A potassium sparing diuretic that acts by antagonism of aldosterone in the distal renal tubules.
treatment of refractory edema in patients with congestive heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, or hepatic cirrhosis.
Spironolactone
Term
What are loop diuretics and what are they used for?
Definition
diuretic with fast onset and short duration that is used for edema and chronic renal insufficiency
Furosimide
inhibits water reabsorption in the nephron by blocking the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter (NKCC2) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, through competitive inhibition at the chloride binding site on the cotransporter, thus preventing the transport of sodium from the lumen of the loop of Henle into the basolateral interstitium. Consequently, the lumen becomes more hypertonic while the interstitium becomes less hypertonic, which in turn diminishes the osmotic gradient for water reabsorption throughout the nephron. Because the thick ascending limb is responsible for 25% of sodium reabsorption in the nephron, furosemide is a very potent diuretic.
Term
What is a thiazide diuretic?
What diseases it is used?
Definition
reduces the reabsorption of electrolytes from the renal tubules. This results in increased excretion of water and electrolytes, including sodium, potassium, chloride, and magnesium. It has been used in the treatment of several disorders including edema, hypertension, diabetes insipidus, and hypoparathyroidism
Hydrochlorothiazide
Term
Hypokalemia is least likely to be associated with which one of the following drugs or conditions?
Spironolactone
Diabetes mellitus
Thiazide diuretics
Loop Diuretics
Definition
Spironolatone
K+ sparing diuretic
Term
Schistiocytes are likey to be seen in which of the following conditions
Hemangiosarcoma
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
caval syndrome
DIC
Definition
all of them
Term
what is a schistiocyte?
Definition
Some of the irregular shapes appear as "helmet" cells. Such fragmented RBC's are known as "schistocytes" and they are indicative of a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA) or other cause for intravascular hemolysis. This finding is typical for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC).
Term
what is a hemagiosarcoma
Definition
also called malignant hemangioendothelioma or angiosarcoma is a deadly cancer that originates in the endothelium and invades the blood vessels. Hemangiosarcoma is more common in dogs than any other species.
Term
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
is what?
Definition
falls under the acquired group of hemolytic anemias. In this type of hemolytic anemia, the red cells are ripped apart by physical trauma. Often the trauma results from red cells getting snagged as they try to pass through vessels laden with fibrin strands
Term
what is caval syndrome
Definition
Caval syndrome is a life-threatening presentation of heartworm disease. The outstanding features of the syndrome are severe tricuspid regurgitation with poor cardiac output and intravascular red cell lysis with resultant hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria. The hemoglobinuria is usually marked resulting in dark brown to black urine color.
Term
What si DIC
Definition
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a syndrome characterized by the systemic activation of coagulation, leading to widespread microvascular thrombosis which compromises organ perfusion and can contribute to organ failure. The ongoing activation of coagulation may exhaust platelet and coagulation factors, resulting in a hypocoagulable state and bleeding
Term
WHAT causes DIC
Definition
Systemic inflammation, sepsis, neoplasia
Leukocytes release cytokines, notably tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α, interleukin (IL)-1 and IL-6, which are the pathophysiologic initiators of DIC
Term
Common complications associated doxorubicin
therapy include
Definition
Vomit or anorexia 3-5 days after administration
Severe necrotising cellulitis even with a small amt is extravasated
Dialted cardiomyopathy
Severe nuetropenia within 14 days of administration
Term
what is doxorubricin
Definition
cytotoxic anthracycline antibiotic antineoplastic
Term
If a dog is diagnosed with mitral valve disease adn is given enalapril and fuorosimide and becomes azotemic, what must you do?
Definition
Decrease the Lasix by 50% and recheck 2 weeks.
An increase in BUN and Creat (azotemia) may be due to dehydration from the loop diuretic
Term
[image]
Definition
Term
Transtracheal wash is a common diagnostic procedure for obtaining cytologic samples of the respiratory pathway.
Where is the needle inserted for this procedure?
How much sterile saline is inserted in small dogs as opposed to larger dogs?
Does it require general Ax?
Definition
Needle should be planced at the cricothyroid ligament or between two rings
3-5ml small dogs
10-20 large dogs
NO
Term
T or F
Fungal organisms are frequently isolated from transtracheal washes
Definition
FALSE
Term
Concerning nasal Cryptococcosis in small animals,
Direct extension to the central nervous system can occur in cats.
T or F
Definition
True
Term
T or F
Cryptococcus neoformans is the most common feline fungal rhinitis
Definition
TRUE
Term
this animal _____________is a reservoir for Cryptococcosis.
Definition
The common pigeon is a reservoir for Cryptococcosis.
Term
This microbial infection May be associated with interstitial nodular lung disease in cats
Definition
Cryptococcus (fungal)
Term
A fungal disease in cats associated with sneezing, nasal discharge, inspiratatory stridor, snoring and dyspnea
Definition
cryptococcus
Term
How is Cryptococcus fungal infections be differentiated from neoplasia?
Definition
Term
Concerning the clinical signs of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB) in dogs
tracheal palpation always elicits a cough
T or F
Definition
FALSE
Term
the clinical signs of Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB) in dogs
is usually associated with ______
Definition
usually associated with paroxysmal coughing
Term
Laryngitis is frequently encountered dogs with Infectious Tracheobronchitis (ITB)
t or f
Definition
TRUE
Term
The onset of clinical signs in dogs with tracheal bronchitis is usually _______days following exposure.
Definition
3-10 days
Term
t or f
Definition
TRUE
Term
WHat is the pathophysiology of laryngeal paralysis in dogs
What muscle is a major player?
What does airflow from trying to breath harder do to worsen the disease?
Definition
1.With a non-functioning cricoarytenoideus dorsal muscle, the glottic cleft is narrowed therefore increasing the resistance to airflow during inspiration
2. During exercise, airflow turbulance and velocity of airflow through the glottic cleft is increased.
The tuburlance of airflow and inceased velocity of airflow through the narrowed glottic cleft result in edema and inflammation to the larynx further narrowing the glottic cleft.
Term
In canine distemper, how is it spread and where does it 1st localize to?
What tissues are affected?
How is it causing disease?
Definition
Aerosolized
Lymphnodes
Lymph and epithleal tissues
Immunosuppressive lymphocytic and alters cytokin response
Term
concerning the clinical pathological findings in cats with feline asthma,
WHich is true?
Mycoplasma spp. is an uncommon bacterial isolate in cats with lower respiratory diseases
Intracellular bacteria is supportive of a true bacterial infection.
Definition
All are ture
Term
Concerning feline upper respiratory tract infection complex in kittens,
besides servere nasal disease from FHV-I, what is occuring in the eyes?
Definition
panophthalmitis may also be present
Term
Concerning feline upper respiratory tract infection complex, FCalici V has an afinity for the oral cavity and leads to oral ulcerations
t or f
Definition
true
Term
FHV-1 has an afinity for areas of ______which in the cat leads of necrosis and destruction of the nasal turbinates
Definition
osteogenesis
Term
Which diseases make up feline respiratory tract complex
Definition
feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1), feline calicivirus (FCV) and Clamydia psittaci.
Term
Clamydia psittaci also has an afinity for the nasal cavity and caused necrosis of the nasal turbinates like FHV-1 infections
T or F
Definition
FALSE
Term
1-Petey is a 3-year-old F/S Calico that the owner brought to your clinic with history of gradual progressive abdominal distension and a selective appetite. Her vital signs include the following:
Temperature = 99.0
Pulse = 200 bpm but weak
Respiration = 60 pm
Petey appears lethargic, has pale mucus membranes, has a grade III/IV heart murmur heard best on the right side, and is dehydrated.
Based on the history and physical findings, which one of the following is NOT correct concerning Petey's condition?
Definition
this one is fishy, read LI 1,2,5,7,8,17
Term
what consitutes a "modified" transudate?
Protein_____
Cells present________
Definition
Fluid protein = 2.5 – 7.5 g/dl
Cells = 1000 - 7000/ul. Nondegenerate neutrophils, macrophages, mesothelial cells, small lymphocytes, or neoplastic cells may predominate.
Either increased protein levels OR increased cell count qualify an effusion as a modified transudate, and this category encompasses the vast majority of effusions.
Term
this disease of cats causes a modified transudate or exudative effusion in either the abdominal or thoracic cavity of cats
Definition
FIP
Term
Fluid transudates have a fluid protein >_____
Cell count of: ______
2 Disease processes that cause transudates
Definition
2.5 g/dl
> 2500
Chronic hepatic dz
Hypoproteinemia
Term
Exudates have a fluid protein greater than
>_______
Definition
>3.0
Term
what is the most common cause for pneumomediastinum
Definition
Air escaping into the lung interstitium from sites of alveolar rupture that subsequently diffuses in a retrograde manor to the hilar region and into the mediastinum.
Term
How can you tell one of the signs of heartworm dz in dogs by looking at the apex of the heart on the R Lat view
Definition
The apex will be lifted away from the sternum because there is enlargment of the right side of the heart, however on the L Lat this is considered normal.
Term
When a dog has heart worm, what major artery is seen to be very enlarged in the VD/DV view of a radiograph at the 1 o'clock position
Definition
Main pulmonary artery
Term
In pathogenesis of acid aspiration lung injury explain what happens in
Phases 1,2, and 3
Definition
P1:Occurs immediately following aspiration and results in chemical burns which results in bronchial epithelial degeneration, pulmonary edema, hemorrhage, atelectasis and necrosis of alveolar macrophages. This bronchial epithelimal damage results is bronchoconstriction and increased mucus production.
P2: begins 4 to 6 hours results in increased capillary permeability, high protein pulmonary edema and sequestration of neutrophiles. The increased capillary permeability leads to pulmonary hypertension in the region of injury and hypovolemia due to fluid loss in the lungs
P3: secondary bacterial infections occur and result in pneumonia within 72 hours
Term
T or F
Definition
True
Term
In canines, which one of the following cardiopulmonary diseases would be least likely to cause coughing?
Pulmonary edema secondary to mitral insufficiency and pulmonary edema
Left atrial enlargement with compression of the left mainstembronchus
Pulmonary embolism
Collapsing trachea
Definition
Collapsing trachea
Term
Which of the paraneoplastic syndromes may be associated with primary or metastatic lung tumors?
Definition
hypertrophic osteopathy
Term
Antitussives such as Hydrocodone (Hycodan, Tussigon) can reduce coughing by their action on ______________
Definition
The cough center in the pons of the brainstem
Term
Kennel cough caused by Bordatella bronchiseptica has a primary mechanism of stimulating which afferent pathway of the cough reflex?
Definition
Stretch receptors in the submucosa of the tracheobronchial tree
Term
How is chylothorax treated?
Definition
1. low fat diet
2. periodic throacocentesis
3. Use of benzopyrone drug like Rutin used to treat lymphedema in humans
The exact mechanism of action is unknown; however, it has been proposed that rutin reduces leakage from blood vessels, increases proteolysis and removal of protein from tissues, and enhances macrophage phagocytosis of chyle
Term
What is Rutin and how does it work?
Definition
Used to reduce lymphedema
The exact mechanism of action is unknown; however, it has been proposed that rutin reduces leakage from blood vessels, increases proteolysis and removal of protein from tissues, and enhances macrophage phagocytosis of chyle
Term
Mylelinated stretch receptors within the mucosa of the tracheal-bronchial tree are involved in the afferent pathways involved in coughing.
T or F
Definition
TRUE
Term
Where are the mylelinated stretch receptorsthat are involved in the afferent pathways involved in coughing.
Definition
within the mucosa of the tracheal-bronchial tree
Term
Unmyelinated pulmonary C-fibers located close to ______ in the afferent pathway of coughing
Definition
blood vessels
Term
These ________-fibers within the peripheral airways, are involved in the afferent pathways of canine cough
This major nerve is involved in the afferent pathway of coughing....?
Definition
Bronchial C-fibers within the peripheral airways
Vagus
Term
Chylothorax has been associated with cardiac diseases that cause increase venous pressure.
Which parasiticic cardiac disease would be associated with increased venous pressure?
Definition
Heartworm disease
Term
Chylothorax has been associated with cardiac diseases that cause increase venous pressure.
Does Pericardial effusion cause increased venous pressure?
Definition
YES
Term
Congenital cardic defects can be associated with increased venous pressure?
Definition
YES
Term
Would Cardiomyopathy be associated with increased venous pressure
Definition
YES
Term
Would Mitral insufficieny be associated with increased venous pressure?
Definition
NO
Term
Fibrosing pleuritis, a sequella to ________, results in thickening and fibrosing of the which results in visceral pleura that results in compression atelectasis of the lung lobes. Which diseases may also be associated with fibrosing pleuritis?
4
Definition
Term
During a bronchoscopic examination of a dog in sternal recumberncy, which is the most cranial major bronchus leaving a main-stem bronchus ventrally?
Definition
Right middle bronchus
Term
The high triglycerides and low cholesterol levels are indicatative of ________
Definition
Chylothorax
Term
Fisher was presented because he has been coughing, retching, and lethargic and has had labored breathing especially in the last three weeks. Four weeks ago he had an episode of collapse while playing fetch. It took him approximately ten minutes to recover from the collapse, but he was conscious and responsive during the episode. Fisher was taken to his veterinarian for an ECG, CBC, chemistry panel, urinalysis. CBC showed a regenerative anemia (HCT=31%) and eosinophilia of 2,992/uL. His chemistry panel indicated hypoalbuminemia (2.1) and an increased globulin (5.4). Urinalysis showed SG=1.023 and 3+ proteinuria. His ventrodorsal radiograph is provided.
What is the most likely cause of the hypoalbuminemia (2.1) and 3+ proteinuria?
Definition
Immune complex glomerular nephritis
Term
A 1-year-old female Collie is presented for a routine physical examination. A 4/6 cardiac murmur is ausculted over the left heart base. The dog is tachycardic and the murmur cannot be further characterized. The femoral pulses are bounding. Given only this information, which one of the following conditions can explain the patient's problem?
Definition
PDA
Term
A 3-year-old M/C Persian cat is presented for dyspnea. He is eventually discovered to have a chylothorax. What 4 conditions would cause chylothorax in felines?
Definition
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Heart worm
Right heart failure
Trauma
Term
Which parenchymal lung pattern is commonly observed on radiographs of dogs with bacterial pneumonia
Definition
Alveolar pattern
Alveolus fill with bacteria and pus and you can see air bronchograms over the diseased lung
Term
You take a thoracic radiograph of a 10-year-old dog with a 6-week history of dyspnea and weight loss. The cardiac silhouette is greatly enlarged and has a spherical shape. What can cause these radiographic findings?
Definition
pericardial-peritoneal disphragmatic hernia
Pericarditis - inflammed pericardial sac
heart base tumor - leaking into pericaradial sac
pericardial tumor - of the pericardial sac leaking
Term
A radiograph was showing
a widened, radiolucent pleural space. partial collapse of lung lobes widened opaque interlobar fissure lines. blunting of the costophrenic angles on the ventrodorsal views.
what disease process is happening here to cause these signs?
Definition
Pleural effusion
Term
Pneumothorax may cause what findings on radiographs?
Definition
a widened, radiolucent pleural space.
partial collapse of lung lobes.
absence of vascular and interstitial markings outside of the lung lobes
apparent elevation of the heart off the sternum on the lateral views.
Term
An 8-year-old castrated male beagle is presented for lethargy and abdominal distension. The dog has a 3/6 systolic murmur over the left cardiac apex. There is a palpable fluid wave in the abdomen and there is a prominent jugular pulse. Lung sounds and respiratory rate are normal. (The following six (6) questions are related to this patient)
Given only this information, what is the most likely cause of this dog's clinical signs?
Clinical signs are caused by which cardiac pathological mechanism
Definition
Heart worm disease
'
Right sided heart failure
Term
An 8-year-old castrated male beagle is presented for lethargy and abdominal distension. The dog has a 3/6 systolic murmur over the left cardiac apex. There is a palpable fluid wave in the abdomen and there is a prominent jugular pulse. Lung sounds and respiratory rate are normal. (The following six (6) questions are related to this patient)
Definition
Term
An 8-year-old castrated male beagle is presented for lethargy and abdominal distension. The dog has a 3/6 systolic murmur over the left cardiac apex. There is a palpable fluid wave in the abdomen and there is a prominent jugular pulse. Lung sounds and respiratory rate are normal.
Given only this information, the dog's clinical signs are primarily secondary to which of the following?
Definition
Pulmonary arterial disease
Term
An 8-year-old castrated male beagle is presented for lethargy and abdominal distension. The dog has a 3/6 systolic murmur over the left cardiac apex. There is a palpable fluid wave in the abdomen and there is a prominent jugular pulse. Lung sounds and respiratory rate are normal.
The dog's cardiac murmur is caused by which of the following?
Definition
Tricuspid valve insufficency
Term
An 8-year-old castrated male beagle is presented for lethargy and abdominal distension. The dog has a 3/6 systolic murmur over the left cardiac apex. There is a palpable fluid wave in the abdomen and there is a prominent jugular pulse. Lung sounds and respiratory rate are normal.
What would be be a likely cause of the jugular pulse in this patient?
name 4 cardiac diseases
Definition
Pulmonary hypertension
Heart worm dz
R heart failure
pulmonary artery dz
Term
What is occuring in Caudal Vena Caval Syndrome....
1. what type of anemia is present?
2. What is a common finding in the urine?
3. What is the morphology of the RBCs
4. How are adult worms removed and from where?
Definition
Term
1-Inka is an 11-year-old F/S Whippet that was presented because respiratory distress. Inka's hisotry included decreased exercise intolerance, dyspnea, tachypnea (85 rpm) and an event that the owner described as syncopy that occured twice in the past 3-months associated with excitement. She was treated by the referring veterinarian with Lasix® at 5 mg daily. Inka responded to the Lasix® but has been unable to sleep in lateral recumbency for the past 2-3 days. She lives in North-Eastern United States and has been on heart worm preventative. Her last heartworm antigen test was negative.
On physical examination her CRT was 3 sec, mucus membranes were of normal color, her temperature was 100.1, her respiratory rate was 55 rpm, her heart rate was 130 bpm, her femoral pulse was strong and no jugular vein distension was present. A grade 4/5 holosystolic murmur was ausculted with a PMI at the cardiac apex on the left side at the 5th intercostal space. Crackles were encountered in the lungs on auscultation as well as the murmur.
What cardiac pathology is occuring here?
Definition
Chronic valvular disease and congestive heart failure
Term
4-Which of the following diseases are the two most important acquired cardiac diseases that cause left-sided congestive heart failrue in dogs?
Definition
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and degenerative mitral valvular disease
Term
5-On Inka's ECG the only abnormality was a P-wave width of 0.06 seconds on lead II. All other measurements were normal. Based on the abnormal width of the P-wave, which one of the following is the most likely cause of this abnormality?
Definition
Enlarged Left atrium
Term
5-On Inka's ECG the only abnormality was a P-wave width of 0.06 seconds on lead II. All other measurements were normal. Based on the abnormal width of the P-wave, what is the most likely cause of this abnormality?
Definition
Left atrial enlargement (LAE) is due to pressure or volume overload of the left atrium.
It is often a precursor to atrial fibrillation.
Term
6-Based on your findings of chronic degenerative mitral valvular disease and congestive heart failure, which of the following treatements should be initiated immediately because of Inka's respiratoary dystress?
Definition
Furosimide
Term
When administered orally, furosimide has a half life of
Definition
1-1.5 hrs
Term
Where in the kidney does furosimide exert its effects?
Decreases reabsorption of _____ and _____ where?
Increases excretion of ______ where?
Definition
Acts in the ascending loop of Henle by decreasing the reabsorption of both sodium and chloride, and increasing the excretion of potassium in the distal renal tubule
Term
In regards to furosimide, In dogs, excretion of ____ is less effected than excretion of ______ and hypo____emia may occur
Definition
K
Na
Hyponatremia
Term
concerning the pharmacology and pharmakokinetics of ACE Inhibitor (Enacard®, Enalapril Maleate®, Benazepril®, Captopril®) in dogs
these drugs are vasodialtors
T or F
Definition
True
Term
concerning the pharmacology and pharmakokinetics of ACE Inhibitor (Enacard®, Enalapril Maleate®, Benazepril®, Captopril®) in dogs
These drugs are converted to ______ in the liver which prevents what
Definition
Is converted in the liver to enalaprilat which prevents the formation of angiotensin II by competing with angiotensin I for the enzyme Angiotensin-Converting Enzyyme.
Term
Is converted in the liver to enalaprilat which prevents the formation of angiotensin II by competing with angiotensin I for the enzyme Angiotensin-Converting Enzyyme.
As angiotensin II is decreased, aldosterone secretion also is reduced and plasma renin activity is increased
T or F
Definition
TRUE
Term
T or F
ACE inhibitors are vasodilators and help to reduce total peripheral resistance, pulmonary vascular resistance, mean arterial and right atrial pressures.
Definition
True
Term
concerning the pharmacology and pharmakokinetics of Digoxin-Elixir or Digoxin-tablets (Cardoxin®) in dogs heart failure, Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside which has a narrow margin of safety
T or F
Definition
True
Term
Digoxin has an _______ effect on the heart and increases myocardial contractility and therefore _____
Definition
Ionotropic effect
CO
Term
T or F
Digoxin causes an increased diuresis and reduction in edema secondary to decrease in sympathetic tone
Definition
True
Term
T or F
Digoxin causes a reduction in heart size, heart rate, blood volume, and pulmonary and venous pressure.
Definition
True
Term
Based on these measurements, which of the following statements is accurate concerning these measurements?
P-wave interval = 0.05 - 0.06 sec
P-wave amplitude = 0.3 to 0.4 millivolts
R amplitude = 2.1 millivolts
QRS duration = 0.07 sec
Definition
Left atrium enlarged
P interval is wide
Term
Definition
mitral valve
mitral valve
Term
The predominant physiologic abnormality in DCM in dogs is due to what?
Definition
Term
concerning the treatment rational for dogs with DCM and CHF what should be done?
Treat pulmonary edema with__________
Reduce _____ in diet
Increase cardiac contractility by use of positive _____ drugs
Reduce the activity of this pathway________ via what drug?
Reduce preload to help reduce pulmonary edema by use of what drugs in combo?
Definition
Furosimide
Reduce
Term
1-Odie is a 3-year-old M/C Devon Rex with a history of respiratory distress. On physical examination, his weightis 3.6 kg, has a heart rate of 180 bpm, respiratory rate of 48 rpm, his mucus membranes are pink and his CRT is <2sec. The femoral pulses were fair and no jugular pulses were noted. Abdominal palpation revealed NAF and his fundic examination was also normal.
On thoracic auscultation, his has increased lung crackles ventrally. There is gallop rhythm and a grade 3/5 pansystolic murmur with the PMI at the left apex. The heart rate is tachycardic and upon palpation of the chest, there is an apex beat that is stronger on the left side than the right.
Based on these findings, which of the following differential considerations is most likely?
Definition
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Term
-Benny-is a 6-year-old M/C Doberman Pinscher that was presented for vomiting. Benny was treated for pancreatitis by his referring veterinarian but did not respond. Benny was referred to a specialist who encountered muffled heart sounds and obtained radiographs which indicated an enlarged heart.
On PE, Benny was reluctant to stand, was in sternal recumbency and was moderately dehydrated. He was tachycardic (HR = 200 bpm) and had a respiratory rate of 30 rpm. His lungs ausculted normal. His mucus membranes were pale and he had muffled heart sounds. His femoral pulses would decrease during inspiration and increase during expiration. He had no ausculatable murmur but had jugular vein distension. His abdomen was not distended and on abdominal palpation no organ enlargement or fliuid could be palpated. No peripheral lymphedema was palpated in the extremities.
Based on these presenting signs, history and findings on the physical examination, what disorder is most likely ?
Definition
Pericardial effusion...muffling heart sounds and tachycardia
Term
What medications can be used to help cardiac A fib
Definition
Digoxin, beta blockers and calcium channel blocker
could all be used to slow the rhythm down and therefore reduce the tachycardiac effect on cardiac output. By reducing the tachycardia, they would also reduce the effect of atrial fibrillation on atrial filling.
Term
What does the P wave indicate in ECG
Definition
The activation of the atrial myocardium, and subsequent P-wave, is the result in a signal from the SA (pacemaker) node in the right atrium
Term
Parasympathetic innervation of the heart is provided by______ and it innervates what 2 nodes and which chambers?
Definition
The vagus nerve innervates the SA nodes, AV node and atria.
Term
The right and left branches of the ______ nerve have different distributions in the SA and AV nodes
Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart is medicated by this NT
Definition
Vagus
Acetylcholine
Term
The P-R interval indicates what?
Should it be longer than the P wave?
It is the result of slow conduction through the ___ node
Definition
The PR interval is longer than the duration of the P-wave.
The PR interval is the delay in electrical activation of the ventricles afer SA node discharge
The PR interval is the result in the slow conduction through the SA node
Term
The S wave can either be + or - in the QRS complex
T or F
Definition
False always negative
Term
T or F
The T-wave is an expression of repolarization of the ventricles.
Definition
True
Term
T or F
Repolarization starts at the epicardium and travels to endocardium
Definition
True
Term
The T-wave can have be positive, negative, biphasic or notched in its deflection
T or F
Definition
TRUE
Term
1st degree Heart Blocks represent a group of disorders characterized by variable degrees of conduction through the atria and ventricles.
In dogs, a 1st degree Heart Block has a prolonged PR interval of > ____sec.
Definition
0.13 sec
Term
In 1st degree Heart Blocks there is a P-wave for every QRS complex and a QRS complex for every P-wave.
T or F
Definition
TRUE
Term
Which cardiac pharmaceuticals can cause a 1st degree heart block?
Definition
Digitalis
Beta blockers
Ca channel blockers
Procainamide
Quinidine
Term
What is the main mechanism of beta blockers
Name 1 drug
Definition
Beta-blockers block the action of the sympathetic nervous system of the heart, thus reducing stress on the heart. Reduce hypertension.
Atenalol
Term
What is the main mechanism of Ca channel blockers
Name 1 drug
Definition
acts primarily on vascular smooth muscle cells by stabilizing voltage-gated L-type calcium channels in their inactive conformation. By inhibiting the influx of calcium in smooth muscle cells, amlodipine prevents calcium-dependent myocyte contraction and vasoconstriction
Amlodipine
Term
what is procainamide
what effect can it have on the heart?
Definition
Procainamide is sodium channel blocker. It stabilizes the neuronal membrane by inhibiting the ionic fluxes required for the initiation and conduction of impulses thereby effecting local anesthetic action.
can cause 1st Degree heart block
Term
what causes 2nd degree heart block Mobitz 2
Definition
The 2nd degree Heart Block (Mobitz II) is caused by a failure of the SA impulses to propaged through the Bundle of His and through the bundle branches.
Term
will 2nd degree heart block lead to tachy cardia?
Definition
NO
Term
In 3rd degree heart block, The atrial rate and rhythm is independent/dependent of the slower ventricular rate and rhythm
Definition
independent
Term
What effect does Atropine have on 3rd degree heart blocks
Definition
Nothing, Atropine will not help
Term
Isoproterenol given IV may increase the ventricular rate in 3rd degree heart block T or F
Definition
True - it is a sympathomimetic and is used to treat certain heart arrythmias (heart block) and also relaxes smooth muscle of the respiratory tract to help breathing.
Term
What might be the only treatment for 3rd degree heart block
Definition
pace maker
Term
A 3/6 holosystolic murmur is auscultated over left cardiac apex in a six-year-old, spayed female, miniature poodle. Based only on this information, what is the most likely cause of this murmur?
Definition
Mitral valve endocardiosis
Term
A 6-year-old, spayed female, King Charles Cavalier Spaniel is presented for coughing. A 4/6 holosystolic cardiac murmur is auscultated over the mitral valve. Lung sounds, respiratory rate and effort are normal. Thoracic radiographs reveal marked left atrial enlargement, but no evidence of pulmonary edema. There are no other abnormalities noted on physical exam. Given only this information, what is the most appropriate treatment?
Definition
enalapril and hycodan
Term
Describe anemia of chronic disease in terms of MCV, MCHC ect. How quickly does it come on during disease? Has a PCV range of (____ to _____%)
Definition
Normocytic, normochromoic non-regenerative
in as little as 2 weeks.with a PCV 18-35%
Term
T or F With ACD, the anemia is caused by a shortening of the erythrocyte life span.
Definition
true
Term
T or F With ACD, disorders in iron metabolism that result in low serum iron, low serum
transferrin and it's saturation, increased serum ferritin, and reduced iron absorption.
Definition
True
Term
T or F With ACD, the erythropoiten production is normal but response by erythroid
progenator cells is impaired.
Definition
True
Term
Thrombocytopenia is encountered up to 50% of the animals with _________(Dz).
Definition
lymphoma
Term
Thrombocytopenia may be due to a shortened life span due to tumor stimulated microaggregation. T or F
Definition
True
Term
T or F Thrombocytopenia may be due to an immune-mediated mechanism caused
antibodies against the platelets or cross-reactivity between platelets and tumor antigens and is encountered in 85% of cancer patients.
Definition
False
Term
Thrombocytopenia may be caused by microangiopathy, which results in fragmentation of RBC and platelets. T or F
Definition
True
Term
What is microangiopathy
Definition
Capillaries become small and the walls become weak and leak leading to a loss of circulating RBC and Platlelts
Term
T or F Thrombocytopenia may be caused by decreased production due to tumor infiltration of the bone marrow.
Definition
True
Term
In paraneoplastic syndrome, Hypercalcemia of malignancy is most frequently associated with what disease?
Definition
Lymphoma
Term
T or F Hypercalcemia of malignancy is more frequently encountered in cat than dogs.
Definition
False
Term
Hypercalcemia of malignancy is thought to be caused by the neoplastic production of a ____-related peptide.
Definition
PTH related peptide
Term
Hypercalcemia of malignancy in dogs is most frequently encountered with Tor B-cell lymphocytes and anterior/posterior mediastinal masses.
Definition
T cell Anterior
Term
T or F The most significant manifestation of hypercalcemia of malignancy is related to its effect on the kidneys.
Definition
True
Term
T or F The Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever have easily be differentiated from canine monocytic ehrlickiosis by its clinical signs and duration.
Definition
False same onset and similar signs
Term
What tick transmits Erhlichia vs Rockymountain Spotted Fever
Definition
Erhlichia - Lone Star tick (Ehrlichia ewingii bacteria) RMSF- Dermacenter varibilis (American Dog tick) or Brown dog tick (Rhiphecephalus sanguinous)
Term
What do you see on a blood smear of the buffy coat in a dog with Erhlichia canis?
Definition
Presence of morulae in the monocytes from the buffy coat of the peripheral blood smear.
Term
What test can be done to DDx Erhlichia in dogs
Definition
PCR, IFA, ELIZA
Term
A Geimsa-stained blood smear may detect basophilic platelet inclusions in what parasitic disease in canines?
Definition
Anaplasma playtus
Term
T or F Sera from Anaplasma platys, Anaplasma phagocytophilum or Ehrlichia canis do not cross-react.
Definition
True
Term
T ro F After multiple cycles of Anplasma platys and associated thrombocytopenia, a natural
immunity may develop which has been suggested based on positive serotiters in clinically normal dogs.
Definition
True
Term
Penetration of intravenously administered Amphotericin B into the cerebrospinal is excellent. T or F
Definition
True
Term
A treatment for Aspergillosis, Visceral leishmaniasis, coccidioides, Blastomyces, Cryptococcus, Candida (Anti Fungal Rx)
Definition
Amphoteracin B
Term
MOA of Amphoteracin B
Definition
The drug acts by binding to sterols (ergosterol) in the cell membrane of susceptible fungi. This creates a transmembrane channel, and the resultant change in membrane permeability allowing leakage of intracellular components.
Term
A 5-year old indoor-outdoor cat was presented because the cat was shaking its scratching at its ears. The previous veterinarian obtained ear swabs which were negative and cytological examination of the ear debris revealed no organisms. The cat was treated for flea infestation and within three days of discontinued treatment the cat's symptoms returned. Dermatologic examination of the
skin revealed erythematous nail beds and interdigital pyoderma. Skin scrapings of the head and nail beds revealed the organism. What is the most likely cause?
Definition
Otodectes cyanotic
Term
Which one of the following would be an appropriate treatement for the cat with Otodectes cyantoic
Definition
Fipronil, Moxydectin,
Term
A cat has pruritic skin condition around its head, which the owner said started at the nose and spread caudally. A skin scraping for this organism would detect what parasitic organism?
Which one of the following parasites is the most likely cause of this cat's skin condition?
A dog is presented to your practice because of scratching at his ears. You obtain an ear swab and identify an organisms as a dark orange crusty looking mite.
Definition
Otobius megnini
Term
Which of the following clinical features is not encountered with Lymes disease (Borreliosis) in dogs? a. Fever b. Shifting-leg lameness c. Periarticular soft-tissue swelling d. Lymphadenopathy e. Polyarthritis f. Protein-losing glomerulonephropathy g. Meningitis h. Myocarditis induced arrhythmias i. Interstitial pneumonia
Definition
interstitial pneumonia
Term
Which cranial nerve is involved in lacrimation?
Definition
The trigeminal nerves have both efferent and afferent functions in regulating lacrimation.
Term
Facial nerve damage can cause xeromycteria (dry nose) and neurogenic KCS T or F
Definition
True
Term
Otitis media and/or otitis interna may cause what disorders?
Horner syndrome results from an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye and is characterized by the classic triad of miosis (ie, constricted pupil), partial ptosis, and loss of hemifacial sweating (horses), enopthalmos, protruding nictitating membrane, and conjunctival hyperemia
Term
Mydriatic pharmaceuticals are used to dilate the pupil. Name 4parasympatholytic mydriatic pharmaceutical?
Definition
Atropine Scopolamine Cyclopentolate Tropicamide
Term
What parasite can cause conjunctivitis?
Definition
Thelazia californiensis
Term
What is Thelazia californiensis, what disease of the eye can it cause?
Definition
Eyeworms live in the tear ducts, between the eye and the lids (conjunctival sac and under the third eyelid). They generally do not cause serious disease, but can be annoying, as you can imagine. KCS
Term
What is Dacryocystorhinography?
Definition
Dacryocystorhinography (DCRG) is a contrast radiographic procedure that may be used to assess diseases affecting any level of the nasolacrimal system. DCRG is performed with the patient under general anesthesia.
Term
What is computed tomography?
Definition
an imaging procedure that uses special x-ray equipment to create detailed pictures, or scans, of areas inside the body.
Term
How does fluorescin stain work
Definition
An intact corneal epithelium has a high lipid content that resists the penetration of fluorescein and so is not colored by it. A break in the corneal epithelium allows water-soluble fluorescein to be absorbed by the hydrophilic corneal stroma. The exposed, and now stained, corneal stroma will therefore fluoresce green.
Term
What is the sensory pathway of the menace reflex?
Definition
The sensory pathway of the menace reflex involves the retina optic nerve optic chiasm optic tract.
Term
The sensory pathway of the menace reflex involves the _______ nucleus in the thalammus and visual cortex
Definition
lateral geniculate nucleus .
Term
The motor pathway of the menace reflex involves the connection between the visual cortex and the ______nucleus and the _____ nerve.
Definition
facial nucleus and the facial nerve.
Term
What immediate structures of the eye are involved in the PLR?
Anterior uveitis involves an inflammatory disease involving the iris and ciliary body.of the following treatments would be contraindicated for an immune-suppressed dog with this disorder? a. Topical corticosteroids b. Topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) c. Systemic azathioprine d. Topical and systemic antimicrobials e. Topical mydriatics and cycloplegics like atropine, scopolamine and phenylephrine
Definition
Systemic Azothioprine (miotic)
Term
Which protazoa/s can cause uveitis in dogs
Definition
Leishmania donovani b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Ehrlichia canis and Ehrlichia platys d. Rickettsia rickettsia
Term
Chorioretinal disease can be congenital or acquired. The congenital form is encountered in what breeds of dogs? Waht is this disease common name?
Definition
collie breeds, sheltie, aussi Collie Eye
Term
Does retinal dysplasia in dogs and cats cause complete blindness?
Definition
no
Term
What type of infections can result in chorioretinitis in dogs?
Definition
Rickettsial, Fungal, viral and parasitic
Term
The woods lamp is used to diagnose which dermatophystosis?
Definition
Dermatophytosis caused by Microsporum canis.
Term
Canine retinal dysplasia can affect two parts of the retina, those are......
Definition
rods cons
Term
Retial photoreceptor dysplasia is a autosomal recessive gene in certain breeds of dogs. T or F
Definition
True
Term
T or F Abnromal cyclic guanosine cGMP-monophosphate metabolism is considered the cause in rod-cone dysplasia type-1 in Irish Setters.
Definition
True
Term
T or F Photoreceptor dysplasia in Alaskan Malamutes affect only the ______.
Definition
cones
Term
Besides Pasteurella multocida as a causitive agent of anterior uveitis in rabbits, which other agent may also cause anterior uveitis in rabbits?
Definition
Encephalitoxea cuniculi
Term
Rabbit syphilis is a bacterial disease caused by the spirochete _______ cuniculi.
Definition
Treponema cuniculi.
Term
Treponema cuniculi (rabbit syphillis) presents how
Definition
scabbing ulcerative lesions on the genitalia, lips, nose and around the eyes
Term
Patuerella multocida causes what ocular disease in rabbits
Definition
anterior uveitis
Term
Dacryocystitis is a common cause of _____ in rabbits.
Definition
Dacryocystitis is a common cause of epiphora in rabbits.
Term
How many lacrima does a rabbit have?
Definition
1
Term
T or F In rabbits the nasolacrimal duct has a straight course through the lacrimal and maxillary bones.
Definition
True
Term
Nutritional secondary________ may cause osseous changes in the maxillary bone leading to obstruction.
Definition
hyperperathyroidism
Term
In rabbits, dacryocystitis due to obstruction from whatever etiology is rarely purulent.
Definition
false
Term
What are the 4 main bacterial causes of conjunctivitis in Guinea Pigs?
Definition
P. multocida S. aureus E. cuniculi L. monocytogenes
Term
Name 4 ophthalmoscopic findings encountered with Collie Eye Anomaly (CEA)?
Definition
Choroidal hypoplasia b. Posterior colobomas c. Retinal detachment d. Intraocular hyphema
Term
cutaneous histiocytomas in dogs are benign or malignant?
Definition
Benign
Term
cutaneous histiocytomas care rare in cats
T or F
Definition
True
Term
T or F Cutaneous histiocytomas spontaneously regress in about 3 months
Definition
True
Term
T or F Lipomas are epidermal in origin
Definition
False
Term
T or F Lipomas are a common skin tumor of dogs
Definition
True
Term
Where are the 3 common locations for squamous cell carcinomas in cats?
Definition
non pigmented Ear pinna non pigmented Nose non pigmented eyelids
Term
Canine squamous cell carcinomas occur where?
Definition
nail beds
Term
Canine squamous cell carcinomas rarely metastasize? T or F
Definition
True they are locally invasive
Term
2 Canine squamous cell carcinoma treatments that provides the best prognosis
Definition
Excision or radiation Tx
Term
This disease in dogs Is caused by actinic damage to lightly pigmented or nonpigmented, sparsely haired skin regions by ultraviolet light.
Definition
solar dermatitis
Term
This disease on nonpigmented skin in dogs can result in pre-neoplastic conditions such as squamous cell carcinoma in-situ Appears initially as a erythematous and scaly lesion on the nose (sun burn).
Definition
Solar dermatitis
Term
Where do apocrin sweat gland tumors appear and how do they look
Definition
Appear as ulcerated intradermal masses anywhere on the body.
Term
which is more common, Apocrin sweat gland tumors or squamous cell carcinoma
Definition
Squamous cell carcinoma
Term
Apocrin sweat gland tumors Frequently metastasize through ______ so a Wide surgical excision is the recommended treatment.
Definition
lymphatics
Term
Apocrin sweat gland CYSTS may develope in to tumors in what breeds of dogs
Definition
G. Shep, Golden retriever
Term
Aprocrin sweat gland CYSTS are treated how?
Definition
Observation without treatment is an option as these lesions are benign.
Term
One of the most common tumors of female dogs __________ High-risk breeds include 3
Definition
Are one of the most common tumors of female dogs. Poodles, Brittany Spaniel, Cockers b. High-risk breeds include Poodles, English Cocker spaniels, and Brittany spaniels
Term
T or F Estrogen and progesterone receptors have been identified in dogs and cats with mammary gland tumors and In dogs, 50% of mammary gland tumors are benign.
Definition
True
Term
Squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma and mast cell tumor are the most common tumors ofthe digits T or F
Definition
True
Term
T or F In the early stages of growth, the digital tumors can be misdiagnosed as paronychia, becasue they are often infected.
Definition
True
Term
What is paronchia
Definition
infected nail bed
Term
How can you tell the difference between paronchia and digital squamous cell carcinomas?
Definition
Radiographic examination of the digit is important because osteolysis is commonly encountered with digital tumors and rarely encountered with paronychia.
Term
T or F Digital tumors involving more than one digit are uncommon and metastasis from bronchiolar adenocarcinomas should be considered.
Definition
True
Term
Melanomas of the digits are more malignant than melanomas of other cutaneous origins and as many as 50% of the cases will result in distant metastasis.
Definition
True
Term
From what tissue do anal sac aprocrine gland adenocarcinomas arise from?
Definition
Sebaceous apocrin glands
Term
What % of anal sac apocrine gland adenocarcinomas are part of paraneoplastic syndrome?
Definition
50%
Term
Through which mechanism is anal sac aprocrine gland adenocarcinomas metastasize ?
Definition
Metastasis is common and spread is via the lymphatics to the regional lymph nodes.
Term
What is the tx of choice for anal sace adenocarcinomas and what is a major concern with this treatment
Definition
Wide surgical excision, the treatment of choice if regional lymph nodes are not involved, may result in fecal incontinence.
Term
T or F The most common site of metastasis with canine MCT is the lungs.
Definition
False Liver spleen LN are most common sites
Term
what are the 2 types of mast cell tuomrs in cats?
Definition
histiocytic form and a mastocytic form.
Term
Visceral feline MCT are more common in cats than in dogs and frequently involve the __________ (organ).
Definition
Visceral feline MCT are more common in cats than in dogs and frequently involve the spleen.
Term
What is the treatment of choice for feline mast cell tumors?
Definition
Surgery and/or surgery followed by radiation therapy are the treatments of choice for feline MCT.
Term
Primary cutaneous lymphoma are classified in two names based on which layer of the skin they are located?
Definition
epitheliotrophic or non-epitheliotrophic,
Term
In non-epitheliotropic lymphoma, there is an elevation in what on blood work and what other disease is it associated with?
Definition
Hypercalcemia myasthenia gravis.
Term
The Dx for epi/noneiptheliotropic lymphoma must be done how
Definition
Bx
Term
cutaneous lymphoma Is a non-epitheliotropic tumor that arise from
Definition
B or T lymphocytes
Term
Cutaneous lymphoma occurs in older animals in what body regions?
Definition
Occurs in older animals in the regions of the trunk, head and extremities.
Term
What does cutaneous lymphoma look like
Definition
Appear as multiple, firm, dermal to subcutaneous nodules that are alopecic and frequently ulcerated that are non pruritic
Term
Are soft tissue sarcomas epidermal in origin?
How do they spread?
Definition
NO
via blood
Term
T or F Low grade SoftTissueSarcomas like hemangiopericytoma and nerve sheath sarcomas have a lower rate of metastasis compared to synovial cell sarcomas and undifferentiated sarcomas.
Definition
True
Term
Which of the following clinical features is/are encountered with soft-tissue-sarcomas (STS) in cats?
a. The mass may originate at a previous site of vaccination b. STS masses usually occur in the limbs and head region. c. The owner’s primary complaint is that they detected a palpable, visible, non-painful mass. d. STC can occur in the dermis, subcutaneous or deep in the muscles or facial compartments e. All the above answers are correct.
Definition
all are correct
Term
Feline soft tissue sarcomas are treated how? How long will it take to regrow if it is removed
Definition
surgical excision, radiation chemoTx 2 weeks to 6 months
Term
T or F In tumors of the oropharynx in dogs and cats, Primary osteosarcoma of the mandible and maxillary have a better survival time following surgery than to primary bone tumors of the axial or appendicular
Definition
True
Term
Which 3 types of oral tumors are the most common in dogs?
T or F Squamous cell carcinoma in cats is the most common malignant oral tumor of the oral cavity and more aggressive in cats than in dogs.
Definition
True
Term
Tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma are non-gingival in origin and are highly metastatic and spread to the ____ lymph nodes.
Definition
retropharyngeal LN
Term
Out of these 3 types of oral epilus, fibromatous epulis, the ossifying epulis and the squamous or acanthomatous epulis which one is invasive
Definition
Squamous/acanthus epulis are benign but invasive.
Term
canine oral papillomatosis is caused by ___ lesions are multiple or single? lesions appear as ___________ Complete regression of COP lesions occurs spontaneously T or F
Definition
virus multiple lesions appear as pale smooth elevations that develop a rough surface early the disease process. True
Term
oral melanomas how quick do they grow? Invade what tissue? Mets to.....
Definition
quickly gingiva nad bone local LN
Term
Physiologic thrombocytosis caused by whattype of influence on the spleen?
Definition
epinephrine-induced splenic contraction.
Term
what is reactive thrombocytosis caused by
Definition
blood loss anemia
Term
On a fecal float you see a parasitic egg and it contains about 4-6 round things inside. What parasite could this be
Definition
Ancylostoma
Term
On a fecal float you see a parasitic egg and in it contains several grape like clusters. What could this be?
Definition
Strongyle
Term
Pyruvate kinase deficiency anemia has not been encountered in which of the breeds of cats?
Definition
DLH
Term
Pyruvate kinase deficiency anemia has been encountered in which of the breeds of cats?
Definition
Abysinnian, Somali, DSH
Term
what is RBC pyruvate kinase deficiency in cats
Definition
Erythrocyte Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency (PK Deficiency) is an inherited hemolytic anemia caused by insufficient activity of this regulatory enzyme which results in instability and loss of red blood cells
Term
Hemochromatosis is
Definition
when your body absorbs too much iron
Term
The anemia encountered with pyruvate kinase deficiency is caused by which mechanisms?
Definition
Extravascular hemolysis (phagocytosis) whereby the erythrocytes are sequestered in the spleen and liver, with subsequently phagocytized and lysed with the hemoglobin being catabolized at the site of destruction.
Term
93. Changes to the RBCs caused by pyruvate kinase deficiency cause which defects in the RBC?
Definition
Reduced glycolysis and ATP content within the erythrocytes
Term
Do labradors have pyruvate kinase def. as a genetic trait?
Definition
No
Term
pyruvate kinase deficiency anemia dogs usually die from....3 things
The Mean Survival Time for splenectomy and adriamycin and cyclophosphamide is ______days
Definition
141 to 179 days
Term
The Mean Survival Time for splenectomy for splenectomy and adriamycin and cyclophosphamide and immunotherapy with L-MTP-PE is _____ days
Definition
273 days
Term
what is adrimycin?
Definition
Adriamycin/Doxyrubricin is an anti-cancer ("antineoplastic" or "cytotoxic"
Term
what is cyclophosphamide?
Definition
anti-cancer chemo drug, also used in nephrotic syndrome
Term
L-MTP-PE is what type of drug?
Definition
non specific immunomodulator used in cancer
Term
The MST for splenectomy and adriamycin and cyclophosphamide and vincristine is _____
Definition
145 days
Term
what is canine primary seborrhea? What breeds is it most common? When does it show up?
Definition
a hereditary disorder of keratinization American Cocker spaniel, West Highland White terriers and Basset hounds. Puppyhood
Term
differential considerations for primary canine seborrhea?
Definition
ichthyosis, a congenital keratinization
Term
what is ichthyosis
Definition
Ichthyosis is an autosomal recessive genetic mutation that affects the skin of Golden Retrievers. The mutation prevents the outer layer of the epidermis from forming properly, resulting in skin that becomes darkened and thick and flakes excessively.
Term
T or F Systemic corticosteroids given daily for life may helpful in cases of canine primary seborrhea.
Definition
False
Term
[image]The fundus photograph below was taken from a two year old, female, spayed Persian cat. The cat has lived all its life in Southern California and is predominantly an outdoor cat. Recently she presented for inappetance and lethargy. Apart from stomatis, the cat was otherwise normal on examination.
Definition
Active chorioretinitis
Term
What is chorioretinitis
Definition
Because os their immediate proximity, the choroid and the retina. When hematogenous bacteria or viral infections of the choroid are seen they usually also affect the retina
FIP, toxoplasmosis
Malignant Catharrhal fever (cattle)
Term
what is active hyalitis
Definition
inflammation of the vitreous itself
Term
[image]What is occuring in this eye and what can cause it?
Definition
active hyalitis (inflammation of the vitreous)
because there is no vasculature for this part of the eye inflammation can occue via chorioretinitis or via uveitis
Term
[image] what is happening here? What can cause it in dogs vs cats?
Definition
Lipemia Retinalis
Hyperadrenocortism (cushings)
Hypothyroidism - also cause lipemic aqueous humor
Cats
Primary inheritied hyperchylomicronemia
Idiopathic transient hyperlipidemia
anemia in kittens
Iatrogenic glucocorticoid Tx excess
Term
[image] What is happening in this eye?
What infectious Dz can cause this in the dog? What parasite can cause this? What Cardio Dzcan cause it? What metabolic Dz can cause it? What Toxin can cause it? What neoplastic Dz can cause it
The following body systems and their specific Dz that cause persistant hyperglycemia
Muskuloscelital Dz that causes persistant hyperglycemia__
Pancrease
Adrenalgland
Pituitary
Definition
Acromegaly
DM, Hyperglucagon
Hyperadrenalcortism, pheochromocytoma
Hyperpituitarism
Term
what is the duration of efffect with lidocaine?
Definition
6 hours
Term
Which is more potent and why
Lidocain or Bupivocain
Definition
Because bupivacaine is more lipid soluble than lidocaine, it is more potent and is prepared as a 0.5% concentration (5 mg/mL) rather than a 2% concentration (20 mg/mL).
Term
What will happen to the patient’s airway resistance if you choose an endotracheal tube twice as big in diameter (assuming everything else remains the same)?
Definition
Decrease airway resistance by 16 fold
Term
Bicarbonate therapy is most indicated in which of the following clinical situations?
a. PaCO2: 30 mmHg, pH: 7.5, HCO3: 24
b. PaCO2: 40 mmHg, pH: 7.0, HCO3: 15
c. PaCO2: 60 mmHg, pH: 7.3, HCO3: 30
d. PaCO2: 60 mmHg, pH: 7.1, HCO3: 20
Definition
Metabolic acidosis: serum HCO3 < 24 mEq/L
so
b. PaCO2: 40 mmHg, pH: 7.0, HCO3: 15
Term
Which of the following is the least likely cause of
BRADYcardia - why?
a.Oculocardiac reflex
b. Hypoxia
c. Administration of opioids
d. Administration of anticholinergics?
Definition
Administration of anticholinergics
Atropine which blocks the effects of the vagal parasympathetic stimulation on the heart
Nerves involved - trigeminal, vagus
Term
how do opioids affect the heart rate
Definition
They can cause bradycardia because they increase vagal tone and decrease and SA node activity in the heart
Term
How does hypoxia lead to bradycardia
Definition
Cellular hypoxia (usually due to ischemia) depolarizes the membrane potential causing bradycardia. Without adequate oxygen, ATP dependent ion pumps in the cell membrane cannot operate. This leads to a loss of normal ion gradients across the membrane that are required to produce a negative membrane potential. Because a hyperpolarized state at the end of phase 3 is necessary for pacemaker channels to become activated, pacemaker channels remain inactivated in depolarized cells. This suppresses pacemaker currents and decreases the slope of phase 4. This is one reason why cellular hypoxia, which depolarizes the cell and alters phase 3 hyperpolarization, leads to a reduction in pacemaker rate (i.e., produces bradycardia). Severe hypoxia completely stops pacemaker activity.
Term
Which of the following is the least effective way to treat hypotension during general anesthesia?
a. Administer propranolol
b. Increase fluid rate
c. Lighten anesthetic depth
d. Administer dobutamine
Definition
a. Administer propranolol
Term
What is propranolol?
Definition
beta blocker
used to control the heart rate of cats and dogs with irregular heart rhythms
reduces CO therefor lowers BP
Term
What is the MOA of dobutamine?
What Dz is it indicated for?
What receptors does it affect?
What is the overall effect on the heart?
Definition
synthetic sympathomimetic
TX: hypotension associated with congestive heart failure,
sepsis associated with peritonitis
Life-threatening cases of cardiogenic or hemorrhagic shock
stimulation of β1-receptors of the sympathetic nervous system,
increased heart rate and cardiac contractility
This drug is also used as a diagnostic tool with dysautonomia
Term
Which nerve fibers are closely involved in pain transmission?
Definition
A-delta C-fibers
Term
dissociatives MOA
Definition
They work as GABA agonist to induce sedation
Term
Disassociatives are associated with increased muscle rigidity and possess analgesic effect
T or F
Definition
F
Term
How general anesthetics work is not clearly understood. What is the theory that proposed lipid solubility of the agent as a key determinant to general anesthesia?
Definition
Meyer-Overton hypothesis
Term
Which of the following is not an ideal property of an inhalant anesthetic?
a. Non-explosive
b. Potent
c. Possesses minimal metabolism
d. Possesses high blood gas solubility
Definition
Possesses high blood gas sol.
Term
Which of the following is an incorrect description regarding an ideal intravenous anesthetic induction agent?
a. High therapeutic index
b. Inexpensive
c. Potent
d. Short shelf life
Definition
short shelf life
Term
which drug is likely to increase intracranial pressure?
a. Propofol
b. Thiopental
c. Etomadate
d. Ketamine
Definition
ketamine
Term
what is the optimal end tidal CO2 level (in mmHg) to be maintained in a patient under general anesthesia with CNS disease?
Definition
25-35mmHg
Term
which factor does not play a significant role in the changes of intracranial pressure?
a. Blood urea nitrogen
b. Oxygen tension
c. Systemic arterial blood pressure
d. Carbon dioxide tension
Definition
BUN
Term
Regarding anesthetizing ophthalmic patients, what drugs should be avoided in these patients?
Definition
drugs that induce vomiting because it increase IOP
Term
Do opioids cause miosis or mydriasis?
Definition
miosis
Term
3 purposes of using neuromuscular blocker in anesthetized patients?
Definition
1. provide optimal Sx condition
2. Prevent reflex movement in delicate Sx
3. As part of balnced anesthetic technique for better cardiovascular stability
Term
Regarding atracurium which is not true?
a. Metabolism is through Hofmann Elimination
b. Can decrease blood pressure due to histamine release
c. Duration of effect lasts approximately 20-30 minutes with clinical dose
d. Should not be used in renal diseased patient as it is excreted in urine unchanged
Definition
d.
Term
What is atracurium?
Definition
Atracurium besylate is a neuromuscular-blocking drug or skeletal muscle relaxant
Term
which factor does not greatly influence drug placenta transfer?
a. Lipid solubility
b. Molecular size
c. Potency
d. Concentration gradient across placental membrane
e. Degree of protein binding
Definition
Potency
High (less drug for desired effect)
Term
what are the 3 basic mechanisms of euthanasia
Definition
Direct depression of neurons necessary for life function
Physical disruption/destruction of brain activity
Hypoxia
Term
which injectable is acceptable as a sole method for euthanasia?
Definition
Pentobarbitol
Term
Does Acepromazine have analgesic actions?
Definition
NO
Term
Does Dexmetatomidine have analgesic actions?
Definition
yes
Term
Which local analgesic has the longest duration of action
Lidocain
mepivocain
bupivocain
Definition
Bupivocain
Term
the pharmacologic class of analgesics available to use for treating pain include: (4)
Definition
alpha-2 agonists,
opioids,
local anesthetics,
NSAIDS”
Term
another name for pop off vavle
Definition
scavenger valve
Term
What 2 methodes together are considered the best method of scavenging?
Definition
active scavenging and absorption
Term
When looking at the ECG, what is happening to make you diagnose 1st degree AV block?
Definition
Prolonged P-R interval
Term
What is essential (and minimum) laboratory datum
required prior to anesthetizing an animal in our hospital (BVCC) when the owner declines full blood work up including chemistry panel?
Definition
PCV, TP, Glu
Term
what is the function of each CN
Definition
Olfactory - smell
Optic - sight
Oculomotor - eye move
Trochlear - hearing
Trigeminal - sensations to the face, mucous membranes, and other structures of the head. It is the motor nerve for the muscles of mastication
Abduscens - lat rectus muscle
Facial - muscles of facial expression, and functions in the conveyance of taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Vestibularcochlear -balance, inner ear info
Glossopharyngeal - gag
Vagus - parasympathetic
Accessory - controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
Hypoglossal - movement of tongue
Term
A dog breathing normal room air should have a HCO3 od _____mEq/L arterial and venous
Definition
24
Term
The venous and arterial pH of a dog breathing room air would be ________ venous and ______arterial
Definition
Ven: 7.35
Art: 7.35-7.45
Term
The arterial and venous PCO2 of a dogbreathing normal room air
venous:
Arterial:
Definition
V: 45mmHg
A: 35-45mmHg
Term
The pace maker action potential is slower in response to the excitation than non-pacemaker action potential and lacks phase 1.
T or F
Definition
True
Term
T or F
SA node is one example that possesses pacemaker action potential
Definition
True
Term
Acepromazine MOA
and what other attributes do they have
Definition
Phenothyazines act as antagonist at D2 receptors
also
antagonistic activity at other receptors,
including α1-adrenergic receptors, H1-histaminergic receptors and muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
Term
The a1 receptor effect of phenothiazines like Ace. does what
Definition
dilates vessles leads to hypotension
Term
Shoudl you use Acepromazine in a dog with Diarrhea?
Definition
no, it has spasmodic efffects of the GI
Term
When evaluating the HCT and it is low what do you have to think about when the dog has had Acepromazine?
Definition
spleen sequestration of RBCs
Term
If you have a dog with phenothyazine (acepromazine) induced hypotension, what drug is contraindicated to treat it
Definition
epinephrine (adrenalin)
Term
In regards to the electorlytes, what abnormalities do you see when a dog has Addisons (Hypoadrenalcortism)
What type of acidosis do you find in them?
Definition
Hyonatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypochloremia
Metabolic acidosis
Term
Looking a radiograph of the thoracic cavity in a dog with addisons, what are you expecting to fin abnormal with the heart and esophagus?
Definition
Microcardia
Megaesophagus
Term
What abnormailites are encountered onECG in a dog with Addisons?
Definition
P-wave amplitude decreases, the P-wave duration is prolonged and the P-R interval is increased
Narrow and tall T-waves
Term
what is cerebellar abiotrophy?
Definition
neurons known as Purkinje cells, located in the cerebellum of the brain, begin to die off. These cells affect balance and coordination
loss of a nutritive factor
Term
Do animals with cerebellar abiotrophy respond well with steroid Tx?
Definition
No, because this is a disease that causes loss of purkinji fibers of the cerebellum and cause the animal to lose its perception of balance and space. Steroids are usless.
Term
This type of respiration has an abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing called an apnea.
What causes it?
Definition
CHeyne-stokes pattern
damage to the cerebellum and diencephalon
Term
A dog is presented in a comatose condition. The pupils are miotic and the respiration pattern is shallow , identify the anatomic location of the lesion?
Definition
Pons or medulla oblongota
Term
Facial nerve paralysis causes mydriasis.....T or F
Definition
False
Facial nerve is involved with horners syndrome so that would include misosis not mydriasis
Term
A dog is present in the lighted examination room and has equal pupil size. There is a absence of the menace reflex in the left eye. The palpebral reflexes are normal bilaterally. The dogs pupillary light response (PLR) to light is normal as both pupils constrict. The dog however is blind in the left eye. Which one of the following is the most likely location of the lesion?
Definition
visual cortex in the occipital lobe
Term
Concerning the location of primary bone tumors of long bones (osteosarcomas) in the front limb of dogs, where are the typical locations of osteosarcoma found?
How about the hind limb?
Definition
Proximal humerus
Distal radius
_____________________________
Distal femur
prox/dist tibia
Term
1. A 9-year-old F/S Keeshound was presented because of the her inability to walk and an altered tail carriage. CP's were absent in both hind limbs. The remainder of her neurologic examination was normal and included cranial nerves, reflexes and voluntary motor was present in the hind limbs.
Based on the history and neurologic examination, where is the spinal lesion most likely located?
Definition
T3 - L3
Term
There are eight anatomical regions of the nervous system where a neurologic lesion can be localized,these are.........
Definition
Forebrain,
Cerebellum,
Brainstem,
C1-5
C6-T2
T3-L3
L4-S3
peripheral nervous system.
Term
Contralateral proprioceptive deficits with a normal or almost normal gait is a hallmark sign of a ________ lesion. Another common sign of this lesion is walking in wide circles toward the lesion side
Definition
cerebral lesion
Term
The brainstem contains large motors centers that project ________down the spinal cord that are needed for walking and supporting weight.
It also contains regulatory centers for consciousness (ARAS) and has ten pairs of cranial nerves (3-12) which transmit sensory and/ or motor functions.
Definition
UMNs
ascending reticular activating system
Term
Ipsilateral (same side) sensory and motor deficits are seen with a _________lesion.
Definition
brain stem lesion
Term
this part of the CNS - Regulates and coordinates movement by controlling the rate, range, and force on the ipsilateral side (same side) of the body. It also plays a role in maintaining balance with the vestibular system. It does not initiate movement. A ______ lesion typically causes exaggerated movements (hypermetria), ataxia without weakness, and intention tremors. A menace deficit can also be seen with a cerebellar lesion
Definition
The cerebellum
Term
The spinal cord is divided into four functional segments:
Definition
C1-5,
C6-T2,
T3-L3,
L4-S3.
Term
UMN are located in the _____matter of the spinal cord
LMN are located in the ___matter
Definition
white
grey
Term
The UMN are primarily facilitatory to flexor or extensor muscles and inhibitory to flexor/extensor muscles. The
Definition
UMN facilitory to the flexor muscles
and
inhibitory to extensor muscles.
Term
The LMNs are located along the entire spinal cord but for localization purposes, the ones routinely evaluated are located in the _______ (thoracic limb reflexes) and______ (pelvic limb reflexes) spinal cord segments.
Definition
C6-T2 (thoracic limb reflexes)
and
L4-S3 (pelvic limb reflexes)
Term
A lesion in these segments can result in deficits in all limbs (postural reaction deficits, tetraparesis/tetraplegia) because it affects sensory tracts coming from and UMN going to the forelimbs and pelvic limbs. Reflexes are normal or increased with a lesion in these segment. An UMN bladder can also occur.
Definition
C1-C5
Term
A lesion in these segments can result in deficits in all limbs (postural reaction deficits, tetraparesis/tetraplegia). It affects the LMN going to the forelimbs, the UMN going to the pelvic limbs, and the sensory tracts coming from all limbs. Forelimb reflexes are decreased to absent, while pelvic limb reflexes are normal to increased. An UMN bladder can also occur.
Definition
c6 - T2
Term
A lesion in these segments can result in deficits in the rear limbs (postural reaction deficits, paraparesis/paraplegia). The forelimbs are normal. It affects sensory tracts coming from and UMN going to the pelvic limbs. Pelvic limb reflexes are normal to increased. An UMN bladder can also occur
Definition
T3-L3
Term
A lesion in these segments can result in deficits in the rear limbs (postural reaction deficits, paraparesis/paraplegia). The forelimbs are normal. It affects sensory tracts coming from and LMN going to the pelvic limbs. Pelvic limb reflexes are decreased to absent. Anal tone may also be poor to absent, and the perineal reflex may be decreased to absent. A LMN bladder can also occur.
Definition
L4 - S3
Term
A dog presents with a history of seizures, dymetria (walking with extended gait and forcefull planting of foot) has become depressed
on blood work the only abnormality were polychromasia and nucleated RBCs
what is a top Ddx
Definition
Lead Tox
or
primary metastatic brain tumor
Term
Nucleated RBCs and Polychromasia with a normal PCV indicates what DDx
Definition
Toxin
Term
In dogs with diabetes mellitus, a high fiber diet is recccomended, why?
Definition
High dietary fiber is benetifial for treating obesity and improving control of glycemia, delays gastric emptying of nutrients and delay their absorption by the fibers forming a viscous gel and thus impairing the ability of water and nutrients to exit the gel.
Term
1. An 18-year-old F/S DSH cat is presented because of progressive deteriorating ability to jump. The PE revealed poor muscle mass. The cat walks with a plantigrade posture and the proprioception is poor and the spinal reflexes reduced. Based on this information, which of the following lab tests should be performed?
Definition
serum glucose
Term
Which of the following statements best describes the signs encountered with upper motor (UMN) disease?
1. With motor function, there is paresis to paralysis and loss of voluntary movement.
2. The reflexes are normal to hyperreflexic.
3. With muscle atrophy there is late and mild caused by disuse.
4. Muscle tone is normal
5. The associated sensory signs have decreased proprioception, decreased perception of superficial and deep pain
Definition
all of these are true
Term
1. A 6-year-old female Saint Bernard was presented because 6-days ago she suddenly cried out in pain and developed paresis in the pelvic limbs. Within 2-hours she became totally paralyzed n the pelvic limbs. There is no possibility of trauma as the dog developed these signs while being observed by the client. Based on the history and neurologic examination, what and your differential considerations?
A F/S Samoyed was presented because of cervical pain and thoracic limb lameness.
The signs have been intermittent over the past year and has had left-sided neurologic deficits intermittently as well during this time.
She is Lymes and Rocky Mountain Spotted fever titers negative. On neurologic examination, there are decreased conscious proprioceptionon her left side. Cervical pain was encountered on ventral flexion of the neck. What differentials would be likely consideration?
Definition
Spinal cord or menigneal tumor of the cranial cervical spine
Diskospondylitis of the cranial cervical spine
Intervertebral disk disease of the cranial cervical spine
Congenital vertebral malformation of the cranial cervical spine
Term
Concerning the treatment of diabetes mellitus in dogs, which insulin is recommended as the initial choice for dogs?
Definition
NPH insulin (isophane)
Term
NPH insulin has an onset of one have to two hours and has a maximum duration of ______ hours in most dogs.
NPH insulin is given ______
Definition
6-18hrs
SQ
Term
what is the duration of effect in Ultralente insulin in dogs
Definition
Ultralente is a long-activing insulin with duration of effect for up to 24 hours
Term
Which of the following would be most appropriate in the management of an epilectic dog that has been having seizures every other day despite receiving phenobartital at a dosage that produces serum phenolbartital concentrations well within the therapeutic range?
Definition
Add KBR to the regimen
Term
The fracture on a mediolateral patellar radiograph of canine stifle would have the same effect as neurectomy to which one of the following nerves?
Definition
femoral n.
Term
If there was a fracture of the anconeal process and the dog was non weight bearing on the leg, what nerve might be damaged and why?
Definition
Radial n.
because this nerve is responisble for extensors of the elbow, carpus and digits and there would be sensory loss.
Term
what is the role of the musculocutaneous nerve of the elbow joint
Definition
flexing
Term
what is the role of the axillary n.
Definition
flex shoulder joint
Term
what does the median and ulnar nerve do
Definition
flex carpal and digits
Term
Which diagnostic finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of toxoplasmosis in a dog with caudal
paresis and myositis?
Definition
posative IgM titer
Antibodies of the IgM class are commonly detected in the serum
Term
Hypothyroid Systemically ill dogs with a borderline value should be evaluated with a ______ level and/or TSH blood levels.
Definition
free T4 level
Term
Which pharmaceutical combo is the most effective for treatment of pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs?
Definition
Mitotane and Ketoconazol
Term
MOA of mitotane, deprenly, and ketoconazole
in a cushingoid dog
Definition
Mitotane destroys the zona fasiculata and reticularis layers of the adrenal gland
Ketoconazol is a adrenal enzyme inhibitor by blocking steroid synthesis
(cytochrome P450)
Deprenyl/selegaline - monoamine oxidase inhibitor,inhibit the breakdown of dopamine. This regulates the amount of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) produced by the pituitary gland. Since ACTH regulates the functioning of the adrenal glands, Cushing’s disease is kept under control.
Term
what is myxedema and in what disease is it a symptom of
Definition
swelling of the skin and underlying tissues giving it a waxy appearance in hypothyroidism in dogs
Term
During surgical exploration of the abdomen in a dog with classic signs of Cushing's syndrome, you note that one adrenal gland is large and the other is atrophied. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Definition
The larger gland is affected by a tumor; the other gland is atrophied because of a decrease in ACTH secretion
from the pituitary gland.
Term
Panting is a common clinical sign of hyperadrenocorticism. What is the most likely underlying cause of panting of affected dogs?
Definition
pulmonary thromboembolism, weakness of respiratory muscles, and increased pressure on the diaphragm from
the hepatomegaly and excessive amount of intraabdominal fat deposits
Term
Your clinic has been treating a dog for several years for diabetes mellitus with insulin.
The dog has now developed hyperadrenocorticism and you institute treatment mitotane (Lysodren).
Will the use of mitotane treatment for hyperadrenocorticism have any affect on the insulin treatment for the diabetes?
Definition
Insulin treatment will decrease over time
Term
Dopamine influences release of _____ from the anterior pituitary
Definition
ACTH
Term
Thiamine deficiency in cats causes what?
Definition
ventroflexion of the neck
Term
The most common primary brain tumor in cats is which one of the following?
Definition
menengioma
Term
what is a menengioma?
Where does it arise from?
Definition
Meningioma – This is the most common primary brain tumor in dogs and cats . It arises from the arachnoid mater of the meninges (the membranes that line the brain, rather than the cells of the brain itself. As such, meningiomas are not strictly brain tumors, but tend to be grouped with them because they arise within the cranial cavity and compress or invade the brain. is a MRI of a meningioma. These tumors occur more commonly in long nosed (doliochocephalic) breeds of dog, such as the Golden retriever. Meningiomas are usually relatively slow growing and amenable to treatment, although more malignant forms do occur.
Term
A thin, emaciated 19-year old DSH cat is presented to your clinic with an acute onset of hind limb paresis. You can not elicit any spinal cord reflexes in the rear limbs nor do you detect femoral pulses. The foot pads appear cyanotic and the cat appears to be in pain. What is the most likely cause of this cats clinical signs?
Definition
Coagulopathy/thrombosis secondary to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Term
Anisocoria (unequal pupil size) is commonly associated with a spinal cord lesion at the level of
Definition
T1
Term
This type of bone tumor tumor may appear lytic,
sclerotic (blastic or productive), or combination of both lytic and sclerotic, the degree of lytic versus sclerotic response should not be used to differentiate between tumor and osteomyelitis.
Definition
primary bone tumors
Term
With hypoadrenocorticism, which biochemistry laboratory findings are most indicative of the disease?
Definition
Pre-renal azotemia,
hypopatremia,
hyperkalemia
mild to moderate metabolic acidosis.
Term
Acute primary hypoadrenocorticism (Addisonian crisis) is a medical emergency that must be diagnosed and treated quickly.
what do you see on rads, BP, US, that is supportive of an Addisonian crisis?
Definition
Microcardia and microvascularity to the pulmonary vessels along with Decreased size to the caudal vena cava.
Systemic hypotension.
The adrenal glands may be shorter and thinner when viewed by ultrasound.
Term
A dog is released into its backyard soon after the owners spread an insecticide around the rose bushes. Within an hour, the dog is observed salivating, vomiting, and having diarrhea. A bit later it starts having tremors that progress to seizures. The dog then presents to the veterinary clinic with dyspnea, ongoing tremors, and frequent diarrhea and urination. Which insecticide was most likely responsible for the dogs clinical effects?
Definition
malathion
Term
with this toxin The most common signs are tremors, drooling, lack of appetite, vomiting, diarrhea, incoordination, hyperactivity, disorientation, vocalization, depression, difficulty breathing, and seizures. Death is possible. Additionally in cats, may see ear flicking, paw shaking, or contractions/twitching of the skin.
Definition
pyrethrins
Term
this toxin used in the garden can cause Vomiting, lethargy, depression, ataxia, muscle tremors, seizures, respiratory failure, and death.
Definition
Rotenone
Term
what are the ocular muscle innervations
Definition
4,3
Lateral 6 3 Medial
3,3
Term
Medial strabismus may be encountered with a lesion in which one of the CN
Definition
abducens 6 (lateral rectus muslce of the eye)
Term
Which one of the following neuropathies would result in a unilateral atrophy of the temporalis muscle and the muscles of mastciation?
Definition
Trigeminal
Term
Keratoconjuctivitis sicca can be caused by a lesion in which one of the following cranial nerves?
Definition
7 facial nerve
Term
On a radiograph, what is the likely cause of the ventral
displacement of the descending colon?
Definition
retroperitoneal hemorrhage
Term
Unilateral paralysis of the tongue would most likely be due to a lesion in which one of the cranial
nerve?
Definition
hypoglossal CN12
Term
Damage to this area of the spine would cause
absense of voluntary bladder control,
The detrusor reflex would be absent ,
The bladder would appear atonic,
The volume of urine in the bladder would be large
explain....
Definition
L7-S1
loss of Vol bladder control - peudendal nerve acts to constrict the external urethral sphincter to prevent incontenence.
Detrusor reflex loss- Pelvic nerve damage (parasympathetic) cant contract bladder and be atonic and will fill with urine
Term
Spinal trauma to L7-S1 would have effect on the relfexes of the pelvic limbs????
Definition
hypo/a-reflexic
Term
spinal trauma at L7 - S1 would have what effect on the skeletal muscles of the rear legs?
Definition
tone absent
Term
Which antiepileptic drug would be recommended for a dog with seizures caused by hepaticencephalopathy?
Definition
KBR
Term
_______is the drug of choice for the initial management of idiopathic epilepsy in dogs
Definition
Phenobarbital
Term
The most effective medication that can be used to stop an immediate seizure is ________
Definition
diazepam
Term
__________ is used for the long-term control of convulsions, seizures and epilepsy indogs, why isnt it used in dogs with liver shunt induced hepatoencephalopathy seizures
Definition
Primidone
it causes liver cirrhosis
Term
Status epilepticus (SE) is a condition of rapidly recurring seizures with incomplete between episodes and it considered an emergency.
what complications of the brain and temperature
may be encountered with SE?
Definition
Transient brain hypoxia
Cerebral edema
Hyperthermia
Term
1. A 12-year-old Labrador retriever was presented for a front leg lameness. The owner mentional that they had noticed limping for about 4-weeks but yesterday he became non-weight bearing. On PE the distal radius/ulna was swollen, hot and painful. Based on the history and PE, radiographs were obtained of which a composite image is provided. Based on the history, PE and radiographs, What is the most likely diagnosis?
Definition
primary bones tumor
Term
what is syringomyelia?
what breed is this disease seen in?
Definition
Syringomyelia (SM) is an extremely serious condition in which fluid-filled cavities develop within the spinal cord near the brain. It is also known as "neck scratcher's disease", because one of its common signs is scratching in the air near the neck.
Term
what are scotty cramps?
Definition
Scotty Cramp is a disease in Scottish Terriers causing spasms and hyperflexion and hyperextension of the legs. It is caused by a disorder in serotonin metabolism that causes a deficiency of available serotonin. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
Term
Primary bone tumors in the dog and cat most often originate in this part of the long bones.....
Definition
metaphysis
Term
Which radiographic appearance best describes the most common appearance of bone infarcts in
the dog?
Definition
Multifocal intramedullary opacities
Term
Other than primary bone tumor, what is the next most common diagnosis to be ruled out for a
monostotic aggressive bone lesion?
Definition
mycotic osteomyelitis
Term
Which of the following tumors would be least likely to metastasize to the skeleton?
Mammary adenocarcinoma
Prostatic adenocarcinoma
Thyroid adenocarcinoma
Acanthomatous epulis
Nasal adenocarcinoma
Definition
Acanthomatous epulis
Term
Hematogenous bacterial osteomyelitis is less common than hematogenous mycotic osteomyelitis in dogs in the United States.
Definition
True
Term
Which of the following radiographic changes is most suggestive of primary subungual neoplasia?
Periosteal proliferation
Multiple bone involvement
Soft-tissue swelling
Osteolysis
Soft-tissue calcification
Definition
Osteolysis
Term
The physis that is most susceptible to premature closure secondary to compaction is which one of the following?
Proximal radial physis
Distal humeral physis
Proximal tibial
Distal ulnar physis
Definition
distal ulnar physis
Term
The normal anconeal process of the dog should be fused to the olecranon by how many month of age?
Definition
4-5 mo
or 150 days
Term
A spiculated periosteal reaction seen along the diaphysis of long bones, particularly the distal long bones, is characteristic of which one of the following diseases?
Definition
hypertrophic osteopathy
Term
What is Codmans Triangle
Definition
the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises theperiosteum away from the bone
Term
Fractures of the growing physis usually involve which of the following cellular
Definition
Zone of hypertrophied chondrocytes
Term
Recheck radiographs on a surgical fracture repair reveal Scloerosis fragment end and a closed marrow cavity.
what does this mean
Definition
Fracture isnt healing normally
Term
A fractured spine at T12-13 would cause what signs in the rear limbs
