Term
What is the first job the BIOS does at start-up?
a. Run memory byte count
b. Test for parity errors
c. Load instructions to RAM
d. Run the POST |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
a. ROM
b. BIOS
c. CMOS
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?
a. ROM
b. BIOS
c. CMOS
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
a. ROM
b. BIOS
c. CMOS
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?
a. BIOS
b. CMOS
c. Cache
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What static RAM uses special applications in a CPU?
a. BIOS
b. CMOS
c. Cache
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
a. CMOS
b. Cache
c. DDRAM
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as
a. polling
b. signaling
c. processing
d. multitasking |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a CPU or a synchronous event?
a. Cache
b. Buffer
c. Interface
d. Interrupt |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What interrupt request(IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which term describes data that is whole or complete?
a. Driver
b. Parity bit
c. Data integrity
d. Error correction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is considered as a technique or method of an error detecting code?
a. Asynchronous
b. Parity bit
c. Interrupt
d. Fault |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
a. Interrupt
b. Parity bit
c. Asynchronous
d. Data integrity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?
a. ROM
b. BIOS
c. CMOS
d. EEPROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?
a. BIOS
b. Driver
c. Parity
d. Interrupt |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?
a. Voltage
b. Amperage
c. Conductivity
d. Electrostatic discharge |
|
Definition
| d. Electrostatic discharge |
|
|
Term
Static electricity remains intact until it is
a. absorbed
b. dissolved
c. discharged
d. neutralized |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Under what class of ESD would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ESD items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?
a. Ground the ESDS device
b. Check the relative humidity level
c. Disconnect the circuit from the device
d. Turn the power switch to the off position |
|
Definition
| a. Ground the ESDS device |
|
|
Term
What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an ESDS device?
a. Ground the ESDS device
b. Check the relative humidity level
c. Disconnect the circuit from the device
d. Turn the power switch to the off position |
|
Definition
| d. Turn the power switch to the off position |
|
|
Term
The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called
a. fault isolation
b. event evaluation
c. process investigation
d. analytical consideration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?
a. Define the problem
b. Isolate the problem
c. Resolve the problem
d. Confirm the resolution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
a. Define the problem
b. Isolate the problem
c. Resolve the problem
d. Confirm the resolution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In which trouble shooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes? a. Define the problem b. Isolate the problem c. Resolve the problem d. Confirm the resolution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which trouble shooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?
a. Define the problem
b. Isolate the problem
c. Resolve the problem
d. Confirm the resolution |
|
Definition
| d. Confirm the resolution |
|
|
Term
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?
a. The keyboard lights should flash
b. A memory test should be visible on the monitor
c. The hard disk access light should come on briefly
d. The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears |
|
Definition
| a. The keyboard lights should flash |
|
|
Term
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the BIOS message appears on the monitor?
a. The keyboard lights should flash
b. A memory test should be visible on the monitor
c. The hard disk access light should come on briefly
d. The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears |
|
Definition
| b. A memory test should be visible on the monitor |
|
|
Term
Normally the last step in the boot up process is
a. The keyboard lights should flash
b. A memory test should be visible on the monitor
c. The hard disk access light should come on briefly
d. The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears |
|
Definition
| d. The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears |
|
|
Term
What can detect if CPU hardware problems exist?
a. Event evaluation
b. POST
c. Process investigation
d. Analytical consideration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When trouble shooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to
a. Review the schematic diagram for errors
b. Make a complete drawing of all the components
c. Call the manufacturer and speak to customer service
d. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points |
|
Definition
| d. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points |
|
|
Term
What rank must primary communications security responsible officers(CRO) hold?
a. SSgt
b. TSgt
c. MSgt
d. Capt |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
a. COMSEC manager
b. Unit commander
c. Wing commander
d. Wing commanders with approval of COMSEC managers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After receiving their intial educations in COMSEC account management, how often must CRO be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?
a. Quarterly
b. Semi-annually
c. Annually
d. Biennially |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To ensure CRO's are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the COMSEC material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Semi-annually
d. Annually |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?
a. Director of National Security Agency (DIRNSA)
b. HQ USAF/SCX
c. Air Force Communications Agency(AFCA)
d. Cryptologic support group(CPSG) |
|
Definition
| a. Director of National Security Agency(DIRNSA) |
|
|
Term
What is the classification of the combination to any security container?
a. Not classified
b. Always classified FOUO
c. Always classified confidential
d. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container |
|
Definition
| d. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container |
|
|
Term
The operational use and control of COMSEC material is overseen and controlled by
a. A controlling authority
b. A COMSEC manager
c. An installation commander
d. A cryptologic support group |
|
Definition
| a. A controlling authority |
|
|
Term
This COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number
a. ALC-1
b. ALC-2
c. ALC-3
d. ALC-4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This COMSEC material is accounted for continuously by quantity
a. ALC-1
b. ALC-2
c. ALC-3
d. ALC-4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This COMSEC material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory
a. ALC-1
b. ALC-2
c. ALC-3
d. ALC-4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment
a. SF 700
b. SF 701
c. SF 702
d. SF 703 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form do you fill out and affix to the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?
a. SF 700
b. SF 701
c. SF 702
d. SF 703 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Annually
d. Bi-annually |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the preferred method of listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16?
a. By shelf arrangement
b. By drawer arrangement
c. Alphabetically by edition
d. Alphabetically by short title |
|
Definition
| d. Alphabetically by short title |
|
|
Term
| AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory? a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager
a. requests special TDY orders from combat support group(CSGP)
b. request special TDY orders from major command(MAJCOM)
c. conducts the inventory with the user by telephone
d. asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message |
|
Definition
| d. asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message |
|
|
Term
Who establishes the semi-anual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?
a. Director of National Security Agency
b. HQ USAF/SCX
c. Air Force Communications Agency(AFCA)
d. Cryptologic support group(CPSG) |
|
Definition
| d. Cryptologic support group(CPSG) |
|
|
Term
The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing offical duties is the
a. User
b. Manager
c. Account manager
d. Responsible officer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment?
a. Aids
b. Entities
c. Supplies
d. Materials |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?
a. AFCOMSEC Form 14
b. AFCOMSEC Form 23
c. SF 153
d. SF 701 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which phase does the COMSEC manager determine which materials the CRO needs?
a. Protection
b. Preparation
c. Distribution
d. Administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which phase does the CRO check material issued against the list on the SF 153?
a. Protection
b. Preparation
c. Distribution
d. Administration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?
a. Check the COMSEC manager's clearance status
b. Check to see if the effective dates of material are correct
c. Check the users clearance to ensure they are authorized to utilize the material
d. Ensure the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue |
|
Definition
| d. Ensure the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue |
|
|
Term
Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to
a. North Atlantic Treaty Organization(NATO) forces
b. Transient aircrews
c. Base COMSEC account itself
d. Joint military operations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What term suggest movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?
a. Carrier
b. Transfer
c. Transport
d. Shipment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single SF 153
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC material?
a. SF 153
b. SF 700
c. AFCOMSEC form 14
d. AFCOMSEC form 16 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message a. NSA b. Cryptologic systems group(CPSG) c. MAJCOM d. CM |
|
Definition
| b. Cryptologic systems group(CPSG) |
|
|
Term
Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitue what kind of violation?
a. Failure to respond
b. Withdrawn from use
c. Long delay in pickup
d. Cryptographic incident |
|
Definition
| d. Cryptographic incident |
|
|
Term
Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency actions plans(EAP) on base?
a. COMSEC manager
b. CRO
c. Unit commander
d. MAJCOM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semi-annual emergency action plan(EAP) excercises?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 36 months |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Air Force form do COMSEC managers use when conducting an inspection of a sub COMSEC account?
a. 3215
b. 3718
c. 4160
d. 4500 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the maximum time between EAP exercises at CRO accounts?
a. 1 month
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control(TPC) positions?
a. A doctor at the base medical facility
b. The commander of the unit holding TPC material
c. The COMSEC manager of a unit holding TPC material
d. The wing commander of a unit holding TPC material |
|
Definition
| b. The commander of the unit holding TPC material |
|
|
Term
What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?
a. Certificate repository
b. Certification authority
c. Registration management authority
d. Certification authority workstation |
|
Definition
| d. Certification authority workstation |
|
|
Term
What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure?
a. COTS
b. Combat integrated systems
c. TDC
d. ICAP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What TDC characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards?
a. Mobility
b. Survivability
c. Interoperability
d. Open system standards |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What TDC characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to and absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
a. Mobility
b. Survivability
c. Interoperability
d. Open system standards |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What TDC characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?
a. Mobility
b. Survivability
c. Interoperability
d. Open system standards |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communication networks? a. COTS b. Combat integrated systems c. TDC d. ICAP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?
a. Open system standards teams
b. Combat integrated system teams
c. Initial communications support teams
d. Sustained communications support teams |
|
Definition
| d. Sustained communications support teams |
|
|
Term
Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?
a. Manpower and equipment monitor
b. Manager of deployable communications
c. UDM and commander
d. Initial communications support monitor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?
a. Deployment
b. Re-deployment
c. Predeployment
d. Reconstitution |
|
Definition
|
|
