Term
Diffuse dilation of conjunctival vessels.
What is this?
What is most common cause? |
|
Definition
conjunctivitis
most common: viral |
|
|
Term
diffuse dilation of conjunctival blood vessels with:
clear, runny eye
vs.
greenish, yelow pus coming out of eye
vs
itchy
What's the difference? |
|
Definition
clear, runny eye= viral (most common)
greenish yellow pus= bacterial
itchy= allergic |
|
|
Term
Conjunctivitis:
what pathogen plays major role in newborn?
what pathogen causes the greatest threat to integrity of the eye?
later in childhood? |
|
Definition
newborn: chlamydia trachomatis
greatest threat: neisseria gonorrhea
later in childhood: h.influenza |
|
|
Term
What's tx for bacterial conjunctivitis in a non-contact lens wearer for contact lens wearer? |
|
Definition
non-contact:
polymixin B-trimethoprim
Contact lens wearers: worry about pseudomonas
Cipro, oflozacin, or tobramycin (each .3%); lens discarded
|
|
|
Term
Severe purulent discharge witha hyperacute onset (1ithin 12-24 hrs) related to conjunctivitis.
What do you do? |
|
Definition
prompt emergent consult for aggressive workup for possible gonococcal conjunctivitis
abx: ceftriazone IM or Cipro drops |
|
|
Term
What's tx for viral conjunctivitis? |
|
Definition
VERY contagious!
cool compresses 4 times daily prn
naphalozine/pheniramine 1 drop 3 to 4 times daily prn
follow up with opthalmology in 7 to 14 days
if clear distinction btw viral and bacterial etiologies can't be made- add topical abx |
|
|
Term
Pt states they think they have an infection in their eye.
They are extended contact wearers- admit to sleeping with lenses.
Admit to pain, redness, tearing and photophobia.
What could it be? How do you treat? |
|
Definition
Corneal ulcer
Slit lamp examination shows a staining corneal defect with surrounding white hazy infiltrate.
CORNEAL ULCER
Occassionally a hypopyn (leukocyte exudate-able to see pus) may be seen.
Topical oflozacin .3% or cipro .3% opthalmic solution is used (2 drops q 15 min for 6 hrs then 2 drops q 30 min for remainder of day, then 2 drops q 1 hr during second day then 2 drops q 4 hours for days 3 to 14)
Topical cycloplegics such as cyclopentolate 1% 1 drop 3 times dailyfor pain releif
Opthalmolgoist shoudl see pt within 12 to 24 hours. |
|
|
Term
What is a hordoleum?
How do you treat? |
|
Definition
stye is an acute infection of an oil gland at the lash line that appers as a pustule.
tx: warm, wet compresses 4 times dialy and erythromycin .5% opthalmic ointment twice daily for 7 to 10 days. |
|
|
Term
what is anterior uveitis?
What is treatment? |
|
Definition
· Secondary to trauma, systemic disease, unknown
· Cell/flare in A/C
· Photophobia **
· Pain
Tx: topical glucocorticoids (ie. prednisolone acetate opthalmic) |
|
|
Term
Pt classically presents with eye pain or headache, clody vision, colored halos around lights, conjunctival injection and fixed mid-dilated pupil, and increased IOP of 40 to 70 mm Hg (normal is 10-20 mm Hg)
What is it? What's tx? |
|
Definition
acute angle closure glaucoma
tx to decrease IOP started emergently: timolol .5% 1 drop
If IOP does NOT decrease then try: pilocarpine 1-2% 1 drop every 15 min.
Immed opthalmologic consultation |
|
|
Term
Severe unilateral pain
Use tonopen: very high IOP- could be higher than 40-50 mmHg.
Why does this happen? |
|
Definition
pupil mid-dilated- stuck
no way for acqeous matter to leave causing increased pressure
asians- far sighted so smaller eyes
movie theatre: pupil dilated when went in dark room so closed off drainage so pressure immed skyrocketed |
|
|
Term
Pt has dry eyes and states they have been using Visine.
Why is that bad? |
|
Definition
Visine acts as blood vessel constrictor so temporarily helps the red eye, but once wears off blood vessesl will dilate again causing cyclic pattern if pt continues to use Visine
eventually they will become dependant and have rebound dilatation
So use artifical tears 3-4 times a day |
|
|
Term
Constant contact lens wearer with corneal ulcer and infection. What could it be?
What do u NEED to do during exam? |
|
Definition
Giant papillary conjunctivitis
make sure to flip eye lid |
|
|
Term
Most common mid-face fracture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents after fight/trauma with the following:
Diplopia upward gaze
Periorbital ecchymosis
Exophthalmus
Enophthalmus
Entrapped EOM
Step-off
Infra-orbital Hypoesthesia
What could it be?
What's management? |
|
Definition
Orbital floor fracture
OMFS consult
Ophtho consult
Decongestants
No nose blowing
Abx-PCN/1st generation Cephalosporin/Clinda
Surgery
|
|
|
Term
Pt presents after maxillofacial trauma.
Coronal Ct scan shows hanging tear drop sign.
What could that be indicative of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents after four wheeler adventure and fell onto porcupine. Porcupines are rabid (ie. have rabies)
What do you do?
How do you treat? |
|
Definition
one tiime injection of immunoglobulin + vaccine on days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28 |
|
|
Term
What two organisms are you worried about in a puncture wound?
what's tx? |
|
Definition
pseudomonas and staph aureus
tx: superficial wound cleaning
tetanus prophylaxis
low pressure irrigation
derbidement
prophylactic abx: oral fluroquinolone-cipro or levofloxacin
|
|
|
Term
What is method of choice to view susecpted occult FB following apuncture wound? |
|
Definition
CT
MRI is good but cant be used for metallic objects |
|
|
Term
Burn pt:
they have blisters
what degree burn? |
|
Definition
ANTHING THAT BLISTERS IS SECOND DEGREE BURN |
|
|
Term
Burn pt:
painless
•Leathery, dry, waxy eschar (eschar brown to yellow to white color)
What degree burn?
what are examples of how this may have happened? |
|
Definition
third degree
examples: flame, electrical, or chemical injury |
|
|
Term
What differentiates second degree superificial partial burn vs. second degree partial thickness? |
|
Definition
Second degree superficial burn:
painful; blisters slugh to reveal pink to red, moist wound
second degree partial thickness:
Involves entire epidermis and at least two thirds of dermis
less painful
•Pink to red to white (mottled), moist wound
|
|
|
Term
Pt scalded with hot water.
What type of burn could that be? |
|
Definition
prob second degree superfical partial |
|
|
Term
pt presents from burn injury with
Black, charred eschar
•Painless
what degree could it be? |
|
Definition
fourth degree
extends through all layers of skin to involve ligaments, muscle and bone |
|
|
Term
What is the rule of Nine?
What is it used for ONLY? |
|
Definition
Head = 9%
Back, chest = 18% each
Upper extremities = 9% each
Perineal area = 1%
Lower extremities = 18% each
Total is 100%
Only used to assess 2nd and 3rd degree burns |
|
|
Term
What are some orders to follow when a pt arrives with burn injury? |
|
Definition
•Foley catheter: to assess urine output; Urine output is important to assess the adequacy of fluid resuscitation.
Lactated Ringers for fluid resucitation-half of calculated amt given in first 8 hours and second half given over next 16 hours.
•Assess blood supply to peripheral tissues. Decreased blood supply may require escharotomy or fasciotomy.
•Pain management: morphine used
•Cover thermal burn with clean sheets, irrigate chemical burn for at least 20 minutes. Burns should be cooled immediately by immersion in cold water.
•Baseline blood work includes CBC, CMP, BUN, UA. Also obtain a baseline CXR.
Special cases
•Inhalation injury: ABG, carboxyhemoglobin
•Electrical injury: EKG, continuous cardiac monitor, cardiac enzymes
•Tetanus shot: if no within last 5 yrs- get booster |
|
|
Term
When is silvadene contraindicated?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dental fractures:
What is the difference btw:
Ellis I-
Ellis II-
Ellis III-
|
|
Definition
Ellis I-thru enamel only
Smooth rough corners dental drill/emory board
Ellis II-thru enamel and dentin
Cover with zinc oxide or Calcium hydroxide paste (Dycal)
Ellis III-thru enamel, dentin and pulp
Dycal (most painful antibiotic) |
|
|
Term
How is an anterior bleed treated? |
|
Definition
Anterior Bleeding
Nasal Septum-most common
Kiesselbach Plexus
Treatment
Grasp/pinch nose x 10mins
Chemical cautery with Silver Nitrate: standard of care for ED cautery of ant epistaxis
Packing
Vaseline Gauze
Merocel
Rapid Rhino |
|
|
Term
how is posterior bleed treated? |
|
Definition
Blood dripping posterior naso-pharynx
Epistaxis Both nares
Treatment
Posterior Balloon |
|
|
Term
what type of abx should all pts with packing due to epistaxis receive? |
|
Definition
abx prophylax with cephalexin 25-500 mg PO q6h or amox/calulanate 250/125 mg PO q8h
PNC allergic pts can get clinda or bactrim |
|
|
Term
What is the top two most common etiology of hyperthyroidism? Who gets them? |
|
Definition
Grave's disease: third and fourth decades of age
Toxic multidnodular and toxic (adenoma) nodular goiters: older population, commonly with previous hx of simple goiter |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
assoc with diffuse hoiter, opthalmopathy, and local dermopathy.
due to autoimmune thyroid-stimulating antibody that activates teh thyrotropin receptor on thyroid cells
inflammation of extraocular msucles and periorbital tissue leading to bulging of eyes
pretibial myxedema- non-pitting edema on anterior knee |
|
|
Term
What meds can cause hyperthyroidism? |
|
Definition
iodine ingestion, lithium therapy or thyroid medication |
|
|
Term
Pt complains of heat intolerance, palpitations, weight loss, sweating, tremor, nervousness, weakness, and fatigue.
What could it be?
how do you treat? |
|
Definition
hyperthyroid
palliative tx for mild hyperthyoidism: beta blocker ( ie. propranolol)
long-term antithyroid medication (e.g., propylthiouracil, methimazole, or carbimazole), radioactive iodine , or subtotal thyroidectomy. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common form of thyroiditis?
What are sxs?
who gets?
what can it cause? |
|
Definition
Hashimoto thyroiditis-autoimmune disease
sxs: enlargement of thyroid with or without pain and tenderness
more common in women
usually causes dysphagia or hypothyroidism |
|
|
Term
What labs will be elevated in Hashimoto thyroiditis?
how do you treat? |
|
Definition
serum titers of antimicromosal and anti-thyroglobulin antibodies elevated
treat: small doses of thyroid hormone |
|
|
Term
What is tx for hypothryoidism? |
|
Definition
If there is no residual thyroid function, the daily replacement dose of levothyroxine is usually 1.6 g/kg body weight (typically 100–150 g). In many patients, however, lower doses suffice until residual thyroid tissue is destroyed. In patients who develop hypothyroidism after the treatment of Graves' disease, there is often underlying autonomous function, necessitating lower replacement doses (typically 75–125 g/d).
Adult patients under 60 without evidence of heart disease may be started on 50–100 g levothyroxine (T4) daily. The dose is adjusted on the basis of TSH levels, with the goal of treatment being a normal TSH, ideally in the lower half of the reference range. TSH responses are gradual and should be measured about 2 months after instituting treatment or after any subsequent change in levothyroxine dosage. The clinical effects of levothyroxine replacement are often slow to appear. Patients may not experience full relief from symptoms until 3–6 months after normal TSH levels are restored. Adjustment of levothyroxine dosage is made in 12.5- or 25-g increments if the TSH is high; decrements of the same magnitude should be made if the TSH is suppressed. Patients with a suppressed TSH of any cause, including T4 overtreatment, have an increased risk of atrial fibrillation and reduced bone density. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
is defined as the state of thyroid hormone excess and is not synonymous with hyperthyroidism, which is the result of excess thyroid function |
|
|
Term
What are the major etiologies of thyrotoxicosis? |
|
Definition
Graves' disease, toxic MNG, and toxic adenomas |
|
|
Term
Pt presents to ER with hyperreflexia, muscle wasting, and proximal myopathy without fasciculation. Chorea is a rare feature. Sweating and heat intolerance.
Also: cardiovascular manifestation is sinus tachycardia, often associated with palpitations, occasionally caused by supraventricular tachycardia.
what are you thinking?
What labs indicate what you're thinking? |
|
Definition
thyrotoxicosis
The main antithyroid drugs are the thionamides, such as propylthiouracil, carbimazole, and the active metabolite of the latter, methimazole. All inhibit the function of TPO, reducing oxidation and organification of iodide.
Labs: TSH low and uncombined T4 high |
|
|
Term
What three hormones are produced by the adrenal glands? |
|
Definition
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgenic hormones. |
|
|
Term
What can differentiate primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's) vs secondary adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
primary: hypotension, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, salt craving, and hyperpigmentation |
|
|
Term
Adrenal insufficency: what should you think? |
|
Definition
Acute adrenal insufficiency → life threatening! b/c it affects ALL hormones secreted by adrenal cx!!!! (contrast with hyperfunction – affects separate hormones) |
|
|
Term
What's the difference between acute and chronic renal insuffiency?
in terms of clinical manifestation |
|
Definition
Acute: hypotension (dizziness, syncope, LOC), circulatory failure, n/v, FUO, hypoglycemia, abd/flank pain
Chronic: weakness, fatigue, anorexia, wt loss, hypotension w/ orthostatic changes (80/50), pigmentation changes |
|
|
Term
What diagnostic tests are you interested in for acute renal insuffiency? |
|
Definition
Low cortisol, high ACTH – primary insufficiency
Low Na, high K – primary
Cosyntropin (ACTH) stimulation test |
|
|
Term
What is management for chronic renal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
replace glucosteroids hydrocortisone
Caution: bone density, other side effects of chronic steroid therapy (Cushing’s sdr!)
Primary dis: also replace mineralcorticoids with fludrocortisone – monitor replacement based on plasma renin activity and BP.
Androgens: Some benefits with DHEA replacement |
|
|
Term
what is a common cause of adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
abrupt termination of steroid treatment
why? steroid tx is exogenous neg feedback to the pituitary |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose adrenal insuffiency? |
|
Definition
short and long test performed with synthetic pitutiary ACTIH homrone (tetracosactide) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
pt presents with weight loss, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dehydration, weakness.
Hyperpigmentation of exposed and unexposed skin and mucous membranes.
If this pt is a woman- may notice thinning of pubic and axillary hair.
What could it be? How will you test? |
|
Definition
Adrenal insufficiency-primary
test: ACTH test
secondary: aldosterone levels are not signif affected bc of resultion through renin-angiotensin system--so hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia not seen |
|
|
Term
What may you see in adrenal crisis? |
|
Definition
shock and latered mental status in addition to
weakenss, dehydration, hypotension, anorexia, vomiting, weight loss, abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
How do you perform the cosyntropin (synthetic ACTh) test? |
|
Definition
draw a bseline cortisol level and then admin cosyntropin.25 mg IM or IV
after 60 min, repeat cortisol level--should be double baseline
if primary: cortisol will NOT respond to ACTH
In secondary and tertiary: adrenal cortex WILL respond and increase coritsol level |
|
|
Term
What cortisol serum level is indicative of adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
<20 microgram/dL in severe distress |
|
|
Term
What's #1 reason for adrenal insufficiency?
What are other causes? |
|
Definition
#1 abrupt steroid withdrawal or exposure to increased physiologic stress such as injury, illness or surgery
others:
autoimmune, infection, heparin therapy, sarcoidosis |
|
|
Term
What's treatment for adrenal insufficiency? |
|
Definition
1. outpt management: steroid replacement therapy
2. Adrenal crisis: crystalloid fluids, glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids to correct volume, glucose and sodium deficits.
5% dextrose NS: initial fluid of choice
hydrocortisone 100 to 300 mg IV q 6 to 8 hours provides adequate glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid activities. |
|
|
Term
What causes DKA?
Who can get DKA? |
|
Definition
noncompliance with insulin therapy, infection, stroke, MI, trauma, pregnancy, other physiologic stress
Type I or type II can get DKA!!! |
|
|
Term
What are clinical features of DKA? |
|
Definition
hyperglycemia causes osmotic diruesis with dehydration, hypotension, and tachycardia
Ketonemia causes acidosis with myocardial depression, vasodilation and compensatory Kussmaul respiration
N/V and abdominal pain are common |
|
|
Term
What are kussmaul respirations? |
|
Definition
severe labored breathing
related to metabolic acidosis |
|
|
Term
What lab values diagnose DKA? |
|
Definition
diagnosis based on clinical presentation and lab values
glucose >250 mg/dL
bicarb below 15
pH below 7.3
mod ketonemia |
|
|
Term
What labs do you want to order for DKA? |
|
Definition
serum glucose
electrolytes
BUN/Cretinine
Phosphorus
Magnesium
CBC
UA |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Isotonic fluid resuscitation (Normal saline): most imp initial step to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion; avg pt has total body water deficit of 5 to 10 L
2. Continuous infusion of insulin .1 units/kg per hour is recommended
3. Potassium--try ot begin 30 min before insulin to avoid hypokalemia
4.Phosphorus--helsp with energy production and oxygen delivery and szyme reactions
5. Magnesium
6. Monitor blood glucose, anion gap, K and bicarb hourly until recovery well establish |
|
|
Term
What defines hypoglycemia?
what are some common symptoms? |
|
Definition
serum glucose <60 mg/dL
sxs: dizziness, confusion, headache, duiplopia, dysarthria, lethargy, coma, seizures
diaphoresis, anxiety, nausea, tremors, palpitations |
|
|
Term
What diabetic medication is commonly assoc with hypoglycemia?
why? |
|
Definition
sulfonyureas
why?logn duration of action, particularly after overdose, what can lead to delayed hypoglycemia as late as 16 hours after ingestion |
|
|
Term
What's tx for hypoglycemia?
What do you give specifically if sulfonyurea overdose? |
|
Definition
50 mL IV bolus of 50% dextrose solution; repeat glucose determination shoudl be performed q 30 to 60 min after intial dexrose admin
if IV access can't be established- give glucagon 1 to 2 mg IM
if sulfonyurea overdose: DIAZOXIDE 300 mg IV-- |
|
|
Term
What's the screening test of choice for rib fractures?
When should you suspect rib fractures? |
|
Definition
xrays
suspect if localized pain or tenderness after chest trauma |
|
|
Term
What are the three mainstays of tx for rib fracture? |
|
Definition
Rapid mobilization, respiratory support, and pain management are the mainstays of treatment |
|
|
Term
If a patient with fractured ribs, especially ribs 9, 10, and 11, becomes hypotensive and does not have a large hemothorax or tension pneumothorax, what should be suspected?
|
|
Definition
intraabdominal bleeding from the liver or spleen should be suspected. |
|
|
Term
What's the general rule for admitting patients with rib fractures? |
|
Definition
hospitalize patients with fractured ribs for at least 24 to 48 h if they cannot cough and clear their secretions adequately, especially if they are elderly or have preexisting pulmonary disease. Admitting the patient also provides time to observe the patient for associated injuries that might not be apparent initially. Aspiration pneumonitis and fat embolism often do not become apparent clinically or on chest x-ray for at least 24 to 48 h. |
|
|
Term
What are signs of hypercapnia?
Hypercapnia can be related to what serious condition (there are many but this is a big one..) |
|
Definition
peripheral and conjunctival hyperemia, HTN, tachycardia, tachypnea, impaired consciousness, papilledema, asterixis
Acute respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
What would an ABG look like for someone in acute respiratory distress? |
|
Definition
ABG: PO2 <60 mmHg or a PCO2 >50 mmhg |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
hypercoagulability, stasis, and venous injury |
|
|
Term
What are the top two signs of PE? |
|
Definition
dyspnea (most common), pleuritic chest pain (second most common), |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. supplemental O2 to maintain a pulse ox reading >95%
2. IV access should be secured and crystalloid IV fluids given to augment preload and correct hypotension.
3. Anticoagulation with a heparin is standard tx for acute PE. (Dosing of unfractionated heparin should be weight based, with 80 units/kg given as an initial bolus followed by 18 units/kg per hour. Low molecular weight heparin (ie. Enoxaprin) safe and effective for acute PE
Absolute Contraindications: intracranial hemorrhage or active GI hemorrhage
If high pretest probability and no contraindications: start heparin therapy before diagnostic testing
4. Thromboembolytic therapy should be considered for pts who require aggressive tx for PE (ie pts with hemodynamic instability) Ex: Pts with ECG evidence of rt ventricular dysfunction
|
|
|
Term
What do these findings suggest?
1) an acute onset of upper extremity hypertension,
2) difference in pulse amplitude between the upper and lower extremities
3) the presence of a harsh systolic murmur over the precordium or posterior interscapular area.
|
|
Definition
aortic injury
possible traumatic aortic injury |
|
|
Term
sudden, severe pelvic or low abdominal pain. GI sxs are absent, pt is afebrile and without leukocytosis.
what could it be? |
|
Definition
ruptured ovarian follicle cyst |
|
|
Term
In pts with hypothermia, what type of cardiac dysrrythmia so you need to be wary of?
why could it happen? |
|
Definition
Vfib
could happen if too much manipulation of body ie. moving around rapidly or chest compressions |
|
|
Term
True or False:
You canNOT determine degree of frostbite until patient has been rewarmed. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What's the difference btw 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th degree frostbite? |
|
Definition
1st: NO BLISTERS
2nd: BLISTER FLUID IS CLEAR
3rd: HEMORRHAGIC BLISTERS/blue gray discoloration
4th: muscle, tendon and bone freezing; dry, black mummified |
|
|
Term
How do you treat frostbite? |
|
Definition
- remove wet clothing/ apply dry clothing
- apply constant warmth by exterting gentle pressure with a warm hand
- separa digits
- elevate/protect from trauma
- gentle rangle of motion
- rapid rewarming in 40-42 deg celcius water for 20-30 min or until flush
- parenteral opioids (i.e morphine .1 mg/kg IV)
Once thawed:
- leave hemorrhagic blisters in tact/debride clear blisters
-dress injured areas and blisters with aloe vaera
-IBUPROFEN 12 mg/kg
IV fluids
ABX
|
|
|
Term
What do you NOT do for pt with frostbite? |
|
Definition
Do NOT RUB!
you can apply pressure, but NO RUBBING! |
|
|
Term
What are risk factors for developing hypothermia? ie who gets it? |
|
Definition
hypoglycemic
malnutrition
alcohol abuse
hypopituitarism
DM
burns
drug overdose
extreme age |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
elderly
young
drugs ie. diuretics, cocaine
fire fighters
chronic disease--hyperthyroid, malnutrition |
|
|
Term
Most soft tissue infections are caused by _________ (name the organism)
Most plantar puncture woulds related to osteomyelitis are due to _____ (name the organism) |
|
Definition
Most soft tissue infections are caused by staph aureus
Most plantar puncture woulds related to osteomyelitis are due to pseudomonas
|
|
|
Term
What are exceptions to the rule for delaying wound closure? |
|
Definition
face
scalp
areas that are well vascularized---can wait up to 24 hours |
|
|
Term
Human bites:
what organisms could be involved? (3) |
|
Definition
staphylococcal, streptococal, eikenella corrodens |
|
|
Term
What is the abx treatment for ALL bites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False.
Puncture type bite wounds, wounds greater than 6 hours old, and wounds of the hand and foot should be left open. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What oranigsm do you worry about for cat bites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pt presents with the following: appear acutely ill with fevers, chills, dysphagia, trismus, drooling, or a muffled or "hot potato"
Involved tonsil is anteriorly and medially displaced.
What could it be? How do you treat? |
|
Definition
Peritonsillar abscess
Penicillin, a macrolide, or clindamycin are most commonly used. |
|
|
Term
severe sore throat and inspiratory stridor in addition to drooling..what do u think?
what is tx? |
|
Definition
epiglottitis
admit pt
abx: ceftriaxone |
|
|
Term
What is the difference btw epilepsy and seizure? |
|
Definition
seizure is one episode
epilepsy is condition where u have multiple seizures |
|
|
Term
Pt is anxious.
What's the tx of choice? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Short lived moments of intense anxiety. What could it be? How do you treat? |
|
Definition
panic attack
Panic attacks may be treated in several ways. A sublingual dose of lorazepam (0.5-2 mg) or alprazolam (0.5-1 mg) is often effective for urgent treatment. SSRI’s are commonly used for sustained treatment. |
|
|
Term
Pts experiences psychois, including hallucinations. What meds should be used if they become violent? |
|
Definition
Lorazepam 1-2 mg IM, as a starting dose, is a sage and effective benzo sedative that can be titrated to the desired effect. Haloperidol 5-10 mg IM or 5 mg IV is a neuroleptic sedation agent that can be used alone or with benzos. |
|
|
Term
How should bipolar pts be treated in the ER? |
|
Definition
Valproic acid and lithium salts are commonly prescribed as chronic mood stabilizers. |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of choice for depression? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HCG TEST
hCG production begins __-__ days after conception or during days __-__ of the cycle. It reaches peak concentration at __-__ weeks of gestation and then gradually decreases until retuning to normal within _-_ days after normal full-term delivery. This test can be most accurately performed from __ days to __ weeks after missed menses. |
|
Definition
hCG production begins 8-10 days after conception or during days 21-23 of the cycle. It reaches peak concentration at 8-12 weeks of gestation and then gradually decreases until retuning to normal within 3-4 days after normal full-term delivery. This test can be most accurately performed from 2 days to 3 weeks after missed menses. |
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Term
What are some examples of when you might use whole bowel irrigation?
what are contraindications? |
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Definition
recent ingestion of lithium or iron...body packers...consider in extended release ingestion
contraindications: aspiration risk, bowel perforation or obstruction |
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Term
What are examples of gastric emptying? |
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Definition
single dose activated charcoal
whole bowel irrigation
gastric lavage
syrup of ipecac |
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Term
When may you consider using multi-dose activated charcoal? (7) |
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Definition
phenobarb, carbamazapine, dilantin, depakote, salicylates, dapsone, theophylline |
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Term
When would you want to alkalinize the urine?
How do u do it?
examples |
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Definition
if someone overdosed on weak acid
3 amps of bicarb
barbs, salicylcates
sulfonylurea
TCAs |
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Term
When would you use hemodialysis for overdose?
STUMBLES |
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Definition
Salicylates
Theophylline
Valproic acid
Massive acetaminophen (over 750 mcg/dl)
Lithium
Ethylene Glycol or Methanl |
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Term
What happens when you overdose on salicylates? |
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Definition
mild: tinnitis, Gi irritaiton
Moderate: tinnitus, hyperventilate, sweating, emesis
Severe: seizures, hypoglycemia, renal failure, severe cardiotoxicity |
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Term
What is the toxic exposure to APA?
What is used to treat overdose? |
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Definition
140 mg/kg
140 mg/kg N-acetylsteine |
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Term
What's management for ethanol overdose? |
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Definition
banana bag: MVI, thiamine, mag, folate
D5 and 1/2 or just NSS
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Term
OVerdose pt comes in with the following sxs:
blindness
sluggishly reactive pupils
fixed and dilated pupils
lethary confusion
severe abdominal tenderness
nausea
what are u thinking?
how do u treat? |
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Definition
Methanol overdose
2 amps of bicarb in D5W
Maintain Etoh level of 100 to 150..prevents breakdown of methanol
fomepizole--greater affinity than Etoh |
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Term
Pt presents with odor of Etoh
ataxia, nystagmus, papilledema, stupor
about 12-24 hours after ingestion you notice: pt is now tachycardic, hyptensive, pulmonary edema, CHF...
if you wait 24 more hours...there will be renal toxicity.
Why? What is wrong with pt? what od u do? |
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Definition
Ethylene glycol: ie detergents...radiator fluid
NSS at 250 to 500 ml/hr to prevent deposiiton of oxalate crystals in kidneys
bicarb for acidosis
Pyridoxine and Thiamine replacement
Consult nephrology |
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Term
MOther brings in daughter who she found agistated, possibel seizure and decreased MS.
You get the EKG and it shows widening of the intervals and terminal r in AVR
What could it be? |
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Definition
TCA overdose
charcoal if normal EKG and not horribly sick
intubate
alkalinize with bicarb drip and fluids |
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Term
What is test of choice in pt with acute hydrocephalus? |
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Definition
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Term
history of traumatic brain injury may present to the emergency department with the complaint of changing functional status, including psychomotor slowing, cognitive decline, change in gait, and loss of continenc |
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Definition
Think hydrocephalus...think CT...think neuro consult |
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Term
if you're going to put in a catheter for more than five days..what do u need to make sure to do? |
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Definition
treat prophylactically with abx
(trimethoprim) |
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Term
What is this:
longitudinal mucosal lacerations of the distal esophagus/proximal stomach |
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Definition
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Term
What is the initial treatment for a Mallory Weiss Tear? |
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Definition
Initial treatment is supportive as the vast majority of Mallory-Weiss tears stop bleeding spontaneously. Ongoing hemorrhage can require treatment with electrocoagulation, sclerotherapy, and laser photocoagulation. Angiographic embolization or surgical intervention remain options as well. |
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Term
Pt states they have been vomiting a lot and now notice are noticing acute onset of upper GI bleeding. What are you thinking? How do you treat? |
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Definition
Mallory Weiss Tear
Initial treatment is supportive as the vast majority of Mallory-Weiss tears stop bleeding spontaneously. Ongoing hemorrhage can require treatment with electrocoagulation, sclerotherapy, and laser photocoagulation. Angiographic embolization or surgical intervention remain options as well. |
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Term
What does this describe:
There is a short prodrome consisting of various combinations of the following symptoms and signs: fever, myalgias, vomiting, diarrhea, and pharyngitis. Patients then develop shock (SBP <80 mm Hg) with fever (>39°C) and signs of multiple organ dysfunction. At the time of presentation to the emergency department or within 24 hours of admission to the hospital, a diffuse, blanching, macular erythema appears, accompanied by signs of mucous membrane inflammation (pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, vaginitis, and strawberry tongue). The rash fades in about 3 days, but desquamation of the hands and feet occurs in all patients 5–12 days after the rash disappears. Patients typically prefer to remain motionless in bed because of intense myalgias. Confusion and agitation occur in about half of patients. Pedal edema is common. |
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Definition
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Term
What organisms is most commonly assoc with toxic shock syndrome?
What is tx? |
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Definition
Staph aureus
Remove the vaginal tampon or nasal or wound packing if present. Begin volume replacement with saline or colloid solutions and with vasopressors, if necessary. Admit the patient to an ICU, and monitor hemodynamic status. Start treatment with a first-generation cephalosporin, penicillinase-resistant synthetic penicillin, or vancomycin intravenously. |
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Term
What bugs usually cause epididymitis? |
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Definition
Gonorrhea and chlamdyia in males <35
E.Coli in older men |
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Term
How do you differentiate epididymitis from orchitis and testicular torsion? |
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Definition
Pain and tenderness of the epididymis is present on one or both sides. Epididymitis must be differentiated from testicular torsion and from torsion of the testicular appendage. Ultrasound with Doppler flow will demonstrate an increased flow in epididymitis and a decreased or absence of flow in testicular torsion. In orchitis the testicle is diffusely and tensely swollen, warm, firm, and tender. |
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Term
Pt presents with sudden severe onlet of pain felt in the testis. On PE you note a blue dot appearance of a cyanotic appendage that you see illuminated through thin prepubertal scortal skin.
What are you thinking? What you found on PE, is pathognominic for what? |
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Definition
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Term
You suspect patient has testicular torsion. What is your plan? |
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Definition
Urologic consult indicated- imaging tests can be time consuming
ER physician can attempt manual detorsion. Most testis twist in a lateral to medial direction, so detorsion is performed in a medial to lateral direction (sim to reading a book)...End point for successful detorsion is pain relief |
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Term
What is tx for epidydmitits? |
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Definition
if pt appears toxic: Ceftriaxone or Bactrim
outpt tx if pt is NOT toxic:
pt younger than 40: Doxy, ofloxacin
if pt older than 40 cipro or levofloxacin |
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Term
What is tx for gonorrhea?
What is tx for chlamydia? |
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Definition
Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone (alt. azithromycin)
Chlamydia: doxycycline and azithro (alt. erythromycin) |
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Term
How does primary HSV2 typically present? How do u treat? |
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Definition
Primary occurs in individual with no antibodies to either viral type
o Occurs within 7 days of exposure
o Local symptoms
– Burning and pain
– Vesicles
o Systemic symptoms; may be more severe than those listed
– Fever
– Malaise
– Headache
– Myalgias
– Adenopathy
o Lesions may last 2-6 weeks
treat: acyclovir
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Term
Syphillis is caused by what organism? |
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Definition
spirochete
Treponema pallidum |
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Term
What does this describe?
• Painless ulcer at site of inoculation
• Well-demarcated raised borders
• Occurs 10-90 days after exposure
• Resolves with or without treatment
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Definition
syphillis
Benzathine Penicillin G, 2.4 million units IM |
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Term
what are screening tests for syphillis? |
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Definition
o RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin): in btw outbreaks will still stay (+)
o VDRL (Venereal Disease Reference Laboratory)
Both tests will give quantitative titers but can give false (+) |
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Term
what are specific tests for syphillis? |
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Definition
o FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal AB– Absorbed)
MHA-TP (Microhemaggltination Assay) |
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Term
This is the clinical picture for what:
o Most common symptom is unpleasant, fishy or musty vaginal odor
o Increased vaginal discharge is common and it is usually thin, gray or white and homogenous and it tends to adhere to the vaginal wall.
o Vaginal itching and irritation may be present
In pregnant patients possibility of preterm labor, amniotic fluid infection and preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) is seen. |
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Definition
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Term
What is the minimal criteria for PID? (2) |
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Definition
– Uterine/adnexal tenderness
Cervical motion tenderness
o Oral temp > 101oF
o Abnormal cervical or vaginal discharge
o Presence of wbc on saline microscopy
o Elevated sed rate or C-reactive protein
Documented GC or Chlamydia
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Term
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Definition
Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose
or
Cefoxitin 2 g IM in a single dose and Probenecid 1 g administered concurrently
PLUS
Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 14 days
WITH or WITHOUT
Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 14 days |
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Term
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Definition
Anemia in women Hgb < 12
Anemia in men Hgb < 13
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Term
What are two pathologies creating anemia? |
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Definition
Deficiency or defective RBC production
Nutritional deficiency: Fe, B12, folic acid
Bone marrow destruction, hypoproliferation
Increased destruction of RBC
Hemolysis: congenital, acquired
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Term
What are tests to look for anemia? |
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Definition
Serum iron
Ferritin
Transferrin
TIBC (total iron binding capacity)
RBC indices: MCV, MCHC, MCH
Folic acid, vit B12
Hgb electrophoresis; haptoglobin
Blood smear: < number of other cells (thrombocytes), parasites (malaria), variation in RBC’s size (anysocytosis), in shape (poikylocytosis)
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Term
What does this show:
CBC: low RBC count, low Hb, low Ht
Retic < 2/nl (depends on stage of anemia), MCV < 80, MCHC < 32 = microcytic, hypochromic
Blood smear: pale, small RBC, anisopoikilocytosis
Low ferritin, low Fe, TIBC high, later microcytosis and hypochromia
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Definition
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Term
What is management of iron def anemia? |
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Definition
IDENTIFY the cause of Fe deficiency
Replace iron: oral ferrous sulfate (empty stomach). Frequent GI intolerance. Add vit C, improves absorption
If malabsorption, use parenteral iron: IV, avoid IM
Improve diet
Severe cases: transfusion
F/U: in 3-4months (lifespan of RBC is 120 days), ck retic count. If tx is efficient, retic should increase in 10-14 days (towards normal values)
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Term
What is diagnostic of anemia of chronic disease?
iron
ferritin
TIBC |
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Definition
–Lab: retic <2, MCV nl/low (advanced dis)
–Iron low, ferritin high/nl, TIBC low
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Term
What is the major difference between anemia of chronic disease and iron def anemia? |
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Definition
lThe major differentiation criterion: ferritin is increased/nl in anemia of chr dis vs decreased in iron deficiency anemia
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Term
Pt presents with:
Neurological manifestation (dgn priority): disturbance in position and vibratory sense, incoordination, spasticity, positive Babinsky, can mimic Alzheimer with MS changes
What could it be?
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Definition
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Term
What are causes of megoblastic anemia? |
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Definition
Causes:
folate deficiency in alcoholism, low intake (body stores last 3 months), malabsorption, drugs (phenytoin, methotrexate), high utilization – pregnancy, infants
B12 deficiency due to alcohol, extreme diet (body stores last up to year), or, true pernicious anemia = lack of IF (intrinsic factor) due to autoimmune disease. Lack of IF frequently assoc with achlorhydria (gastric cancer).
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Term
What pts are susceptible to Thalaseemia? |
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Definition
Asian, African, Mediterranean |
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Term
What are common hemolytic anemias? |
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Definition
sickle cell anemia and its variants, thalassemia,glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, and hereditary spherocytosis |
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Term
Whta could this be:
o Symptoms: weakness, fatigue, lethargy, dyspnea with minimal exertion, palpitations, and orthostasis.
o Signs: orthostatic hypotension; tachycardia; skin, nail bed, and mucosal pallor; systolic ejection murmur; bounding pulse; and widened pulse pressure.
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Definition
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Term
What causes folate deficiency anemia? |
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Definition
· inadequate dietary intake (eg hemodialysis, elderly), malabsorption, alcoholism
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Term
What are etiologies of B12 deficiency anemia |
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Definition
· Vitamin B12 deficiency may be caused by pernicious anemia, poor diet, malabsorption (eg, partial or total gastrectomy, ileal resection, tropical sprue, small bowel lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, pancreatic insufficiency), nitrous oxide (N2O) inhalation, small intestine parasite infestation (fish tapeworm), bacterial overgrowth of small intestine, drugs (eg, Metformin, cholestyramine, neomycin, colchicine), congenital disorders (eg, transcobalamin II deficiency).
· Most common cause of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency is not inadequate intake, but inability to absorb
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Term
What is the test to determine if etiolgoy of anemia is B12 deficiency? |
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Definition
· Schilling test can be performed to determine if underlying cause of B12 deficiency is pernicious anemia:
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Term
What are top two causes of acute pancreatitis? |
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Definition
cholelithiasis or alcohol abuse |
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Term
What could this be:
midepigastric or left upper quadrant pain.
constant, boring pain that often radiates to the back as well as the flanks, chest, or lower abdomen.
The pain is exacerbated in the supine position and can be relieved when sitting with the trunk and knees flexed.
Nausea and vomiting are common, and abdominal bloating from gastric and intestinal hypomotility is a frequent complaint.
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Definition
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Term
What are two signs of hemorrhagic pancreatitis? |
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Definition
Cullen sign, a bluish discoloration around the umbilicus, and Grey Turner sign, a bluish discoloration of the flanks, are characteristic but rare signs of hemorrhagic pancreatitis. |
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Term
What is treatment for acute pancreatits? |
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Definition
fluid resuscitiation with NS
parenteral narcotics and antiemetics
Empiric antibiotics are not indicated in mild to moderate pancreatitis but should be considered in severe disease
if severe: Intravenous imipenem or a quinolone (ofloxacin or ciprofloxacin) in combination with metronidazole are recommended and have demonstrated high tissue levels as well as bactericidal activity.
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Term
What makes chronic pancreatitis dif from acute pancreatitis? |
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Definition
acute pancreatitis, patients with chronic pancreatitis appear chronically ill and may have signs and symptoms of pancreatic insufficiency, including weight loss, steatorrhea, clubbing, and polyuria. Stigmata of chronic liver disease may be present if the etiology is alcohol abus |
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Term
What is tx for chronic pancreatitis? |
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Definition
he management of chronic pancreatitis in the ED involves ruling out other diagnoses or complications and includes supportive care. Intravenous narcotic analgesics and antiemetics usually are required. Fluid and electrolyte abnormalities should be corrected. The long-term goals of treatment are pain control, relief of mechanical obstruction or complications, correction of malabsorption, and alteration of the disease course. Pancreatic extracts frequently are administered to improve absorption and reduce pain. Cessation of alcohol ingestion is essential because the 5-year mortality rate of chronic pancreatitis in patients who continue to abuse alcohol is 50 percent. |
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Term
Pt recently returns from traveling and complains of fever, flatulence, nausea, emesis and abdominal pain which is usually spasmodic and colicky.
What could it be?
How do u treat? |
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Definition
gastroenteritis
if vomiting: fluid resuscitation
if diarrhea for more than 10 to 14 days with fever, systemic symsptom or blood or pus in stool: empiric therapy with ampicillin OR bactrim |
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Term
what are complications of a strangulated hernia? |
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Definition
peritonitis
perforation
septic shock |
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Term
Incarcerated hernias do or do NOT transluminate? |
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Definition
DO NOT!
hydroceles DO TRANSLUMNINATE |
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Term
If strangulated hernia and evidence of perforation...what do u give? |
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Definition
piperacillin/tazobactam 3.375 g IV or double drug coverage with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone PLUS clindal or metronidazole |
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Term
Pt presents with right lower quad pain
pain before vomiting
absence of previous similar pain
abdominal rigidity
pain migration
positive psoas sign
What is it? what is diagnostic study of choice?How do u treat? |
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Definition
appendicitis
CT is image study of choice
sort acting opiod analgesics: fentanyl 1-2 micrograms/kg IV q 1-4 h are preferred bc you can reverse by naloxone if needed
abx treatment: piperacillin/tazobactam or ampicillin/sulbactam |
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Term
Tx of peritonisllar abscess |
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Definition
I&D by trained professional
Prior to aspiration, lidocaine spray or gel orbenzocaine-tetracaine spray (Cetacaine) is used to topically anesthetize the overlying mucosa. Then 1 to 2 mL of lidocaine withepinephrine is injected into the mucosa of the anterior tonsillar pillar using a 25-gauge needle. Once adequate anesthesia is achieved, an 18-gauge needle should be introduced just lateral to the tonsil, approximately halfway between the base of the uvula and the maxillary alveolar ridge, until the abscess cavity is encountered. The abscess then should be aspirated.The needle should penetrate no more than 1 cm because the internal carotid artery usually lies laterally and posterior to the posterior edge of the tonsil.
Following needle aspiration, 10 days of high-dose penicillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients is the treatment of choice |
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Term
What are the top etiologies in neonate for meningitis? |
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Definition
Neonates: group B or D strep, nongroup B strep, E Coli, Listeria monocytogenes.
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Term
What are the top etiologies for meningitis in infants and children? |
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Definition
Infants and Children: H influenzae, S pneumonia, N meningitidis
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Term
What are the top etiologies for meningitis in adults? |
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Definition
Adults: S pneumoniae, H influenzae, H meningitidis, gram negative bacilli, staph, strep, listeria. |
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