Term
1. (001) When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
a. The first duty day following completion.
b. Within 30 days of completion.
c. 72 hours after completion.
d. 48 hours after completion. |
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Definition
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Term
2. (001) The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the
responsibility of the flight
a. commander.
b. supervisor.
c. SNCO.
d. chief. |
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Definition
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Term
3. (001) Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
a. SFS.
b. SFM.
c. SFO.
d. SFT. |
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Definition
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Term
4. (001) The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
a. security patrol.
b. security force members.
c. SRT member.
d. ART member. |
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Definition
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Term
5. (001) What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three
minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
a. Internal SRT.
b. Immediate visual assessment sentries.
c. Close boundary sentry.
d. External SRT. |
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Definition
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Term
6. (001) What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes
to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
a. Internal SRT.
b. Immediate visual assessment sentries.
c. Close boundary sentry.
d. External SRT. |
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Definition
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Term
7. (001) When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you
have a couple of single-person
a. fire teams.
b. internal SRTs.
c. security patrols.
d. close boundary sentries. |
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Definition
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Term
8. (001) What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
a. Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.
b. Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.
c. Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when
alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area.
d. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher
headquarters requirements for designated areas. |
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Definition
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Term
9. (001) Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the
responsibility of the
a. MSCFO.
b. IVA.
c. CCTV.
d. CBS. |
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Definition
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Term
10. (001) What does SEI stand for?
a. Security entry identifier.
b. Security experience index.
c. Special delivery identifier.
d. Special experience identifier. |
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Definition
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Term
11. (001) The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
a. existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.
b. manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as
manage needs.
c. existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management
needs.
d. how many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron. |
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Definition
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Term
16. (002) Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information
reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
a. Investigations.
b. Crime prevention.
c. Resource protection.
d. Reports and analysis. |
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Definition
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Term
17. (003) Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?
a. AFI 36–2225.
b. AFI 36–2226.
c. AFI 36–2227.
d. AFI 36–2525. |
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Definition
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Term
18. (003) What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
a. Analysis.
b. Feedback.
c. Evaluation.
d. Cross-feed. |
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Definition
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Term
19. (003) How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation
after an individual completes qualification training?
a. 120.
b. 90.
c. 60.
d. 30. |
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Definition
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Term
20. (003) After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the
individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?
a. 30.
b. 21.
c. 15.
d. 3. |
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Definition
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Term
21. (004) The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to
a. enforce military laws and regulations.
b. detect classified information.
c. suppress illegal drug use.
d. detect explosives. |
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Definition
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Term
22. (004) Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
a. OUT and IN.
b. SIT and STAY.
c. OUT and HEEL.
d. STAY and HEEL. |
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Definition
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Term
23. (004) When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?
a. Deterrence.
b. Detention.
c. Decoying.
d. Detection. |
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Definition
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Term
24. (004) When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum
usage?
a. In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.
b. Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.
c. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
d. Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy. |
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Definition
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Term
25. (004) What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?
a. Location and size of area.
b. Time and terrain features.
c. Wind speed and direction.
d. Experience of canine and handler. |
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Definition
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Term
26. (004) What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on
post?
a. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.
b. Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.
c. Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.
d. Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team. |
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Definition
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Term
27. (004) From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?
a. Upwind.
b. Crosswind.
c. Downwind.
d. Wind direction doesn’t matter. |
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Definition
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Term
28. (004) When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the
handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
a. Danger to the canine.
b. Time left in patrol shift.
c. Type and size of building.
d. Weather conditions just prior to the search. |
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Definition
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Term
29. (004) When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous
a. physical deterrent.
b. physicians deterrent.
c. physiological deterrent.
d. psychological deterrent. |
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Definition
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Term
30. (004) Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
a. They should be tolerant of people.
b. They should not be used often in daylight hours.
c. The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog’s usefulness.
d. Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward
sign of aggression. |
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Definition
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Term
31. (004) When is the military working dog’s detection ability more effective?
a. During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.
b. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.
c. High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.
d. During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect. |
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Definition
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Term
32. (004) While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
a. On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.
b. In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.
c. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.
d. On leash, laying down on the back seat. |
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Definition
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Term
33. (004) If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
a. Sit/Stay.
b. Guard.
c. Heel.
d. Out. |
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Definition
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Term
34. (005) Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
a. AF Forms 629 and 1297.
b. AF Forms 629 and 1473.
c. AF Forms 1297 and 1473.
d. AF Forms 1437 and 1279. |
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Definition
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Term
35. (005) When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
a. Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.
b. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
c. Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.
d. Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel. |
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Definition
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Term
36. (006) What installations are required to have an ISP?
a. Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.
b. The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.
c. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
d. Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures. |
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Definition
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Term
37. (006) Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an
installation instruction?
a. Wing plans and programs section.
b. Installation security police chief.
c. Installation commander.
d. MAJCOM commander. |
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Definition
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Term
38. (006) What is not included in the ISP?
a. Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings.
b. Assessment of the installation’s vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage.
c. A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.
d. An estimate of support from friendly forces. |
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Definition
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Term
39. (007) The information security program permits the disclosure of classified information only to
a. personnel who can demonstrate a need to know.
b. personnel who have requested a Freedom of Information Act request.
c. cleared personnel who need the information to perform official duties.
d. an individual who has the appropriate clearance to view the material in question. |
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Definition
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Term
40. (007) What is not a required storage procedure for Top Secret information?
a. Alarmed areas affording protection equal to or better than the other approved options.
b. Class A vault or vault-type room as prescribed by Air Force guidance.
c. Two-person concept, guarding the material behind a locked door.
d. GSA-approved security container. |
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Definition
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Term
41. (007) Who may delegate authority to approve escorting or hand-carrying classified material on
commercial aircraft outside the United States, its territories, or Canada?
a. Only the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.
b. Only MAJCOM commanders.
c. Only wing commanders.
d. No one. |
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Definition
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|
Term
42. (007) When someone enters the Air Force, which security clearance investigation is performed?
a. A NAC.
b. SSBI.
c. An ENTNAC.
d. NACI. |
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Definition
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|
Term
43. (007) SSBIs are required for personnel requiring what clearance?
a. Secret.
b. Classified.
c. Top Secret.
d. Confidential. |
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Definition
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|
Term
44. (008) The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
a. determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
b. ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.
c. determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.
d. ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions. |
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Definition
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Term
46. (009) All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have
emergency lights, sirens, and a
a. spare tire.
b. public address system.
c. set of keys hidden in the dash.
d. NCIC computer. |
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Definition
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Term
47. (009) All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have
a. SF badges applied to both the front doors.
b. emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.
c. portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
d. a cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD. |
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Definition
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Term
48. (010) Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying
a. voluntarily.
b. unwillingly.
c. mandatorily.
d. involuntarily. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
49. (011) Which code is not an alarm response code?
a. 4.
b. 3.
c. 2.
d. 1. |
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Definition
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|
Term
50. (011) Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
a. Terminate response.
b. Immediately secure the area.
c. Search for suspicious individuals.
d. Search the exterior for open doors or windows. |
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Definition
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|
Term
51. (012) Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily
responsible for security?
a. PL1.
b. PL2.
c. PL3.
d. PL4. |
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Definition
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Term
52. (013) What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command
“Open Ranks, MARCH”?
a. The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s
length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.
b. The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s
length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively,
forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
c. The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s
length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively,
forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
d. The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal
interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces,
respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right. |
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Definition
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|
Term
53. (013) During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, “Close Ranks,
MARCH”?
a. When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.
b. Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.
c. At the completion of the guardmount briefing.
d. Upon departure of the inspecting official. |
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Definition
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Term
54. (014) Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the
individual is
a. fit for duty.
b. prepared to present a post briefing.
c. complying with appearance directives.
d. in possession of all required equipment. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
55. (015) As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for
a. interpretation.
b. discussion.
c. argument.
d. debate. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
56. (016) What is the unit flight schedule based on?
a. Deployment/operations tempo.
b. Flight TDY/leave schedule.
c. Individual needs.
d. Unit needs. |
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Definition
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Term
57. (016) Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound
a. COMSEC practices.
b. INFOSEC practices.
c. HUMINT practices.
d. OPSEC practices. |
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Definition
|
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Term
58. (017) It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do
in order to maintain
a. proficiency.
b. discipline.
c. fairness.
d. control. |
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Definition
|
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Term
60. (018) A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of
a. precedence, from least important to most important, as outlined in the ISI.
b. precedence as outlined in ISP.
c. rank precedence as outlined in the ISP.
d. precedence as outlined in the ISI. |
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Definition
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Term
61. (019) What is the publication reference for The Tongue and Quill?
a. AFH 32–336.
b. AFI 32–336.
c. AFH 33–337.
d. AFI 33–337. |
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Definition
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Term
62. (019) In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?
a. Length and neatness.
b. Simplicity and directness.
c. Correct details and factual statements.
d. Clear statements and proper grammar. |
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Definition
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Term
63. (020) Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
a. Unit training section.
b. Chief of security forces.
c. Senior security forces NCOs.
d. HQ Air Force Security Forces Center. |
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Definition
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Term
64. (020) Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified,
and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?
a. Unit training section.
b. Individual supervisors.
c. Senior security forces NCOs.
d. HQ Air Force Security Forces Center. |
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Definition
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|
Term
65. (020) Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?
a. Individual skills.
b. Collective skills.
c. Contingency skills.
d. Ground combat skills. |
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Definition
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Term
66. (021) Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a
crime scene
a. would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
b. could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
c. could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.
d. would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found
faster. |
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Definition
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|
Term
67. (021) The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows
a. photographs to be taken.
b. responding patrols to better piece together events.
c. the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.
d. the investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene. |
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Definition
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Term
68. (022) Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary
investigation
a. interferes with the ongoing investigation.
b. allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight.
c. adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer.
d. brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. |
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Definition
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|
Term
69. (022) At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
a. Prior to arriving on scene.
b. During the initial briefing.
c. While conducting a search.
d. During the preliminary visual examination. |
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Definition
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|
Term
70. (022) Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the
a. number of personnel available.
b. size of the item to be found.
c. amount of time available.
d. area to be covered. |
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Definition
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|
Term
71. (023) What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
a. The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession.
b. There is no time limit set on an interview.
c. No more than 30 minutes.
d. No more than 60 minutes. |
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Definition
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|
Term
72. (023) How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
a. At least three and one should be of the same sex.
b. You are only required to have one investigator.
c. As many as it takes to intimidate the suspect.
d. An interview is limited to two investigators. |
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Definition
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|
Term
73. (023) When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot find a parent or the
parent cannot respond in a timely manner?
a. Seek CSP advice.
b. Seek ADC advice.
c. Seek SJA advice.
d. Question them with a witness. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
74. (023) What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect
during an interview?
a. Let another investigator conduct the interview.
b. Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you.
c. Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down.
d. Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue. |
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Definition
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|
Term
75. (023) Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or
ready to provide information?
a. Combination.
b. Alternating.
c. Indirect.
d. Direct. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
75. (023) Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or
ready to provide information?
a. Combination.
b. Alternating.
c. Indirect.
d. Direct. |
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Definition
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|
Term
77. (024) What is a confession?
a. An admission of guilt that is a self-incriminating statement.
b. Any statement made by the accused as to the elements of a crime.
c. A complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense.
d. An involuntary comment made by the accused pertaining to criminal activity. |
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Definition
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|
Term
78. (025) The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
a. tact, poise, and self-assurance.
b. tact, poise, and self-confidence.
c. reliance, poise, and self-confidence.
d. cockiness, poise, and self-confidence. |
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Definition
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|
Term
79. (025) What is not one of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?
a. Personal knowledge.
b. Tape recordings.
c. Memoranda.
d. Notes. |
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Definition
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|
Term
80. (026) Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?
a. Flight commander and supervisor.
b. Flight chief and flight commander.
c. Flight chief and senior patrol officer.
d. Flight commander and operations superintendent. |
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Definition
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|
Term
81. (027) Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may
have time to
a. leave.
b. call a lawyer.
c. get their story straight.
d. conceal evidence of a crime. |
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Definition
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|
Term
82. (027) What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
a. calm, positive, and helpful.
b. agitated, positive, and helpful.
c. uncaring, bothered, and hurried.
d. aggressive, hostile, and immediate. |
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Definition
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|
Term
83. (027) When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at
closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be
a. hiding drugs.
b. looking for an escape.
c. cold and wants a jacket.
d. hiding an injured family member or a weapon. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
84. (028) What is not an indication of child neglect?
a. Lack of medical care.
b. Inadequate nourishment.
c. Signs of impoverishment.
d. Insufficient clothing, lack of supervision. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
85. (028) Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are indicators of
a. neglect.
b. sexual abuse.
c. physical abuse.
d. emotional maltreatment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
86. (029) It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced
a. an intense financial trauma.
b. an intense physical trauma.
c. a serious violent crime.
d. an emotional trauma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
87. (029) The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the
a. SJA.
b. CSP.
c. OSI.
d. SFOI. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
88. (029) Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local
agencies?
a. RO.
b. SJA.
c. CSP.
d. LRO. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
89. (030) On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onscene
commander deems it appropriate?
a. DFC.
b. LOAC.
c. Geneva Convention.
d. United States. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
90. (031) If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to
which person can the individual be released?
a. Medical personnel.
b. Roommate.
c. Supervisor.
d. Spouse. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
91. (032) Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called
a. a hearing.
b. a case review.
c. an additional interviews.
d. a follow-up investigation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
92. (032) The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional
investigative steps of an incident when the member is
a. reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared.
b. identifying and apprehending suspects.
c. conducting additional interviews.
d. collecting physical evidence. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
93. (032) What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?
a. Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and Article 7b, UCMJ.
b. AF Form 3226, Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling.
c. Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.
d. US Constitution and RCM 302(c). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
94. (033) The nuclear weapons mishap flag word “Dull Sword” identifies a nuclear weapons
a. accident.
b. incident.
c. deficiency.
d. occurrence. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
95. (033) Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?
a. Law enforcement desk.
b. Security control.
c. Command post.
d. Base ops. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
96. (033) In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
a. Downwind or crosswind.
b. Crosswind or sidewind.
c. Upwind or downwind.
d. Upwind or crosswind. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
97. (033) Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
a. Reporters.
b. Medical staff.
c. Photographers.
d. Key personnel. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
98. (033) Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United
States Code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?
a. FBI.
b. OSI.
c. CIA.
d. SJA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
99. (033) From a hostage’s standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this
is when
a. the hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact.
b. most of the traveling occurs, after the hostage is abducted.
c. the hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.
d. all deals are made for the release of the hostages. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. (201) The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
a. base defense operations center (BDOC).
b. point of insertion.
c. base perimeter.
d. resource. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. (201) The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
a. defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of
responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
b. defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding
the air base.
c. stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the
air base.
d. defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the
air base. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. (201) At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center
(BDOC)?
a. S1 and S3.
b. S2 and S4.
c. S2 and S3.
d. S3 and S4. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. (201) What is the staff make-up for the S3?
a. The operations officer and staff.
b. Supply noncommissioned officer.
c. First sergeant or section commander.
d. Intelligence officers and security forces investigators. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. (202) In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
a. By rank and function.
b. By function and location.
c. By service component or function.
d. By service component and location. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. (202) The primary mission of a joint operation is
a. lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
b. sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
c. disaster relief operations.
d. humanitarian operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. (203) When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
a. Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
b. Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
c. Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
d. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. (203) A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or
more governments is
a. non-state-supported.
b. state-supported.
c. stated-directed.
d. state-organized. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. (203) A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
a. group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
b. hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
c. hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
d. intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. (203) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the
ages of
a. 16–24.
b. 21–28.
c. 23–30.
d. 25–32. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. (203) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
a. Before execution of attack.
b. Just before departing for the target sight.
c. One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
d. Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. (203) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
a. arson.
b. bombing.
c. hijacking.
d. assassination. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
13. (203) The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
a. State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions
(THREATCON).
b. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
c. Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
d. Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
14. (203) What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
a. Activity.
b. Intentions.
c. Operational capability.
d. Operating environment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
15. (204) Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
a. communication security (COMSEC).
b. computer security (COMPUSEC).
c. information security (INFOSEC).
d. operations security (OPSEC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
16. (204) The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
a. support the OPSEC noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) by ensuring the command or
organization actively practices OPSEC.
b. support the wing commander by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC
program.
c. support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.
d. prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
17. (204) When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
a. At the earliest possible moment.
b. Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
c. Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
d. Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
18. (205) Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces,
and guerrillas?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
19. (205) Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
a. Partisans.
b. Terrorists.
c. Sympathizers.
d. Agent activity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
20. (205) Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum
level?
a. IV.
b. III.
c. II.
d. I. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
21. (205) Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct
helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
22. (206) What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
a. Force protection (FP) working.
b. Anti-terrorism working.
c. Physical security.
d. Threat working. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
23. (206) Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat
analysts is a/an
a. annual process.
b. bi-annual process.
c. monthly process.
d. continual process. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
24. (206) What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel
and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
a. Risk.
b. Threat.
c. Vulnerability.
d. Anti-terrorism. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
25. (206) The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
a. the classified protection plan.
b. protecting sensitive information.
c. the offensive force protection plan.
d. the defensive force protection plan. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
26. (206) The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through
the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with
materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
a. cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
b. concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
c. deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
d. camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
27. (206) To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
a. hide.
b. blend.
c. decoy.
d. disguise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
28. (207) The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you
to coordinate your activities
a. through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and
Naturalization Service.
b. with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
c. through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
d. through the joint rear area commander (JRAC). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
29. (207) Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
a. quarantine.
b. peacekeeping.
c. clandestine infiltration.
d. humanitarian assistance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
30. (207) Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile
factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
a. Unity of Effort.
b. Objective.
c. Restraint.
d. Security. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
31. (208) As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is
responsive and capable of
a. full spectrum of air and space domination.
b. deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously.
c. deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time.
d. supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation commanders. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
32. (208) What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to
any unexpected contingency?
a. 12 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. 72 hours. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
33. (209) What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
a. Support.
b. Foundation.
c. Tactical operation.
d. Retrograde operations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
34. (209) Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all
Airmen considered?
a. Detectors.
b. Monitors.
c. Fighters.
d. Sensors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
35. (209) Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy
without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
a. Anticipate.
b. Detect.
c. Delay.
d. Deny. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
36. (209) What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?
a. Countermeasures options.
b. If reassessments and follow ups are needed.
c. Whether to introduce risk management process training.
d. If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
37. (210) An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
a. within 24 hours of notification in response to a crisis with forces tailored to achieve limited and
clearly stated objectives.
b. on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated
objectives.
c. on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear
objectives.
d. within 72 hours in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated
objectives. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
38. (210) What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force
(AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
a. Two bomber group leads (BGL).
b. Three BGLs.
c. Four BGLs.
d. Five BGLs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
39. (210) The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists
who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
a. predictability.
b. flexibility.
c. mobility.
d. stability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
40. (210) Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs
have as a designator?
a. UT.
b. FP.
c. AT.
d. QF. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
41. (210) When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is
required, who may initiate the action for the change?
a. Any level.
b. Unit level.
c. Major command (MAJCOM) level.
d. Air Staff level only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
42. (210) What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
a. Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD).
b. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Roster (AFWUR).
c. Air Expeditionary Unit Tasking Summary Sheet (AUTSS).
d. Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
43. (211) Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to
operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?
a. Maneuver.
b. Offensive.
c. Objective.
d. Mass. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
44. (211) Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting
military operations is what principle of war?
a. Unity of command.
b. Simplicity.
c. Objective.
d. Offensive. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
45. (212) Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
a. follow the rule of law.
b. meet manning standards.
c. follow national policy goals.
d. follow mission requirements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
46. (212) Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of
self-defense is the purpose of the
a. United Nations.
b. Geneva Convention.
c. joint force commander’s directives.
d. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
47. (212) What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
a. Prevent unnecessary suffering.
b. Prevent use of political influence.
c. Maintain a well-defined military plan.
d. Provide equal representation of all combatants. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
48. (213) What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
a. Sustainability.
b. Attainability.
c. Flexibility.
d. Simplicity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
49. (213) What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces
(SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security
functions?
a. QFDB9.
b. QFEBA.
c. QFEBB.
d. QFEBD. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
50. (213) What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ
staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
a. QFEBU.
b. QFEPR.
c. QFFPF.
d. QFEBA. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
51. (213) What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection
dog and an assigned handler?
a. QFEBM.
b. QFEBN.
c. QFEBP.
d. QFEBR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
52. (213) What unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped
security forces (SF) personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on
airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?
a. QFEBU.
b. QFEPR.
c. QFFPF.
d. QFFPG. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
53. (214) During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security
for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security
missions as required?
a. QFEB2.
b. QFEB3.
c. QFEB4.
d. QFEB5. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
54. (214) What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the
mortar teams?
a. QFEBK.
b. QFEBR.
c. QFEBJ.
d. QFERT. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
55. (215) What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
a. Weather.
b. Treaties.
c. Intelligence.
d. Political climate. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
56. (215) How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing
without support?
a. 5 days.
b. 7 days.
c. 14 days.
d. 30 days. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
57. (215) What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?
a. Bare base (BB).
b. Standby base (SB).
c. Main operating base (MOB).
d. Collocated operating base (COB). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
58. (216) What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?
a. Ground defense.
b. Clandestine.
c. Intelligence.
d. Aerial. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
59. (216) Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited
a. depth.
b. intelligence.
c. denial capabilities.
d. all-around defense. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
60. (216) What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue
its primary mission with minimal interference?
a. Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack.
b. Counter-espionage and counterattack.
c. Counterattack and counter-resistance.
d. Counter-defense and counterattack. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
61. (217) What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?
a. Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation.
b. Area of operation (AO) policing for cleanliness.
c. Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules.
d. Assign sectors of fire. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
62. (218) What should always be your first priority of work?
a. Establish local security.
b. Emplace obstacles and mines.
c. Prepare primary fighting positions.
d. Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
63. (218) What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to
provide maximum protection for base critical resources?
a. The entire base tactical boundary.
b. The entire air base defense (ABD) plan.
c. The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).
d. The limiting factors to the defense of the air base |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
64. (218) When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are
a. located on unidentifiable terrain.
b. split between to sectors.
c. evenly grouped.
d. camouflaged. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
65. (219) What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?
a. When you have made contact with the enemy.
b. When time and materials are not a factor.
c. When there is ample natural cover.
d. When aerial strikes are imminent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
66. (219) Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
a. A scrape out.
b. A shell crate.
c. Peak of a roof.
d. Under a parked vehicle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
67. (219) When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary
mission?
a. Provide covering fire for the assault element.
b. It’s only function is with the maneuver element.
c. Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams.
d. Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
68. (219) In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find
themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?
a. 400.
b. 600.
c. 800.
d. 1,000. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
69. (219) Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in
a. area and mass.
b. width and depth.
c. length and width.
d. length and depth. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
70. (219) What is the main mission of the machine gun?
a. To provide a high rate of fire to fight off enemy attacks.
b. To protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions.
c. To protect the wounded and critical resources from further injury or destruction.
d. To provide the most effective firepower again any weapon the enemy can attack with. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
71. (220) What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
a. Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any.
b. Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT–4s.
c. Mines (claymores), sensors, and obstacles.
d. Location of home station flight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
72. (221) What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S
staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and
implement tactical plans and orders?
a. Maps.
b. Signals.
c. Reports.
d. Telegrams. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
73. (222) What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?
a. Individual personnel.
b. Light armored vehicles in sector.
c. Crew-served automatic weapons.
d. Groups of five or more in the primary sector. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
74. (222) When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
a. ENGAGEMENT ZONE.
b. AMBUSH ZONE.
c. DEATH ZONE.
d. KILL ZONE. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
75. (223) Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the
effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?
a. Integrating indirect suppressive fires.
b. Unit protection as rounds impact.
c. Required effect.
d. Timing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
76. (223) Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used
when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?
a. On enemy positions away from the breach site.
b. To isolate the objective.
c. For close suppression.
d. To clear a path. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
77. (223) A “call for fire” is a message
a. given to an observer.
b. prepared by the unit.
c. prepared by an observer.
d. prepared by the flight leader. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
78. (224) Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to
delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?
a. III and IV.
b. II and III.
c. II and IV.
d. I and IV. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
79. (225) Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS)
greatly enhance in base defensive operations?
a. Alarms and detection.
b. Detection and security.
c. Security and prevention.
d. Detection and alert notifications. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
80. (226) Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?
a. In a water tower.
b. In a stand-alone position.
c. In a single small gathering of trees.
d. In a position that doesn’t draw attention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
81. (226) Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to
a. indicate enemy location using flares.
b. protect themselves.
c. report information.
d. observe the area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
82. (226) What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?
a. All-around.
b. In-depth.
c. Area.
d. Spot. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
83. (227) A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is
defined as
a. exclusion area.
b. search area.
c. denial area.
d. safe area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
84. (227) What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?
a. Personnel, vehicle, and safe.
b. Personnel, vehicle, and denial.
c. Personnel, vehicle, and reaction force.
d. Personnel, vehicle, and response force. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
85. (227) What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?
a. Existing and reinforcing.
b. Disrupting and turning.
c. Blocking and turning.
d. Turning and fixing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
86. (227) Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
a. Man-made and fabricated.
b. Natural and structural.
c. Hard and soft.
d. Left and right. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
87. (228) The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities
(ECF) must be
a. protected and guarded.
b. safe and comfortable.
c. well lit and elevated.
d. cool and calm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
87. (228) The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities
(ECF) must be
a. protected and guarded.
b. safe and comfortable.
c. well lit and elevated.
d. cool and calm. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
89. (229) You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the
a. number of troops required guarding it.
b. amount of time it would take to patrol the area.
c. need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.
d. necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
90. (229) The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with
a. a red line.
b. a temporary sign.
c. rope marking off the area.
d. posted guards every 50 feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. (401) What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of
equipment?
a. Topographical.
b. Geographical.
c. Marginal.
d. Index. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
2. (401) Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?
a. Yellow.
b. Green.
c. Orange.
d. Black. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
3. (401) On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank?
a. A river.
b. A lake.
c. A stream.
d. A dry pond. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
4. (401) If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as
a single line, these lines denote a
a. small ridge or plateau.
b. vertical/near vertical cliff.
c. small hill with a gentle slope.
d. depression in the terrain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
5. (401) Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on a Defense
Mapping Agency map?
a. Supplementary.
b. Intermediate.
c. Secondary.
d. Index. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
6. (401) Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?
a. Depression.
b. Ridge.
c. Valley.
d. Saddle. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
7. (401) A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a
ridge is called a
a. spur.
b. hill.
c. cliff.
d. slope. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
8. (402) What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference
System?
a. The universal traveling map and the universal plotting scheme.
b. The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic.
c. The unit transverse mercator and the unit polar stereographic.
d. The universal transit mercator and the universal polarity stereographic. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
9. (402) Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you
wish to identify?
a. 1,000.
b. 100.
c. 10.
d. 1. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
10. (402) In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline.
a. Geographic.
b. Magnetic.
c. Polar.
d. True. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
11. (403) What is an azimuth?
a. A vertical angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.
b. A horizontal angle measured counterclockwise from true north, magnetic north.
c. A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.
d. A vertical angle measured counterclockwise from magnetic north or grid north. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
12. (403) How do you convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?
a. Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth.
b. Add the 3.5-degree grid magnet angle to the azimuth.
c. Subtract 3.5 degrees from your back azimuth.
d. Subtract the 5.5 degrees from your azimuth. |
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Definition
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Term
13. (403) What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?
a. There is no dirt in the dial.
b. The numbers are easy to read.
c. The arrows can be seen at night.
d. The dial or arrow moves freely. |
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Definition
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Term
14. (404) Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?
a. High crawl.
b. Low crawl.
c. Rush.
d. Roll. |
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Definition
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Term
15. (404) Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?
a. Low crawl.
b. Moving at night.
c. Moving with stealth.
d. Moving with precision. |
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Definition
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Term
16. (405) When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often do you state the
mission?
a. One time.
b. Two times.
c. Three times.
d. Four times. |
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Definition
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Term
17. (405) In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of
operations?
a. Detailed and understandable and describe how the unit will finish its mission.
b. Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its
mission.
c. Concise describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to
finish.
d. Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its
mission from the start to finish. |
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Definition
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Term
18. (405) In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in
detail?
a. Execution.
b. Maneuver.
c. Offensive.
d. Defensive. |
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Definition
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Term
19. (405) Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify
the service and support concept?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4. |
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Definition
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Term
20. (405) Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?
a. To change an existing order.
b. To order a fragmentary grenade.
c. To advise personnel of a fragile operation.
d. To indicate a change in the command structure of the unit. |
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Definition
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Term
21. (405) Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as
well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?
a. Rough draft.
b. Concept sketch.
c. Operations overlay.
d. Terrain Scale model. |
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Definition
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Term
22. (406) Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control
indirect fires for the squad or flight?
a. Assault.
b. Support.
c. Breach.
d. Demolition. |
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Definition
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Term
23. (406) Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines
a. an ambush.
b. an assault.
c. a hasty.
d. a raid. |
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Definition
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Term
24. (407) Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?
a. Area.
b. Silent.
c. Zone.
d. Route. |
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Definition
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Term
25. (407) Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain,
and routes within a specified zone?
a. Zone.
b. Route.
c. Area.
d. Silent. |
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Definition
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Term
26. (407) When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in
locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering
information?
a. Multiple area reconnaissance.
b. Successive sector method.
c. Converging routes method.
d. Stationary teams. |
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Definition
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Term
27. (408) Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must
establish a base
a. of fire.
b. support plan.
c. camp retrograde.
d. deflection maneuver. |
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Definition
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Term
28. (408) In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire
support come?
a. Mortars, MK19s, and M2.50 calibers.
b. Your support team weapons.
c. Fire and maneuver elements.
d. Your team’s own weapons. |
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Definition
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Term
29. (409) Why do squads use formations?
a. For control flexibility and security.
b. Flexibility and movement.
c. Flexibility only.
d. For control only. |
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Definition
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Term
30. (409) The basic formation for the fire team is the
a. file.
b. wedge.
c. squad file.
d. squad line. |
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Definition
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Term
31. (409) Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?
a. Column.
b. Wedge.
c. Line.
d. File. |
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Definition
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Term
32. (409) When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?
a. Bounding overwatch.
b. Traveling overwatch.
c. Traverse overwatch.
d. Leap frog movements. |
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Definition
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Term
33. (409) Which bounding method is easier to control?
a. Alternate.
b. Successive.
c. Progressive.
d. Leap frog. |
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Definition
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Term
34. (409) Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot
bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?
a. Overwatch and bounding overwatch.
b. Traveling overwatch and traversing overwatch.
c. Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch.
d. Traversing overwatch and bounding overwatch. |
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Definition
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Term
35. (409) You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to use a series
of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is
reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?
a. Night walking.
b. Detour bypass method.
c. Contact danger method.
d. Contouring around the open area. |
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Definition
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Term
36. (410) At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill
zone?
a. The security elements.
b. The outside buddy teams.
c. The inside buddy teams.
d. The ambush reserve teams. |
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Definition
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Term
37. (411) A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team
a. has a specific target and a predetermined location.
b. deploys to attack an enemy in a single kill zone.
c. deploys in two or more related point ambushes.
d. makes visual contact with an enemy force and has time to establish an ambush. |
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Definition
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Term
39. (411) Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault
element?
a. Point.
b. Linear.
c. I-shaped.
d. L-shaped. |
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Definition
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Term
40. (411) If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to
move across the kill zone using which movement technique?
a. Individual.
b. Fire team.
c. Teams organized.
d. Bounding fire team. |
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Definition
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Term
41. (411) Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?
a. In the reverse order that they established their positions.
b. In the order that they established their positions.
c. Two at a time so one can cover the other.
d. Simultaneously. |
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Definition
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Term
42. (412) What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow other actions to take
place?
a. Space.
b. Area.
c. Time.
d. Opportunity. |
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Definition
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Term
43. (412) What are the two types of withdrawals?
a. Fast and slow.
b. Aid and unaided.
c. Assisted and unassisted.
d. Forward and backward. |
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Definition
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Term
44. (412) Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?
a. Under Enemy Pressure.
b. Thinning the lines.
c. Fire teams.
d. By squads. |
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Definition
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Term
45. (413) Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and
maintenance of morale?
a. S–1.
b. S–2.
c. S–3.
d. S–4. |
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Definition
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Term
46. (413) Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects
of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?
a. S–4.
b. S–3.
c. S–2.
d. S–1. |
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Definition
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Term
47. (413) The S–4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations
order?
a. Paragraph 4.
b. Paragraph 3.
c. Paragraph 2.
d. Paragraph 1. |
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Definition
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Term
48. (414) The base commander form the base defense operations center with
a. personnel from the augmentation force.
b. personnel who are on temporary duty.
c. personnel from the S-function staff.
d. available base assets. |
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Definition
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Term
49. (414) Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?
a. Commander, Security Forces.
b. Commander, Base Defense Force.
c. Commander, Area Defense Force.
d. Commander, Joint Response Task Force. |
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Definition
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Term
50. (414) The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground
combat intelligence. The S2 CIS is responsible for all
a. ABD affecting the GCI force.
b. support and supply functions.
c. GCI affecting the ABD force.
d. operational matters with the ABD force. |
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Definition
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Term
51. (414) What is EEI?
a. Essential elements of information.
b. Essential evaluation information.
c. Emergency enemy information.
d. Enemy evaluation information |
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Definition
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Term
52. (415) Which operational step in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is concerned with
determining specific threats?
a. 4.
b. 3.
c. 2.
d. 1. |
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Definition
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Term
53. (415) When interviewing experts individually or as a group, you should ask the key questions
during which operational step of the vulnerability/critically analysis?
a. 5.
b. 4.
c. 3.
d. 2. |
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Definition
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Term
54. (416) For planning purposes, what is the range for field wire circuits using battery-operated
telephones?
a. 20.0 to 35.4 km.
b. 22.5 to 34.5 km.
c. 22.5 to 35.4 km.
d. 25.2 to 35.4 km. |
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Definition
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Term
55. (416) Which installation methods are the easiest to maintain and provide the most satisfactory
service?
a. Buried (underwater) wire/cable.
b. Aerial (overhead) wire/cable.
c. Buried wire/cable.
d. Surface wire/cable. |
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Definition
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Term
56. (416) How often should you conduct visual inspections of individual communications systems
equipment?
a. Bi-weekly.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Daily. |
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Definition
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Term
57. (416) When cleaning communication equipment, what should you use to dust the switches and
light emitting diodes?
a. A soft bristled brush.
b. An abrasive material.
c. A soft damp cloth .
d. A lint-free cloth. |
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Definition
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Term
58. (416) To avoid injury and circuit damage, what should you always do before replacing
components or making adjustments to electronic equipment?
a. Clean, dry, and inspect the equipment.
b. Remove equipment knobs, wires, and plugs.
c. Remove power, discharge, and ground the equipment.
d. Remove wires, plugs, and all control knobs. |
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Definition
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Term
59. (416) The purpose of the communication security protective measures is to
a. deny unauthorized persons telecommunications information.
b. prevent unauthorized users from using our communication system.
c. keep honest people honest by denying the enemy access to our communications equipment.
d. listen in on all incoming and outgoing communications in the tactical area of responsibility. |
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Definition
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Term
60. (416) An authentication system is designed to protect a communications system against the
a. unauthorized use of fraudulent transmissions.
b. acceptance of fraudulent transmissions.
c. sending of fraudulent transmissions.
d. acceptance of faulty transmissions. |
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Definition
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Term
61. (417) Before initiation of a nuclear weapon movement, the convoy commander is responsible for
completing a
a. risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.
b. risk/location assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.
c. risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure deployment procedures are in place.
d. route assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place. |
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Definition
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Term
62. (417) When conducting a general on-base nuclear weapon movement, which of the following is
not an objective of a sweep? To decrease the possibility of
a. involvement with traffic obstructions.
b. other hazards to safe movement.
c. a breakdown in the road.
d. civil disturbances. |
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Definition
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Term
63. (417) What is the response time of a back-up force supporting ground movements of nuclear
weapons?
a. 5 minutes.
b. 10 minutes.
c. 15 minutes.
d. 30 minutes. |
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Definition
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Term
64. (417) Which term is best to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear weapon movement
with local authorities?
a. Sensitive movement.
b. Nuclear movement.
c. Secret movement.
d. Hot movement. |
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Definition
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Term
65. (417) What civilian law enforcement agent will be included in any off-base nuclear weapon
movement?
a. Local patrolman.
b. Deputy chief of police.
c. United States Marshal.
d. Local Federal Bureau of Investigations agent. |
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Definition
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Term
66. (417) In reference to convoy communications, what is the frequency requirement for a convoy
program report?
a. Every 10 minutes.
b. Every 15 minutes.
c. Every 20 minutes.
d. Every 30 minutes. |
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Definition
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Term
67. (418) Most convoy planning is based on unit
a. SOP.
b. SOI.
c. ROI.
d. ESBI. |
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Definition
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Term
68. (418) While a convoy is moving on a controlled route, where will the start point usually be
located?
a. Where the convoy commander designates.
b. Where you pick up your convoy vehicle.
c. At the last checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes.
d. At the first checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes. |
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Definition
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Term
69. (418) Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles?
a. Vehicle commander noncommissioned officer.
b. Commander of the moving unit.
c. Assistant driver.
d. Driver. |
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Definition
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Term
70. (418) When hardening vehicles using sandbags, as an additional precaution, what is placed over
the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments?
a. An additional layer of sandbags.
b. A heavy rubber or fiber mat.
c. Camo netting.
d. Chicken wire. |
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Definition
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Term
71. (419) What is the convoy driver’s sector of observation?
a. From 9 to 11 o’clock.
b. From 6 to 1 o’clock.
c. From 9 to 1 o’clock.
d. From 11 to 1 o’clock. |
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Definition
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Term
72. (419) Which formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference with the convoy’s ability
to change lanes?
a. Diamond.
b. Inverted “T”.
c. Changing lanes.
d. Block and bump. |
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Definition
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Term
73. (419) Which convoy drill is used for small to medium vehicles and not a heavy or tractor-trailer
configuration?
a. Bailout.
b. Downed driver.
c. Hasty vehicle recovery.
d. In-stride hasty vehicle recovery. |
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Definition
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Term
74. (420) Producing combat ready units that respond to known or suspected enemy activity and defeat
the enemy is the goal of
a. Mission readiness.
b. Preparedness.
c. Deploying.
d. Training. |
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Definition
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Term
75. (420) A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without the application of a
deliberate decision-making is a
a. crew drill.
b. battle drill.
c. drill rehearsal.
d. mission training experiment. |
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Definition
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Term
77. (420) If you are acting out the actions that will occur during a mission using the actual vehicles
and equipment that will be used to conduct the operation, you are performing which type of
mission rehearsal?
a. Walk-through.
b. Full-scale.
c. Back brief.
d. Rock drill. |
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Definition
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Term
78. (421) When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, how should you move from
one covered position to another covered position?
a. stealthily.
b. quickly.
c. quietly.
d. easily. |
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Definition
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Term
79. (422) Before entering a building through a window or door that was created by artillery fire, what
should you throw into the new entrance to reinforce the effects of the original blast?
a. a helmet as a decoy airman.
b. a cooked off hand grenade.
c. a white handkerchief.
d. a signal flare. |
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Definition
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Term
80. (423) You would use precision room clearing techniques when
a. the fire team leader feels a precision clearing operation needs to occur in a hostile environment.
b. the tactical situation calls for room-by-room clearing of a relatively intact building in which
enemy combatants and noncombatants may be intermixed.
c. you need to replace other techniques currently being used to clear buildings and rooms during
high-intensity combat.
d. there is a reasonable doubt that insurgents are held up inside the facility you would like to
search. |
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Definition
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Term
81. (423) What clearing task involves seizing control of the room with the purpose of neutralizing the
enemy in the room?
a. Precision.
b. High threat.
c. High energy.
d. High intensity. |
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Definition
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Term
82. (423) What advantage is gained by performing a rapid, violent assault?
a. It conserves badly needed ammunition for future assaults and missions.
b. It overwhelms and destroys the enemy force and seizes the objective.
c. It only requires minimal manpower, due to the use of pyrotechnics.
d. It scares the enemy into simply surrendering the objective at hand. |
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Definition
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Term
83. (423) Which of the following statement concerning the reconnaissance in force (precision
techniques) is not true?
a. It reduces damage.
b. It conserves ammunition.
c. It causes minimal stress in those involved.
d. It minimizes the chance of noncombatant casualties. |
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Definition
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Term
84. (423) Which principle of precision room clearing is the key to a successful assault at close
quarters?
a. Controlled violence of action.
b. Surprise.
c. Timing.
d. Speed. |
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Definition
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Term
85. (423) What is often needed to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to produce a desired effect
to aid the initial entry?
a. Demolitions.
b. Battering Rams.
c. Sledgehammers.
d. Small arms (5.56 or 7.62 mm). |
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Definition
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Term
86. (423) After entering a room, which enemy threat is engaged first?
a. The least immediate enemy threat.
b. The most immediate enemy threat.
c. The most heavily armed enemy threat.
d. The enemy threat furthest from the entry point. |
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Definition
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Term
87. (423) When performing building clearing, what must squad and fire team leaders consider to
achieve the desired results?
a. The method they are to use.
b. The task and purpose they have been given.
c. The firepower they have been given and the method they are to use.
d. The task and purpose they have been given and the method they are to use. |
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Definition
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