A cough described as being persistent for more than 3 weeks would be called which of the following?

a) Acute

b) Paroxysmal

c) Chronic

d) Nocturnal

A decrease in the intensity of the palpated pulse during inhalation is a definition of which of the following?

a) Abdominal paradox

b) Pulse pressure

c) Pulsus paradoxus

d) Pulsus alternans

A patient cannot provide a medical history, and it is obtained from a close relative. This is an example of which of the following?

a) Family history.

b) Background information

c) Screening information

d) Alternative Source

Hypotension may often be associated with all of the following, except, which one?

a) Reduced perfusion

b) Less oxygen delivered to the tissues

c) Lower than normal pulse pressure

d) An increase in respiratory rate

If a patient experiences syncope when moving from the supine to the upright position, what is the likely cause?

a) Left ventricular failure

b) Postural hypotension

c) Excessive vasoconstriction

d) Pulsus paradoxus

If a person has an abnormal test result but is not ill with the disease being tested for, how would you describe the test results?

a) False negative

b) False Positive

c) True Positive

d) False Positive

In what decade of life in snoring most likely to be present in adult males?

a) 20 to 29 years

b) 30 to 39 years

c) 40 to 49 years

d) 50 to 59 years

In what section of the patient history can a detailed description of the patient's current symptoms be found?

a) Chief complaint

b) History of present Illness

c) Past medical history

d) Occupational history

In what section of the patient's history would you find information about a possible history of exposure to asbestos?

a) History of Present Illness

b) Family History

c) Occupational History

d) Past medical History

In which of the following spaces is rapport best established?

a) Social

b) Personal

c) Intimate

d) a and b

Information that is evident only to the patient and cannot be perceived by the observer is known as which of the following?

a) Subjective data

b) Objective data

c) Clinical signs

d) Pertinent negatives

Subjective manifestations of disease are termed:

a) Symptoms

b) Clinical findings

c) Objective data

d) Pertinent negatives

The peak pressure in the arteries is known as which of the following?

a) Pulse pressure

b) Diastolic pressure

c) Systolic pressure

d) None of the above

The roles of the respiratory therapist in assessment includes all of the

following except:

a) Helping the physician select appropriate pulmonary function tests for a specific patient.

b) Interviewing the patient with dyspnea to determine the effects of treatment.

c)  Interviewing and examining the patient to make a medical diagnosis.

d) Assisting the physician in interpretation of an arterial blood gas.

What is the normal range for pulse pressure?

a) 10 - 20 mm Hg

b) 20 - 25 mm Hg

c) 30 - 35 mm Hg

d) 35 - 40 mm Hg

What is the normal range of the respiratory rate for adults?

a) 6 - 10 breaths/min.

b) 8 - 12 breaths/min.

c) 12 - 20 breaths/min.

d) 15 - 25 breaths/min.

What is the normal value of the resting pulse rate in adult?

a) 30 - 60 beats/min.

b) 60 - 100 beats/min.

c) 80 - 120 beats/min.

d) 100 - 150 beats/min.

What term is used to describe difficult breathing in the reclined position?

a) Apnea

b) Platypnea

c) Orthopnea

d) Eupnea

What term is used to describe shortness of breath in the upright position?

a) Orthopnea

b) Platypnea

c) Eupnea

d) Apnea

What term is used to describe the ability of a diagnostic test to correctly identify patient's who truly have the illness?

a) Sensitivity

b) Specificity

c) Uniformity

d) Deductibility

Which of the following arterial sites is the most common for evaluating the pulse in the adult patient?

a) Pedal

b) Temporal

c) Radial

d) Femoral

Which of the following causes an erroneously high blood pressure measurement?

a) Inflation pressure held in the cuff between measurements

b) Use of blood pressure cuff that is too narrow

c) Not enough pressure used in the cuff during measurement

d) a and b

Inflation pressure held in the cuff between measurements/ Use of blood pressure that is too narrow

"Both these answers are correct"

Which of the following causes tachycardia in the adult?

a) Hypothermia

b) Hypoxemia

c) Hypertension

d) Polycythemia

Which of the following changes is consistent with a fever?

a) Decreased respiratory rate

b) Increased pulse rate

c) Decreased oxygen consumption

d) All of the above

Which of the following factors may lead to a weak cough?

a) Reduced lung recoil

b) Bronchospasm

c) Weak inspiratory muscles

d) All of the above

Reduced Lung Recoil/ Bronchospasm/ Weak Inspiratory Muscles

"All of the above"

Which of the following is (are) true regarding dependent edema caused by lung disease?

a) It is caused by pulmonary vasodilation

b) Accompanying hepatomegaly may be present

c) It is caused by acute systemic hypertension

d) All of the above

Which of the following is associated with night sweats?

a) Tuberculosis

b) Congestive Heart Failure

c) Asthma

d) Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

Which of the following is least associated with causing dyspnea?

a) An increase in the work of breathing

b) A decrease in the ventilatory capacity

c) An increase in the drive to breath

d) An increase in lung compliance

Which of the following is useful to express genuine concern for the patient?

a) Appropriate eye contact

b) Use of touch

c) Maintaining an open posture

d) All of the above

Appropriate eye contact/ Use of touch/ Maintaining an open posture

"All of the above”

Which of the following methods of temperature measurement is recommended for neonates?

a) Oral

b) Axillary

c) Rectal

d) Ear

Which of the following problems is associated with hemoptysis?

a ) Turberculosis

b) Lung carcinoma

c) Pneumonia

d) All of the above

Tuberculosis/ Lung carcinoma/ Pneumonia

"All of the above"

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be associated with GERD?

a) Pedal edema

b) Hoarseness

c) Coughing

d) Wheezing

(GERD: Gastroesophageal reflux disease)

Which of the following would be examples of techniques used in conversational Interviewing?

a) Using questions such as “What happened next?”

b) Saying things like "You feel better now, don't you?"

c) Asking for clarification of a symptom.

d) a and c

Using questions such as “What happened next?”/ Asking for clarification

of a symptom.

"Both answers are correct"

Your patient has a 50 pack a year smoking history. Which of the following is consistent with this history?

a) He has smoked 2 packs/day for 25 years

b) He has smoked 1 pack/day for 50 years

c) He has smoked 5 packs/day for 10 years

d) Any of the above

Your patient has a “DNR” label on his chart and at the head of his bed. This indicates:

a) The patient is not responsive

b) The patient is not oriented to time, place, and person

c) The patient should not be resuscitated if cardiac arrest occurs

d) The patient has psychiatric problems and needs close supervision

Your patient has pneumonia and complains of chest pain and cough but denies fever. How would you classify the lack of fever in this case?

a) Objective data

b) Pertinent positives

c) Pertinent negatives

d) Physical examination finding

A patient's complaint of breathlessness or air hunger would be defined as which of the following?

a) Hemoptysis

b) Wheezing

c) Dyspnea

d) Cyanosis

Chronic pulmonary hypertension may lead to which of the following clinical findings?

a) Pedal edema

b) Inspiratory crackles

c) Hepatomegaly

d) a and c

Pedal Edema/ Hepatomegaly

"Both answers are correct"

During the interview, if the therapist responds to the information provided by the patient with appropriate comments, this is evidence of which of the following?

I. Nonverbal communication, II. Active Listening, III. Pertinent positives, IV. Reflecting.

a) I and III

b) II and IV

c) III and IV

d) All of the above

In which of the following spaces is patient introduction properly performed?

a) Social

b) Personal

c) Intimate

d) All of the above

In which of the following spaces is the interview properly performed?

a) Social

b) Personal

c) Intimate

d) All of the above

Proper introduction of yourself to the patient before the interview is useful for all the following except:

a) Establishing your role.

b) Asking permission to be involved.

c) Conveying your sincere interests in the patient.

d) Identifying diagnostic information.

The family history may be helpful in diagnosing a patient with which of the following problems?

a) Acute bronchitis

b) Cystic fibrosis

c) Pneumothorax

d) Pulmonary edima

The pre-interaction stage is useful in which of the following ways:

a) To determine the effect of the therapy.

b) For clarifying the patient's history and your role in the therapy.

c) For establishing rapport with the patient.

d) To allow the patient to evaluate the clinician's abilities.

What is the appropriate distance of the social space?

a) 0 to 18 inches

b) 18 inches to 14 feet

c) 4 to 12 feet

d) 6 to 18 feet

Which of the following causes tachypnea in the adult?

a) Hypothermia

b) Narcotic overdose

c) Metabolic Acidosis

d) Hyperoxia

Which of the following characteristics is least associated with pleuritic chest pain?

a) Sharp

b) Inspiratory

c) Radiates to the neck

d) Located laterally

Which of the following illnesses may be related to visiting or living in certain geographical locations?

a) Congestive heart failure

b) Fungal pneumonia

c) Cystic Fibrosis

d) Emphysema

Which of the following is not considered a constitutional symptom?

a) Nausea

b) Weakness

c) Chills and fever

d) Dyspnea

Which of the following is not included in the measurement of vital signs?

a) Pulse

b) Respiratory rate

c) Urinary output

d) Blood pressure

Which of the following may cause syncope?

a) Severe coughing

b) Pulmonary embolism

c) Hypovolemia

d) All of the above

Severe coughing, Pulmonary embolism, Hypovolemia

"All of the above"

Which of the following pieces of personal protection equipment is required when splattering of blood or other body fluids is likely?

a) Gown

b) Gloves

c) Eye shield

d) All of the above

Gown/ Gloves/ Eye shield

“All of the above”

Which of the following is not a typical component to physical examination?

a) Inspection

b) Palpation

c) Auscultation

d) Interviewing

Purse-lip breathing is most often seen in patients with which of the following diseases?

a) Pulmonary fibrosis

b) COPD

c) Pneumonia

d) Congestive heart failure

Which of the following is an unlikely cause of diaphoresis?

a) Myocardial infarction

b) Fever

c) Pulmonary fibrosis

d) Exercise

In which of the following conditions would lymphadenopathy of the neck be seen?

a) Infection of the upper airway

b) Asthma

c) Cystic fibrosis

d) Atelectasis

Which of the following may cause an increased jugular venous distention?

a) Chronic hypoxemia

b) Left-sided heart failure

c) Right-sided heart failure

d) All of the above

What spinous process is most prominent with the patient sitting and with his/her head bent forward?

a) T1

b) C1

c) C7

d) S3

At which of the following topographic locations is the bifurcation of the trachea located on the anterior chest?

a) Over the upper part of the manubrium

b) At the sternal angle

c) Fourth rib at the sternum

d) Under the xiphoid process

The minor (horizontal) fissure begins at which of the following locations on the anterior chest?

a) Second rib at the sternal border

b) Fourth rib at the sternal border

c) Sixth rib at the sternal border

d) None of the above

"An inward depression of the sternum" describes which of the following thoracic configurations?

a) Kyphosis

b) Pectus excavtum

c) Flail chest

d) Barrel chest

What type of lung problem is associated with severe kyphoscoliosis?

a) COPD

b) Restrictive lung disease

c) Pneumothorax

d) Pulmonary fibrosis

Which of the following best describes an apneustic breathing pattern?

a) Prolonged exhalation

b) Prolonged inhalation

c) Deep and fast

d) Lack of breathing

What is indicated by the presence of retractions?

a) Heart failure

b) An increase in the work of breathing

c) Pneumothorax

d) Restrictive lung disease

Which of the following I/E ratios is consistent with a severe asthma attack?

a) 3:1

b) 2:1

c) 1:1

d: 1:3

Which of the following breathing patterns is associated with narrowing of intrathoracic airways?

a) Prolonged inspiratory time

b) Prolonged expiratory time

c) Rapid and shallow

d) Rapid and deep

Which of the following indicate(s) diaphragmatic fatigue?

a) Paradoxical pulse

b) Abdominal paradox

c) Respiratory alternans

d) b and c

Paradoxical pulse, Respiratory alternans

Both these answers are correct

Which of the following causes an increased tactile fremitus?

a) Atelectasis

b) Pleural effusion

c) Emphysema

d) Obesity

Which of the following causes a bilateral decrease in chest expansion?

a) Lung tumor

b) Pheumothorax

c) COPD

d) Pleural effusion

Which of the following causes an increase resonance to percussion of the chest?

a) Lobar consolidation

b) Pneumothorax

c) Pleural effusion

d) Atelectasis

What clinical condition would cause the range of diaphragm movement to be reduced bilaterally?

a) Severe emphysema

b) Left lower lobe atelectasis

c) Congestive heart failure

d) Pneumonia

Normal tracheal breath sounds are produced by which of the following mechanisms?

a) Turbulent airflow through large airways

b) Filtered sounds through lung tissue

c) Passage of air through secretions

d) Passage of air through narrowed airways

Which of the following terms is used to describe discontinuous ALS?

a) Wheeze

b) Crackles

c) Rhonchi

d) Stridor

The finding of late inspiratory crackles on auscultation of a patient might indicate which of the following?

a) Atelectasis

b) Pulmonary fibrosis

c) Bronchospasm

d) a and b

Atelectasis and Pulmonary fibrosis

Both answers are correct

What clinical condition is most closely associated with polyphonic wheezing?

a) Pneumonia

b) Pneumothorax

c) Asthma

d) Pulmonary fibrosis

Which of the following ALS is commonly heard from the patient with upper airway obstruction?

a) Polyphonic wheezing

b) Fine inspiratory crackles

c) Coarse inspiratory and expiratory crackles

d) Inspiratory stridor

Which of the following is the normal topographic location of the PMI?

a) Third intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

b) Fourth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

c) Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

d) Sixth intercostal space at the midsternal line

Which of the following location is best for auscultating the mitral valve?

a) Third intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

b) Fourth intercostal space at the anterior axillary line

c) Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line

d) Sixth intercostal space at the midsternal line

What produces the sounds associated with the first heart sound?

a) Closure of the AV valves

b) Closure of the semilunar valves

c) Left ventricular muscle movement

d) Blood flow through normal valves

What clinical condition is most closely associated with a gallop heart rhythm?

a) Pneumonia

b) Pericarditis

c) Congestive heart failure

d) Aortic stenosis

Which of the following may cause an increased P2 component of the second heart sound?

a) Pulmonary hypertension

b) Pulmonary embolism

c) Cor pulmonale

d) All of the above

Pulmonary hypertension, Pulmonary embolism, Cor pulmonal

"All of the above"

Which of the following is associated with right heart failure?

a) Jugular venous distention

b) Hepatomegaly

c) Pedal edema

d) All of the above

Hepatomegaly, Pedal edema, and Jugular venous distention

All of the above

Stethoscope: Name Part 'A'

(Hint: goes in the ear)

Stethoscope: Name Part 'B'

(Hint: Directly after part 'A')

Stethoscope: Name Part 'C'

(Hint: Connected between part 'B' and 'D')

Stethoscope: Name Part 'D'

(Hint: Between parts 'C' and 'E')

Stethoscope: Name Part 'E'

(Hint: Makes u the large part of part 'D')

Stethoscope: Name Part 'F'

(Hint: Makes up the small part of 'D')

Oxygen: 80 - 100 mmHg

Carbon dioxide: 40 mmHg

In the equation [760 - 47(.21)] - 40/.8,

what does the "47" represent?

pressure of moisture

(100% humidity exerts a pressure of 47mmHg at 37C)

The percentage of Oxygen

(or FIO2)

The normal amount of carbon dioxide

found in the blood (PaCO2) measured in mmHg

What is the difference between the following?

PAO2 and PaO2

To decrease hypoxemia

To decrease work of breathing

To decrease cardiac work

Flow (gas A) + Flow (gas B)

Total Flow

(example: 10 (1.0) + 20 (.21) / 30 = 14.2 / 30 = .47 mmHg)

This example, provides a ratio of 1:2

1 (1.0) + 2 (.21) / 3 = .47

(Assuming the second gas is room air)

1.8

(example: If flow meter is reading 10 LPM, actual flow is 10 x 1.8 = 18 LPM)