Shared Flashcard Set

Details

Special Patient
Comprehensive Final
141
Other
Professional
08/07/2011

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
Dental Problems in Special Pt Population
Definition
  • perio disease (most important)
  • poor OH
  • # of unrestored/extracted teeth
  • malocclusion
  • caries (same as other populations)
Term
Why do special patients have difficulty maintaining proper OH?
Definition

- lack of coordination

- lack of understanding

Term
What are 3 systemic health problems related to poor oral health?
Definition
  1. heart disease
  2. stroke
  3. premature birth
Term
What are 6 barriers to access for care for special pts?
Definition
  • finding a dentist (that will treat them)
  • architectural (e.g., lack of wheelchair ramp)
  • transportational
  • financial
  • attitudinal
  • psychological (fear)
Term
What are 3 sources of funding for special pt care?
Definition
  • medicaid (ends at 21)
  • Dinar Grottos
  • private funds (church, family, foundations)
Term
Cerebral Palsy
Definition

- non-progressive neuromuscular disorder caused by brain damage due to anoxia at or near birth

 

Term
Types of Cerebral Palsy
Definition
  • spastic - most common; e.g., hands compressed against chest
  • athetoid - involuntary movement
  • hypotonic - lack of muscle tone
  • ataxic - walking dysfunction
  • rigid
  • mixed (usually see mixed)
Term
Clinical Signs of CP
Definition

- spastic tongue thrusting

- speech problems

- mouth breathing

 

Term
Oral/Dental Problems for CP Pts
Definition
  • poor OH
  • perio disease
  • anterior open bite
Term
Mouth breathing in CP pts can cause __, which can be treated with __ products.
Definition

- xerostomia

- biotene

Term
CP pts may take the medication __, which can cause __.
Definition

- phenytoin (brand name dilantin)

- gingival hyperplasia

Term
What percentage of children with CP have seizure disorders?
Definition
- 35%
Term
What precautions are taken with a (CP) pt who is prone to seizures?
Definition

- if pt can tell they're about to have seizure, call 911

- don't put anything in the mouth that isn't ligated

- use a bite block

Term
After a pt has a seizure, what steps should be taken?
Definition

- discontinue Tx

- don't let them go home alone

- notify doctor

- document details in chart

Term
Status Epilepticus
Definition

- prolonged seizure

- life-threatening

Term
Valproic Acid (Depakene) Use
Definition
- for CP pts that have seizures
Term
Valproic Acid (Depakene) Side Effect
Definition

- thrombocytopenia (increased bleeding)

 

*consult with physician before surgery

 

Term
Phenobarbital Use
Definition

- seizure control

- anxiety control

Term
Phenobarbital Side Effects
Definition
- none major, but possible behavior problems in kids
Term
What can be done to help manage CP pts in the office?
Definition

- give muscle relaxants like benzodiazepine (e.g., valium)

- nitrous

- restraints (e.g., hand-holding, papoose boards)

Term
Autism Spectrum Disorder
Definition

- complex developmental disorder that affects communication and social interaction

- symptom onset usually before age 3

Term
Asperger's Syndrome
Definition
- higher functioning form of autism
Term
Asperger's Characteristics
Definition

- dysfunctional social interaction

- clumsiness (delayed motor milestones)

- behavior repetition

- focused area of unusual intelligence

Term
Autism Spectrum Disorder Characteristics
Definition

- overly sensitive to physical stimuli

- distress from change in routine

- repeated body movements

- unusual attachment to objects

Term
Management of Autism Pts
Definition

- expectation of unpredictable behavior

- discuss behavior with caregiver

- anxiolytic meds

- restraints

- general anesthesia

Term
Mosaic Trisomy 21
Definition

- not as many trisomy 21 cells

- higher functioning

Term
Trisomy 21 Characteristics
Definition
  • low-set ears
  • flat nasal bridge
  • orbital hypertelorism
  • mid-facial hypoplasia (makes jaw look big, like class III)
  • short stature
  • overweight
  • exaggerated epicampal folds
  • extra skin on back of neck
Term
Oral Manifestations of Down's Syndrome
Definition
  • low caries
  • high perio disease - early tooth loss
  • congenital absence of teeth (max laterals most common)
  • delayed eruption of 1˚ teeth
  • bruxism
  • taurodont molars

 

Term
In pts with Trisomy 21, where do the first signs of perio disease appear?
Definition
- lower anterior permanents
Term
What are 2 reasons for the increased risk of perio disease in trisomy 21 pts?
Definition

- immune cell dysfunction

- increased risk of leukemia

Term
How is bruxism handled for CP and Down's pts with primary dentition?
Definition
- do nothing (stainless crowns are expensive and will wear thru)
Term
What are the major systemic complications associated with Down's Syndrome?
Definition

- leukemia

- congenital heart defects

- intestinal problems

- URT infections with high fevers

Term
Which subset of Down's Syndrome pts require prophylactic antiobiotics? Why?
Definition

- those with congenital heart defects

- they are susceptible to subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)

Term
What is one of the most significant complications for paralytics? What can be done to manage it?
Definition

- bedsores

- have cushions available to minimize shearing forces

Term
What is the major complication of spina bifida? What causes it?
Definition

- hydrocephaly

- stenosis of aqueduct of sylvius (cannot maintain fluid equilibrium b/t lateral ventricles in brain, leading to expansion of one ventricle)

Term
Should you provide antibiotic coverage for ventriculo-atrial shunts? For ventriculo-peritoneal shunts?
Definition

- yes, for procedures that cause bleeding

- no (b/c shunt does not go to heart)

Term
Latex Allergen
Definition
- water soluble proteins from latex used in various dental materials
Term
Latex
Definition
- milky sap derived from rubber tree Hevea brasiliensis
Term
Management of Pts with Latex Allergies
Definition
  • nitrile gloves, dam
  • cover contact areas
  • silk tape
  • elastomeric thread
  • molt mouth prop
  • metal based prohpy brush
  • JP drains
Term
Signs/Symptoms of Allergic Reactions
Definition
  • rash
  • hives
  • itching
  • tearing
  • sneezing, coughing
  • wheezing, difficulty breathing
  • chest pains/tightness
  • throat tightness
  • hypotension
Term
How do you manage a limited allergic reaction?
Definition

Step 1: 1 mg/kg diphenhydramine every 4-6 hrs (max dose 300mg/24hrs) OR .01mL/kg 1:1000 SC epinephrine (max dose 0.5mL)

 

Step 2: 1 mg/kg diphenhydramine every 4-6 hrs for minimum of 48 hrs AND consult physician

Term
What are the signs/symptoms of a myocardial infarction?
Definition

- chest pain

- pain in left shoulder/arm

- pain in lower jaw/neck

- pain in upper back

- nausea, dizziness, vomiting

 

Term
For how many months after a myocardial infarction is a pt at increased risk for a second episode?
Definition
- 3 months (so wait at least 3 months before dental treatment)
Term
How do you manage a pt with chest pain?
Definition

- if pt has been to cardiologist and is managing disease, OK to treat

- if severe, may refer to oral surgeon

- make sure pt has nitroglycerin

- if angina occurs during Tx, stop and let pt take nitroglycerin, then wait for symptoms to resolve

- nitrous OK

Term
CHF
Definition

- congestive heart failure

- enlarged heart from having to pump harder

Term
Signs/Symptoms of CHF
Definition

- shortness of breath

- swelling in extremities (clubbing of fingers = sign of hypoxia)

- tortuous neck veins

Term
At what BP measurement should Tx be postponed?
Definition
- a diastolic of over 100
Term
Is it OK to use nitrous and oral sedation meds with CHF pts?
Definition
- yes (maybe even increase oral sedation dosage for day of Tx)
Term
How should LA administration be altered for CHF pts?
Definition

- don't use anything over 1:100,000 epi

- don't give more than 3 carpules (1.5 for kids)

- aspirate

Term
What are 6 types of congenital heart defects?
Definition
  • ventricular septal defect
  • atrial septal defect
  • patent ductus arteriosus
  • aortic stenosis
  • coarctation of orta
  • tetralogy of fallot
Term
For which heart conditions is antibiotic prophylaxis required?
Definition
  • prosthetic valve or part of valve
  • previous infective endocarditis
  • unrepaired cyanotic CHD, including shunts
  • repaired CHD (with prosthetic material) w/in 6 months of repair (until endothelialization)
  • repaired CHD with residual effects (that prevent endothelialization)
  • cardiac transplant pts with valvulopathy
Term
For which dental procedures do pts with heart disorders require prophylactic antibiotics?
Definition
  • all that involve manipulation of gingiva or periapical region
  • all that involve perforation of oral mucosa
  • E.g., S/RP, oral surgery, prophy (for pts with inflamed gingiva)
Term
Which dental procedures do not require antibiotic prophlyaxis?
Definition
  • routine LA (even thru infection)
  • x-rays
  • placement of removable/ortho appliances (including brackets)
  • adjustment of ortho appliances
  • shedding of deciduous teeth
  • bleeding from trauma to oral mucosa
Term
When should antibiotic coverage be given?
Definition
30-60 min before procedure
Term
What are the dosages for prophylactic antiobiotics?
Definition

Amoxicillin - 2g for adults, 50mg/kg for kids

Clindamycin - 600mg for adults, 20mg/kg for kids

Term
What is more important than prophylactic antibiotics for prevention of IE?
Definition
- good OH
Term
T/F: IE is more likely to result from daily activities like brushing, flossing, and using a toothpick than from dental procedures.
Definition
T
Term
Is antibiotic prophylaxis indicated for pts with nonvalvular indwelling devices?
Definition
- no
Term
Which type of shunts require antibiotic coverage? Which do not?
Definition

coverage - ventriculoatrial and ventriculovenous

no coverage - ventriculoperitoneal

Term
Is antibiotic prophylaxis indicated for pts with prosthetic joints?
Definition
- no (but they may be considered during the first 2 years after implantation)
Term
What if prophylaxis is not administered before the procedure?
Definition
- can take up to 2 hours afterwards
Term
What if a pt that needs prophylactic antibiotics is already on long-term antibiotic treatment?
Definition
- use a different kind for prophylaxis
Term
Is antibioitic coverage indicated for CABG or coronary artery stent pts?
Definition
- no (outside heart, so blood flow less turbulent, so bacteria less likely to colonize)
Term
Why should pts that need antibiotic coverage be scheduled as the first pt in the morning or afternoon?
Definition
- so that you won't get behind and miss their window of coverage
Term
How much time between dental appts are necessary for pts with previous Hx of IE?
Definition
- 7-10 days
Term
In addition to antibiotic coverage, what topical med can be administered to reduce risk of IE?
Definition
- 0.12% chlorhexidine rinse (peridex)
Term
What are fasting blood sugar levels for normal pts, pre-diabetics, and diabetics?
Definition

normal = < 100mg/dL

pre-diabetic = 100-125mg/dL

diabetic = > 125 mg/dL

Term
Besides high blood sugar, what are the signs/symptoms of diabetes?
Definition
  • increased thirst
  • increased hunger w/o weight gain
  • frequent urination
  • weight loss
  • blurred vision
Term
A1C Test
Definition

- measures amt of glycated hemoglobin (amt of sugar sticking to RBCs)

- tells how well diabetic pt is doing over time (2-3 months)

Term
What is the incidence of type I diabetes?
Definition
- 1 in 500 (from 5-18 yrs)
Term
Causes of Type I Diabetes?
Definition

- viral or toxic damage to pancreatic islet cells in kids who are genetically predisposed

- autoimmune damage to ß cells

Term
What are the medical complications of diabetes?
Definition

- kidney failure

- MI

- blindness

Term
What blood sugar level is indicative of hypoglycemia?
Definition
< 70mg/dL
Term
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia
Definition

- incoherence

- bizarre behavior

- dizziness

- seizure

Term
How do you manage a pt with diabetes?
Definition

- make sure they've eaten

- have source of glucose on hand

- stress OH (b/c increased risk of perio disease)

- morning appts (when blood sugar best controlled)

- consult physician before invasive treatment

 

Term
Dental Complications of Diabetes
Definition

- perio disease

- xerostomia

- delayed healing

Term
Is antibiotic coverage needed for diabetics?
Definition
- only if poorly controlled for oral surgery OR if infection present
Term
For HIV and chemo pts, at what PMN count should treatement be postponed/abandoned?
Definition
- less than 1000
Term
What are 3 major causes of immunosuppression?
Definition

- HIV

- chemo

- bone marrow transplants

Term
Signs/Symptoms of Immunosuppression
Definition

- fever

- sore throat

- muscle/joint pain

- swollen glands

Term
Oral Manifestations of AIDS in Kids
Definition

- candidiasis

- atypical (fiery red) gingivitis

- parotid swelling

Term
Oral Manifestations of AIDS in Adults
Definition

- Karposi's sarcoma

- herpes

- hairy leukoplakia

Term
What cellular entity is the key to defense against infection?
Definition
- PMN
Term
At what platelet count does excessive bleeding occur?
Definition
< 50,000
Term
What can be used to treat mucositis in immunocompromised pts?
Definition

- magic mouthwash (careful w/ kids b/c of lidocaine - toxic)

- tylenol

- chlorhexidine

- lasers

Term
What is the most common bleeding disorder?
Definition
- hemophilia
Term
What are the activity levels of blood factors that cause: severe hemophilia and moderate hemophilia?
Definition

severe - less than 1%

moderate - 2-5%

Term
At what level of blood factor activity is it safe to undergo surgery?
Definition
- above 30%
Term
What clotting factor deficiency is responsible for type A hemophilia? What percentage of hemophiliacs have this type?
Definition

- factor VIII

- 85%

Term
A deficiency in which clotting factor is responsible for type B hemophilia?
Definition
- factor IX
Term
T/F: Type A and B hemophilias are X-linked recessive disorders, which means that female carriers never show symptoms.
Definition
F - it is X-linked recessive, but female carriers may still show symptoms
Term
Management of Hemophiliacs
Definition
  • if pt has had replacement therapy, OK to treat
  • do as much as possible in 1 visit to limit need for replacement therapy
  • normal replacement therapy contraindicated for hemophiliacs w/ inhibitors
  • tell hemotologist before procedure (especially if giving an IAN)
  • use 27 gauge to facilitate aspiration
  • if aspirate positive, then move needle and continue injection, but keep pt for a few hrs after procudure
  • protect soft tissue (careful with film)
  • never prescribe aspirin-containing meds

 

Term
T/F: Hemophiliacs bleed faster than other patients.
Definition
F
Term
What is the only suitable test for hemophilia? Why?
Definition

- partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

- prothrombin time, bleeding time, platelet function and count are w/in normal limits, but PTT is prolonged in mod-severe cases (may be normal in mild cases)

 

Term
What percentage of type A hemophiliacs have no family Hx of disease?
Definition
20-30%
Term
In type A hemophila, factor VIII levels are __, but factor VIII coagulation activity is __.
Definition

- normal

- reduced

Term
Type B hemophilia makes up what percentage of hemophiliacs?
Definition
12-15%
Term
Hemophilia C, a factor __ deficiency, is a(n) __ recessive disorder.
Definition

- XI

- autosomal

Term
Clinical Manifestations of Hemophilia
Definition

- joint and muscle bleeding (most common)

- post-op bleeding

- easy bruising

- social, psychological, vocational problems

- lack of excessive hemorrhage from cuts b/c platelets are normal

- mucosal bleeding infrequent

Term
Therapy for Hemophilia
Definition
  • fresh frozen plasma
  • cryoprecipitate
  • recombitant DNA
  • amicar (slows clot breakdown)
  • concentrates (most common) - take blood from donors and concentrate into powder, pts administer themselves
Term
What are factor VIII inhibitors?
Definition
- antibodies to factor VIII (seen in 10-15% of hemophiliacs)
Term
What is done to bypass factor VIII inhibitors?
Definition

- give such a high dose of factor VIII that body can't make enough antibodies

- give factor IX, hoping that body will make antibodies to it instead

Term
What are some local measures taken to reduce bleeding in hemophiliacs?
Definition

- adrenaline

- topical thrombin

- absorbable collagen

- pressure

 

Term
What 2 blood components are affected in Von Willebrand disease?
Definition

- factor VIII (deficiency)

- platelets (adhesion disorder)

Term
T/F: Von Willebrand disease is X-linked recessive.
Definition
F - it is autosomal dominant
Term
T/F: Platelet count in Von Willebrand disease is normal.
Definition
T
Term
Signs of Von Willebrand Disease
Definition

- severe, frequent nosebleeds

- bruising easily

- prolonged menstruation

Term
What 2 complications are especially prevalent in chemo patients?
Definition

- bleeding (decreased platelets)

- infection (decreased lymphocytes)

Term
Syncope
Definition
- when blood leaves brain
Term
What cardio symptoms are associated with syncope?
Definition

- bradycardia

- hypotension

Term
Management of Syncope
Definition

- if not sure what to do, call 911

- trendelenburg

- ammonium carpules

- rag on face or back of neck

- refer pt to physician to make sure not due to underlying condition

Term
Autonomic Dysreflexia
Definition

- when ANS pathways disrupted (e.g., by spinal cord injury)

- afferents sense that bladder is full, but cannot relay message to relax sphincter and empty bladder

- BP increases until bladder empty, so will increase indefinitely unless catheterized

- make sure bladder bag not full before Tx

Term
Management of Scoliosis
Definition

- get consult from physician for sedation (especially w/ respiratory depressors like hydrocodone)

- get chest x-ray to determine lung capacity

- ask pt how they can best be seated

Term
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Definition

- x-linked recessive defect in dystrophin gene (for muscular protein)

- causes progressive muscular degeneration

- poor prognosis

Term
What are the 2 main causes of death in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Definition

- inability to breathe (due to muscle degeneration)

- CHF (heart tries to pump hard to compensate for respiratory difficulties)

Term
Symptoms of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Definition

- delayed muscle development

- drooling

- ptosis

- ataxia / frequent falls

- difficulty breathing

Term
Duchenne muscular dystrophy pts are prone to what kind of condition affecting body temp?
Definition
- malignant hyperthermia
Term
How is malignant hyperthermia managed?
Definition

- dantrolene Na

- manages fulminant hypermetabolism of skeletal muscle

Term
Characteristics of Hypohydrotic Ectodermal Dysplasia
Definition

- hypodontia

- hypotrichosis

- hypohydrosis (can lead to malignant hypothermia)

- angular chelitis

- cone-shaped incisors

- saddle-shaped nose

- face like inverted triangle

Term
What type of genetic disorder is hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia?
Definition
- x-linked recessive
Term
What component of skin is missing in epidermolysis bullosa?
Definition
- desmosomes b/t dermis and epidermis
Term
T/F: Epidermolysis bullosa may diminish with age.
Definition
T
Term
What are the 4 types of epidermolysis bullosa?
Definition

- autosomal dominant simplex (no scarring)

- autosomal dominant dystrophic (scarring)

- autosomal recessive dystrophic (scarring)

- autosomal recessive lethalis (early death)

Term
What medication can be used to diminish sores from epidermolysis bullosa?
Definition
- dilantin
Term
What is the dental prognosis of hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia?
Definition

- very good

- dentures when young (adjusted as they grow)

- implants when older

Term
What are the dental ramifications of epidermolysis bullosa?
Definition

- enamel hypoplasia (increased decay)

- taurodont molars

Term
How do you manage a pt with epidermolysis bullosa during a procedure?
Definition
- everything that touches skin must have (corticosteroid) cream on it to reduce friction
Term
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Definition

- autoimmune reaction to antibiotics (e.g., sulfur, penicillin)

- can have erythema multiforme (target lesions)

- can have permanent systemic sequelae

- can have uneruption of permanent teeth

Term
What type of genetic disorder is neurofibromatosis?
Definition
- autosomal dominant
Term
T/F: Neurofibromatosis has one of the lowest mutation rates of any genetic disorder.
Definition
F - it has one of the highest (can pop up w/ no family Hx)
Term
Osteogenesis Imperfecta Characteristics
Definition

- fragile bones (fractures)

- blue sclera

- dentinogenesis imperfecta

- deafness

- joint laxility

- skin fragility

- hernias

- cardiac valvular insufficiency

Term
Neurofibromatosis Type I Dx Criteria
Definition
  • 6+ cafe au lait spots
  • 2+ neurofibromas of any kind OR 1 plexiform neurofibroma
  • freckling of axilla or groin
  • 2+ lisch nodules (benign iris hamartomas)
  • hearing loss
Term
Plexiform Neurofibroma
Definition

- forms in deep tissue

- has fingerlike projections that cannot be removed

Term
T/F: Neurofibromatosis can be highly disfiguring.
Definition
T
Term
What are 2 diseases that involve taurodont molars?
Definition

- Down's syndrome

- epidermolysis bullosa

Term
What is meant by the multifactorial etiology of cleft lip/palate?
Definition
- it involves multiple (poly)genes and environmental factors
Term
What is the most infrequent presentation of cleft deformities: cleft lip alone, cleft palate alone, or both together?
Definition
- cleft palate alone
Term
T/F: Isolated cleft palate occurs more frequently in males.
Definition
F - more frequently in females
Term
T/F: Isolated cleft palate is purely an autosomal dominant disease.
Definition
F - can be autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, or x-linked
Term
What hereditary conditions are characterized by supernumerary teeth?
Definition

- cleidocranial dysplasia

- gardner syndrome

- cleft lip/palate

Term
What hereditary conditions are characterized by enamel hypoplasia?
Definition
  • ectodermal dysplasias
  • epidermolysis bullosa
  • mucopolysaccharidosis
  • tuberous sclerosis
  • cleft lip/palate
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