Which of the following is not a primary objective of the vision conservation program?

a. Satisfy AFOSH concerns

b. Provide high quality care

c. Conduct research that supports wartime readiness

d. Sustain combat capability to support the mission

a. Satisfy AFOSH concerns

Who must provide personnel with the approved eye protection required to do their job safely?

a. Safety

b. Supervisor

c. Functional manager

d. Bioenvironmental engineering

c Functional Manager

Who determines which jobs or areas require eye protection?

a. AF personnel specialists

b. Squadron commanders

c. Ophthalmology clinic

d. Supervisors

d. Supervisor

What base agency conducts lighting surveys when requested?

a. Safety

b. Public Health

c. Bioenvironmental Engineering

d. CE Facility Design

d. CE Facility Design

The amount of light to be provided in a given location is based on

a. the purpose for which the location is used

b. the availability of supplementary lighting

c. factors such as harsh glare and shadows

d. the quality of the available lighting

a. the purpose for which the location is used

Which lighting hazard may interfere with the eye's ability to adjust quickly enough to see without error?

a. Glare

b. Shadows

c. Too little light

d. Changes in illumination levels

d. Changes in illumination levels

Who establishes the monitoring program in the hearing conservation area to ensure compliance with federal laws?

a. Installation commander

b. USAF surgeon general

c. Director of base medical services (DBMS)

d. Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) office

b. USAF surgeon general

In the hearing conservation program, the safety professional

a. designates noise-hazard areas.

b. decides who has to be tested for hearing loss.

c. implements noise protection in building design.

d. conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.

d. conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.

What are the two types of acoustic noise evaluations performed in support of the hearing conservation program?

a. Sound-level survey and octave band analysis.

b. Sound-level survey and general base survey.

c. Pitch-level analysis and octave band analysis.

d. Random assessment survey and actave band analysis.

a. Sound-level survey and octave band analysis.

If you were working in a manchine shop, your workplace would be designated as a hazardous noise environment when the noise in the shop equals or exceeds

a. 80 decibels at any time.

b. 85 decibels at any time.

c. 80 decibels averaged over an eight-hours period.

d. 85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.

d. 85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.

The maximum amount of noise attenuation available from a personal protective device is limited by the

a. bone conduction mechanisms of the human body.

b. undesirable physiological effects of the devices.

c. insulation properties of the devices.

d. acoustic quality reduction.

a. bone conduction mechanisms of the human body.

Which action best illustrates the hazard control method of substitution?

a. Building a barrier that separates personnel from a hazardous operation.

b. Assigning well-trained personnel to a hazardous operation.

c. Replacing one solvent with a less toxic one.

d. Issuing safety shoes to all personnel.

c. Replacing one solvent with a less toxic one.

The push-pull system is an example of which local exhaust ventilation system?

a. Spray booth

b. Exterior hood

c. Enclosure hood

d. Mechanical fan

b. Exterior hood

What are the two main purposes of a spray booth?

a. Control temperature and humidity and protect the equipment surrounding the work area.

b. Protect the health of the worker and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.

c. Protect the health of the worker and the equipment surrounding the work area

d. Aid the natural flow of air and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.

b. Protect the health of the worker and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.

What are the two types of general ventilation?

a. Natural and mechanical

b. Natural and local exhaust

c. Mechanical and local exhaust

d. Mechanical and lateral exhaust

a. Natural and mechanical

What agency reviews the initial design for any ventilation system to be used in AF environments?

a. Wing safety

b. Public Health

c. Base medical services

d. Bioenvironmental engineering

d. Bioenvironmental Engineering

Which of the following conditions creates a hazardous atmosphere?

a. The presence of flammable gas in any amount.

b. Any space that is not designed for continuous occupancy.

c. The presence of an atmospheric oxygen concentration of 20 percent

d. The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit

d. The presence of a flammable gas in excessof 10 percent of its lower explosive limit.

Oxygen deficiency is first reached when oxygen content is below

a. 17.5 percent

b. 18.5 percent

c. 19.5 percent

d. 23.5 percent

c. 19.5 percent

An atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched when oxygen content rises above

a. 21.5 percent

b. 22 percent

c. 23 percent

d. 23.5 percent

d. 23.5 percent

Who must sign the entry permit prior to workers entering a confined space?

a. Entrants only

b. Attendant only

c. Supervisor only

d. Supervisor and entrants

d. Supervisor and entrants.

Name the three primary means of rescue from confined spaces.

a. Self-rescue, centrally located rescue team, and organizational rescue team.

b. Organizational rescue team, self-rescue, and emergency medical rescue team.

c. Emergency medical rescue team, centrally located rescue team, and self-rescue.

d. Centrally located rescue team, emergency medical rescue team, and organizational rescue team.

a. Self-rescue, centrally located rescue team, and organizational rescue team.

All members of confined-space rescue teams must have hands-on training in removing victims at least every

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c. 18 months

d. 24 months

b. 12 months

A toxic gas and vapor concentration of three percent is considered

a. low

b. normal

c. moderately high

d. very high

d. very high

When wearing a hose mask respirator with a blower unit (Type A), what is the maximum distance beyond uncontaminated air that a worker may go?

a. 100 feet

b. 200 feet

c. 300 feet

d. 500 feet

c. 300 feet

when wearing a hose mask respirator without a blower unit (Type B), what is the maximum distance beyond uncontaminated air that a worker may go?

a. 25 feet

b. 75 feet

c. 100 feet

d. 150 feet

b. 75 feet

Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) respirators

a. use a blower to pass air across an air-cleaning element.

b. protect against particulate matter but not oxygen deficiency.

c. should be used only for intermittent exposure to light concentrations of gas.

d. provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.

d. provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.

Which type of self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is simple to use and requires less regular maintenance than the other SCBAs?

a. Demand type

b. Self-generating

c. Pressure demand.

d. Oxygen cylinder re-breathing

b. Self-generating

Which type and class of safety helmet will offer protection against lateral blows to the head and reduce the danger of exposure to low voltage electrical conductors?

a. Type I, class G

b. Type I, class E

c. Type II, class G

d. Type II, class C

c. Type II, class G

Which type and class of safety helmet offers protectino against top impact blows only and reduces the danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors?

a. Type I, class G

b. Type I, class E

c. Type II, class E

d. Type II, class C

b. Type I, class E

Which set of goggles is recommended for use in flammable atmospheres?

a. Nonconductor

b. Combustion

c. Chemical

d. Gas-tight

a. Nonconductor

Which type of goggles is designed to protect the eyes from relatively large particles flying from any direction?

a. Wire screen

b. Spectacle

c. Chippers

d. Welding

c. Chippers

Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used?

a. Cotton

b. Wool

c. Leather

d. Synthetic

c. Leather

Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 12 months

d. 24 months

c. 12 months

Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by AF personnel?

a. Class 25

b. Class 35

c. Class 50

d. Class 75

d. Class 75

Which footwear grounds static electricity generated on a person at locations with fire or explosive hazards?

a. Conductive shoes

b. Spark-resistant shoes

c. Non-conductive shoes

d. Electrical hazard shoes

a. Conductive shoes

A worker entering a tank that previously contained gasoline must wear which type of shoes?

a. Conductive shoes

b. Spark-resistant shoes

c. Non-conductive shoes

d. Electrical hazard shoes

b. spark-resistant shoes

A safety belt and harness assembly must be capable of withstanding a tensile load of at least

a. 2,000 pounds

b. 3,000 pounds

c. 4,000 pounds

d. 5,000 pounds

c. 4,000 pounds

What is the minimum distance a strip of insulating matting must extend past each end of a work area?

a. 2 feet

b. 3 feet

c. 4 feet

d. 5 feet

a. 2 feet

Whether in use or not, belts, lanyards, and lifelines must be inspected at least every

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 9 months

d. 12 months

b. 6 months

The maximum time and distance between hazardous operations or materials and an emergency shower and eyewsash unit are

a. 10 seconds and 50 feet

b. 10 seconds and 100 feet

c. 15 seconds and 50 feet

d. 15 seconds and 100 feet

b. 10 seconds and 100 feet

If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?

a. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.

b. Report them to the child development center management for action.

c. Take immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies.

d. Assign risk assessment codes as required.

a. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.

Who must approve the use of portable space heaters?

a. Base safety

b. Fire department

c. Base civil engineer

d. Bioenvironmental engineering

c. Base civil engineer

What are the fire classifications based on?

a. Lowest temperature at which the fire is maintained.

b. Highest temperature at which the fire burns

c. Extinguishing media used to combat the fire.

d. Type of material that is burning

c. Extinguishing media used to combat the fire.

During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should

a. have additional extinguishers installed.

b. submit AF Form 979 to the installation manager.

c. refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.

d. have all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building.

c. refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel

Which class of fires occurs in combustible metals?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

d. D

How should a grease fire be classified?

a. Class A

b. Class B

c. Class C

d. Class D

b. Class B

In color coding, black lettering should not be used on which background(s)?

a. Red

b. Green

c. Both yellow and white

d. Both red and green

d. Both red and green

Which color code is used for piping system containers that contain radioactive substances?

a. Lime yellow

b. Magenta

c. Orange

d. Yellow

b. Magenta

Which color code is used for designating electrical conduit and unguarded, dangerous parts of machines or energized equipment?

a. Magenta

b. Orange

c. Blue

d. Red

b. Orange

Which type of hammer should be used for heading rivets?

a. Claw

b. Mallet

c. Sledge

d. Ball peen

d. Ball peen

Which wrench has the disadvantage of tending to round off the corners of hex nuts?

a. Adjustable

b. Open-end

c. Socket

d. Box

a. Adjustable

Which type chisel should be used to cut sheet metal?

a. Flat

b. Cape

c. Common

d. Diamond-point

a. Flat

When grinding chisels, why should they not be pressed hard against the grinding wheel?

a. The wheel will chip

b. The chisel will chip

c. Heat produced may draw the temper from the steel

d. The chisel's edge wil become slightly rounded

c. Heat produced may draw the temper from the steel

Which type of pliers has jaws that are excellent for bending heavy-guage electrical conductors?

a. Adjustable combination

b. Diagonal-cutting

c. Side-cutting

d. Long-nose

c. Side-cutting

Which screwdriver is especially useful in getting to screws under or behind pieces of equipment?

a. Off-set

b. Ratchet

c. Off-set ratchet

d. straight ratchet

c. Off-set ratchet

What common behavior creates safety hazards when using screwdrivers?

a. Holding the screwdriver incorrectly.

b. Using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task.

c. Not using required personal protective equipment.

d. Using screwdrivers that have not been approved by the Air Force

b. Using the wrong kind of screwdriver for the task.

What factor controls the "binding" of hacksaw blades?

a. Angle of approach to the stock

b. Type of frame used

c. Oiling of the blade

d. set of the teeth

d. Set of the teeth

The chief hazard associated with electrically powered tools is

a. fire

b. hand injuries

c. electrical shock

d. flash burns

c. electrical shock

Standard electrical hand tools should never be used near flammable materials because they

a. do not guarantee adequate grounding

b. are not double insulated

c. have three-wire cords

d. arc at the brushes

d. arc at the brushes

For small-capacity electrical tools, double insulation can be provided by

a. adding more insulation to the power cord.

b. encasing the entire tool in a nonconductive material.

c. making the switch and handle of nonconductive materials.

d. having the operatior wear rubber insulating gloves while standing on insulating matting.

b. encasing the entire tool in a nonconductive material.

To solder common electrical circuits, select a soldering iron with a power rating of

a. 35 watts

b. 45 to 55 watts

c. 60 to 70 watts

d. 85 to 100 watts

c. 60 to 70 watts

Maintenance on soldering irons and guns is primarily centered on the

a. tips

b. handle

c. shank

d. power cord

a. tips

Where possible, the best way to prevent an airhose from becoming a tripping hazard is to

a. build a runway over the hose.

b. install bumper-blocks one each side.

c. suspend the hose over aisles and work areas.

d. temporarily divert pedestrian traffic around the hose.

c.  suspend the hose over aisles and work areas.

All operators of small air-driven impact tools (air hammers) must

a. be accompanied by an attendant.

b. avoid squeezing the trigger until the tool is on the work surface.

c. wear leather gloves to protect the hands during all operations.

d. wear rubber insulating gloves because of the tool's metal housing.

b. avoid squeezing the trigger until the tool is on the work surface.

On a power-actuated hand tool, the steel muzzle guard must be at least how many inches in diameter to protect personnel from flying particles?

a. 2.

b. 2 1/2.

c. 4.

d. 3 1/2.

d. 3 1/2.

Machine guarding is necessary primarlily because

a. machines do not perform in a consistent manner.

b. most hazards can be eliminated through engineering.

c. a machine's moving parts are fragile and must be protected.

d. people are unpredictable and may perform their work in consistently.

d. people are unpredictable and may perform their work inconsistently.

To prevent mishaps involving machinery, the best action, which should be pursued first, is to

a. educate the worker.

b. engineer hazards out.

c. use machine guards for existing hazards.

d. provide personal protective equipment.

b. engineer hazrds out.

In-running nip points are a specific danger of which type of motion?

a. Cutting.

b. Rotating.

c. Transverse.

d. Reciprocating.

b. Rotating.

What hazard is commonly associated with a transverse motion?

a. Projections on the rotating parts may injure the worker.

b. Flying chips or scraps are likely to strike the operator.

c. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.

d. The worker may be caught between a moving and stationary part.

c. The worker may be struck or caught in a pinch by the moving part.

If a machine guard opens when stock is moved into the danger area and returns to a rest position when the stock is removed, that guard is

a. fixed.

b. adjustable.

c. interlocking.

d. self-adjusting.

d. self-adjusting.

In a machine shop, how many inches wide should aisles be to permit free movement of workers and equipment?

a. 12.

b. 18.

c. 24.

d. 36.

d. 36.

The floor loading capacity of a machine shop is determined by the

a. installation bioenvironmental engineer (BE).

b. installation civil engineer (CE).

c. shop supervisor.

d. safety personnel.

b. installation civil engineer (CE).

Which traffic safety course improves driving by identifying and changing behavioral patterns that cause unsafe acts?

a. Course I.

b. Course II.

c. Course IVB.

d. Course V.

a. Course I.

Which traffic safety course should be introduced by the installation ground safety manager (GSM)?

a. Course I.

b. Course II.

c. Couse IVB.

d. Course V.

b. Course II.

Which traffic safety course may be commander-directed for personnel who are convicted of serious traffic violations?

a. Course I.

b. Course II.

c. Course IVB.

d. Course V.

d. Course V.

Who determines (or designates someone to determine) when and where off road vehicles may operate on base?

a. Chief of Safety

b. Traffic safety engineer.

c. Ground Safety Manager (GSM).

d. Installation Commander.

d. Installation Commander.

An all-terrain vehicle (ATV) is a three or four wheeled vehicle that has low pressure tires and a wheel base of

a. 50 inches or less.

b. 75 inches or less.

c. 100 inches or less.

d. 125 inches or less.

a. 50 inches or less.

When conducting a seat belt awareness briefing, what is the best way to get yor point across?

a. Be creative by using visual aids and real-life examples.

b. Emphasize the expense of a ticket.

c. Show negative trends and statistics on seat-belt usage.

d. Point out that Air Force instructions require the use of a seat belt.

a. Be creative by using visual aids and real-life examples.

What is a good way to gauge the impact of your restraint awareness program?

a. Perform a restraint usage survey before and after the program.

b. Have squadron safety representatives survey their personnel.

c. Interview several base personnel about the impact of the program.

d. Ask security forces how many tickets are written for failure to wear seat belts.

a. Perform a restraint usage survey before and after the program.

Who regulates the movement of traffic and personnel on an Air Force installation?

a. Installation commander.

b. Chief of security forces (CSF).

c. Installation safety officer

d. Installation traffic engineer.

a. Installation commander.

If your base has no traffic engineer, the base commnader may request assistance from

a. the Department of Transportation

b. the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

c. the commander of the Military Traffic Management Command

d. Insurance companies

c. the commander of the Military Traffic Management Command

What document describes the safest and most efficient way to use primary and secondary roads on an installation?

a. Base traffic circulation plan

b. Traffic engineering study

c. USAF Traffic Safety Program guidebook

d. Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (MUTCD)

a. Base traffic circulation plan

Which piece of equipment is a class 2 laser?

a. Laser printer

b. Laser scanner

c. Aiming devices

d. Entertainment light shows

c. Aiming devices

Which type of laser may present a fire hazard?

a. Class 1

b. Class 2

c. Class 3

d. Class 4

d. Class 4

Who conducts initial and annual laser safety training?

a. Wing safety

b. Medical staff

c. Unit safety officer (USO)

d. Bioenvironmental engineering (BE)

c. Unit safety officer (USO)

Which agency establishes inspection standards for radio frequency radiation safety programs?

a. Wing safety

b. Public health (PH)

c. Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE)

d. Air Force Safety Center (AFSC)

d. Air Force Safety Center (AFSC)

Which agency assists unit commanders and shop supervisors with the development of radio frequency radiation (RFR) training awareness programs?

a. Wing safety

b. Public health (PH)

c. Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE)

d. Air Force Safety Center (AFSC)

c. Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE)

A radio frequency (RFR) safety program should

a. try to eliminate all RFR emissions.

b. locate devices that emit RFR away from public spaces.

c. ensure that personnel are exposed to zero levels of RFR.

d. evaluate the exposure potential of a system that emits RFR against the permissible exposure limits.

d. evaluate the exposure potential of a system that emits RFR against the permissible exposure limits.

Which is an example of ionizing radiation?

a. Visible light

b. Gamma rays

c. Microwaves

d. Sound waves

b. Gamma rays

Refresher training of the radio frequency radiation (RFR) awareness program will include all of the following except

a. control devices

b. incident reporting procedures

c. locations where the permissible exposure limit (PEL) can be exceeded

d. modifications that affect the locations of hazardous areas

c. locations where the permissible exposure limit (PEL) can be exceeded

Which of the following work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSD) is the most common in the upper extremities?

a. Tendonitis.

b. Lower back pain.

c. Lateral epicondylitis.

d. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS).

d. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)

Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is caused by

a. activities that require rotation of the forearm and bending of the wrist at the same time.

b. the repeated tensing of a muscle while overusing the wrist.

c. activities that require twisting motions of the hands.

d. activities that have jerky throwing motions.

d. activities that have jerky throwing motions.

Which factor contributes to work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSD) by creating pressure over a small area and interfering with blood flow and nerve functions?

a. Force

b. Posture

c. Repetition

d. Mechanical compression

d. Mechanical compression

For a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens, when must the exposure control plan be reviewed and updated?

a. Six months prior to a safety inspection

b. Monthly or whenever an exposure occurs

c. Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure

d. Twice annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure

c. Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure

To prevent exposure to bloodborne pathogens, an engineering control

a. uses personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect workers

b. removes the hazard or isolates the worker from the hazard

c. institutes hygienic procedures to protect workers

d. eliminates tasks that involve body fluids

b. removes the hazards or isolates the worker from the hazard.