated bilirubin into bile ducts)
Rotor syndrome (hepatocytes can't excrete conjugated bilirubin into bile ducts; idiopathic) |
|
|
Term
Name 3 immune-mediated liver disease |
|
Definition
Primary biliary cirrhosis Primary sclerosing cholangitis Autoimmune hepatitis |
|
|
Term
Name 4 inherited disorders associated with cirrhosis |
|
Definition
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
Cystic fibrosis
Wilson ‘s disease
Primary Hemochromatosis |
|
|
Term
Name 5 liver neoplasms/hyperplasms. |
|
Definition
Focal nodular hyperplasia Hepatic adenoma Hepatic hemangioma Hepatocellular carcinoma Metastatic tumor |
|
|
Term
Who is most likely to get Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)? |
|
Definition
Middle aged women (30-65 years) account for 90-95% of cases. |
|
|
Term
What causes primary biliary cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
It is not know, but most likely an autoimmune disease
Most likely, cytotoxic T cells attack biliary epithelial cells, resulting in destruction of bile ducts. |
|
|
Term
What kind of disease do 85% of people with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC) have? |
|
Definition
an autoimmune disease
(it is suspected that PBC is an auto-immune disease) |
|
|
Term
95% of people with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC) have antibodies against _______, and many have other __________ |
|
Definition
their mitochondria
auto-antibodies |
|
|
Term
Microscopically, what does the liver of a person with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC) look like? |
|
Definition
portal tracts infiltrated by lymphocytes (especially neutrophils), also macrophages, plasma cells, and occasionally eosinophils
inflammatory destruction of medium-sized intrahepatic bile ducts with portal inflammation
scarring, eventual cirrhosis and liver failure |
|
|
Term
A woman between the ages of 30 and 50 who has an auto-immune disease presents with jaundice. What would you look for in her serum to diagnose Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)? |
|
Definition
elevated serum IgM (over 80% of patients) anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA, specific for PDC-E2) (90-95% of patients) Increased AP (alkaline phosphatase) & GGT Normal AST & ALT |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Primary BiliaryCirrhosis (PBC)? |
|
Definition
methotrexate standard immunosuppressive drugs are ineffective liver transplantation for end-stage disease |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the liver labs of a person with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC)? |
|
Definition
increased AP (alkaline phosphatase), GGT, and Bilirubin (later) normal AST, ALT |
|
|
Term
Microscopically, what do you see in the liver in the 3 stages of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Stage 1: chronic destructive cholangitis (chronic inflammation of bile ducts) Stage 2: Scarring (bile ducts dissappear) Stage 3: Cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
About how long after diagnosis with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis do patients typically develop cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
10-15 years
Primary Biliar Cirrhosis--an autoimmune disease of the liver marked by the slow progressive destruction of the small bile ducts (bile canaliculi) within the liver. Bile gradually builds up & destroys liver tissue. |
|
|
Term
What kind of person is most likely to get Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)? Why is this unusual |
|
Definition
men under 40
this is unusual b/c PSC is an auto-immune disease, and the majority people with auto-immune diseases are women |
|
|
Term
2/3 of patients with Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis also have: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inflammation of the bile duct |
|
|
Term
Is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC) common? |
|
Definition
Prevalence estimated at 6.3 cases per 100,000 population |
|
|
Term
Is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC) common? |
|
Definition
it's fairly uncommon Prevalence estimated at 6.3 cases per 100,000 population |
|
|
Term
Who is most likely to get AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH)? |
|
Definition
Mostly in young to middle-aged women |
|
|
Term
Is AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH) common? |
|
Definition
It's fairly uncommon.
AIH (type 1) estimated to be 0.1-1.9 cases per 100,000 persons per year in Caucasian populations |
|
|
Term
What causes AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH)? |
|
Definition
most likely T-cell mediated autoimmunity; hepatic injury is caused by IFN-gamma production by TH1 T cells and by CTLs |
|
|
Term
What, macroscopically, would you see in a patient with AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH)? |
|
Definition
Jaundice/icterus; liver cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
What would you see in the labs of a person with AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH)? |
|
Definition
increased AST & ALT normal to mildly increased bilirubin normal GGT & AP (alkaline phosphatase) |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnoise AutoImmune Hepatitis? |
|
Definition
Diagnosis of exclusion: no signs of viral, toxic, or other hereditary diseases elevated serum IgG and g-globulins autoantibodies liver biopsy (confirmation) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the only kind of auto-immune liver disease that responds to corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
AutoImmune Hepatitis (AIH) |
|
|
Term
Is Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) common? |
|
Definition
not too uncommon 1 per 3k - 5k individuals |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 most common lethal genetic diseases among adult white persons |
|
Definition
down syndrome cystic fibrosis Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) |
|
|
Term
About 1-3% of patients with diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have what inherited disorder? |
|
Definition
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency (A1ATD) |
|
|
Term
Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin (A1AT) protects tissue (especially ________ tissue) from _________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes disease in Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD)? |
|
Definition
A1ATD is a genetic defect that alters the configuration of alpha-1-antitrypsin molecule and prevents its release from hepatocytes.
A1AT protects tissue (especially pulmonary) from inflammation
Lack of A1AT results in damage to lung damage (from inflammation) and liver damage (due to accumulation of protein in hepatocytes.) |
|
|
Term
Why is it particularly important for someone with Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) not to smoke cigarettes or drink to excess? |
|
Definition
A1ATD is a genetic defect that alters the configuration of alpha-1-antitrypsin molecule and prevents its release from hepatocytes. A1AT protects tissue (especially pulmonary) from inflammation Lack of A1AT results in damage to lung damage (from inflammation) and liver damage (due to accumulation of protein in hepatocytes)
Cigarette smoking accelerates the progression of pulmonary emphysema. Alchohol abuse or drug use accelerates liver damage. |
|
|
Term
What would radiology of a person with Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin reveal? |
|
Definition
Emphysema - hyperlucent appearance in radiographs (will study later) Liver cirrhosis can be identified. |
|
|
Term
What would liver labs of a person with Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD) show? |
|
Definition
increased AST & ALT increased bilirubin increased GGT & AP (alkaline phosphatase) |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin Deficiency (A1ATD)? |
|
Definition
Clinical presentation of emphysema and liver failure then, check serum alpha1-antitrypsin levels
may phenotype (to check family members) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin Deficiency? |
|
Definition
advise to quit smoking and alcohol abuse
supportive medical care
Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin (A1AT) is created in the liver & helps protect the lungs from damage. In Alpha-1-AntiTrypsin Deficiency, A1AT is mutated and can't leave the liver. Lack of A1AT leads to lung damage (COPD) in people who smoke and/or have severe A1AT deficiency. A1AT accumulates in the liver and causes liver damage, particularly in people who abuse alcohol |
|
|
Term
Most common lethal autosomal recessive disorder in caucasian or white Americans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is cystic fibrosis common |
|
Definition
yes, fairly common (1/2500)
Most common lethal autosomal recessive disorder in caucasian or white Americans |
|
|
Term
What causes cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
A mutation in CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) results in impaired chloride anion (Cl-) transport.
Impaired chloride anion results in impaired Na+ transport, which results water retention by osmotic pressure. This result in thick mucus in mucous membranes. All pathologic consequences attributed to presence of thick mucus. |
|
|
Term
What would you see if you looked with a microscope at the liver of a person with cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
Inspissated (thickened, dried) mucous secretions in the intrahepatic biliary system
(in cystic fibrosis, dried mucous in the bile ducts obstructs bile flow & secondary biliary cirrhosis develops) |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose cystic fibrosis? |
|
Definition
by a sweat test
high levels of chloride in the sweat is diagnostic for cystic fibrosis |
|
|
Term
What problem does cystic fibrosis cause in the liver? |
|
Definition
the thick mucus blocks biliary ducts |
|
|
Term
How common is Wilsons' disease? |
|
Definition
not too common (1-4 per 100k) |
|
|
Term
What causes Wilson's disease? |
|
Definition
mutations in Wilson disease protein (ATP7B) gene result in a protein with impaired ability to transport copper from the hepatocyte into bile.
Excessive copper mostly accumulates in liver and brain |
|
|
Term
In Wilson's disease excessive copper mostly accumulates in what 2 sites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference between primary and secondary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
primary is a genetic disease that causes iron to be absorbed more efficiently than normal
secondary is due to consuming too much iron or receiving too much iron parenterally |
|
|
Term
In what ethnic group is hemochromatosis common? |
|
Definition
Northern European (0.4% - 1%)
(Think of Santa Clause with his rosy nose & cheeks--he's pretty northern European & obviously has a healthy hematocrit on him) |
|
|
Term
What causes primary hemochromatosis (HC)? |
|
Definition
usually a single site mutation in HFE gene (High Fe gene), which codes for a protein that regulates iron absorption.
Therefore, the patient absorbs too much iron from gut |
|
|
Term
What would radiography of the liver of a person with hemochromatosis show? |
|
Definition
Diffuse increased attenuation of liver (due to buildup of iron)
Hepatomegaly (large liver) |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the liver labs of a person with hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
increased ALT, AST normal to mildly increased bilirubin, GGT, & AP |
|
|
Term
What would you see if you looked at the liver of someone with hemochromatosis with a microscope? |
|
Definition
Liver cirrhosis Iron deposition on Prussian stain |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
Clinical history (Joint pain, fatigue, low libido, amenorrhea, pain in RUQ, or asymptomatic)
high saturation of serum transferrin (iron-binding blood plasma glycoproteins that control the level of free iron in biological fluids)
Liver biopsy indicates high iron levels and/or liver damage |
|
|
Term
How do you treat hemochromatosis type I (hereditary hemochromatosis)? |
|
Definition
frequent phlebotomy (drawing blood) |
|
|
Term
most common cause of cirrhosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How common is alcoholism in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How common is development of cirrhosis among alcoholics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long must you be an alcoholic before cirrhosis can develop? |
|
Definition
at least 10 years (most likely ~15 years) |
|
|
Term
An alcoholic patient's lab tests indicate early alcoholic liver disease. They ask you what their prognosis is if they stop drinking. |
|
Definition
Very good. Early alcoholic liver disease is fully reversible (cirrhosis, not so much) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inflammation of the liver due to excess alcohol; the earliest stage of alcoholic liver disease |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the liver labs of someone with alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
increased AST & ALT normal to mild increased bilirubin |
|
|
Term
Macroscopically, what would you see if you looked at the liver & general appearance of someone with alchoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
liver becomes yellow ("fatty liver") and enlarged (hepatomegaly); becomes cirrhotic in late stages
overall, jaundice & icterus if cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
Do people with fatty liver due to alcoholic liver disease look jaundiced? |
|
Definition
No. Jaundice doesn't generally appear until later in the disease progression, when the liver is cirrhotic |
|
|
Term
What would you see if you looked with a microscope at the liver of a person with a fatty liver due to alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
visible fat accumulation in the cytoplasm of most hepatocytes
mallory bodies (squiggly pink cytoplasmic hyaline inclusions) within hepatocytes
neutrophilic inflammation
necrosis of hepatocytes (especially inthe central zone; that is, zone 3, the zone nearest the central vein & farthest from the portal triad)
perivenular fibrosis |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an inclusion of hyaline found inside the cytoplasm of liver cells. They are most commonly associated with alcoholic liver disease, but may also be seen in other diseases that affect the liver. In an H&E stain, the look like a pink squiggle ("twisted rope" appearance). |
|
|
Term
is Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) common in the US? |
|
Definition
Yes, very common--3-24% of Americans have NASH |
|
|
Term
1/4 to 1/2 of people with Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) are ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) likely to develop into cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
yes; 2-12% of people with NASH develop cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the liver labs of a perons with Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)? |
|
Definition
increased AST & ALT normal to mildly increased bilirubin |
|
|
Term
How does the macroscopic appearance of the liver of someone with Non-Alcoholic SteatoHepatitis (NASH) differ form that of a person with alcoholic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Non-Alcoholic SteatoHeptatitis? |
|
Definition
clinical presentation exclusion of other hepatic disease (including alcohol abuse) liver biopsy |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Non-Alcoholic SteatoHepatitis (NASH)? |
|
Definition
no real treatment other than to lose weight & treat diabetes |
|
|
Term
Raye syndrome almost exclusively occurs in _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
No. In children <18 years, the incidence is 0.2-1.1 / million. In adults, it is very rare. |
|
|
Term
What causes Reye's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
we don't really know. the liver symptoms result from damage to cellular mitochondria
Reye's syndrome most often occurs in children with a viral illness (especially chickenpox or influenzae type B) who have taken aspirin
But we don't know what the connection between those is. |
|
|
Term
What might you see if you took a CT or MRI of the head of a child with Reye's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What might you see if you did an ultrasound of the abdomen of a child with Reye's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the liver labs of a child with Reye's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
increased AST & ALT normal to mildly increaed bilirubin |
|
|
Term
Microscopically, what does the liver of a child with Reye's Syndrome look like? |
|
Definition
like fatty liver (fat in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes) |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Reye's Syndrome? |
|
Definition
1. clinical presentation of encephalopathy in a person younger than 18
(earliy signs: vomiting, lethargy, confusion
later signs: seizures, coma, multi-organ failure)
2. exclusion of other etiologies of encephalopathy
3. three-fold or greater increase in serum aminotransferases (AST & ALT) and/or ammonia |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for Reye's syndrome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the sequellae of Reye's syndrome? |
|
Definition
30% of cases result in death
mild to severe permanent brain damage is possible, especially in infants |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 types of portal hypertension? |
|
Definition
prehepatic (obstruction before portal vein enters liver)
intrahepatic (obstruction within liver parenchyma) posthepatic (obstruction in hepatic veins beyond liver lobules) |
|
|
Term
What are intrahepatic causes of portal hypertension? |
|
Definition
liver cirrhosis hepatic fibrosis (e.g. due to Wilson's disease, hemochromatosis) |
|
|
Term
What is a pre-hepatic cause of portal vein hypertension? |
|
Definition
portal vein thrombosis
congenital atresia of the pre-hepatic portal vein |
|
|
Term
Where do post-hepatic causes of portal vein hypertension occur? |
|
Definition
anywhere between the liver and the right heart (so in the hepatic veins, inferior vena cava, or anywhere in between) |
|
|
Term
What are post-hepatic causes of portal hypertension? |
|
Definition
hepatic vein thrombosis (Budd-Chiari Syndrome) inferior vena cava thrombosis inferior vena cava congenital malformation constrictive pericarditis. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
the name for the clinical picture caused by occlusion of the hepatic veins (classical triad of abdominal pain, ascites and hepatomegaly) |
|
|
Term
Classical triad of Budd-Chiari Syndrome? |
|
Definition
abdominal pain ascites hepatomegaly
Budd–Chiari syndrome is the clinical picture caused by occlusion of the hepatic veins
I have a big liver and tummy pain
From that damned old clot in my hepatic vein
I once was as pretty as Mata Hari
But now I’m fat ‘cause of Budd Chiari |
|
|
Term
An alcoholic with liver cirrhosis asks if their liver will get better if they stop drinking. Will it? |
|
Definition
No. Cirrhosis is irreversible. However, they can slow the progression of cirrhosis by not drinking. |
|
|
Term
The end stage of any kind of liver disease is _____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
irreversible end result of chronic destruction of normal hepatic architecture by fibrous septa (bands) that surround regenerative nodules of hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
describe the structure of a liver with cirrhosis |
|
Definition
normal hepatic architecture is destroyed
fibrous septa (bands) surround regenerative nodules of hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) |
|
Definition
a hyperplastic growth of hepatic tissue, which includes hepatocytes, bile ducts, and vasculature |
|
|
Term
When does Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) usually present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A young adult with Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) asks if they are going to get liver cancer. Are they? |
|
Definition
No. Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)does not progress to liver cancer. |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical presentation of Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)? |
|
Definition
most (80%) are asymptomatic some (20%) have abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
What would an arteriograph of a person with Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) look like? |
|
Definition
a hypervascular mass in the liver |
|
|
Term
What, macroscopically, does a Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)look like? |
|
Definition
an unencapsulated, solid mass in the liver |
|
|
Term
What, microscopically, does a Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) look like? |
|
Definition
all components of normal liver present, but jumbled up in a mass |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)? |
|
Definition
imaging of the abdomen (usually incidental, because it's usually asymptomatic) shows a mass in the liver
biopsy |
|
|
Term
How do you treat Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what gender and at what age does hepatic adenoma almost always occur? |
|
Definition
women during reproductive years |
|
|
Term
Hepatic adenoma was rare before ________________________ became available. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with hepatic adenoma asks you how likely she is to get cancer from it. |
|
Definition
hepatic adenoma does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma |
|
|
Term
What does a hepatic adenoma look like in an arteriograph? |
|
Definition
a solid mass; not vascular like Focal Nodular Hyperplasia |
|
|
Term
Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH) is usually asymptomatic, rarely grows or bleeds, and has no malignant potential. So why is it sometimes resected? |
|
Definition
It is often confused with more dangerous conditions, like hepatic adenoma or hepatic hemangioma |
|
|
Term
Hepatic adenomas often disappear if: |
|
Definition
oral contraceptives are discontinued |
|
|
Term
Hepatic Hemangiomas are bening and do not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma. Why are they dangerous? |
|
Definition
1/3 of hepatic hemangiomas bleed into the peritoneal cavity, which requires emergency surgery |
|
|
Term
What does a hepatic adenoma look like, macroscopically? |
|
Definition
solitary mass in the liver, well circumscribed |
|
|
Term
What does a hepatic adenoma look like, microscopically? |
|
Definition
a nodule of hepatocytes ONLY (no bile ducts or vessels) |
|
|
Term
How is hepatic adenoma diagnosed? |
|
Definition
imaging studies lead to liver biopsy or excision of mass |
|
|
Term
How are hepatic adenomas treated? |
|
Definition
usually surgically removed if symptomatic |
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most (80%) of hepatocellular carcinomas arise in livers already experiencing: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In hepatocellular carcinoma, serum _____________________ levels are often elevated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is hepatocellular carcinoma common in the US? |
|
Definition
not very common ~6.7 / 100k (<1/15k) |
|
|
Term
In what 2 parts of the world is hepatocellular carcinoma most common, and why? |
|
Definition
Asia & sub-Saharan Africa
because hepatitis B and C are prevalent there
(can be as high 1/800 people) |
|
|
Term
What will imaging studies reveal in a person with hepatocellualr carcinoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does hepatocellular carcinoma look like, macroscopically? |
|
Definition
tumor may may be a single large mass or several discrete masses |
|
|
Term
What does hepatocellular carcinoma look like, microscopically? |
|
Definition
unusually thick hepatic plate (>3 cells)
hepatocytes may be in different forms (may be pleomorphic, or may be well-differentiated into liver or non-liver cells) |
|
|
Term
How is hepatocellular carcinoma diagnosed? |
|
Definition
clinical history indicating cirrhosis (jaundice, bloating from ascites, abdominal pain, easy bruising from blood clotting abnormalies) + increased serum Alpha-FetoProtein (AFP) is very suspicious for HCC
imaging studies will show mass
biopsy will confirm diagnosis |
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis for someone with hepatocellular carcinoma? |
|
Definition
poor only 10-20% of HCC can be surgically resected if not surgically removed, then disease is usually deadly within 3-6 months (due to liver failure from cancer replacing normal liver parenchyma) |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for hepatocellular carcinoma? |
|
Definition
surgery, if possible
(in most cases, 80-90%, surgery is not possible, and death usually follows in 3-6 months) |
|
|
Term
Is cholangiocarcinoma common? |
|
Definition
no; it's relatively rare
annual incidence of 1-2 /100k in the West |
|
|
Term
Cholangiocarcinoma is a type of _____________ |
|
Definition
adenocarcinoma (glandular cancer) |
|
|
Term
At what age is cholangiocarcinoma most often seen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis Congenital liver malformations hepatic parasitic infections exposure to Thorotrast, a chemical formerly used in medical imagin |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical presentation of cholangiocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
jaundice (if extrahepatic) or abdominal pain (if intrahepatic) generalized itching, weight loss, fever, or changes in stool or urine color) |
|
|
Term
How is cholangiocarcinoma diagnosed |
|
Definition
clinical presentation (jaundice if extrahepatic or abdominal pain if intrahepatic, generalized itching, weight loss, fever, or changes in stool or urine color)
leads to imaging studies that reveal an intrahepatic or extrahepatic mass in bile ducts
this results in a tissue biopsy, which should be diagnostic |
|
|
Term
What does radiography off cholangiocarcinoma show? |
|
Definition
may show stricture in biliary system, or a mass |
|
|
Term
What does cholangiocarcinoma look like, macroscopically? |
|
Definition
fibrotic mass in the bile ducts |
|
|
Term
What does cholangiocarcinoma look like, microscopically? |
|
Definition
well to moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma surrounded by fibrosis |
|
|
Term
What would you expect to see in the liver labs of a person with cholangiocarcinoma |
|
Definition
high bilirubin, AP, and GGT normal or mildly elevated AST & ALT |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for cholangiocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
surgical resection if possible (usually not possible)
palliative care if not surgically resected |
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis for cholangiocarcinoma? |
|
Definition
poor most patients have advanced and inoperable disease at the time of diagnosis
cholangiocarcinoma is rapidly lethal if not fully surgically resected |
|
|
Term
The 3 most common sources of metastatic cancer in the liver are: |
|
Definition
1. GI tract
2. breast
3. lung
(cancer in the liver is most often due to metasteses from elsewhere, not due to liver cancer) |
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis for cancer metastasis to the liver? |
|
Definition
very poor; most die within a year of diagnosis of liver metastasis |
|
|
Term
Cancer in the liver cause __________ (prehepatic/intrahepatic/posthepatic) portal hypertension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What 3 diseases most commonly cause liver disease in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
1. intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy 2. Liver disease in toxemia (Pre-eclampsia) 3. HELLP syndrome (Hemolytic anemia, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelet count); usually considered to be a variant of pre-eclampsia |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of isolated elevation of of indirect bilirubin due to increased production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the main causes of isolated elevation of of indirect bilirubin due to decreased uptake or conjugation? |
|
Definition
Gilbert's syndrome Crigler-Najjar Syndrome Drugs |
|
|
Term
What are the main causes of isolated direct bilirubin? |
|
Definition
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome (a rare, fairly benign inherited disorder in which a transporter mutation makes it difficult for hepatocytes to secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile ducts; conjugated bilirubin builds up in liver, leading to hyperpigmentatin & spills over into blood)
Rotor Syndrome (inherited in which hepatocytes can't secrete conjugated bilirubin into bile ducts; we don't know why; liver is not hyperpigmented)
(isolated meaning that ALT and AST are not elevated) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bilirubin that has been conjugated with an acid by the liver to make it water-soluble
(so called because its water-solubility means that it can be DIRECTLY dyed) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bilirubin as it is released from the RBC (unconjugated)
(so called because its lack of water-solubility means that it can be canNOT be directly dyed) |
|
|
Term
Waht are some causes of elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and GGT with dilated ducts (extra-hepatic cholestasis)? |
|
Definition
malignant: cholangiocarcinoma pancreatic cancer benign: cholecholithiasis AIDS Cholangiopathy |
|
|
Term
Waht are some causes of elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and GGT with ducts not dilated (intra-hepatic cholestasis)? |
|
Definition
primary biliary cirrhosis drugs infiltrative disorders |
|
|
Term
What are some causes of markers of decreased synthetic function (descreased albumin, elevated Prothrombin Time)? |
|
Definition
chronic liver disease/cirrhosis
acute liver failure
(synthetic function doesn't go until something is seriously wrong with the liver) |
|
|
Term
What pattern of liver markers indicate cholestasis? |
|
Definition
elevated direct (conjugated) bilirubin elevated alkaline phosphatase elevated GGT |
|
|
Term
What are 2 markers of decreased synthetic function of the liver? |
|
Definition
low albumin levels long prothrombin time (PT) |
|
|
Term
What are some causes of severe, acute elevation of ALT & AST? |
|
Definition
(ALT and AST are markers of hepatocellular injury) alcoholic hepatitis viral hepatitis toxic hepatitis (due to hepatotoxic drugs or other hepatotoxic substances) ischemic hepatitis auto-immune hepatitis |
|
|
Term
What are some causes of mild, chronic elevation of ALT & AST? |
|
Definition
(ALT & AST are markers of hepatocellular injury) chronic hepatitis B
chronic hepatitis C
fatty liver/NASH
alcoholic liver disease
drugs |
|
|
Term
Liver problems are considered to be chronic if they last longer than: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should you do if an asymptomatic patient has abnormal liver markers? |
|
Definition
stop all alcohol, herbal meds, and hepatotoxic meds repeat tests (they normalize 30-50% of the time) |
|
|
Term
AST and ALT are used in what process in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is ALT only found in the liver? |
|
Definition
no; it's also in the heart, muscle, kidney, brain, pancreas, and lungs
(but mostly inthe liver) |
|
|
Term
What 5 conditions can cause AST > 1000? |
|
Definition
acute viral hepatitisi (hepatitis A, hep B, CytoMegaloVirus, Epstein-Barr Virus) ischemic hepatitis toxic hepatitis acute Wilson's disease |
|
|
Term
Which is more specific for liver injury: AST or ALT? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain the following mnemonic: A Scotch and Tonic |
|
Definition
AST is higher than ALT in alcohol-related liver damage |
|
|
Term
What 2 groups are mostly likely to have high alkaline phosphatase (AP) with normal liver function? |
|
Definition
kids(kids have high alkaline phosphatase because it's also found in bone & they're growing bone)
pregnant women (the highest concentration of alkaline phosphatase in the body is in the placenta) |
|
|
Term
What are some liver-related causes of high alkaline phosphatase? |
|
Definition
liver cell injury cholestasis
(note: non-liver causes, such as bone diesase, renal failure, pregnancy, etc. are also common causes of high alkaline phosphatase) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a variety of conditions in which bile cannot flow from the liver to the duodenum |
|
|
Term
Is elevated GGT sensitive for liver disease? Is it specific? |
|
Definition
yes' it's sensitive
non, it's not specific. GGT is also found in the kidney, liver, pancreas, initestine, & heart. High GGT could indicate renal failure, MI, pancreatitis, or diabetes) |
|
|
Term
What cell type makes 80% of the liver? What type of tissue makes up the other 20%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hepatocytes are arranged in hepatic __________, which are normally 1-2 cells thick. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hepatoctyes are divided into hepatic lobules by __________ tisuse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Connective tissue froms the ____________ capsule over the external surface of the liver |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
transverse fissure of the liver |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
short but deep fissure, about 5 cm long, extending transversely across the under surface of the left portion of the right lobe of the liver, nearer its posterior surface than its anterior border. |
|
|
Term
What 5 things enter the liver through the porta hepatis? |
|
Definition
the portal triad: hepatic portal vein hepatic artery proper common hepatic duct a lymphatic vessel a branch of the vagus nerve |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hepatic artery hepatic portal vein bile duct |
|
|
Term
A branch of the ____________nerve innervates the liver. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
75-85% of the blood entering the liver enters via the _______________, while 20-25% comes from the __________________ |
|
Definition
portal vein hepatic artery |
|
|
Term
The portal vein takes blood from which organ(s) to which organ? |
|
Definition
GI tract & spleen to liver |
|
|
Term
The portal vein takes blood from which organ(s) to which organ? |
|
Definition
from the GI tract & spleen
to the liver |
|
|
Term
Blood from the portal vein and hepatic artery flows into the _____________ and mixes there |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood flows from the portal vein and hepatic artery, into the sinusoids, and converges on the ______________ of the lobule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The central venules of each hepatic lobule converge into the ____________, which leaves the liver and ultimately leads to what vessel? |
|
Definition
hepatic vein
inferior vena cava |
|
|
Term
How are the hepatic plates arranged in the liver? |
|
Definition
one plate surrounds the portal triad. Other plates radiate out to the edges of the lobule |
|
|
Term
Hepatic lobules are roughly ___________ (shape), with a _______________ at each corner (usually) ,and a _______________ in the middle |
|
Definition
hexagonal portal triad central vein |
|
|
Term
The sinusoids of the liver lead from the _______________ to the _________________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
tubes formed between hepatocytes by grooves in the hepatocyte membranes; bile flows from the canaliculi to the bile duct
Note: some of the faces of a hepatocyte line the sinusoid; others touch other hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
specialized macrophages that are attached to the walls of sinusoids in the liver
They develop in the bone marrow as normal monocotyes, and specialize into Kupffer cells after they settle in the liver
They serve the same function as other macrophages; cleaning the blood that passes through the liver of pathogens |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
a space between the endothelial cells lining the liver sinusoid and the hepatocyte plate |
|
|
Term
Why is there more urea in your blood in the fasting state? |
|
Definition
in fasting state, proteins are broken down into amino acids, which are used in gluconeogenesis. The products of gluconeogenesis are glucose and urea. |
|
|
Term
in the muscle Glutamate + Pyruvate –(_________)--> alpha-ketoglutarate + alanine |
|
Definition
ALT (alanine aminotransferase) |
|
|
Term
in the muscle Glutamate + Pyruvate –(ALT)--> alpha-ketoglutarate + alanine
Where does the alanine go? |
|
Definition
to the liver (to be fed into gluconeogenesis) |
|
|
Term
In the reaction: Glutamate + Pyruvate –(ALT)--> alpha-ketoglutarate + alanine
What is transferred from the glutamate to the pryuvate to make alanine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In gluconeogenesis, alananine goes to the liver. What happens to its carbone? It's nitrogen? |
|
Definition
the carbon is used to synthesize glucose
the nitrogen is disposed of via the urea cycle |
|
|
Term
In the liver,
alpha-keotglutarate + alanine--(____)-->glutamate + pyruvate |
|
Definition
AST, aspartaminotransverase |
|
|
Term
After alanine donates its _________ to alpha-ketoglutarate to form glutamate, the resulting pyruvate is fed into gluconeogenesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
when an ammonia (NH3) is transferred from one molecule to another |
|
|
Term
All amino transferase reactions (aka transamination reaction) require _________________________ as a co-factor |
|
Definition
vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate) |
|
|
Term
What role does N-acetylglutamate have in the regulation of the urea cycle? |
|
Definition
N-acetyl glutamate is a positive regulator of the rate-limiting step of the urea cycle (that is, turns it on)
The urea cycle is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle takes place primarily in the liver, and to a lesser extent in the kidney. |
|
|
Term
What commonly accumulates in the urine of patients with a deficiency in ornithine transcarbamoylase, and why?? |
|
Definition
orotic acid (orotate)
As part of the urea cycle,
carbamoyl phosphate + ornithine --(ornithine transcarbamoylase)-->citrulline + phosphate
if there's no ornithing transcarbamoylase, then
carbamoyl phosphate + ornithine --> pyrimidines + orotic acid
|
|
|
Term
Clinically, every urea cycle enzyme deficiency has similar signs & symptoms. What are they |
|
Definition
• More ammonia in blood • More glutamine in blood • Neurological problems • Lethargy • Hypoglycemia |
|
|
Term
Most common urea cycle disorder (1 in 30k). |
|
Definition
Ornithine Transcarbamylase Deficiency (OTC) |
|
|
Term
What would you see a lot of in the urine with Ornithine Transcarbamylase (OTC) Deficiency? |
|
Definition
orotic acid (aka orotate) |
|
|
Term
3 most common urea cycle disorders. |
|
Definition
Ornithine Trnascarbamylase (OTC) Deficiency Carbamyl Phosphate Synthetase (CPS) Deficiency Arginosuccinate Lyase (ASL) deficiency |
|
|
Term
What 2 things are higher in the blood with every urea cycle enzyme deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatments for deficiencies in urea cycle enzymes. |
|
Definition
low protein diet arginine supplementation (except in the case of arginase deficiency) drugs (benzoic acid & phenylbutyrate form conjugates with amino acids that are subsequently excreted) |
|
|
Term
How are blood glucose levels maintains in fed, fasting, and starved states? |
|
Definition
fed state: glucose from food
fasting state: first, glucose from glycogen breakdown
second, glucose from gluconeogenesis
starved state: glucose primarily from gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 primary substrates for gluconeogenesis? |
|
Definition
glycerol amino acids (esp. alanine) lactate |
|
|
Term
Lactate is one of the 3 primary substrates for gluconeogenesis. Where does it come from? |
|
Definition
anaerobic glycolysis, primarily by rBCs and skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
lactate<--(________________)-->pyruvate |
|
Definition
lactate dehydrogenase
it converts pyruvate (the final product of glycolysis) to lactate in muscles and RBCs when oxygen is in short supply
it converts lactate to pyruvate in the liver, which is fed into glyconeogenesis. The resultant glucose is sent back to muslces and RBCs to complete the Cori cycle |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
cycle in which liver converts lactate to glucose, and then RBCs or skeletal muscle convert glucose to lactate |
|
|
Term
Amino acid most used for gluconeogenesis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glycerol is one of 3 primary substrates for gluconeogenesis. Where does it come from? |
|
Definition
it is derived from the backbone of triglycerides in adipocytes |
|
|
Term
triglyceride--(_________)-->3 fatty acids + glycerol backbone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
triglyceride--(lipase)-->3 fatty acids + glycerol backbone
Where is lipase found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
As part of gluconeogenesis: fatty acid-->acetyl co-A-->ketone bodies
Where does this occur? |
|
Definition
in the mitochondria of hepatocytes |
|
|
Term
In non-liver tissues, how are fatty acids used to make energy? |
|
Definition
they're fed into the TCA cycle:
fatty acid-->acetyl co-A-->ATP |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
describes amino acids that can be used to make glucose via gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
The liver is attached to the diaphragme by the _________ligament in the middle the ________________ ligament on the right, and the _______________ ligament on the left |
|
Definition
falciform right triangular left triangular |
|
|
Term
What doe the hepatic artery, portal vein, and hepatic veins of the liver due with regard to blood flow to and from the liver? |
|
Definition
Hepatic artery brings oxygenated blood to liver from heart
Portal vein brings partly deoxygenated, nutrient rich, toxic (sometimes) blood to liver from GI tract & spleen
Hepatic veins drain venous blood from liver into Inferior Vena Cava |
|
|
Term
The gallbladder receives blood from ______ artery, which arises from _______________ artery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pancreas receives blood from branches of the __________artery & from the ____________________________ and ___________________________ arteries. |
|
Definition
splenic superior pancreaticoduodenal ifnerior pancreaticoduodenal |
|
|
Term
How can a gallstone lead to pancreatitis? |
|
Definition
the gallstone can block up the ampulla of vater, causing blockage of the bile duct and the pancreatic duct
if bile backs up into the pancreatic duct, it will cause pancreatitis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Cirrhosis of the liver is a condition in which liver cells are progressively destroyed & replaced by fatty & fibrous tissue that surrounds the intrahepatic blood vessels & small bile duct vessels, impeding the circulation of blood through the liver Caused by alcoholism, hepatitis B, C & D, & ingestion of poisons Causes portal hypertension |
|
|
Term
Explain the 6Fs that increase predisposition to gallstones |
|
Definition
• fair-skinned (Heredity)—northern Europeans (even more common in Mexican Americans and Native Americans, though)
• fat (Diet, Obesity)—obesity is a risk factor
• flatulent (Slow intestinal transit)—constipation is a risk factor (even for non-obese women)
• females
• fertile: a history of several pregnancies. Excess estrogen stimulates the production of gallstones.
• forty (Age) Gallbladder disease often strikes people over forty years of age (middle-aged) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Surgical removal of gallbladder |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 steps in the process of cholecystectomy? |
|
Definition
o the gallbladder is separated from the liver o the cystic duct & cystic artery are dissected & ligated o the ligated cystic duct is excised & the gallbladder is removed |
|
|
Term
Why would you get a cholecystectomy? |
|
Definition
o inflammation (cholecystitis) o or presence of gallstones in the gallbladder |
|
|
Term
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) |
|
Definition
an endoscope is used to inject contrast material through the major duodenal ampulla & the results are depicted by fluoroscopy |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an imaging technique commonly used by physicians to obtain real-time moving images of the internal structures of a patient through the use of a fluoroscope. In its simplest form, a fluoroscope consists of an X-ray source and fluorescent screen between which a patient is placed. However, modern fluoroscopes couple the screen to an X-ray image intensifier and a special video camera allowing the images to be recorded and played on a monitor. |
|
|
Term
Magnetic Resonance Cholangiopancreatogram (MRCP) |
|
Definition
a non-invasive technique for evaluating the biliary & pancreatic ductal systems; multiplanar images are obtained parallel to the orientation of the biliary tree using an MR sequence that is sensitive to static fluid w/o the need for exogenous contrast agents; fluid in the ducts appears bright against the darker tissues; MRCP shows the ducts in their natural, non-distended state |
|
|
Term
positron emission tomography (PET) |
|
Definition
uses 18F-deoxyglucose; the compound is taken up by organs in proportion to their metabolic activity (cancers often have high metabolic activity) |
|
|
Term
Describe the 2 pancreatic ducts |
|
Definition
Main Pancreatic duct (Duct of Wirsung) – begins in tail, runs to R along entire pancreas Accessory pancreatic duct (Santorini’s duct) – begins in lower portion of head & drains small portion of head & body; empties at lesser duodenal papilla ~2cm above greater papilla |
|
|
Term
In bile passage, the Right Hepatic Duct and Left Hepatic Duct unite to form the ____________ duct, which joins the _________ duct to form the ___________ Duct. This duct descends behind the 1st part of the duodenum & runs through the head of the pancreas & joins the main pancreatic duct to form the ________________ duct, which enters the 2nd part of the duodenum at the greater papilla |
|
Definition
common hepatic duct cystic duct bile duct hepatopancreatic duct (v. short) |
|
|
Term
2 main causes of pancreatitis |
|
Definition
• Gallstones • alcohol consumption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
• upper abdominal pain • nausea • vomiting • weight loss • fatty stools • mild jaundice • diabetes • low blood pressure • heart failure • kidney failure |
|
|
Term
Gallstones are formed by solidification of bile constituents & are composed chiefly of _______________, usually mixed with _______________ & __________ |
|
Definition
cholesterol crystals bile pigments calcium |
|
|
Term
As it leaves the liver, the falciform ligament becomes known as the ___________________. It connects the liver to: |
|
Definition
round ligament of the liver
the anterior abdominal wall, near the umbilicus |
|
|
Term
What are some reasons that the liver may be particularly vulnerable to toxins? |
|
Definition
• Gets a lot of blood (gets 1/3 of cardiac output; organ is 5% of body weight) • First in line for any oral toxicants absorbed from the gut via the hepatic portal vein • Liver has highest cytochrome p450, so if a non-toxic thing absorbed from the gut is metabolized into something toxic by p450, causes centrolobular problems (Ex., chloroform) |
|
|
Term
Why is acetaminophen hepatotoxicity a threshold effect? |
|
Definition
Acetominophin—( Cytochrome p450)-->non-toxic products (mostly) + toxic intermediate • But glutathione inactivates the toxic intermediate • if you have enough glutathione to inactivate, that’s OK (ex., at therapeutic levels of acetaminophen) •if you exaust glutoathione, you get hepatotoxic effects |
|
|
Term
Acetominophin—(_______)-->non-toxic products (mostly) + toxic intermediate
The toxic intermediate is inactivated by ____________ |
|
Definition
cytochrome p450
glutathione |
|
|
Term
What substance would make you particularly likely to experience hepatoxicity with acetaminophin overdose, and why? |
|
Definition
alcohol, because it competes with acetominophen's toxic intermediate for glutathione (can lead to hepatotoxicity) |
|
|
Term
How do you treat acetaminophen overdose? |
|
Definition
N-acetylcysteine inactivates the toxic intermediate (just like glutathione does) |
|
|
Term
Provide rationale and limitations for therapeutic use of orally given bile acids to dissolve gall stones. |
|
Definition
if you give bile acids orally, the body will send them to the gallbladder More bile acids in gallbladder-->more absorption of the things that separate out to form gall stones (ex., cholesterol crystals)
verrrry slowly dissolves gallstones (months to years for small stones, and only if patient goes on a diet at the same time) |
|
|
Term
Why would a nucleoside/tide that terminates DNA or RNA chain building be more likely to slow or stop viruses than to slow or stop normal cell division? |
|
Definition
Cells have better proofreading & repair than viruses |
|
|
Term
You give a nucleoside/tide that terminates DNA or RNA chain bulding and requires a viral kinase to activate. What effect might that have? |
|
Definition
it might only stop virally infected cells |
|
|
Term
IFN-alpha-->Cell receptor-->____________ transduction pathway-->transcription factors-->bind to several genes-->many proteins transcribed-->hinder all steps of viral replication |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does Inteferon alpha (IFN-alpha) affect viral infections? |
|
Definition
IFN-alpha-->Cell receptor-->JAK-STAT transduction pathway-->transcription factors-->bind to several genes-->many proteins transcribed-->hinder all steps of viral replication |
|
|
Term
What are the side effects of using interferons to treat viral infections? |
|
Definition
flu-like side-effects: fever, fatigue, myalgia, neutropenia, anemia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
anti-viral drug
Blocks inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase-->blocks GTP synthesis-->blocks nucleic acid synthesis
appears to prevent GTP-dependent 5’capping of viral mRNA by blocking GTP synthesis, and inhibiting RNA-dependent RNA polymerases (and activity of other GTP-dependent enzymes) |
|
|
Term
By what route is ribavarin given? |
|
Definition
given orally for chronic hepatitis C
given as aerosol for respiratory viral syndromes: Hanta pneumonia, RSV, influenza A&B
given i.v. for viral haemorrhagic fevers: Lassa, Ebola |
|
|
Term
What are 3 ways that lactulose treats hepatic encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
liver failure-->toxic levels of ammonia-->hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose is a nonabsorbable disaccharide degraded by colonic bacteria to lactic acid, which acidifies gut
Acidity suppresses urease-producing gut flora Acidity favors protonation of ammonia & trapping of ammonium ion in the lumen “cathartic effect” (diarrhea) washes out ammonium ion & reduces bacterial load |
|
|
Term
How does liver failure cause encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
liver failure-->toxic levels of ammonia (because normally, the liver is primarily responsible for detoxifying ammonia)-->hepatic encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
How does Rifaximin treat hepatic encephalopathy |
|
Definition
liver failure-->toxic levels of ammonia (because the liver detoxifies most of the ammonia in the body)-->hepatic encephalopathy
Rifaxamin kills gut bacteria (it's a broad-spectrum non-absorbable antibiotic), which makes most of ammonium |
|
|
Term
Where does most of the ammonium in the body come from? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
greasy diarrhea due to fat malapsorption |
|
|
Term
How does pancreatitis lead to steatorrhea? |
|
Definition
steatorrhea is greasy diarrhea due to fat malapsorption
an inflammaed pancreas doesn't secrete lipase, which leads to steatorrhea |
|
|
Term
To make sure that oral lipase gets where it needs to be, you need to do one of 2 things. What are they? |
|
Definition
lipase is degraded by stomach acid, but it's needed in the duodenum, so you need to 1. give it an enteric coating or 2. give a proton pump inhibitor so that it won't have to pass through so much acid |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
makes bile duct release bile & pancreatic enzymes |
|
|
Term
Should you give enteric coated or uncoated proteases in order to treat the symptoms of chronic pancreatitis, and why? |
|
Definition
uncoated
Enteric-coated won’t be released by the time you get to the duodenum; only uncoated can relieve pain & malabsorption |
|
|
Term
Normally, the pancreas releases trypsin, which inactivates a __________-releasing peptides. During chronic pancreatitis, the pancreas doesn't release trypsin, so: |
|
Definition
CholeCystoKinin (CCK)
lots of CCK stimulates lots of ductal pressure, which causes pain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
describes any event or process that occurs suddenly and quickly, and is intense and severe to the point of lethality (such as an infection or explosion) |
|
|
Term
What family does Hep A belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family does Hep B belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family does Hep C belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family does Hep D belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What virus does Hep E belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What family does Hep G belong to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period for Hep A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period for Hep B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period for Hep C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period for Hep E? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 primary modes of transmission for Hep A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 primary modes of transmission for Hep B? |
|
Definition
sexual
blood
(B is spread by Blood and the Birds & the Bees) |
|
|
Term
What is the primary mode of transmission for Hep C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 2 primary modes of transmission for Hep D? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary mode of transmission for Hep E? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary mode of transmission for Hep G? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Hep viruses cause chronic infection? |
|
Definition
B, C, D, G
(mnemonic: All Eliminated--A & E don't cause chronic infection) |
|
|
Term
Explain the following mnemonic with relation to hepatitis viruses:
All Eliminated |
|
Definition
Hep A & E don't cause chronic infection; the others (B, C, G, and D--which only occurs as a super-infection on top of B) do |
|
|
Term
What 3 hepatitis viruses cause cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma? |
|
Definition
hep B
hep C
hep D (hep D only occurs as a super-infection on top of hep B; hep D & B combined infection is very dangerous) |
|
|
Term
What is the only hepatitis virus that is a DNA virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the clinical features of the pre-icteric phase of all types of hepatitis virus? |
|
Definition
malaise, joint pain, myalgia, fatigue, anorexia, nausea & vomiting, abdominal (esp. RUQ) discomfort patient may give a history of distaste for alcohol and tobacco smoke |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical features of the icteric phase of all types of hepatitis virus? |
|
Definition
jaundice dark urine pale stools tender, enlarged liver pruritis (itching) |
|
|
Term
From inside to out, the HBV (Hep B) virus consists of: DNA
a capsid
a protein layer (core) of _____________
an outer layer of _______________ |
|
Definition
HBcAg (Hepatitis B core antigen)
HBsAg (hepatitis B Surface antigen) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hepatitis B core antigen--the protein that makes up the hepatitis core (inside the outer layer and outside of the capsid)
HBsAg is hepatitis B Surface antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hepatitis B Surface antigen--the protein that makes up the outer layer of the Hepatitis B virion |
|
|
Term
Why is it an advantage to Hepatitis B to have incomplete HBV particles in the serum? |
|
Definition
protects virions by being decoys that attract antibodies |
|
|
Term
What antigen is present in the hepatitis B vaccine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person has antibodies against HBsAG, but not against HBcAg or HBeAG, and none of the antigens are present. What is this person's status with regard to Hepatitis B? |
|
Definition
this person has been vaccinated against Hep B (the vaccine contains HBsAG), but never had the virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
an antigen secreted by cells infected with hepatitis B virus while the virus is replicating; shows up very early in hep B infection |
|
|
Term
Explain the following mnemonic:
I have a big liver and tummy pain
From that damned old clot in my hepatic vein
I once was as pretty as Mata Hari
But now I’m fat ‘cause of Budd Chiari |
|
Definition
Budd-Chiari is the clinical picture caused by hepatic vein clots
The classical triad of Budd-Chiari are:
hepatomegaly
abdominal pain
ascites |
|
|
Term
High levels of _____________ in the sweat is diagnostic for cystic fibrosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the difference between the pathophysiology of Gilbert's syndrome & Crigler-Najjar syndrome? |
|
Definition
In Gilbert’s syndrome, UDPGT doesn't work as well as normal-->not enough conjugation of bilirubin
In Crigler-Najjar syndrome, there's not enough UDPGT-->not enough conjugation of bilirubin |
|
|
Term
What's the difference in the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome & Rotor syndrome? |
|
Definition
in both syndromes, hepatocytes can't excrete conjugated bilirubin into bile ducts
In Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, this is because of a mutation in the cMOAT transporter protein
In Rotor Syndrome, the cause is still unknown |
|
|
Term
Explain the following mnemonic:
Dubin-Johnson’s lousy boat
Cannot cross that SEA or MOAT
(All that pigment is held back
and it turns the liver black)
Rotor’s also can’t get through
But we don’t know why that’s true.
|
|
Definition
Dubin-Johnson--mutation in cMOAT (sea moat) transporter protein means that hepatocytes can't excrete (cannot cross) conjugated bilirubin into the bile duct. In Dubin-Johnson, the conjugated bilirubin primarily stays in the liver, turning it dark-colored or black.
In Rotor Syndrome, the hepatocytes also can't excrete conjugated bilirubin (can't get through), but we don't know why yet. In Rotor syndrome, the liver does not become hyperpigmented. We don't know why that is, either.
|
|
|
Term
A clinical history indicating cirrhosis is suspicious for HepatoCellular Carcinoma (HCC) if what unusual protein is found in serum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Explain the following mnemonic:
Gibert’s is Gormless
Crigler-Najjar is Not Copious
|
|
Definition
Gilbert's is due to mutations that make UDPGT not work well (it's gormless; stupid)
Crigler-Najjar is due to there not being enough UDPGT (Not Copious); in type 1, there's no UDPGT at all
UDPGT is critical for conjugating bilirubin |
|
|
Term
Is a woman with a history of gallstones a good candidate for hormone replacement therapy after menopause? Why? |
|
Definition
No.
Excess estrogen stimulates the production of gallstones. Hormone replacement after menopause increases the likelihood of stones. |
|
|