What unit is used to measure electrical pressure, potential, or electromotive force?

a. Volts.

b. Ohms.

c. Amperes.

d. Coulombs.

a. Volts.

How is electrical current measured when you want to describe its effect on the human body?

a. Ohms.

b. Amperes.

c. Resistance.

d. Milliamperes.

d. Milliamperes.

Resistance is any condition that

a. opposes or restricts the flow of electricity.

b. aids the conduction of electricity.

c. will keep a circuit closed.

d. increases the voltage of electrical flow.

a. opposes or restricts the flow of electricity.

According to the federal regulation 29 CFR 1910, voltage is considered to be high at

a. 120 volts.

b. 220 volts.

c. 440 volts.

d. 600 volts.

d. 600 volts.

An electrical outlet must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter when it is located within how many feet of a sink?

a. 6

b. 8

c. 10

d. 12

a. 6

Which safety rule should be observed where extension cords are used?

a. Extension cords should be taped to a wall instead of lying on the floor.

b. A long extension cord should be coiled.

c. Extension cords must not be run through ceiling holes.

d. Extension cords should not be used for small appliances.

c. Extension cords must not be run through ceiling holes.

Who is responsible for helping supervisiors mark all circuit breaker boxes with the correct voltage?

a. Ground Safety

b. Shop personnel

c. Civil Engineering

d. Circuit breaker box manufacturer

c. Civil Engineering

An electrical cell consists of

a. a negative electrode, electrolyte, and a cicuit.

b. positive and negative poles, and a potential circuit.

c. a positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte.

d. an electrolyte compound, a circuit continuity, and an electrical charge.

c. a positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte.

Where can you find the standard for USAF electrical systems and operations?

a. MAJCOM USAF directives

b. National Electric Code

c. DoD Electrical Systems Instruction

d. USAF Fire Prevention Code

b. National Electric Code

One complete cycle of alternating current is composed of

a. one alternation of current

b. one negative pulse of current

c. two alternations of current (both in the same direction)

d. two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other)

d. two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other)

Which of the following is used to change power form one voltage to another?

a. Transformers

b. Capacitors

c. Rectifiers

d. Filters

a. Transformers

Which of the following is used to change AC current to DC current?

a. Transformers

b. Capacitors

c. Rectifiers

d. Filters

c. Rectifiers

The capacitance of a capacitor is determined by the

a. number of foil pieces wrapped together

b. smoothness of the pulsating direct current

c. area of the plates and thickness of the insulation

d. the amount of current that can flow in reverse through the capitor

c. area of the plates and thickness of the insulation

How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt?

a. 1 milliampere

b. 25 milliamperes

c. 1 ampere

d. 25 amperes

a. 1 milliampere

What is the purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects?

a. Continuity of system grounds

b. Equalization of static charges that may be generated

c. Dissipation of static electrical charges to a ground

d. Prevention of accumulations of dynamic electricity

b Equalizaiton of static charges that may be generated

Grounding is used to control

a. static electrical charges only

b. dynamic electrical charges only

c. both dynamic and static electrical charges

d. bonded equipment

c. both dynamic and static electrical charges

An example of a system ground is a

a. three-prong adapter.

b. a double-insulated tool.

c. a return wire attched to a ground in the earth.

d. wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.

c. a return wire attached to a ground in the earth.

Grounding is effective when

a. there are no breaks in the grounding path.

b. the grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.

c. dynamic charges are converted into static charges.

d. static charges are converted into dynamic charges.

a.  there are no breaks in the grounding path.

It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because

a. of the equipment's relatively small size.

b. the equipment is moved about so much.

c. the grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.

d. it uses a three-wire cord.

b. the equipment is moved about so much.

Which device is the simplest way to control an electrical circuit?

a. Fuse.

b. Relay.

c. Interlock.

d. Circuit breaker.

a. Fuse.

What is a relay?

a. A link of metal placed in series with a circuit.

b. A switch that, when released, allows the current to flow uninterrupted.

c. A device that communicates the information in a signal to another device.

d. A device that tells the circuit breaker to interrupt current flow when the temperature rises.

c. A device that communicates the information in a signal to another device.

Which circuit control device produces a field similar to a magnet when electric current passes through it?

a. Fuse.

b. Relay.

c. Solenoid.

d. Interlock.

c. Solenoid.

An interlock interrupts circuit flow

a. by actuating a complex switch mechanism.

b. by controlling the electrical circuit from a distant location.

c. when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, releasing a button.

d. by sending an electronic signal when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack.

c. when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, releasing a button.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of a safety observer when repairs to high voltage equipment are being performed?

a. Be capable of applying first aid procedures.

b. Be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.

c. Restrict entry into the area before adequate warnings of the hazards are given.

d. Stand at the base of antennas or towers when climbers are required to ascend higher than 20 feet.

b. Be qualified in all aspects of emergency rescue procedures.

Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. 12 months

c. 6 months

Who designates the electrical hazard areas that require the use of insulating matting?

a. Supervisor.

b. Functional manager.

c. Squadron commander.

d. Installation commander.

a. Supervisor

On machinery, tagout devices used with energy isolating (lockout) devices should be attached at

a. the entrance to the area

b. the same point as the lock

c. eye level on the machine or equipment

d. various, but conspicuoius locations throughout the affected area.

b. the same point as the lock

When a tag is used during the lockout/tagout procedure, it must have a minimum unlocking strength of at least

a. 100 lbs

b. 75 lbs

c. 50 lbs

d. 25 lbs

c. 50 lbs

How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout program to ensure the requirements of the program are being followed?

a. Quarterly

b. Semi-annually

c. Annually

d. Anytime a system is locked or tagged out

c. Annually

Which base agency should be contacted if the material safety data sheet is not available for a particular cleaning solvent?

a. Public Health

b. Ground Safety

c. Bioenvironmental Engineering

d. Civil Engineering Environmental Flight

c. Bioenvironmental Engineering

Most pesticides used by the Air Force today are

a. toxic when inhaled

b. non-toxic when inhaled

c. ozone depleters no matter how they are applied

d. environmentally safe to humans and animals alike

a. toxic when inhaled

SRA Jason Shannon of base entomology is mixing an insecticide when he spills a one-pint bottle of concentrated poison on his BDU pant leg.  What should be his response to this situation?

a. Launder the clothes as soon as possible to prevent the possibility of the dried smell becoming an irritant

b. Continue the operation and change if necessary when completed

c. Remove the clothes and bathe immediately

d. Change clothes and continue the operation

c. Remove the clothes and bathe immediately

Color is added to aviation and motor gasolines to indicate the presence of

a. alkyl lead compounds

b. lead oxide compounds

c. lead sulfuric compounds

d. tetracthyl lead compounds

a. alkyl lead compounds

In shops, lubricants are hazardous because of

a. fires resulting from spontaneous combustion

b. fire resulting from their low flash point

c. mishaps resulting from spills and leaks

d. their high volatility

c. mishaps resultingfrom spill sand leaks

Because nitric acids are so corrosive, they

a. do not pose any serious dangers

b. can burn the skin and eyes on contact

c. cannot be neutralized with water

d. must never be exposed to oxygen

b. can burn the skin and eyes on contact

What is the hidden danger in the fumes of nitric acid?

a. They are immediately intoxicating when inhaled.

b. They are immediately incapacitating when inhaled.

c. Initial symptoms of poisoning are slight but become severe later on.

d. Initial symptoms of poisoning are seemingly severe but quickly taper off resulting in unwarranted stress.

c. Initial symptoms of poisoning are slight but become severe later on.

The build-up of pressure in containers of fuming nitric acids is vented by

a. unscrewing the bungs

b. opening the relief valve

c. opening the lid of the container

d. bleeding air out through a gasket

a. unscrewing the bungs

Which class of flammable liquid has a flash point below 73 degrees F and has a boiling point at or above 100 degrees F?

a. IA

b. IB

c. IC

d. ID

b. IB

Which class of combustible liquids has a flash point at or above 140 degrees F and below 200 degrees F?

a. IIA

b. IIB

c. IIIA

d. IIIB

c. IIIA

Inside storage rooms must have a fire extinguisher located no more than how many feet from the door opening?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

b. 10

Smoking is prohibited within how many feet of an outside flammable liquid storage area?

a. 120 feet

b. 100 feet

c. 75 feet

d. 50 feet

d. 50 feet

Which base agency leads the Hazardous Material Management Process Team?

a. Wing Safety

b. Public Health

c. Civil Engineering

d. Bioenvironmental Engineering

c. Civil Engineering

Gound safety is mainly involved with which area of the Hazardous Materials Managmenet Process?

a. Standardized Air Force Tracking System

b. Installation HAZMAT Management Program

c. Ozone Depleting Substance Management Program

d. Hazardous Material Reduction Prioritization Process

b. Installation HAZMAT Management Program.

The Hazardous Materials Management Process team manages War Reserve Material by using

a. the HAZMAT determination and authorization process

b. HAZMAT data quality management procedures

c. the Air Force HAZMAT tracking sysem

d. the HAZMART

c. the Air Force HAZMAT tracking system

What is used to track hazardous material purchases?

a. AF Form 3952, Chemical/Hazardous Material Request/Authorization

b. Government Wide Purchase Card

c. Standardized Air Force tracking system

d. AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

c. Stnadardized Air Force tracking system

What type of storage tanks are used to store gasoline at base service stations?

a. Vaulted.

b. Cone roof.

c. Floating roof.

d. Underground.

d. Underground.

What type of underground tank is typically used in overseas locations?

a. Vaulted.

b. Vertical.

c. Floating roof.

d. Horizontal cylindrical.

b. Vertical.

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when determining the size of secondary  containment?

a. Local weather activity.

b. Height of existing dike wall.

c. Frequency of dike drainage.

d. Location of the storage tank.

d. Location of the storage tank.

where security fences are not provided, how far from the diked areas of storage tanks must signs be posted?

a. 50 feet

b. 75 feet

c. 100 feet

d. 125 feet

a. 50 feet

How long must a worker wait after receiving fuel to manually guage a fuel tank?

a. 120 minutes

b. 90 minutes

c. 60 minutes

d. 30 minutes

d. 30 minutes

Who is responsible for the internal inspection of a fuel laboratory?

a. Supervisors

b. Commanders

c. Functional managers

d. All assigned personnel

d. All assigned personnel

Under dry conditions, electrode resistance to ground should not exceed

a. 10 Ohms

b. 15 Ohms

c. 25 Ohms

d. 30 Ohms

c. 25 Ohms

The handling of caustic solutions in LOX plant operations requries the use of

a. boots, golves, and face shield

b. gloves, acid sleeves, and chemical goggles

c. rubber gloves, aprons, and face shields or chemical goggles

d. respiratory gear, full protection suit, and chemical resistant boots

c. rubber gloves, aprons, and face shields or chemical goggles

How far must LOX carts be stored away from cumbustible structures?

a. 100 feet

b. 75 feet

c. 50 feet

d. 25 feet

c. 50 feet

When liquid nitrogen is converted to gas, it expands to

a. 860 times its original volume

b. 695 times its original volume

c. 120 times its original volume

d. 90 times its original volume

b. 695 times its original volume

Liquid oxygen is stored at what temperature?

a. -297 degrees F

b. -257 degrees F

c. -247 degrees F

d. -237 degrees F

a. -297 degrees F

Which valve on a cryotainer is wired in the closed position?

a. The pressure build-up valve.

b. The fill-drain valve.

c. The vacuum valve.

d. The vent valve.

c. The vacuum valve.

What are the two safety devices on a cryongenic tank?

a. Vacuum valves and safety disks

b. safety relief valves and safety disks

c. Fill drain valve and pop safety disks

d. Vacuum valves and pop safety valves

b. Safety relief valves and safety disks

A cryogenic lox storage tank of more than 100 gallons must be at least 75 feet from

a. any railway

b. aircraft parking areas

c. combustible structures

d. other flammable gas tanks

b. aircraft parking areas

A fire or open flame device can be used during construction activities only when

a. adequate ventilation exists

b. approved by the site supervisor

c. approved by the ground safety manger

d. the site is sufficiently barricaded from public access

b. approved by the site supervisor

Except in established storage area, stacks of lumber at construction sites should not be higher than

a. six feet

b. five feet

c. four feet

d. three feet

a. six feet

Self-propelled construction equipment must be equipped with

a. all-weather tracks, repair kits, and radios

b. first-aid kits, repair kits, and emergency lights

c. operator's manual, fire extinguishers, and radios

d. first-aid kits, fire extinguishers, and emergency lights

d. first-aid kits, fire extinguishers, and emergency lights

Booms on construction equipment must be at least how many feet from overhead high voltage power lines?

a. 5

b. 8

c. 10

d. 12

c. 10

What actions does a bulldozer perform?

a. Moves dirt straight ahead in front of the blade

b. shifts dirt to one side of the blade

c. Lifts dirt into a compactor

d. Lifts dirt out of the way

a. Moves dirt straight ahead in front of the blade

What is the best vehicle for clearing the sides of sloping land?

a. Dozer

b. Grader

c. Front-end Loader

d. Wheel-type ditcher

a. Dozer

Which type of crane is considered the Air Force "workhorse"?

a. Mobile hydraulic crane

b. Font-end Loader

c. Mechanical crane

d. Dozer crane

a. Mobile hydraulic crane

In crane operations, outgriggers should be used for stability anytime the boom is raised unless the

a. lift is made on a rubber surface

b. boom is raised not more than 25 feet

c. crane is only capable of 180 degree turns in either direction

d. weight of the inttended load is less than 200 pounds

a. lift is made on a rubber surface

When lifting loads with heavy equipment, the operator must avoid

a. raising any load higher than 50 feet

b. raising any load weighing over 100 pounds

c. raising any load whose contents might shift while being lifted

d. raising any load that causes the tracks of the equipment to leave the ground

d. raising any load that causes the tracks of the equipment to leave the ground

Cables and sheave on cranes must be inspected

a. daily

b. weekly

c. monthly

d. at the end of each shift

a. daily

which equipment is best for compacting plastic soils?

a. The 13-wheel roller

b. The steel wheel roller

c. The sheep-foot roller

d. Pneumatic-tire roller

c. The sheep-foot roller

what tends to happen when the 13-wheel roller moves on an unstable surface?

a. the wheels become stuck

b. The roller gets better traction

c. The wheels have a kneading action

d. The roller tips over if moving too fast

c. The wheels have a kneading action

Which soil compacting equipment can usually compact a four-inch layer of loose soil to 95 percent compaction in two to four passes?

a. the 13-wheel roller

b. The steel wheel roller

c. The sheep-foot roller

d. Pneumatic-tire roller

d. Pneumatic-tire roller

A loader can be safely operated on a straight slope up to

a. 15 percent

b. 20 percent

c. 30 percent

d. 40 percent

c. 30 percent

What equipment is used primarily for pulverizing soil?

a. Plow

b. Disk harrow

c. Hammer Harrow

d. Multiple use harrow

b. Disk harrow

What  harrow would most likely be used to smooth soil on a softball field?

a. Disk

b. Spring-tooth

c. Spike-tooth

d. Multiple use

c. Spike-tooth

What equipment is used to break up unimproved ground?

a. Disk harrows

b. Multiple use harrows

c. Hammer harrows

d. Plows

d. Plows

Dirt removed from excavations must be piled at least how many feet from the edge?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

a. 2

Toeboards placed on scaffolds must be at least

a. 2 inches high

b. 4 inches high

c. 6 inches high

d. 8 inches high

b. 4 inches high

Scaffolds and their components must be capable of supporting how many times the maximum intended load?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 8

d. 10

b. 4

A bricklayer's square scaffold must have

a. at least 2 tiers

b. frame squares nine feet wide and three feet high

c. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both of the front and rear sides

d. outrigger beams that project six feet beyond the face of the building

c. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides

For light duty, horse scaffolds can be placed a maximum of

a. 2 feet apart

b. 4 feet apart

c. 5 feet apart

d. 8 feet apart

d. 8 feet apart

On an outrigger scaffold, planking must be laid tight and extended

a. to within 1 inch of the scaffold edge

b. 3 inches beyond the scaffold edge

c. to with 6 inches of the building wall

d. to within 3 inches of the building wall

d. to within 3 inches of the building wall

Regular hoisting rope is made up of

a. 6 strands with 7 wires

b. 6 strands with 19 wires

c. 6 strands with 37 wires

d. 8 strands with 19 wires

b. 6 strands with 19 wires

How far above a platform or landing must a portable ladder extend?

a. 2 feet

b. 3 feet

c. 4 feet

d. 5 feet

b. 3 feet

Rungs on ladders must be strong enough to support at least

a. 200 lbs

b. 300 lbs

c. 400 lbs

d. 500 lbs

d. 500 lbs

When ladders are used during aerial work, how many people may ascend or descedn the structure at any one time?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

a. 1

The lifeline on a safety harness should permit a person to fall a maximum of

a. 3 feet

b. 6 feet

c. 10 feet

d. 12 feet

b. 6 feet

If material is stored on a shed during demolition operations, the decking must be capable of holding

a. 100 lbs per square foot

b. 200 lbs per square foot

c. 300 lbs per square foot

d. 400 lbs per square foot

c. 300 lbs per square foot

When a worker must straddle two planks, the planks must be no more than

a. 5 inches apart

b. 8 inches apart

c. 16 inches apart

d. 22 inches apart

c. 16 inches apart

When removing materials from a demolition site, what is the maximum weight for any object being dropped through a chute?

a. 50 lbs

b. 100 lbs

c. 150 lbs

d. 200 lbs

c. 150 lbs

Which base agencies perform a pre- and post-season inspection of the softball fields?

a. Safety, civil engineering, and pubic health

b. Safety, bioenvironmental, and public health

c. Safety, bioenvironmental, and civil engineering

d. Safety, bioenviromental, and fire department

a. Safety, civil engineering, and public health

Bleacher seating must have guardrails if it is at least how many feet from the ground?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

b. 4

When must a preseason inspection of the swimming pool be conducted?

a. 90 days prior to opening day

b. 60 days prior to opening day

c. 30 days prior to opening day

d. One week prior to opening day

c. 30 days prior to opening day

At what intervals must water depths be marked on a pool deck?

a. every 10 feet

b. every 12 feet

c. every 15 feet

d. every 20 feet

a. every 10 feet

What type of protection is mandatory when playing racquetball?

a. Eye protection only

b. Eye and head protection

c. Eye and leg protection

d. Eye, leg, and head protection

a. Eye protection only

The temperature of a sauna must be kept between

a. 100-110 degrees F

b. 120-130 degrees F

c. 140-150 degrees F

d. 170-180 degrees F

d. 170-180 degrees F

How often should hood filters over a grill be washed?

a. Once a week

b. At the end of the day

c. Twice a day

d. After each meal period

d. After each meal period

Every walk in refrigerator and cold storage areas must have

a. at least one door that can be opened from the inside

b. an alarm for temperature control

c. a lock to secure inventory items

d. a defrosting mechanism

a. at least one door that can be opened from the inside

In meat market storage areas, sawdust may be used on floors

a. with a drain

b. made of tile

c. made of wood

d. made of concrete

c. made of wood

When not in use, meat hooks should be stored in

a. areas away from the meat market

b. containers or on racks

c. individual sheaths

d. meat coolers

b. containers or on racks