Term
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Definition
According to recommended guidelines, an optional parameter to include in the report of an adult polysomnogram is: |
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Term
The is a high probability of moderate to severe OSA without comorbid conditions |
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Definition
According to recommended guidelines, unattended portable monitoring can be used as an alternative to in-lab testing when: |
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Term
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Definition
According to the recommended guidelines, the sampling rate to provide the optimal resolution for recording EEG in a patient with suspected nocturnal seizures is: |
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Term
There is potential for electrode contamination |
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Definition
4. Which of the following BEST describes a referential montage? |
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Term
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Definition
The maximum electrode impedance for EEG and EKG recording is: |
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Term
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Definition
6. he MOST appropriate setting a technologist would use to control the frequency band of waveforms on a recording is the: |
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Term
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Definition
The device that should be used to monitor airflow and detect obstructive apneas during a diagnostic study is: |
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Term
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Definition
When the amplitude of a signal exceeds the physical limitations of a channel, the MOST important adjustment the technologist can make to optimize waveform display is to: |
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Term
dislodged system reference electrode |
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Definition
Which of the following can negatively impact all bioelectric channels? |
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Term
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Definition
Which type of calibration is based on a series of patient instructions intended to verify the signal response and quality? |
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Term
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Definition
12. Which of the following would be MOST important to document during a PSG? |
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Term
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Definition
The MOST COMMON method to monitor blood oxygen saturation during PSG is: |
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Term
Minimize the impact of filter changes |
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Definition
14. The importance of selecting sampling rates according to the RECOMMENDED guidelines is to: |
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Term
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Definition
The ability to remontage while recording on digital equipment is the result of: |
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Term
Measure the patient's ability to resist the urge to sleep |
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Definition
The most important reason for performing a MWT is to: |
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Term
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Definition
When intermittent 60 Hz activity occurs in the F4-M1 electrodes during REM sleep, the BEST IMMEDIATE action would be to: |
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Term
Soaking in 1:10 bleach and water for 10 minutes |
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Definition
Which process would be an adequate routine procedure for disinfecting cup EEG electrodes after removing adhesive residue, gel and organic material, and washing it in warm water and mild detergent? |
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Term
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Definition
The minimum duration of a significant leg movement is: |
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Term
had REM on at least two nap opportunities |
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Definition
Four nap opportunities on an MSLT would be acceptable when the patient: |
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Term
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Definition
21. SEE IMAGE: The activity in the respiratory channel BEST describes:(resp channels have waves that line up with ECG during centrals) |
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Term
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Definition
The electrode located 30% above the left pre-auricular crease is: |
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Term
SEMs with 15 or more seconds of alpha rhythm |
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Definition
Guidelines for scoring stage N1 in adults, which of the following is required? |
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Term
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Definition
The respiratory event that requires oxygen desaturation and/or arousals as part of scoring criteria: |
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Term
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Definition
25. SEE IMAGE: The respiratory events pictured best describe: (3 flat lines) |
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Term
The 10 seconds of sleep required prior to scoring an arousal may begin in the preceding epoch, even if that epoch is staged Wake. |
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Definition
26. When scoring arousals in adults, which of the following is the BEST statement? |
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Term
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Definition
Which of the following should be included when recording pediatric patients? |
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Term
a sleep spindle or K-complex in the first half of an epoch following an epoch of stage 1 |
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Definition
Which of following is required for scoring stage N2 in adults? |
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Term
Apnea criteria is met for two breaths and is associated with respiratory effort throughout this period |
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Definition
A requirement for scoring obstructive apneas in pediatric patients is: |
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Term
confirm accuracy of report components |
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Definition
An important responsibility of the scoring technologist is to: |
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Term
REM dependent obstructive sleep apnea |
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Definition
31. SEE IMAGE: This histogram demonstrates: |
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Term
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Definition
Calculate the AHI based on the following data: 25 OA's 5 CA's 23 MA's 15 OH's 48 RERAs 65 arousals 360 min of sleep |
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Term
Slow wave activity is often higher amplitude compared to adults |
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Definition
According to guidelines, scoring N3 in pediatric patients is BEST described by: |
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Term
Asystole is a cardiac pause for 3 seconds or greater |
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Definition
Scoring cardiac events in adults, which of the following is the BEST statement: |
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Term
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Definition
For pediatric CPAP titration, how many hypopneas must occur before increasing pressure? |
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Term
The maximum frequency is 2.0 Hz |
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Definition
Which is a required characteristic for scoring rhythmic movement disorder? |
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Term
initiate emergency response team |
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Definition
The most appropriate action a tech would take when there is confirmed ventricular tachycardia lasting greater than 30 seconds is to: |
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Term
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Definition
A breathing pattern categorized by at least three cycles of crescendo and decrescendo breathing with a duration of 10 minutes is: |
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Term
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Definition
40. SEE IMAGE: The cortical activity seen in the middle of this graphic is: (abrupt shift in EGG frequency lasting at least 3 seconds with 10 seconds of preceding sleep) |
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Term
the stage that is the greatest portion of the epoch |
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Definition
The coexisting sleep stages occur in a single epoch, the epoch should be scored: |
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Term
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Definition
What is the BEST tool a physician would use to more clearly explain the results of the sleep study and the importance of therapy to a patient? |
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Term
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Definition
A patient with a history of snoring, obesity, and excessive daytime sleepiness is referred for PSG. The intake questionnaire reveals frequent naps, caffeine use throughout the day and evening, variable bedtime, and 18/24 Epworth Sleepiness Scale score. What is MOST LIKELY the cause of excessive daytime sleepiness in this patient? |
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Term
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Definition
Which of the following substances can reduce the effectiveness of PAP therapy? |
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Term
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Definition
What has the LARGEST impact on adherence to PAP therapy? |
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Term
provide the patient with educational material about sleep apnea |
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Definition
What is the BEST response when a patient asked the tech if they have sleep apnea and will need to wear a CPAP mask? |
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Term
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Definition
Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of a 35 minute REM latency? |
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Term
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Definition
This syndrome characterized by prolonged episodes of hypoxemia and associated PaCO2 elevation that worsens during sleep: |
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Term
Call the physician for confirmation |
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Definition
A Patient's chart indicates that they use 3lpm of O2 at home. The tech notes that the physician's orders for the PSG specifies that the study start without supplemental O2 and to add 1lpm if O2 is less than 89%. The BEST action for the tech to take is to: |
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Term
There is one level of pressure of inspiration and expiration. |
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Definition
Which statement is true regarding CPAP? |
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Term
Hypoxemia and hypercapnia |
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Definition
When reviewing a patient's history in preparation for a PSG, physiological findings suggestive of hypoventilation include: |
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Term
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Definition
A process to decrease for of artificial circumstances by repeated and controlled exposure to a feared situation is: |
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Term
Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI) |
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Definition
A self-reporting tool used to evaluate subjective sleep quality and disturbance over the previous month is: |
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Term
Increased sleep efficiency |
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Definition
Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY effect of Zolpidem and Zaleplon? |
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Term
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Definition
CPAP should be increased at an interval of no less than: |
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Term
Use an oronasal interface |
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Definition
A patient reports a complete nasal obstruction prior to PAP titration. The tech should: |
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Term
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Definition
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to occur due to improperly fitting PAP interface? |
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Term
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Definition
During a CPAP titration at 15cmH2O, the patient is restless and continues to have frequent OA's. The BEST action is to: |
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Term
prevent upper airway occlusion |
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Definition
59. The PRIMARY function of EPAP is to: |
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Term
Target SpO2 between 88-94% |
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Definition
Recommended guidelines for the titration of supplemental O2 during PAP titration: |
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Term
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Definition
Based on the PSG results below, what would the BEST recommendation for a patient that is non-compliant and refuses to continue PAP therapy? Overall AHI: 8 Overall REM AHI: 38 Supine REM AHI: 28 Supine NREM AHI: 21 Lateral NREM AHI: 1 Lateral REM AHI: 3 |
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Term
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Definition
What is the RECOMMENDED starting pressure for pediatric and adult CPAP titration? |
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Term
wash out CO2 and prevent re-breathing |
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Definition
The purpose of intentional leaks is to: |
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Term
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Definition
According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, what is minimum and maximum pressure support for bilevel PAP? |
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Term
Reposition and adjust PAP interface |
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Definition
During stage N2 sleep, the patient changes position and the tech notices increased snoring and increasing leak. The tech should: |
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Term
water to pool in CPAP tubing |
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Definition
Excessive warming and humidification will cause: |
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Term
schedule a desensitization |
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Definition
When a patient complains of claustrophobia, is unable to tolerate PAP and requests to end the PSG, the next BEST step is to: |
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Term
airflow signal generated by PAP delivery device |
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Definition
The best method for detecting apneas and hypopneas during PAP titration is to use: |
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Term
has not eliminated cheyne stokes breathing or central emergent apneas |
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Definition
Adaptive servoventillation can be considered during a titration study when a down titration: |
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Term
help reduce nasal decongestion |
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Definition
The PRIMARY benefit of heated humidification is to: |
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Term
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Definition
The most common reason for changing the PAP interface during titration is: |
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Term
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Definition
During a titration study, the patient's apneas are eliminated at 10cmH2O but hypopneas and snoring continue at 16cmH2O. The appropriate response would be to begin bilevel titration are: |
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Term
REM and slow-wave rebound |
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Definition
73. In patient's with severe sleep disordered breathing, the most commonly seen response resulting from successful PAP titration is: |
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Term
|
Definition
A side effect of CPAP is: |
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Term
Follow protocol for supplemental O2 |
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Definition
During CPAP titration at 10cmH2O, SpO2 values range between 80-85% for 10 minutes despite absence of respiratory events. What is the BEST action to take? |
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Term
|
Definition
Actigraphy is most useful in the evaluation of: |
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Term
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Definition
The most common cause for insomnia in the general population is: |
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Term
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Definition
The emergence of central respiratory events during PAP titration for treatment of OSA is described as: |
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Term
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Definition
A systematic process of verifying compliance with specific requirements is: |
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Term
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Definition
OSA in pediatric patient is MOST commonly associated with: |
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Term
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Definition
(2)6. A patient that intentionally engages in sleep behavioral patterns that are inconsistent with sleeping well is demonstrating: |
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Term
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Definition
The PRIMARY reason for instructing patients to clean masks daily is to: |
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Term
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Definition
(2)8. When reviewing the medical history, the tech notes that the patient takes Xanax for panic attacks. The tech should anticipate: |
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Term
maintain awareness of the potential for false oximetry values |
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Definition
When reviewing a patient's medical history it is noted that one of the differential diagnoses is hypotension. Which of the following is MOST appropriate: |
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Term
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Definition
The syndrome resulting from prolonged severe episodes of hypoxemia during sleep and associated with in an increase in PaCO2 the worsens during sleep is: |
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Term
cumulative effect of insufficient sleep |
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Definition
Sleep debt can be BEST described as: |
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Term
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Definition
Review of the patient medical history indicates obesity, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and insulin resistance, What syndrome would this represent? |
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Term
CPAP splints the obstructive airway open |
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Definition
(2) 13. When explaining to a patient how CPAP helps eliminate obstructive apnea, the tech would explain that: |
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Term
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Definition
Which arrhythmia would require activation of the emergency response team? |
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Term
3 consecutive epochs of stage R |
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Definition
(2) 15. Which of the following would be an appropriate time to end a MWT trial? |
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Term
Aids in identification of REM |
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Definition
(2) 16. A primary reason for asking a patient to look up and down left and right during physiological calibrations: |
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Term
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Definition
(2) 17. The MSLT results would be compatible with: Nap 1:3 Nap 2:6 Nap 3: 4 Nap 4: 1.5 Nap 5: 2 |
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Term
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Definition
Which method is recommended for a sleep center to disinfect reusable PAP humidity chambers? |
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Term
|
Definition
Which would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve definition of the waveforms? |
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Term
|
Definition
Which of the following is a physiological artifact? |
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Term
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Definition
(2) 21. When performing a PSG on a 5 year old, the tech notes that the amplitude generated by the EEG and EOG electrodes is too high to clearly see the activity and cause the waveforms to square off. What sensitivity adjustment would be appropriate? |
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Term
Observe for crescendo-decrescendo pattern in the respiratory channels |
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Definition
Which method would BEST aid in distinguishing idiopathic central sleep apnea from Cheyne Stokes respirations? |
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Term
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Definition
What is the correct distance between O1 and O2 electrodes for a patient with a front polar-occipital plane (Fpz-Oz) circumference of 58cm and a nasion-inion distance of 40cm? |
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Term
|
Definition
Indirect monitoring of oxygen level by the use of sensors that detect light wave absorption is: |
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Term
to monitor a patient's response to oral appliance therapy |
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Definition
According to guidelines, portable monitoring is acceptable when: |
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Term
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Definition
What additional parameter would be MOST useful to monitor when a recording a patient with COPD? |
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Term
correct abdominal belt function |
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Definition
(2) 27. SEE IMAGE: What action is needed to ensure accurate recording of events? (ABD belt flat line) |
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Term
document any changes in recording parameters |
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Definition
One of the most important roles of data collection for the recording tech is to: |
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Term
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Definition
The desired sampling rate for recording EOG is: |
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Term
document on the record and in the tech notes |
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Definition
Which of the following is an appropriate action when a patient has a prosthetic eye? |
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Term
|
Definition
the minimal recording duration in hours for an adult PSG is: |
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Term
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Definition
The electrode array used for recording physiologic activity is referred to as: |
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Term
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Definition
The two inferior chin electrodes are placed on the |
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Term
inductance plethysmography |
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Definition
According to guidelines, respiratory efforts should be recorded with: |
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Term
|
Definition
(2) 35. Which of the following is an example of a bipolar derivation? |
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Term
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Definition
(2) 36. SEE IMAGE: How would the arousal in the middle of this epoch be classified? (follows a decrease in flow) |
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Term
out of phase with respiratory effort with airflow remaining flat |
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Definition
Paradoxical breathing is identified by channel deflections that are: |
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Term
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Definition
Calculate the mean sleep latency based on the following MSLT sleep latency values: Nap 1: 20 Nap 2: 15 Nap 3: 2 Nap 4: 7 Nap 5: 20 |
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Term
|
Definition
Calculate the AHI using the following data? TRT=8.5 TST=6 OAs=55 MAs=27 OHs=110 RERAs=199 |
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Term
the number of apneas and hypopneas per hour of sleep |
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Definition
The Apnea Hypopnea Index is reported as the: |
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Term
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Definition
A sequence of breaths lasting at least 10 seconds that does not meet the criteria for an apnea or hypopnea, characterized by increasing respiratory effort snd ending in an arousal: |
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Term
|
Definition
In patients who do not have dominant posterior alpha rhythm, stage N1 should be scored when |
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Term
Frequency increases with age |
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Definition
Which of the following is true of posterior dominant rhythm in infants in children? |
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Term
|
Definition
Absence of a heartbeat is called: |
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|
Term
flattening of the inspiratory airflow profile associated with an arousal |
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Definition
When airflow changes do not meet the criteria for OA's or OH's, RERAs can be estimated for: |
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Term
|
Definition
An arousal during stage R must be accompanied by an increase in submittal EMG lasting at least: |
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Term
|
Definition
Which of the following is the best method to aid in the clarification and differentiation of central versus obstructive respiratory events? |
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Term
There must be a sequence of >2 breaths that do not meet the criteria for apnea or hypopnea but lead to arousal. |
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Definition
Guidelines for scoring RERAs in children: |
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Term
transient muscle activity is a feature of stage R |
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Definition
Which of the following is the BEST statement regarding the use of non-EEG parameters for distinguishing NREM sleep from REM sleep in infants younger than 6 months? |
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Term
|
Definition
Sharply contoured waves clearly-distinguishable from the background with a duration <0.5 seconds occurring maximally oner the central regions: |
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Term
Review current mask option with the patient |
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Definition
A patient who has been compliant with PAP therapy for two years returns complaining of persistent mask leak. The best action is to: |
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Term
at intervals of >=5 minutes after observing 2 OAs |
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Definition
According to guidelines for adult patients, CPAP pressure should be increased: |
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Term
|
Definition
When performing a PAP titration on a 10 year old, how many minutes of unambiguous snoring should be observed before increasing CPAP? |
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Term
|
Definition
When titrating supplemental O2 the interval required between changes should be no shorter than |
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Term
|
Definition
According to guidelines for titration of pediatric patients, CPAP should be increased when which of the following is observed? |
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Term
|
Definition
An adult patient with good resolution of obstructive apneas on IPAP of 10cm and EPAP of 6cm begins having hypopneas after rolling supine. According to guidelines, what bilevel pressures would be appropriate after observing three obstructive hypopneas? |
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Term
|
Definition
During a PAP titration, signal flattening in the nasal pressure monitor indicates: |
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Term
Verify correct pressure with a manometer |
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Definition
When a patient calls the sleep center complaining that the pressure on their CPAP machine seems too high and is making it difficult to exhale, the first step would to: |
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Term
|
Definition
Oral appliance is an alternative option for patients with: |
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Term
|
Definition
A patient's RDI is reduced from 55/hr. pre-intervention to 8/hr. on CPAP, with 43 minutes of uninterrupted supine REM sleep observed. According to the AASM guidelines, this titration would be classified as: |
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Term
document the mask leak and then take no action until patient awakens |
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Definition
You are titrating a patient on nasal CPAP when you notice considerable mask leak during stage R but no SDB is present. Which of the following is the BEST action to take? |
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Term
|
Definition
According to guidelines, heated humidification is indicated to: |
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Term
The mask must be pressurized |
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Definition
What is needed to determine a proper mask fit? |
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Term
|
Definition
What type of calibration is defined as applying a calibration signal of known voltage to all amplifiers simultaneously, with the sensitivity snd filter controls set to values used at the beginning of a study? |
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Term
|
Definition
According to guidelines, the beginning pressure of a titration should be: |
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|
Term
CPAP (IPAP if bilevel) can be increased to reduce the requirement of supplemental O2 if tolerated |
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Definition
Which of the following BEST describes the RECOMMENDED method to wean down supplemental O2 during PAP titration? |
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Term
unnecessarily high pressure |
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Definition
Overcompensation for mask/mouth leaks when using auto titration CPAP (APAP) is MOST LIKELY to result in: |
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Term
|
Definition
Which of the following is a contraindication for CPAP therapy? |
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Term
|
Definition
According to guidelines for patients <12 y/o CPAP should be increased after observing at least: |
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Term
|
Definition
When a patient states that they feel like they are suffocating and can't get enough air when on CPAP, they are most likely complaining of: |
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Term
Reschedule the procedure, instructs the patient not to pre-medicate before the next test, and arrange transportation for the patient. |
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Definition
The sleep tech notices the patient was pre-medicated at home with large amounts of Ativan (Lorazepam). Which reviewing the risks and benefits of the procedure with the patient, the tech determines that the patient does not appear to understand the information. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate? |
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Term
reschedule the procedure informing the mother that is essential that she sign all legal documents prior to the test |
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Definition
The mother of a 17 year old patient dropped the patient off at the sleep lab and left immediately for work. After reviewing the patient's privacy rights, benefits, confidentiality, etc. the tech should: |
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|
Term
the patient is 62 years old |
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Definition
A male patient preparing for surgery has completed the STOP-BANG questionnaire and the provider is concerned that the patient may have sleep apnea. All of the following would indicate that the patient is at risk for sleep apnea EXCEPT: |
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Term
Notify the supervisor immediately with concerns about falsification of credentials and patient safety |
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Definition
The sleep tech notices that one of the other sleep lab employees has the RPSGT acronym on his name badge and is certain that this person has not yet taken the RPSGT exam. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action? |
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Term
confusion during the early evening hours |
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Definition
Sundowning in elderly patients is described as? |
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Term
A special bed that allows him to sleep in a semi-Fowlers position |
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Definition
A patient with morbid obesity is undergoing a sleep study. Which of the following modifications should the sleep tech consider for this patient? |
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Term
not be accompanied by a guard |
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Definition
A patient undergoing a sleep study us reported to be coming from the local prison. All of the following modifications will ensure safety in the sleep lab EXCEPT that the patient should: |
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Term
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Definition
The brainstem consists of all of the following components EXCEPT the A. pons B. thalamus C. medulla oblongata D. midbrain |
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Term
|
Definition
The area of the brain that regulates sleep is the: |
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Term
|
Definition
A patient that works nightshift complains that he cannot sleep after driving home in the morning. The patient's insomnia is the result of stimulation of which part of the brain? |
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Term
|
Definition
Innervation of the sympathetic nervous system results in all of the following EXCEPT: |
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Term
|
Definition
Which of the following will occur with innervation of the parasympathetic nervous system? |
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Term
Circadian Rhythm Disorder |
|
Definition
A patient recently returned to New York after four weeks in California. He complains about his inability to sleep. This situation is most likely the result of: |
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|
Term
They have smooth muscle and no cartilage to hold them open |
|
Definition
Which of one of the following is TRUE when describing the bronchioles? |
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Term
|
Definition
Decreased levels of dopamine will cause which of the following? |
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|
Term
The presence of fibrillatory waves instead of P waves |
|
Definition
Atrial fibrillation is characterized by which of the following? |
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|
Term
check the ECG electrodes to ensure connectivity to the patient |
|
Definition
A patient is having numerous obstructive apnea events. The tech notices a flat line over the ECG on the monitor. The tech should: |
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
A patient being evaluated has completed the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire and received a score of 23. After reviewing the score with the patient, the sleep tech should schedule a sleep study: |
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Term
|
Definition
All of the following may indicate that a patient has sleep apnea EXCEPT:? A. headaches B. hx of snoring C. dyspnea D. afternoon drowsiness |
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Term
|
Definition
A post-study questionnaire should include all of the following EXCEPT: |
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Term
|
Definition
The area of the lungs that participates in gas exchange is called: |
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Term
|
Definition
A thermistor measures airflow by comparing temperature between |
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Term
|
Definition
Applying alcohol to prepare a patient's skin for electrode placement may be necessary to remove all of the following EXCEPT: |
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|
Term
? Room air and expired air |
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Definition
?A thermocouple measures airflow by comparing temperatures between |
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Term
|
Definition
A RIP belt utilizes which of the following principles? |
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Term
|
Definition
A pulse oximetry reading would be inaccurate in a patient with: |
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Term
|
Definition
The main indication for measuring esophageal pressures in a sleep lab would be to determine |
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|
Term
silver-silver chloride paste |
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Definition
The best type of conductive paste when affixing EEG electrodes to the scalp is |
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Term
|
Definition
The accuracy of pressure transducer monitoring for airflow may be affected by all of the following EXCEPT: A. warm room B.ceiling fan C. hypopneas D. moisture on the sensor |
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Term
|
Definition
The best location for proper placement of the snore mic is over the |
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Term
|
Definition
BIPAP is contraindicated for patients with |
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Term
|
Definition
A current of 120 Hz means the current is going from positive to negative at a rate of |
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Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
What is the correct formula for sensitivity? |
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Term
|
Definition
When there is high impedance to electrical flow, this means there is |
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Term
|
Definition
The sleep tech increases the sensitivity of the ECG channel. This will cause |
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|
Term
decreases the work of breathing |
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Definition
The following are all advantages to light therapy EXCEPT: A. helps treat Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome B. resets circadian pacemaker C. suppresses melatonin D. decreases the work of breathing |
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Halfway point from nasion to inion? |
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EOG electrodes for the right eye are places where in relation to the outer canthus? |
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attach the probe to the patient's ear lobe. |
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While attaching a pulse oximeter with disposable finger probe, the sleep tech notices the patient has bright red acrylic fingernails. The tech should: |
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REFRESH RESP/Met alk/acidosis |
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A pH catheter is used to assist in the diagnosis of |
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placed in the esophagus, 5cm above the lower esophageal sphincter, a pH <4.0 |
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Which would confirm proper placement of the pH catheter? |
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A typical sleep study montage for the F4-M1 channel would be |
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A typical sleep study montage for the ECG channel would be |
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A typical sleep study montage for the ABD channel would be |
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What is the recommended reference montage for polysomnography? |
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When a typical sleep montage is displayed on the computer screen, where is the SpO2 channel displayed? |
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common mode rejection ratio |
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When two signals cancel each other, this is referred to as |
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Low frequency filters: 1. eliminate high frequencies 2. decrease the amplitude of low frequencies 3. allow the low frequencies to pass at the maximum 4. strengthen the activity in EOG channels |
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weaken high frequencies & strengthen the muscle activity in the EEG channel |
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The normal EEG filter setting is 0.5 to |
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When performing a mechanical baseline calibration, the sleep tech should keep the distance between pens set at |
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0.5 - 2 Hz, amp of 75uV, peak in F's |
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8-13 Hz, recorded over the O's |
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Excessive spindles may be caused by |
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CSA, meningitis, CHF, increased intracranial pressure |
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Causes of cheyne-stokes breathing include |
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obesity, deviated septum, sedatives, alcohol |
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Causes of hypopneas include |
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faster EEG frequency change of at least 10 seconds |
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Arousals from sleep can be determined by abrupt |
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An elderly patient arrives in the sleep lab. Her husband complains that she kids most of the night while sleeping. The doc suspected that patient has PLMS. While watching the montage, the tech notices increase amplitude in the EMG channel during N2 sleep. To confirm that this is a PLM, the event must range from |
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A patient's wife mentions that he sleep walks through the house calling for their dog who's been gone for 7 years. The tech should suspect the patient has |
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Patient complains of headaches, jaw pain, stress, and an earache. The tech should suspect the patient has |
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it occurs mostly in stage 2, there should be an increase in masseter muscle activity |
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What should you look for in the montage to determine bruxism? |
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What type of therapy should the sleep tevh suggest to treat bruxism? |
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Alpha in the O's; Eye Movements |
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The tech scores the first ten epochs of the sleep study as Wake. Which of the following should the tech observe? |
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SEMs. Vertex waves over the C's, Theta Waves, Hypnagogic hallucinations |
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The sleep tech scores a patient's montage and believes that the epochs being reviewed reveal that the patient is in stage 1. Which should the tech observe? |
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high voltage EEG, Rapid Eye Movements, sawtooth theta waves |
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What should a tech look for in the montage to score REM |
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Score Rhythmic Movement Disorder by a frequency range of |
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Which of the following terms are appropriate when scoring sleep in children 2 months post-term |
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O2 saturation, Type of airflow sensor, type of respiratory effort sensor, HR |
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Which of the following general parameters must be reported during home sleep testing in adult patients? |
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Spindles, Theta waves, K complexes |
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N2 sleep contains which of the following? |
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REFRESH AHI/TST/BMI formulas |
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CHF, Obesity, Hypertension, Short necks |
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What could affect ECG artifact in more than one channel? |
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Optimal PAP therapy is achieved when the AHI is less than |
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Cheyne-stokes respirations, CSA, Mixed Sleep Apnea, neurological disorders |
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NPPV with a backup rate is indicated in patients with |
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The recommended MAX IPAP for adult is |
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the recommended MAX IPAP for children under 12 |
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differentiate between narcolepsy and EDS |
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One of the major purposes of conducting an MSLT is to |
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sleep latency, mean sleep latency, and # of REM periods |
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What does a sleep tech score on MSLT? |
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20 minutes from the start of the trial |
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During a MWT, a nap may be terminated |
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a MWT is considered abnormal when the mean sleep latency is |
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Advanced Sleep Phase Syndrome, Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome, Patients with insomnia |
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Indications for Actigraphy include |
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