Term
What AFI series covers communications and information?
a. 30
b. 31
c. 32
d. 33 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Air Force publication establishes policy on how C4 systems are acquired, operated, and maintained?
a. AFPD 33-1
b. AFPD 33-2
c. AFI 33-202
d. AFI 33-204 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Air Force publication identifies responsibilities for supporting critical Air Force communications and information networks, primarily through network control centers?
a. AFPD 33-1
b. AFPD 33-2
c. AFI 33-115, Volume 1
d. AFI 33-115, Volume 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What Air Force publication provides the policy and procedures for certifying network professionals who manage and operate government-provided information systems on Air Force networks?
a. AFPD 33-1
b. AFPD 33-2
c. AFI 33-115, Volume 1
d. AFI 33-115, Volume 2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What organization does communication and information services entering an exiting the base or site fall under the operational control of?
a. Base Security Services Information Assurance office
b. Base Computer Security control office
c. Base NCC
d. Base Command Post |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What function within the NCC provides technical assistance to the unit FSAs and workgroup managers?
a. Network security
b. Network performance
c. Network management
d. Network administration |
|
Definition
| d. Network administration |
|
|
Term
| Whose network area of responsibility starts at the user's terminal and ends at the server, but does not include the network backbone infrastructure components? a. Unit CSA b. Unit FSA c. NCC help desk d. NCC network administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What AFI sets the policies that unit CSAs must comply with?
a. 33-115
b. 33-116
c. 33-202
d. 33-204 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What NCC function responds to detected security incidents, network faults(errors), and user reported outages at the time of help desk referral?
a. Network administration
b. Network management
c. Configuration management
d. Information protection operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What NCC function is the central point of contact for network distribution and maintenance/update of an Air Force Computer Emergency Response Team and automated systems security and antivirus software?
a. Network management
b. Security management
c. Network adminstration
d. Configuration management |
|
Definition
| d. Configuration management |
|
|
Term
Performance management can be broken into which two separate functional categories?
a. Monitoring and tuning
b. Baselining and tuning
c. Baselining and monitoring
d. Inspecting and monitoring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To determine the level of network service provided to the users, you will make a measurement of the total response time
a. Average bandwidth and availability of the network
b. Rejection rate and average bandwidth
c. Systems failure rate and average bandwidth
d. Rejection rate and availability of the network |
|
Definition
| d. rejection rate and availability |
|
|
Term
| What NCC function increases network reliability by giving the network manager tools to detect problems and initiate recovery procedures? a. Fault management b. Network management c. Performance management d. Configuration management |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does Network Security work to ensure about a network?
a. Availability, confidentiality, and integrity of data
b. Availability, confidentiality, and backup of data
c. Availability, integrity, and backup of data
d. Confidentiality, integrity, and backup of data |
|
Definition
| a. Availability, confidentiality, and integrity of data |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following are jobs performed by a help desk techinician on a daily basis? a. Account unlocks, account creations, and router reconfiguration b. Network monitoring, account unlocks, and account creations c. Network monitoring, account unlocks, and router access lists d. Operation system installations, account creations, and netowrk monitoring |
|
Definition
| b. Network monitoring, account unlocks, and account creations |
|
|
Term
| Within the NCC, what function is initially responsible for taking trouble calls, deciding what type of problem has occurred, and what to do about the problem? a. Help desk b. Network management c. Specific area of support d. Inforamtion protection operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is one of the most important communications skills you can develop as a help desk operator?
a. Speaking
b. Writing
c. Listening
d. Briefing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What software is used to open trouble tickets for customer trouble calls?
a. Microsoft Acess
b. Remedy
c. The C+ database
d. Fileit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a set of subnets that are connected with routers?
a. Internetwork
b. Intranetwork
c. Homogeneous network
d. Heterogeneous network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a set of system/nodes on a local segment that can be off a switch or a router?
a. Internetwork
b. Intranetwork
c. Homogeneous network
d. Heterogeneous network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
a. Internetwork
b. Intranetwork
c. Homogeneous network
d. Heterogeneous network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Wha type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
a. Internetwork
b. Intranetwork
c. Homogeneous network
d. Heterogeneous network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of communications network serves users within a confined geographical area?
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. Enterprise network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
a. LAN
b.MAN
c. WAN
d. Enterprise network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many users are in a peer-to-peer network?
a. 2 to 10
b. 10 to 50
c. 50 to 250
d. 250 to 1000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many users are in a single-server network?
a. 2 to 10
b. 10 to 50
c. 50 to 250
d. 250 to 1000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many useres are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?
a. 2 to 10
b. 10 to 50
c. 50 to 250
d. 250 to 1000 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In most cases the frequencies used by wireless networks are in what frequency band? a. Television band b. Very high frequency band c. Ultra high frequency band d. Industrial, scientific, and medical |
|
Definition
| d. Industrial, scientific, and medical |
|
|
Term
What is the distorting and/or weakening of a signal as it traverses the media called?
a. Attenuation
b. Impedance
c. Resistance
d. Inductive coupling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a measurement of data transferred through the medium between network connections? a. Attenuation b. Impedance c. Throughput d. Inductive coupling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the form of communication that transmits information as a serial steam of bits or bytes?
a. Asynchronous communication
b. Synchronous communication
c. Half-duplex communication
d. Duplex communication |
|
Definition
| a. Asynchronous communication |
|
|
Term
Which of the following categories of twisted-pair cable has the highest throughput?
a. Cat 2
b. Cat 3
c. Cat 4
d. Cat 5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A Fiber optic network uses a laser or light-emitting diode to send a signal through what portion of the cable? a. Core b. Buffer c. Kevlar d. Cladding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Light signals in fiber optic cables can travel distances in excess of how many miles before they need to be boosted?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 125 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of optic fiber is used to span extremely long distances?
a. Duplex
b. Half duplex
c. Multi mode
d. Single mode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of optic fiber is designed for the LAN environment and light is typically generated with a LED?
a. Duplex
b. Half duplex
c. Multi mode
d. Single mode |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the principal advantages of fiber optics with present day transmission technology?
a. Sturdiness and security
b. Security and throughput
c. Sturdiness and media cost
d. Throughput and media cost |
|
Definition
| a. Sturdiness and security |
|
|
Term
What network topology consists of a single central cable to which all computers and other devices connect?
a. Star
b. Bus
c. Ring
d. Mesh |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the greatest risk to a bus network?
a. The network server
b. Security is easily breached
c. The bus itself becoming inoperable
d. The middle node connected to the bus |
|
Definition
| c. The bus itself becoming inoperable |
|
|
Term
On what network topology, can multiple transmit frames can co-exist?
a. Star
b. Bus
c. Hybrid
d. Fiber Distributed Data Interface |
|
Definition
| d. Fiber Distributed Data Interface |
|
|
Term
What is the major DoD contribution networking?
a. The Ada programming language
b. The FTP utility
c. The OSI reference model
d. The TCP/IP suite |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a set of rules that define how communications are to take place in a network, including the format, timing, sequences, and error checking and correction?
a. A network operating system
b. A protocol
c. A standard
d. A baseline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What layer of the OSI refernce model is really a set of rules regarding the hardware used to transmit data?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What layer of the OSI reference model provides the grammer which machines converse with each other and serves as a vehicle for information transmission?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What layer of the OSI reference model prevents a fast computer from overwhelming a slow terminal?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A feature which involves the periodic insertion of points into data from which any recovery necessary can be started is known as what?
a. Checkpointing
b. Data transfers
c. Formatting function
d. Error recognition and recovery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which layer of the OSI reference model is concerned with network security, file transfers, and formatting functions?
a. Session
b. Transport
c. Application
d. Presentation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The IEE 802.3 standard describes a LAN using what kind of topology?
a. Bus
b. Star
c. Token bus
d. Token ring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What protocol is used by the IEEE 802.3 standard to avoid collisions on the network?
a. User Data Protocol
b. Network File System
c. TCP/IP
d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection |
|
Definition
| d. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection |
|
|
Term
What does a station specifically send when it sends a general request through the network asking any station to respond to receive the token?
a. Broadcast address
b. Tapped approach
c. Who follows frame
d. Solicit successsor frame |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The IEEE 802.5 standard was developed to cover what local area network topology?
a. Bus
b. Ring
c. Token bus
d. Token ring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why can a token ring network cover a greater distance than a token bus network without loss of signal?
a. Because they can use wire centers
b. Because each workstation repeats the signal
c. Because they require significantly more cable
d. Because each workstation creates less signal distortion |
|
Definition
| b. Because each workstation repeats the signal |
|
|
Term
What X series protocol is a Message Handling System(MHS) standard, that defines the structure of a store-and-forward e-mail message handling system?
a. X.25
b. X.50
c. X.400
d. X.500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What X series protocol is a Directory Services specification standard that defines the structure of a store-and-forward e-mail message handling system?
a. X.25
b. X.50
c. X.400
d. X.500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which protocol of TCP/IP provides a connectionless datagram "network access" layer?
a. Internet Protocol
b. Transmission Control Protocol
c. User Datagram Protocol
d. Network File System |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which protocol of TCP/IP is a connection oriented, reliable, host-to-host transport protocol?
a. Internet Protocol
b. Transmission Control Protocol
c. User Datagram Protocol
d. Network File System |
|
Definition
| b. Transmission Control Protocol |
|
|
Term
What makes it possible for implementers to produce new Network File System systems without having to reconstruct their own stystem's internal data representation formats to suit Network File System?
a. Remote procedure call
b. User datagram protocol
c. eXternal data representation
d. Transmission control protocol |
|
Definition
| c. eXternal data representation |
|
|
Term
As information passes down through the protocol layers, what is the packet that is formed called?
a. Protocol control information
b. User datagram protocol
c. Protocol data unit
d. Transmission control protocol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the only layer in the OSI reference model that simply transmits the completed frame?
a. Data Link
b. Transport
c. Network
d. Physical |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What layer in the OSI reference model adds a trailer to the packet?
a. Data Link
b. Transport
c. Network
d. Physical |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the Ethernet environment, what is the minimum number of octets in a frame so it can be sent and received?
a. 30
b. 38
c. 46
d. 54 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
a. MAC address
b. Network server name
c. Subnet mask address
d. Node serial number |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
a. 01100000
b. 01100110
c. 00001100
d. 10000001 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many octets is the standard IP broken down into?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of mask is used within a network that uses the same amount of bits for masking for all subnetworks?
a. Subnet
b. Standard
c. Abbreviated
d. Variable length subnet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What communications device converts binary electrical signals into acoustic signals for transmission over telephone lines?
a. Hub
b. Switch
c. Modem
d. Router |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What communications device is used for converting analog signals to digital for transmission on digital lines?
a. Hub
b. Codecs
c. Modem
d. Router |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What NIC module drives the signal onto and from the physical medium?
a. Encode/Decode
b. Frame buffering
c. Transmit/Receive
d. MAC Layer Processing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What NIC module converts information into a coded data stream?
a. Encode/Decode
b. Frame Buffering
c. Transmist/Receive
d. MAC Layer Processing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What NIC module temporarily holds data for processing to or from the network?
a. Encode/Decode
b. Frame buffering
c. Transmit/Receive
d. MAC Layer Processing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What network component serves as a central connecting point and is used to extend the physical media by repeating the signal it receives in one port out to all the other ports indiscriminately?
a. Hub
b. Codecs
c. Modem
d. Router |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of hub has special capabilities for configurations and or management?
a. An active hub
b. An intelligent hub
c. A passive hub
d. A smart hub |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What network condition usually begins slowly and (if not stopped) gradually grows in severity until all traffic flow on the network is effectively stopped?
a. Jabber
b. Hub port noise
c. Broadcast Storm
d. Random Squitter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a group of devices connected to the same physical media such that if two devices access the media at the same time, the result is a collision of the two signals?
a. A token domain
b. A jabber domain
c. A broadcast domain
d. A collision domain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of a network repeater is that it?
a. Amplifies the network signal
b. Regenerates any signal received
c. Amplifies and routes the signal
d. Internally routes the signal |
|
Definition
| b. Regenerates any signal received |
|
|
Term
What is a LAN connection device with two or more ports that forwards frames from one LAN segment to another?
a. Hub
b. Bridge
c. Switch
d. Repeater |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the four basic functions of a bridge?
a. Listen, learn, filter, forward
b. Listen, direct, filter, forward
c. Detect, direct, filter, forward
d. Listen, learn, detect, direct |
|
Definition
| a. Listen, learn, filter, forward |
|
|
Term
Bridging loops are created when
a. There is only one path to the destination
b. There is more than one path to the destination
c. The destination is unreachable by only one path
d. The destination is unreachable by multiple paths |
|
Definition
| b. There is more than one path to the destination |
|
|
Term
What is used to logically eliminate loops within a network?
a. IP
b. TCP
c. Router Intranet Protocol
d. Spanning Tree Algorithm |
|
Definition
| d. Spanning Tree Algorithm |
|
|
Term
The bridge in a network with the highest priority (the lowest number) is called the
a. main
b. Base
c. Root
d. Master |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Switching conducted at the layer 2 category is based solely upon what information?
a. The MAC
b. The IP address
c. The destination address
d. The source address |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Switching conducted at the layer 3 category is based upon what information?
a. The MAC and IP address
b. The MAC and source address
c. The IP and source address
d. The source and destination address |
|
Definition
| a. The MAC and IP address |
|
|
Term
What type of switch is limited in its applications to small workgroups where throughput is an issue but where potential network errors will not upset the network?
a. Cut through
b. Fragment free
c. Dynamic route
d. Store and forward |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of switch reads the first 64 bytes before forwarding the frame?
a. Cut through
b. Fragment free
c. Dynamic route
d. Store and forward |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the of technology called that allows a NIC to determine the type of Ethernet signal transmitted by a device at the other end and adjust its speed to the highest common speed between the two devices?
a. Auto negotiation
b. Autodatasensing
c. Speed sensing
d. Auto timing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a logical grouping of end stations, independent of physical location, with a common set of requirements called?
a. Framed LAN
b. Logical LAN
c. Private LAN
d. Virtual LAN |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common method of defining VLAN membership?
a. Port grouping
b. Segment grouping
c. Network layer grouping
d. MAC layer grouping |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At what level of the OSI model does a router work?
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Network
d. Transport |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary device used for connecting these networks, both within and between networks?
a. Bridge
b. Switch
c. Modem
d. Router |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The function performed by a router to move information from one router to another according to decided path determinations is
a. Directing
b. Routing
c. Switching
d. Vectoring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of routing is the establishment of routes by the network administrator that changes only when done manually?
a. Static routing
b. Manual routing
c. Dynamic routing
d. Group source routing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of routing involves the use of routing protocols that adjust real-time to changing network circumstances?
a. Static routing
b. Manual routing
c. Dynamic routing
d. Group source routing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what Dynamic Routing protocol must packets go the complete distance before discovering the destination is unreachable?
a. Link state
b. Manual routing
c. Distance timing
d. Distance vectoring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What routing metric is generally based upon the bit-error rate of the link?
a. Delay
b. Reliability
c. Path length
d. Maximum transmission unit |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What prevents a router from sending route information back to the router from which it came?
a. Hold downs
b. Split horizons
c. Poison reverse
d. Excess transfer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What acts as a translator between two workstations or networks that use different operating systems, communication protocols, and data format structures?
a. Switch
b. Bridge
c. Router
d. Gateway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the backup copy of the Cisco Internet Operating System configuration information stored in the internetworking device?
a. Flash memory
b. Nonvolatile random access memory
c. Random access memory/digital random access memory
d. Read-only memory |
|
Definition
| b. Nonvolatile random access memory |
|
|
Term
What are the network connections through which traffic enters and exits a router called?
a. Interfaces
b. Serial interface
c. Switching ports
d. Console and auxiliary ports |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What prompt is displayed when in the User Exec mode on a router?
a. Router#
b. Router/
c. Router>
d. Router} |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What prompt is displayed when in the Privileged Exec mode on a router?
a. Router#
b. Router/
c. Router>
d. Router} |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From what level can all other command modes be accessed?
a. User exec level
b. Console exec level
c. Privileged exec level
d. Global configuration level |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From what mode is the banner motd command used in?
a. User exec
b. Privileged exec
c. Global configuration mode
d. Router configuration mode |
|
Definition
| c. Global configuration mode |
|
|
Term
What command is used to restrict access to the Privileged Exec mode?
a. Password
b. Enable password
c. Console password
d. Virtual terminal password |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What command interface configuration command is used to activate an interface?
a. Enable int
b. Interface up
c. No shutdown
d. Enable interface |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To view the current configuration of a router, what command is used from privileged exec mode?
a. Show running
b. Show router
c. Show config
d. Show nvmram |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What command is used to change the bootup values within ROM monitor mode?
a. Config
b. Confreg
c. Enable config
d. Enable confreg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What filters network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at a router's interface?
a. Password filters
b. User passwords
c. Router protocols
d. Access control lists |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do all access lists end with?
a. Router name
b. Implicit deny
c. Network subnet mask
d. Network IP address |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Router access lists must be applied to
a. Ports
b. Switches
c. Interfaces
d. Proxy servers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does a standard access list use to filter packets?
a. Destination IP address
b. Source IP address
c. Application port number
d. Routing protocols |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the range of numbers that represent standard access lists?
a. 1-40
b. 1-99
c. 50-99
d. 100-199 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of server is set aside to perform a specific task or function all the time?
a. File server
b. Network server
c. Dedicated server
d. Nondedicated server |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What network type normally utilizes non-dedicated servers?
a. Peer-to-peer
b. Single-server
c. Multi-server
d. Multi-server high-speed backbone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is required due to the differences between the physical speed of the print device and the processing speed of the workstation generating the print job?
a. File server
b. Print queues
c. Timing devices
d. Multi processor servers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What frees the computer's attention so the user can continue working while waiting for a document to print?
a. Print queues
b. Timing devices
c. Print spooling
d. Print holding folders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
a. Application
b. Domain name system
c. Network management system
d. Dynamic host configuration protocol |
|
Definition
| c. Network management system |
|
|
Term
What two types of environments are network operating systems implemented upon?
a. Peer-to-peer and multi server
b. Single-server and multi-server
c. Client server and multi-server
d. Peer-to-peer and client server |
|
Definition
| d. Peer-to-peer and client server |
|
|
Term
Within the Windows environment, what is the central repository for the entire software and hardware configuration settings in a computer running the Windows based NT operating system?
a. Registry
b. Systems32
c. WINNT/dev directory
d. WINNT/config directory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a set of keys, subkeys, and values from the registry stored in its own file location called?
a. Cave
b. Hive
c. Domain cave
d. Client hive |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Data in which root-key determines which device drivers and services will load during the boot process?
a. HKEY_USERS
b. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
c. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
d. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a set of statistical measurements made over a period of time that characterizes network performance?
a. Performance reference
b. Comparative reference
c. Benchmark
d. Baseline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a detailed analysis of the performance of a specific application or a specific network element?
a. Performance reference
b. Comparative reference
c. Benchmark
d. Baseline |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What network performance criteria is the most significant statistic to be collected and calculated?
a. Network availability
b. Percentage utilization
c. Traffic congestion
d. Data throughput |
|
Definition
|
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Term
The measurement of traffic volume actually being carried by the network, typically expressed in kilobytes per second is
a. Network response time
b. Percentage utilization
c. Traffic congestion
d. Data throughput |
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Definition
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