1. Which of these states first used factory safety inspectors?

a. Wisconsin

b. Massachusetts

c. Alabama

d. New Jersey

b. Massachusetts

2. The safety law passed by the state of Massachusetts in 1877 required that

a. Fire extinguishers be installed in all clothing factories

b. All factories be inspected by state factory inspectors

c. Fire escapes be installed in all multistory buildings

d. All hazardous machinery be safeguarded

d. All hazardous machinery be safeguarded

3. What two industries began to organize safety programs in the first decade of the 20th century?

a. Steel and clothing

b. Steel and railroading

c. Furniture and railroading

d. Railroading and construction

b. Steel and railroading

4. In what year did the state of Alabama approve laws making employers responsible for safety?

a. 1865

b. 1867

c. 1871

d. 1885

d.1885

5. In 1924, the first respirator appeared in what industry?

a. Grain mills

b. Steel mills

c. clothing plants

d. Chemical plants

d. Chemical plants

6. Which of these pieces of legislation, when enacted, marked the federal government’s entrance into the safety program?

a. The Williams-Steiger Act

b. The Walsh-Healy Act

c. The OSH Act

d. The Civil Rights Act

b. The Walsh-Healy Act

7. In the 1960s, the concept of systems safety management emerged with the advent of what industry?

a. Computer

b. Robotics

c. Space

d. Japanese automobile

c. Space

8. The OSH act of 1970 applied mainly to which industries agencies?

a. Private industry

b. Federal Industry

c. Private construction industry only

d. Private and federal industries agencies

a. Private industry

9. Who is the approval authority for state safety plans?

a. The Secretary of Labor

b. The Secretary of Commerce

c. The State’s Legislative bodies

d. The US Congress (both houses)

a. The Secretary of Labor

10. Under the OSH Act, who is accountable for employees violations of safety and health standards?

a. The employee

b. The Employer

c. The State Government

d. The Federal Government

b. The Employer

11. The key points of compliance with any industrial operation are

a. inspections and Investigations

b. Analysis programs

c. Operating standards

d. Prevention programs

c. Operating standards

12. When the OSH Act became law, what were the safety and health standards derived from?

a. OSHA compliance inspectors

b. The standards were already law under other bills

c. Existing NFPA and ANSI standards were consolidated with OSHA standards

d. Industries wrote their own standards, which were applied by compliance inspectors

c. Existing NFPA and ANSI standards were consolidated with OSHA standards

13. What guidelines must be met before the creation or revision of an OSHA safety standard?

a. Must be approved by the US Senate

b. Must be brought before formal public hearings

c. Must be approved by the US House of

Representatives

d. Must be brought before and approved by 2/3 of the legislative bodies

b. Must be brought before formal public hearings

14. Who has the privacy responsibility for the mishap prevention program?

a. Supervisors

b. Commanders

c. Safety Staffs

d. Functional Managers

b. Commanders

15. Who along with help from the host safety office, will help identify rules, criteria, and procedures as they apply to AFOSH Standards?

a. Commanders, supervisors, and individuals

b. Functional Managers, Supervisors, and individuals

c. Commanders, Functional Mangers, and supervisors

d. Commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and individuals

d. Commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and individuals

16. Who is responsible for the overall safety programs?

a. DoD

b. DoL

c. AFSE

d. AFSC SE

c. AFSE

17. Which agency is the overall office of primary responsibility for mishap prevention and occupational safety and health programs?

a. DoD

b. DoL

c. AFSC

d. USAF at large

c. AFSC

18. Who is responsible for the development of AFOSH standards supplements for unique operations for which safety and health guidance does not exist?

a. AFSC Staff

b. NAF safety staff

c. Wing Safety staff

d. MAJCOM safety staff

d. MAJCOM safety staff

19. Who has the responsibility to ensure that off duty safety briefings are provided to all personnel?

a. Commander

b. Chief of Safety

c. Ground safety staff

d. Ground safety manager

a. Commander

20. Who manages the mishap prevention program for the wing commander?

a. Chief of Safety

b. Ground Safety Manager

c. Safety Superintendent

d. Safety Staff

b. Ground Safety Manager

21. Within how many days of appointment will unit safety representatives receive training?

a. 7 days

b. 15 days

c. 30 days

d. 45 days

c. 30 days

22. Which of the following examples describes an attitudinal factor?

a. Using equipment when not properly trained or qualified

b. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders

c. Not following established procedures or taking unauthorized shortcuts to save time

d. Reacting emotionally and mentally (psychologically) to situations according to previously learned responses that have become habitual

d. Reacting emotionally and mentally (psychologically) to situations according to previously learned responses that have become habitual

23. People’s attitudes may be expected to remain unchanged

a. Until self-evaluation dictates a change

b. As long as their personalities remain unchanged

c. Until their aptitudes have been more highly developed

d. As long as the attitudes serve and satisfy the people’s needs

d. As long as the attitudes serve and satisfy the people’s needs

24. Which of the following functions in the safety office will go along way toward making the mishap prevention program effective?

a. Isolation

b. Regularity

c. Overlapping

d. Functional Grouping

c. Overlapping

25. An effective mishap prevention program begins with?

a. Inter-service liaison

b. Professional contacts

c. Good intra-office discipline

d. Participation in safety councils

c. Good intra-office discipline

26. Which of these services can other military services provide to your safety programs?

a. On-the-job training for interns

b. Courtesy reports

c. Input for contingency training development

d. Crossover funding for safety training

b. Courtesy reports

27. Which of these organizations is comprised of a number of bureaus, agencies, and offices that have specific subject matter expertise and focus?

a. Safety Training Institute

b. National Safety Council

c. Department of Labor

d. Department of Health and Human Services

c. Department of Labor

28. OSHA is a responsibility of the

a. Safety Training Institute

b. National Safety Council

c. Department of Labor

d. Federal Advisory Council

c. Department of Labor

29. Which of these organizations mission is to assure the safety and health of America’s workers by setting and enforcing standards and providing training?

a. National Safety Council

b. OSHA training institute

c. Field Federal Safety and Health Council

d. Occupational safety and health administration

d. Occupational safety and health administration

30. What organization can leverage scarce or prohibitively expensive resources by sponsoring training courses locally at reasonable cost?

a. Department of Labor

b. National Safety Council

c. Field Federal Safety and Health Council

d. Occupational safety and health Administration

c. Field Federal Safety and Health Council

31. Your office has received a large number of complaints about the traffic flow at an intersection close to the base.  Which non-Air Force agency or agencies should you contact as you try to solve the problem?

a. Local safety organizations

b. Chamber of Commerce

c. State Police

d. Local Law Enforcement

d. Local Law Enforcement

32. Which union official is responsible for enforcing the safety parts of the union contract?

a. President

b. Vice President

c. Organizer

d. Steward

d. Steward

33. Which of the following avenues used by the safety office to educate personnel should be kept short, concise and to the point?

a. Bulletins

b. Briefings

c. Campaigns

d. Newsletters

a. Bulletins

34. Which of the following avenues used by the safety office to educate personnel will focus on several topics?

a. Bulletins

b. Briefings

c. Campaigns

d. Newsletters

d. Newsletters

35. What type of training is defined as exceeding minimum qualification requirements, with emphasis on present or future duty assignments?

a. Formal

b. Upgrade

c. Advanced

d. Continuation

d. Continuation

36. What Air Force publication serves as a formal contract between Air Education Training Command and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force Specialty Code are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?

a. Job Qualification Standard

b. Specialty Training Standard

c. Qualification Training Package

d. Career Field Education and Training Plan

b. Specialty Training Standard

37. A Utilization and Training Workshop is a forum designed to

a. Proved specialized safety training

b. Develop continuing safety education

c. Determine career field training requirements

d. Review Air Force Safety policy and procedures

c. Determine career field training requirements

38. Who determines training requirements and ensures implementation of training programs for Air Force safety training?

a. MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM)

b. Air Force Chief of Safety (HQ USAF SE)

c. Air Force Safety Center Commander (AFSC CC)

d. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) for safety

d. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) for safety

39. Who is responsible for developing, implementing, and maintain the CFETP for safety personnel?

a. Installation commander

b. MAJCOM Functional Manager

c. AF Career Field Manager for safety

d. Commander, Air Force Safety Center

c. AF Career Field Manager for safety

40. Who develops and coordinates training policy and program changes with work centers?

a. Unit Training Manager

b. Ground Safety Manager

c. MAJCOM functional manager

d. AF Career Field Manager

a. Unit Training Manager

41. Who is responsible for identifying a trainee’s strengths and areas needing improvements?

a. Trainer

b. Task certifier

c. Safety supervisor

d. Unit training manager

b. Task certifier

42. Major command functional managers and supervisors at all levels use the CFETP to ensure that

a. A comprehensive and cohesive training program is available for each person in the specialty

b. A training program is in place and available to help each person prepare for promotion testing

c. AETC training personnel are developing and revising the most current formal resident training courses possible

d. A comprehensive personnel cross-utilization training program is in place to support overseas manpower ceiling shortfalls

a. A comprehensive and cohesive training program is available for each person in the specialty

43. How much time are safety students normally allotted to complete a CDC?

a. 6 months

b. 9 months

c. 12 months

d. 18 months

c. 12 months

44. What are the prerequisites for a 7 level upgrade trainee to attend the craftsman resident course?

a. Six months upgrade training only

b. Twelve months upgrade training only

c. Completion of minimum core training tasks and recommendation by supervisor only

d. Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor

d. Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor

45. One of the best ways a supervisor can improve productivity and esprit de corps is to

a. Have an effective training program in place

b. Conduct frequent surveys to check overall morale

c. Ask for everyone’s input each time a decision about the operation needs to be made

d. Motivate poor performers with a system of awards and recognition until their productivity increases

a. Have an effective training program in place

46. What action serves as an invaluable tool when putting a trainee at ease during an evaluation?

a. Interview the trainee

b. Give the trainee a pre-test

c. Start where the trainee’s knowledge ends

d. Talk about what the trainee already knows about the task

b. Give the trainee a pre-test

47. What action helps to measure how well your training program is working?

a. Evaluation

b. Written tests

c. Performance tests

d. Task certification

d. Task certification

48. What is the desired education level for a safety craftsman?

a. Graduate degree

b. Bachelors degree

c. Associated degree

d. Appropriate PME for grade

c. Associates degree

49. What is considered one of the best investments any safety office can make?

a. Training

b. Appraisals

c. Supervision

d. Assessments

a. Training

50. What is one of the more common ways to provide training and save money?

a. Distance learning courses

b. Tuition assistance

c. Host a training course at your base

d. Send one person from your section to a training course, and then have that person train everyone else

a. Distance learning courses

51. Who compiles the career field’s projected training needs annually and formulates a schedule based on inputs?

a. Ground Safety Manager

b. Air Force Safety Center

c. MAJCOM Functional Manager

d. Air Force Career Field Training Manager

b. Air Force Safety Center

52. Who will manage and track training for all safety personnel through the use of a computer data base program?

a. AFSC

b. MAJCOMs

c. AFCFM for safety

d. Air Force Training Manager

b. MAJCOMs

53. The Air Force Manpower Standard 106A applies to

a. Air Force Space Command (AFSC)

b. Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)

c. Air Force Material Command (AFMC)

d. Air Force special Operations Command

d. Air Force special Operations Command

54. When can the safety office submit a variance request to the Air Force Manpower Standard 106A?

a. When the safety office is overmanned a variance is submitted to keep the extra slots

b. When the safety office is performing tasks above and beyond those found on the process analysis survey

c. When the duties of the safety office change drastically and additional manning is needed to accomplish the mission

d. When the safety office manning slots are cut due to a change in the mission and your Chief of Safety deems those slots necessary to accomplish the mission

b. When the safety office is performing tasks above and beyond those found on the process analysis survey

55. What is the goal of risk management?

a. To identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately

b. To make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk

c. To reduce the hazards and risk to our people to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully

d. To identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors

c. To reduce the hazards and risk to our people to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully

56. What is the cornerstone of the operational risk management program?

a. Commander support of the process

b. Early identification of hazards and risk

c. Thorough training in the use of risk management tools

d. Early education in risk management principles and tools

d. Early education in risk management principles and tools

57. What describes the expected consequences of an event in terms of mission impact, injury, and property damage?

a. Probability

b. Severity

c. Exposure

d. Assessment

b. Severity

58. Which one of these is one of the most powerful hazard identification tools?

a. What if

b. Fishbone

c. Cause and effect

d. Operations analysis

a. What if

59. Which level of risk management is helpful in choosing an appropriate course of action when an unplanned event occurs during execution of a planned operation?

a. Time-critical

b. Deliberate

c. Tactical

d. Strategic

a. Time-critical

60. Which level of risk management should be used on high priority or high visibility risks?

a. Time-critical

b. Deliberate

c. Tactical

d. Strategic

d. Strategic

61. Who plays the advisor role in the operational risk management process?

a. Functional Manager

b. Commander

c. Supervisor

d. Safety staff

d. Safety staff

62. What process provides a basic framework for analyzing systems and determining the relationships between composite elements that work together to perform the mission?

a. 5-M Model

b. Risk management

c. Systematic risk management

d. Operational risk management

a. 5-M Model

63. The basic cause factors of mishaps fall into which categories as the contributors to successful missions?

a. Man, media, machine, and mission

b. Management, machine, and man only

c. Management, machine, and media only

d. Man, media, machine, and management

d. Man, media, machine, and management

64. Which mishap-causing agent produces the majority of mishaps?

a. Man

b. Media

c. Machine

d. Management

a. Man

65. How many steps are there to the ORM process?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 10

b. 6

66. Determining the severity of a hazard in terms of its potential impact on people, equipment, or the mission is a function of which step of the operational risk management process?

a. Analyze risk control measures

b. Make control decisions

c. Identify the hazard

d. Assess the risk

d. Assess the risk

67. Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?

a. Avoidance

b. Reduction

c. Spreading

d. Transference

a. Avoidance

68. Storing munitions in such a way that explosive propagation is minimized is employing which risk control option?

a. Avoidance

b. Reduction

c. Spreading

d. Transference

c. Spreading

69. A procedure used by supervisors and employees to assess the hazards associated with a work procedure and determine the safest and most efficient means of accomplishing a given task best defines?

a. Change Analysis

b. Job Safety Analysis

c. Operational Hazard Analysis

d. Preliminary Hazard Analysis

b. Job Safety Analysis

70. An analysis of the detailed procedures of an operation, and how a deviation from these procedures could lead to a hazard defines?

a. Change Analysis

b. Job Safety Analysis

c. Operational Hazard Analysis

d. Preliminary Hazard Analysis

c. Operational Hazard Analysis

71. Who has the primary responsibility for identifying work place hazards that place workers at risk?

a. Supervisor

b. Individual

c. Commander

d. Functional Manager

b. Individual

72. Who evaluates a hazard report to determine whether it is a valid hazard?

a. The safety staff

b. The functional manager

c. The supervisor where the hazard exist

d. The legal staff

a. The safety staff

73. The OPR for a hazard report must return the report with action annotated to the safety office within how many work days?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 20

d. 30

b. 10

74. Who monitors a hazard report until the hazard is eliminated?

a. Functional Manager

b. Supervisor

c. Commander

d. Safety Staff

d. Safety Staff

75. For hazard reports that originate from installations in foreign countries, what is the highest review level in the appeal process?

a. Appropriate Air Staff agency

b. MAJCOM commander

c. Department of Labor

d. Department of State

a. Appropriate Air Staff agency

76. For hazard reports that involve military unique operations or equipment, what is the highest review level in the appeal process?

a. MAJCOM commander

b. Chief of Air Force Safety

c. Appropriate Air Staff agency

d. Appropriate MAJCOM agency

c. Appropriate Air Staff agency

77. Which hazard abatement measure is the most desirable way to eliminate hazards?

a. Personnel actions

b. Procedural actions

c. Planning and engineering

d. The use of personal protective equipment

c. Planning and engineering

78. Whom should you notify immediately if you encounter an Imminent danger situation?

a. Supervisor

b. Chief of Safety

c. Functional manager

d. Ground Safety Manager

a. Supervisor

79. Your hazard abatement recommendations should be

a. appropriate and feasible

b. realistic and subjective

c. subjective and suitable

d. objective and unquestionable

a. appropriate and feasible

80. Mishap probability has how many categories?

a. two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five

c. Four

81. Who conducts the evaluation and assignment of risk assessment codes?

a. The functional and the supervisor

b. The functional manager and safety staff

c. The safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire prevention officials

d. The safety, bioenvironmental engineering, fire prevention, and legal officials

c. The safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire prevention officials

82. The abatement priority number is a code consisting of the risk assessment code and the

a. personnel exposure

b. cost effectiveness index

c. mishap probability

d. severity and probability multiplier

b. cost effectiveness index

83. Who determines sources for funding hazard abatement projects?

a. Budget personnel

b. Commanders

c. Chief of Safety

d. Civil engineer

a. Budget personnel

84. To whom will the safety office submit an End-of-FY Annual Hazard Abatement Survey report?

a. AFSC

b. MAJCOM

c. Wing commander

d. Base civil engineer

b. MAJCOM

85. What information is contained in AFOSH Standard checklists?

a. AFOSH Standards and OSHA Standards only

b. Activity being inspected and checklist items only

c. Checklist items, AFOSH references, and OSHA references only

d. Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material

d. Identification of activity, checklist items, and notation of reference material

86. A support agreement that excludes private or commercial enterprises is known as

a. intraservice

b. interservice

c. intragovernmental

d. Air Force to other Non-Federal activities

d. Air Force to other Non-Federal activities

87. Ultimately, what is the support agreement based on?

a. Receiver’s mission

b. Supplier’s mission

c. Receiver’s needs and the supplier’s ability to meet those needs

d. The prevailing importance of the respective combat missions at the time of negotiation or review

c. Receiver’s needs and the supplier’s ability to meet those needs

88. How often are support agreements reviewed for other than budgetary consideration?

a. Semi-annually

b. Annually

c. Biennially

d. Triennially

d. Triennially

89. What must the safety annex to contingency plans provide?

a. Guidance for safety reporting, assign mishap prevention responsibilities, specify chain of command

b. Guidance for safety reporting, assign mishap investigators, specify chain of command

c. Assign mishap prevention responsibilities, assign mishap investigators, specify chain of command

d. Guidance for safety reporting, assign mishap investigators, assign mishap prevention responsibilities

a. Guidance for safety reporting, assign mishap prevention responsibilities, specify chain of command

90. Operational plans are most often written at what level(s)?

a. Air Force

b. Air Force and MAJCOM

c. MAJCOM, Wing, and Base

d. Wing, Base, and Squadron

d. Wing, Base, and Squadron

91. Which statement best captures the scope of what peacetime deployments test?

a. Aircraft weapons delivery

b. Airlift of material and personnel

c. Effectiveness of wartime plans

d. How well personnel perform under adverse conditions

c. Effectiveness of wartime plans

92. What are your primary duties during the deployment phase of an operation of your unit?

a. Report mishaps

b. Attend aircrew briefings

c. Monitor your unit’s Flightline activities

d. Monitor your unit’s activities and those of the support unit and report to management

d. Monitor your unit’s activities and those of the support unit and report to management

93. What are the four basic parts of the comprehensive plan structure?

a. General plan, component plan, special plan, and maps

b. General plan, component plan, infrastructure plan, and maps

c. Component plan, infrastructure plan, special plan, and transportation plan

d. Component plan, transportation plan, land use plan, and opportunities plan

a. General plan, component plan, special plan, and maps

94. Which plan is easily updated and provides flexibility in response to command and installation changes?

a. General

b. Component

c. Infrastructure

d. Transportation

a. General

95. What usually precedes the final specifications blueprints to give base agencies a detailed explanation of construction?

a. Briefing by the contractor

b. Briefing by the contracting officer

c. A written copy of the contract

d. A project book

d. A project book

96. What type of contract is used to modify existing facilities?

a. Service

b. Renovation

c. Construction

d. Local purchase

c. Construction

97. Which agency performs the pre award survey?

a. Base contracting office

b. MAJCOM contracting office

c. Defense contract management agency

d. Air Force contract management agency

c. Defense contract management agency

98. What type of contract is used for the local acquisition of items not available through the Air Force or General Services Administration supply systems?

a. Service

b. Renovation

c. Construction

d. Commodities

d. Commodities