Term
| T/F: Positive feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and
the thumbs pointing away from the body. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The elbow is proximal to the shoulder. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through
old age. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would be impossible to keep our body
chemistry in balance. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Histology would be best defined as a study of________.
A) cells
B) tissues
C) the gross structures of the body
D) cell chemistry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is
__________ anatomy.
A) microscopic
B) systemic
C) gross
D) developmental |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.
A) 98 B) 37 C) 68 D) 47 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The heart lies in the ________ cavity.
A) dorsal
B) superior mediastinal
C) pleural
D) pericardial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities.
A) nasal B) orbital C) frontal D) cranial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be ________.
A) an organ system
B) an organ
C) a complex tissue
D) a complex cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ means toward or at the back of the body, behind.
A) Dorsal B) Distal C) Anterior D) Lateral |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) palms turned posteriorly
B) body erect
C) thumbs pointed laterally
D) arms at sides |
|
Definition
| A) palms turned posteriorly |
|
|
Term
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.
A) regulating glucose levels in the blood
B) enhancement of labor contractions
C) body temperature regulation
D) blood calcium level regulation |
|
Definition
| B) enhancement of labor contractions |
|
|
Term
Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.
A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
B) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.
C) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.
D) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye. |
|
Definition
| A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region. |
|
|
Term
The lungs are located in the following cavities ________.
A) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral
B) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
C) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
D) pleural, ventral, and thoracic |
|
Definition
| D) pleural, ventral, and thoracic |
|
|
Term
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
A) thoracic cavity
B) spinal cord
C) cranial cavity
D) vertebral cavity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
A) brain B) lungs C) liver D) intestines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The frontal plane is also called the ______ plane.
A) vertical B) oblique C) median D) coronal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A horizontal section through the body is called ________.
A) sagittal B) regional C) frontal D) transverse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, is called ________.
A) transverse B) sagittal C) frontal D) regional |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which body cavity protects the nervous system?
A) Vertebral B) Cranial C) Thoracic D) Dorsal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60 to 80% of body weight,
is ________.
A) protein B) hydrogen C) oxygen D) water |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior, is called ________.
A) median B) frontal C) transverse D) sagittal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ consist of similar cells that have a common function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ cavity contains tiny bones that transmit sound vibrations to the organ of
hearing in the inner ear. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the
function of specific organs or organic systems. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is a broad term that covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ system secretes hormones that regulate growth processes and nutrient usage
by body cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________.
A) covering individual lungs
B) covering the heart
C) lining the thoracic cavity
D) lining the abdominal cavity |
|
Definition
| C) lining the thoracic cavity |
|
|
Term
Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes.
A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.
B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space
between the two.
C) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.
D) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls
of the heart. |
|
Definition
D) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls
of the heart. |
|
|
Term
The main, general purpose of negative feedback is ________.
A) to control all body system tissues
B) to regulate excretion
C) to keep the body's sugar high
D) to maintain homeostasis |
|
Definition
| D) to maintain homeostasis |
|
|
Term
________ cavities are spaces within joints.
A) Oral B) Orbital C) Nasal D) Synovial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?
A) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
B) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
C) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.
D) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms. |
|
Definition
| B) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body. |
|
|
Term
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.
A) a static state with no deviation from preset points
B) a dynamic state within an unlimited range
C) the lowest possible energy usage
D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits |
|
Definition
| D) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits |
|
|
Term
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ
A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 1-2-4-3-5 C) 2-1-3-4-5 D) 2-1-4-3-5 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Subdivisions of anatomy include ________.
A) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic
B) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
C) gross, regional, dissection, and surface
D) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic |
|
Definition
| B) gross, regional, systemic, and surface |
|
|
Term
The anatomical position is used ________.
A) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen
B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
C) only when a body is lying down
D) rarely, because people don't usually assume this position |
|
Definition
| B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis then the wall thermostat would
be the ________.
A) control center B) variable C) effector D) receptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Survival needs of the body include ________.
A) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction
B) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement
D) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction |
|
Definition
| B) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen |
|
|
Term
The plasma membrane is ________.
A) a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma
B) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell
C) a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell
D) a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae |
|
Definition
| B) the phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell |
|
|
Term
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?
A) stereocilia B) flagella C) cilia D) microvilli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cell junctions that promote the coordinated activity of cells by physically binding them together
into a cell community include all of the following except ________.
A) gap junctions
B) tight junctions
C) peroxisomes
D) desmosomes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Passive membrane transport processes include ________.
A) consumption of ATP
B) movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
C) the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration
D) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient |
|
Definition
| D) movement of a substance down its concentration gradient |
|
|
Term
A red blood cell placed in pure water would ________.
A) swell initially, then shrink as equilibrium is reached
B) shrink
C) neither shrink nor swell
D) swell and burst |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen?
A) The cells will lose water and shrink.
B) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
C) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
D) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution
and return to their original condition. |
|
Definition
| A) The cells will lose water and shrink. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The shock-absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Cartilage tissue tends to heal less rapidly than bone tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Smooth muscle cells possess central nuclei but lack striations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Functions of connective tissues include binding, support, insulation, and protection. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Blood is considered a type of connective tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by ________.
A) cilia
B) dense microvilli
C) fibroblasts
D) a rich vascular supply |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement best describes connective tissue?
A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
B) always arranged in a single layer of cells
C) usually lines a body cavity
D) primarily concerned with secretion |
|
Definition
| A) usually contains a large amount of matrix |
|
|
Term
Matrix is ________.
A) ground substance and cells
B) fibers and ground substance
C) composed of all organic compounds
D) cells and fibers |
|
Definition
| B) fibers and ground substance |
|
|
Term
The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.
A) elastic cartilage
B) adipose tissue
C) hyaline cartilage
D) fibrocartilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through
ducts are classified as ________.
A) endocrine B) exocrine C) ceruminous D) sebaceous |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these is not considered connective tissue?
A) blood B) muscle C) cartilage D) adipose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is true concerning muscle tissue?
A) cuboidal shape enhances function
B) is a single-celled tissue
C) highly cellular and well vascularized
D) contains contractile units made of collagen |
|
Definition
| C) highly cellular and well vascularized |
|
|
Term
The three main components of connective tissue are ________.
A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
B) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
C) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts |
|
Definition
| A) ground substance, fibers, and cells |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Squamous cells are flattened and scalelike when mature. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Nervous tissue consists mainly of neurons and collagen fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except: ________.
A) mast cells
B) chondrocytes
C) fibroblasts
D) macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form
a(n) ________.
A) tissue B) organism C) organ system D) organ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ muscle cells are multinucleated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ live in the lacuna of cartilage. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified
as ________.
A) simple cuboidal
B) stratified squamous
C) simple squamous
D) transitional |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An epithelial membrane ________.
A) usually involves transitional epithelium
B) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane
C) is formed of epithelium and smooth muscle
D) contains neuroglia |
|
Definition
| B) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone?
A) live cells B) blood vessels C) lacunae D) organic fibers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Epithelial tissue ________.
A) is usually acellular
B) is highly vascularized
C) has a basement membrane
D) contains a number of neuron types |
|
Definition
| C) has a basement membrane |
|
|
Term
| T/F: Sweat glands are apocrine glands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.
A) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.
B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.
C) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.
D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important. |
|
Definition
| D) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important. |
|
|
Term
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.
A) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
B) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.
C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.
D) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix. |
|
Definition
| A) Its primary function is nutrient storage. |
|
|
Term
T/F: The skin is not able to receive stimuli because the cells of the epidermis are not living and therefore
there are no sensory receptors in the skin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The dense fibrous connective tissue portion of the skin is located in the reticular region of the
dermis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The most dangerous skin cancer is cancer of the melanocytes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.
A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.
B) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.
D) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum. |
|
Definition
| B) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. |
|
|
Term
The dermis ________.
A) is where melanocytes are found
B) is an avascular connective tissue layer
C) has two layers
D) lacks sensory corpuscles and glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?
A) arrector integument
B) arrector folliculi
C) arrector pili
D) levator folliculi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.
A) mammary B) eccrine C) ceruminous D) apocrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because ________.
A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
B) they are able to reproduce sporadically as needed
C) they are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function
D) they are a powerful defense against damaging UV rays |
|
Definition
| A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties |
|
|
Term
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The
superficial surface has structures called:
A) hair follicles.
B) dermal papillae.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
87) In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of
the following is another vital function of the skin?
A) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.
B) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium
metabolism.
C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.
D) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body. |
|
Definition
B) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium
metabolism. |
|
|
Term
Acne is a disorder associated with ________.
A) Meibomian glands
B) ceruminous glands
C) sweat glands
D) sebaceous glands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ________ are the small muscles located in the dermis that cause goose bumps. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ are pigment-producing cells in the epidermis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The dermis is composed of the reticular and ________ layers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A summertime golden bronze tan may not be a tan at all; especially if the skin appears almost metallic bronze, it may be the result of ________ disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the
following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?
A) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
B) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin. |
|
Definition
| B) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. |
|
|
Term
| T/F: The dermis is rich in blood vessels and nerve fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light
pressure?
A) free nerve endings
B) Krause's end bulbs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) Meissner's corpuscles |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health,
well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell
division and replacement?
A) stratum basale
B) stratum lucidum
C) stratum corneum
D) stratum granulosum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is
responsible for the tension lines in the skin?
A) the subcutaneous layer
B) the reticular layer
C) the papillary layer
D) the hypodermal layer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?
A) unbearable pain
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) loss of immune function
D) infection |
|
Definition
| B) catastrophic fluid loss |
|
|
Term
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
D) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum |
|
Definition
| C) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale |
|
|
Term
T/F: When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the dermal blood vessels will
dilate so that blood and heat will be dissipated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The term osteoid refers to the organic part of the matrix of compact bones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Bones are classified by whether they are weight-bearing or protective in function. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The structural unit of compact bone (osteon) resembles the growth rings of a tree trunk. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: An osteon contains osteocytes, lamellae, and a central canal, and is found in compact bone only. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to
support weight and withstand tension stress?
A) compact bone
B) trabecular bone
C) irregular bone
D) spongy bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In bone formation, a deficiency of growth hormone will cause ________.
A) increased osteoclast activity
B) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage
C) inadequate calcification of bone
D) decreased osteoclast activity |
|
Definition
| B) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage |
|
|
Term
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.
A) epiphysis
B) diaphysis
C) metaphysis
D) articular cartilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The term diploë refers to ________.
A) the two types of marrow found within most bones
B) the double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone
C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones
D) the fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue |
|
Definition
| C) the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones |
|
|
Term
The most abundant skeletal cartilage type is ________.
A) fibrocartilage B) hyaline C) epiphyseal D) elastic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is (are) not the function(s) of the skeletal system?
A) storage of minerals
B) communication
C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
D) support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The structural unit of compact bone is ________.
A) osseous matrix
B) spongy bone
C) the osteon
D) lamellar bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called ________.
A) lacunae
B) trabeculae
C) Haversian canals
D) Volkmann's canals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________.
A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
B) concentric growth
C) appositional growth
D) long bones reaching adult length and width |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells
accomplishes this process?
A) osteoblast B) osteoclast C) osteocyte D) stem cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream?
A) thyroxine
B) calcitonin
C) parathyroid hormone
D) estrogen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Vertebrae are considered ________ bones.
A) short B) flat C) irregular D) long |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the correct statement concerning the location of blood-forming tissue.
A) There is blood-forming marrow in most short bones of an adult.
B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue.
C) There is blood-forming marrow in the diaphysis of most long bones of an adult.
D) Blood-forming tissue is found in the skull and pelvic bones only. |
|
Definition
| B) The sternum (breastbone) is a good source of blood-forming tissue. |
|
|
Term
| Blood cell formation is called ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ________ are multinucleated cells that destroy bone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is a disease of the bone in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit,
leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium
levels?
A) parathyroid B) thyroid C) pineal gland D) spleen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. Appositional growth is ________.
A) along the edges only
B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage
C) growth at the epiphyseal plate
D) the lengthening of hyaline cartilage |
|
Definition
| B) the secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage |
|
|
Term
In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________.
A) from the edges inward
B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis
C) in a circular fashion
D) by pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis |
|
Definition
| B) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis |
|
|
Term
Spongy bones are made up of a framework called ________.
A) trabeculae
B) osteons
C) lamellar bone
D) osseous lamellae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Osteogenesis is the process of ________.
A) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone
B) bone destruction to liberate calcium
C) bone formation
D) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________.
A) calcification of the matrix
B) the secretion of bone matrix into the medullary cavity
C) differentiation of osteoclasts
D) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates |
|
Definition
| D) interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates |
|
|
Term
Growth of bones is controlled by a symphony of hormones. Which hormone is important for bone
growth during infancy and childhood?
A) thyroid hormone
B) prolactin
C) growth hormone
D) somatomedins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue?
A) syndesmosis B) pivot C) synchondrosis D) symphysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lyme disease is a bacterial disease transmitted by the bite of a ________.
A) fly B) flea C) mosquito D) tick |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification
of joints. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient was suffering from bursitis, this condition would be designated as inflammation of a(n)
________.
A) articular cartilage
B) small sac containing fluid
C) cavity within a long bone
D) sesamoid bone found at a joint |
|
Definition
| B) small sac containing fluid |
|
|
Term
An immovable joint found only between skull bones is called a ________.
A) synovial joint
B) suture
C) cartilaginous joint
D) condyle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement
is a ________.
A) symphysis B) gomphosis
C) suture D) syndesmosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction
develops are called ________.
A) menisci B) ligaments C) tendons D) bursae |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________.
A) synovial joints
B) diarthroses
C) synarthroses
D) amphiarthroses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ are cartilaginous joints.
A) Sutures
B) Synchondroses
C) Syndesmoses
D) Gomphoses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the classification of joints, which of the following is true?
A) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable.
B) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses.
C) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.
D) All synovial joints are freely movable. |
|
Definition
| D) All synovial joints are freely movable. |
|
|
Term
A joint that is known as a suture is found ________.
A) in the skull only
B) in areas where bones have not yet closed
C) where functionally it is amphiarthrotic
D) in areas most prone to fracture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gouty arthritis is a painful condition caused by ________.
A) a thickening of the synovial membrane and a decrease in fluid production
B) a disorder in the body's immune system resulting in destruction of joints
C) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints
D) a bacterial infection in the bursae |
|
Definition
| C) excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints |
|
|
Term
Which of the following conditions is generally considered a noninflammatory type of arthritis?
A) bursitis
B) tendonitis
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) osteoarthritis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the
presence or absence of a joint cavity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial
fluids. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tendon sheaths ________.
A) form channels for tendons
B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue
C) act as friction-reducing structures
D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle |
|
Definition
| C) act as friction-reducing structures |
|
|
Term
| T/F: A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: One of the important functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to ________.
A) cause ATP to bind to actin
B) remove the blocking action of tropomyosin
C) increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma
D) release the inhibition on Z discs |
|
Definition
| B) remove the blocking action of tropomyosin |
|
|
Term
Calcium ions bind to the ________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.
A) troponin B) myosin C) tropomyosin D) actin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that functions in calcium storage is the
________.
A) mitochondria
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) intermediate filament network
D) myofibrillar network |
|
Definition
| B) sarcoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
The striations of a skeletal muscle cell are produced, for the most part, by ________.
A) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) the T tubules
C) the arrangement of myofilaments
D) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma |
|
Definition
| C) the arrangement of myofilaments |
|
|
Term
Which of the following are composed of myosin?
A) thin filaments
B) thick filaments
C) Z discs
D) all myofilaments |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
A) fascicle
B) endomysium
C) perimysium
D) epimysium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
A) the bands of myofibrils
B) the tropomyosin-troponin complex
C) the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element |
|
Definition
| D) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element |
|
|
Term
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
A) microtubules
B) mitochondria
C) myofibrils
D) T tubules |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
One functional unit of a skeletal muscle is ________.
A) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) a sarcomere
C) a myofibril
D) a myofilament |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
A) perimysium
B) endomysium
C) sarcolemma
D) epimysium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) secretion
B) extensibility
C) contractility
D) excitability |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Only ________ muscle cells are always multinucleated. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After nervous stimulation stops, ACh in the synaptic cleft is prevented from continuing stimulation
of contraction by ________.
A) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
B) the action potential stopped going down the overloaded T tubules
C) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
D) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved |
|
Definition
| A) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh |
|
|
Term
Muscle tone is ________.
A) a state of sustained partial contraction
B) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
C) the condition of athletes after intensive training
D) the feeling of well-being following exercise |
|
Definition
| A) a state of sustained partial contraction |
|
|
Term
The most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue is ________.
A) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
B) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue
C) the design of the fibers
D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum |
|
Definition
| A) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy |
|
|
Term
T/F: The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must
be stimulated for conduction to take place. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Efferent nerve fibers may be described as motor nerve fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Saltatory conduction occurs because of the presence of salt (NaCl) around the neuron. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Myelination of the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is the job of the oligodendrocyte. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: During depolarization, the inside of the neuron's membrane becomes less negative. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Neurons in the CNS are organized into functional groups. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Strong stimuli cause the amplitude of action potentials generated to increase. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The oligodendrocytes can myelinate several axons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Action potentials can be generated by virtually all cells of the body because all cells possess cell
membranes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid are called
________.
A) Schwann cells
B) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
D) ependymal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle is ________.
A) cholinesterase
B) norepinephrine
C) gamma aminobutyric acid
D) acetylcholine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a structural feature of a neuron?
A) synaptic cleft B) axon C) Nissl bodies D) dendrites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.
A) Schwann cell B) dendrite C) neurolemma D) axon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell is the
________.
A) receptor B) effector C) cell body D) synapse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? 185)
A) innervation of skeletal muscle
B) innervation of glands
C) innervation of cardiac muscle
D) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract |
|
Definition
| A) innervation of skeletal muscle |
|
|
Term
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
A) tracts B) nerves C) ganglia D) nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
A) autonomic nervous system
B) spinal cord and spinal nerves
C) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
D) brain and spinal cord |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.
A) neurotransmitter
B) biogenic amine
C) ion
D) cholinesterase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
A) large nerve fibers
B) the myelin sheath
C) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
D) diphasic impulses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The part of the neuron that normally receives stimuli is called ________.
A) a Schwann cell
B) a dendrite
C) a neurolemma
D) an axon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The sympathetic and parasympathetic are subdivisions of the ________.
A) central nervous system
B) somatic nervous system
C) voluntary nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system |
|
Definition
| D) autonomic nervous system |
|
|
Term
Ependymal cells ________.
A) are a type of macrophage
B) are the most numerous of the neuroglia
C) are a type of neuron
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid |
|
Definition
| D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid |
|
|
Term
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and
recapturing neurotransmitters are ________.
A) astrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) microglia
D) oligodendrocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) oligodendrocytes
B) microglia
C) astrocytes
D) ependymal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
That part of the nervous system that is voluntary and conducts impulses from the CNS to
the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system? |
|
Definition
Sensory - Motor
Motor: Somatic - Autonomic
Autonomic: Sympathetic - Parasympathetic |
|
|
Term
________ potentials are short-lived, local changes in membrane potential that can be either
depolarized or hyperpolarized. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is a disease that gradually destroys the myelin sheaths of neurons in the CNS,
particularly in young adults. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Large-diameter nerve fibers conduct impulses much faster than small-diameter fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The nodes of Ranvier are found only on myelinated, peripheral neural processes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Unipolar neurons have axons structurally divided into peripheral and central processes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n)
________.
A) afferent neuron
B) efferent neuron
C) glial cell
D) association neuron |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are true of graded potentials except that they ________.
A) increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
B) can be called postsynaptic potentials
C) are short-lived
D) can form on receptor endings |
|
Definition
| A) increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point |
|
|
Term
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ
from the external environment? The interior is ________.
A) negatively charged and contains more sodium
B) positively charged and contains less sodium
C) positively charged and contains more sodium
D) negatively charged and contains less sodium |
|
Definition
| D) negatively charged and contains less sodium |
|
|
Term
T/F: Cell bodies of the somatic motor neurons of the spinal nerves are located in the ventral horn of the
spinal cord. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: One disorder of the substantia nigra is Parkinson's disease. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The spinal cord ends between L1 and L2. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space
outside the brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The left cerebral hemisphere is usually dominant. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The limbic system acts as our emotional, or affective, brain. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Commissural fibers form the corpus striatum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Most of the ascending and descending pathways to and from the brain cross over from one side of
the body to the other. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
B) flocculonodular nodes
C) cerebellar gray matter
D) cerebellar white matter |
|
Definition
| D) cerebellar white matter |
|
|
Term
The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
B) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
C) midbrain, medulla, and pons
D) midbrain only |
|
Definition
| C) midbrain, medulla, and pons |
|
|
Term
The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) prefrontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) frontal lobe
D) temporal lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The spinal cord has gray matter on the ________.
A) outside, white matter on the inside, and a dorsal motor root
B) inside, white matter on the outside, and a dorsal motor root
C) outside, white matter on the inside, and a ventral motor root
D) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root |
|
Definition
| D) inside, white matter on the outside, and a ventral motor root |
|
|
Term
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) dura and epidura
B) arachnoid and dura
C) arachnoid and epidura
D) arachnoid and pia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the
________.
A) medulla B) pons C) cerebrum D) midbrain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.
A) sympathetic ganglia
B) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord |
|
Definition
| B) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
The fissure separating the cerebral hemispheres is the ________.
A) central fissure
B) parieto-occipital fissure
C) lateral fissure
D) longitudinal fissure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) sulcus B) fissure C) furrow D) gyrus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from temporal
B) temporal from parietal
C) frontal from parietal
D) parietal from occipital |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?
A) dendrites
B) cell bodies
C) unmyelinated axons
D) fiber tracts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The hypothalamus ________.
A) is an important auditory and visual relay center
B) is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature
C) mediates sensations
D) has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure |
|
Definition
| B) is the thermostat of the body since it regulates temperature |
|
|
Term
An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in
________.
A) paraplegia
B) spinal shock only
C) hemiplegia
D) quadriplegia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) sulci B) gyri C) fissures D) ganglia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
A) segmental and nigrostriatal
B) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine
C) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
D) pyramidal and corticospinal |
|
Definition
| D) pyramidal and corticospinal |
|
|
Term
Broca's area ________.
A) is usually found in the right hemisphere
B) serves the recognition of complex objects
C) is considered a motor speech area
D) corresponds to Brodmann's area 8 |
|
Definition
| C) is considered a motor speech area |
|
|
Term
The function of commissures is to connect ________.
A) adjacent areas of gray matter within a cerebral hemisphere
B) pyramidal cells with corresponding cerebellar cells
C) areas of cortex with lower centers
D) corresponding areas of the two hemispheres |
|
Definition
| D) corresponding areas of the two hemispheres |
|
|
Term
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) alcohol
B) metabolic waste such as urea
C) nutrients such as glucose
D) anesthetics |
|
Definition
| B) metabolic waste such as urea |
|
|
Term
Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) lower motor neurons
B) neuromotor junction
C) spinal nerve roots
D) upper motor neurons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The fourth ventricle is continuous with the ________ of the spinal cord. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sensory neurons enter the spinal cord via the ________ horn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The large commissure that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the
________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus to the ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) concussion
B) hemorrhage
C) contusion
D) swelling |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: One functional center found within the medulla oblongata is a respiratory center involved in the
control of the rate and depth of breathing. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Sorting of sensory information and relaying it to the appropriate cerebral sensory area occurs in the
hypothalamus. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the
cerebral cortex is the ________.
A) thalamus
B) pyramids
C) reticular formation
D) limbic system |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
White matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following locations, with the exception of the
________.
A) outer portion of the spinal cord
B) corpus callosum
C) cerebral cortex
D) corticospinal tracts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or
weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
A) primary motor cortex
B) rubrospinal tracts
C) premotor cortex
D) spinal cord |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: There are 41 pairs of spinal nerves. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The only cranial nerves to extend beyond the head and neck region are the vagus nerves. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Dermatomes are skin segments that relate to sensory innervation regions of the spinal nerves. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) stress reflex
B) extensor thrust reflex
C) stretch reflex
D) cross extensor reflex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inborn or intristic reflexes ________.
A) are always mediated by the brain
B) are involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
C) are autonomic only
D) are rapid, predictable, learned responses |
|
Definition
| B) are involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior |
|
|
Term
Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.
A) mechanoreceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) interoceptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.
A) nociceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) interoceptors
D) photoreceptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Meissner's corpuscles ________.
A) are mechanoreceptors
B) are interoceptors
C) are found primarily in connective tissue
D) are anatomically unencapsulated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) pressure receptors
B) nociceptors
C) smell receptors
D) touch receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Schwann cells
B) Golgi organs
C) Wallerian cells
D) dendrites |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is more successful than with the PNS
D) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes. |
|
Definition
| D) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes. |
|
|
Term
All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) pons
B) medulla
C) reticular formation
D) thalamus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following numbers of pairs of spinal nerves is correct?
A) eight sacral
B) twelve thoracic
C) six lumbar
D) six cervical |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a
________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) plantar reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Babinski's sign is ________.
A) caused by incomplete development of the thalamus in the infant
B) a reflex whose physiological mechanism is well understood
C) normal in an infant less than 4 years old
D) when the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan laterally |
|
Definition
| D) when the great toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan laterally |
|
|
Term
Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) afferent impulses to efferent impulses
B) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
C) receptor energy to stimulus energy
D) stimulus information to nerve impulses |
|
Definition
| D) stimulus information to nerve impulses |
|
|
Term
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) vestibulocochlear
B) abducens
C) trigeminal
D) accessory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with
efferent fibers.
B) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
C) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
D) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. |
|
Definition
| D) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons. |
|
|
Term
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) efferent nerves
B) afferent nerves
C) mixed nerves
D) motor nerves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A simple spinal reflex goes along which of the following reflex arcs?
A) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
D) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor |
|
Definition
| B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector |
|
|
Term
The peripheral nervous system includes ________.
A) the spinal cord
B) basal nuclei
C) the corpus callosum
D) sensory receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that
nerve supplies?
A) a complete loss of voluntary movement
B) complete loss of sensation
C) a complete loss of sensation and movement
D) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control |
|
Definition
| A) a complete loss of voluntary movement |
|
|
Term
T/F: The autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that
is active and the target that is affected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebrae?
A) third lumbar
B) first coccyx
C) first thoracic
D) second cervical |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
B) visceral arcs do not use integration centers
C) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
D) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons |
|
Definition
| A) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons |
|
|
Term
Beta-blockers ________.
A) increase a dangerously low heart rate
B) are potent antidepressants
C) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
D) have widespread sympathetic effects |
|
Definition
| C) decrease heart rate and blood pressure |
|
|
Term
Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of cardiac rate
B) regulation of pupil size
C) regulation of body temperature
D) regulation of respiratory rate |
|
Definition
| C) regulation of body temperature |
|
|
Term
Raynaud's disease ________.
A) is frequently life-threatening
B) is induced by heat stress
C) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
D) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord |
|
Definition
| C) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities |
|
|
Term
| The sympathetic division is often casually referred to as the ________ system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two major classes of adrenergic receptors, ________ and ________ are found in the ANS. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sweat glands are innervated by the ________ fibers alone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The two cholinergic receptor types are ________ and ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The parasympathetic division uses only ________ as a neurotransmitter in the ganglionic
neurons. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The sympathetic chain is composed of collateral ganglia. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Acetylcholine is the substance released by the axonal endings of the somatic efferent fibers and by
the parasympathetic nerve fiber endings. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Most body organs are innervated by only the sympathetic division of the nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The parasympathetic division is a branch of the somatic nervous system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Most blood vessels are innervated by the sympathetic division alone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.
A) vagus nerve activity
B) parasympathetic innervation
C) sympathetic stimulation
D) neurosecretory substances |
|
Definition
| C) sympathetic stimulation |
|
|
Term
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) somatic nervous system
C) cerebrum
D) parasympathetic nervous |
|
Definition
| A) sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by peripheral ganglia usually near the
________.
A) spinal cord and by short postganglionic fibers
B) spinal cord and by long postganglionic fibers
C) organs and by long postganglionic fibers
D) organs and by short postganglionic fibers |
|
Definition
| D) organs and by short postganglionic fibers |
|
|
Term
A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________.
A) anticholinesterase
B) norepinephrine
C) a beta-blocker
D) epinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.
A) increase of heart rate and force
B) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
C) constriction of most blood vessels
D) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles |
|
Definition
| B) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera |
|
|
Term
Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.
A) VII B) XII C) V D) X |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) somatic division
B) parasympathetic division
C) peripheral nervous system
D) sympathetic division |
|
Definition
| B) parasympathetic division |
|
|
Term
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
A) medulla
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A) most glands
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) smooth muscle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) dilation of the pupils
B) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
C) salivation
D) elimination of urine |
|
Definition
| A) dilation of the pupils |
|
|
Term
The site of origin of the preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system is the ________.
A) brain stem and the sacral region of the spinal cord
B) sympathetic chain
C) higher brain centers
D) thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord |
|
Definition
| A) brain stem and the sacral region of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) preganglionic fibers are long
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
D) preganglionic fibers are short |
|
Definition
| C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response |
|
|
Term
Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is primarily under parasympathetic control
B) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
C) depends very little on autonomic activation
D) is primarily under sympathetic control |
|
Definition
| A) is primarily under parasympathetic control |
|
|
Term
Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________.
A) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
B) craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
C) craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine |
|
Definition
| D) thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine |
|
|
Term
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________. 301)
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure |
|
Definition
| C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure |
|
|
Term
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the ________.
A) vagus nerve
B) phrenic nerve
C) sympathetic trunk
D) sacral nerve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
B) lens accomodation for close vision
C) mobilizing storage energy sources
D) allowing the body to cope with an external threat |
|
Definition
| B) lens accomodation for close vision |
|
|
Term
All preganglionic axons of the autonomic nervous system release ________.
A) serotonin
B) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons
C) dopamine
D) the same transmitter as the only one released by the sympathetic postganglionic axons |
|
Definition
| B) the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons |
|
|
Term
T/F: When one has a cold, swelling of the lacrimal mucosa may result in watery eyes due to impaired
drainage of tears. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The neural layer of the retina prevents excessive scattering of light within the eye |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Farsightedness is more properly called ________.
A) hyperopia B) hypopia C) myopia D) presbyopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?
A) external auditory meatus
B) pharyngotympanic tube
C) tympanic membrane
D) pinna |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
A) scala vestibuli
B) external auditory meatus
C) scala tympani
D) pharyngotympanic tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The middle ear middle ossicle is the ________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and is reflected over the anterior surface of the eyeball
is the conjunctiva |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The photoreceptor cells are sensitive to damage from light. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Like the cornea, the lens is vascular. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The optic disk is the spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Sour taste receptors are stimulated by hydrogen ions of acidic food substances. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with that outside the body
is the external auditory meatus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The anterior chamber of the eye is filled with vitreous humor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti), the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval
window and set the endolymph in motion. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
A) depth perception
B) vision in dim light
C) accommodation for near vision
D) color vision |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
A) aqueous humor B) cornea C) lens D) iris |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.
A) cochlea
B) tympanic membrane
C) semicircular canals
D) vestibule |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.
A) go to the superior colliculus only
B) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
D) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing |
|
Definition
| C) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma |
|
|
Term
Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be
transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
A) does not contain connective tissue
B) has no blood supply
C) has no nerve supply
D) is not a living tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the
optic nerves?
A) bipolar cells
B) ganglion cells
C) rod cells
D) cone cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dark adaptation ________.
A) is much faster than light adaptation
B) involves improvement of acuity and color vision
C) results in inhibition of rod function
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin |
|
Definition
| D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin |
|
|
Term
The optic radiations project to the ________.
A) optic chiasma
B) medial retina
C) lateral geniculate body
D) primary visual cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The blind spot of the eye is ________.
A) where the optic nerve leaves the eye
B) where the macula lutea is located
C) where more rods than cones are found
D) where only cones occur |
|
Definition
| A) where the optic nerve leaves the eye |
|
|
Term
Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.
A) the movement of otoliths
B) stretching of the receptor cells
C) movement of a cupula
D) substances in solution |
|
Definition
| D) substances in solution |
|
|
Term
he cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.
A) ganglion cells
B) amacrine cells
C) bipolar cells
D) rods and cones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During dark adaptation ________.
A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases
B) the cones are activated
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
D) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated |
|
Definition
| C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods |
|
|
Term
Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________.
A) strabismus
B) Ménière's syndrome
C) conjunctivitis
D) motion sickness |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Light passes through the following structures in which order?
A) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
B) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
C) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
D) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor |
|
Definition
| A) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?
A) impacted cerumen
B) otosclerosis
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
D) middle ear infection |
|
Definition
| C) cochlear nerve degeneration |
|
|
Term
| T/F: When we move from darkness to bright light, retinal sensitivity is lost, but visual acuity is gained. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The function of the lens of the eye is to allow precise focusing of light on the retina. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The antagonistic hormones that regulate the blood calcium level are calcitonin-parathormone. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The hormone that raises blood sugar levels is insulin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The only known effect of prolactin in humans is to produce impotence in males. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The thyroid gland is embedded in the parathyroid tissue. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The prime metabolic effect of cortisol is gluconeogenesis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: The beta cells are the pancreatic islet cells that produce insulin. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Calcitonin is a peptide hormone that has destructive effects on the skeletal system. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced in the adrenals . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the
urinary excretion of sodium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: While glucagon is a small polypeptide, it is nevertheless very potent in its regulatory effects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: The thyroid gland is a large gland that controls metabolic functions throughout the life of an
individual. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.
A) cortisol B) secretin C) aldosterone D) insulin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular
________.
A) ions
B) second messengers
C) deactivators
D) nucleotides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic
function of other cells in the body are called ________.
A) hormones B) antibodies C) proteins D) enzymes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tropic hormones ________.
A) do not regulate the function of other endocrine glands
B) include GH and PRL
C) exert their effects on cells by direct gene activation
D) include ACTH and TSH |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
B) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
C) controls milk production
D) is an adenohypophyseal secretion |
|
Definition
| A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism |
|
|
Term
ADH ________.
A) is produced in the adenohypophysis
B) is inhibited by alcohol
C) increases urine production
D) promotes dehydration |
|
Definition
| B) is inhibited by alcohol |
|
|
Term
Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.
A) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
B) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
C) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
D) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore
decreasing blood pressure |
|
Definition
| C) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei |
|
|
Term
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on
________.
A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) nothing--all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because
hormones are powerful and nonspecific
D) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ |
|
Definition
| D) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ |
|
|
Term
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary
gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through
the ________.
A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) feedback loop
D) hypophyseal portal system |
|
Definition
| D) hypophyseal portal system |
|
|
Term
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because
________.
A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
B) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system
due to its location
C) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
D) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional |
|
Definition
| C) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release |
|
|
Term
Insulin, a small (51-amino-acid) protein, is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas. This
hormone is released ________.
A) when the body's glucose level rises
B) in excessive amounts in obese people
C) when the body's glucose level drops
D) in response to severe physical stress (i.e., a ten-mile run) |
|
Definition
| A) when the body's glucose level rises |
|
|
Term
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
B) increasing blood pressure
C) finding an appropriate cell receptor and initiating cAMP activity
D) stimulating the synthesis of a glycogen |
|
Definition
| A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene |
|
|
Term
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during
the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.
A) renin
B) epinephrine
C) estrogen
D) angiotensinogen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The major targets of growth hormone are ________.
A) bones and skeletal muscles
B) the adrenal glands
C) the blood vessels
D) the liver |
|
Definition
| A) bones and skeletal muscles |
|
|
Term
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through
________.
A) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
B) blocking the action of growth hormone
C) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity
D) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released |
|
Definition
| D) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released |
|
|
Term
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
A) the heart B) the skin
C) the spleen D) the kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: All of the following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis: ACTH, FSH, and LH. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F: Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Growth hormone always exerts its influence by targeting other endocrine glands to produce
hormones. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F: Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when an
individual is suffering from severe stress. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.
A) testosterone
B) cortisol
C) estrogen
D) epinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Leptin is secreted by ________.
A) lymphocytes
B) fibroblasts
C) goblet cells
D) adipocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
A) cortisol B) aldosterone
C) insulin D) glucagon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
A) aldosterone
B) estrogen
C) cortisone
D) epinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________.
A) travel by arteries to the pituitary
B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary
C) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
D) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood
to the pituitary |
|
Definition
| C) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system |
|
|
Term
ACTH ________.
A) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
B) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
C) is not a tropic hormone
D) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion |
|
Definition
| D) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
A) Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels.
B) High calcium levels cause bone resorption.
C) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
D) Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in osteoblast activity. |
|
Definition
| C) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood. |
|
|
Term
Aldosterone ________.
A) production is greatly influenced by ACTH
B) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
C) is secreted by the neurohypophysis
D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption |
|
Definition
| D) functions to increase sodium reabsorption |
|
|
Term
Which organ does not have hormone production?
A) liver B) kidney C) skin D) heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for
this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesized by males.
B) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
C) The physician is wrong--a hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence
fertility.
D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH. |
|
Definition
| B) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes. |
|
|
Term
Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by
________.
A) increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
B) stimulating the pancreas to release insulin
C) decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure
D) blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response |
|
Definition
| A) increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure |
|
|
