| Term 
 
        | What are the factors that control ADH secretion? What are some common causes for inappropriate ADH secretion? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Effective osmolality (most important), effective vascular volumeCommon pathology 
Any lung diseaseAny CNS diseaseNausea and certain drugsCertain cancers (e.g. oat cell Ca of the lung)Common drugs
Phenothiazines, anti-depressents (fluoxetine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you determine if hypernatremia is from water loss vs. sodium gain? |  | Definition 
 
        | In cases of acute weight loss, use the equation (change in in Na x total body water) / Serum Na to determine expected water loss given no sodium gain. Compare to weight loss / 2.2. If patient lost less body water than expected, they must have retained Na.   Weight / 2.2 = Body water |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you determine the water requirement to correct hypernatremia? How do you determine Na requirement to correct hyponatremia? |  | Definition 
 
        | (Change in Na X TBW)/Goal Na concentration   Change in Na x TBW
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you distinguish hyponatremia caused by SIADH from hyponatremia caused by volume depletion? |  | Definition 
 
        | Urine NA > 20 mEq/l, serum urate <3.5 mg/dl, BUN <10 mg/dl and serum creatinine <1 mg/dl all suggest normal or increased effective vascular volume (SIADH)   The opposite values are seen in volume depletion states. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does serum Na changes correlate with serum glucose changes? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inversely (for every 100 mg/dL increase in glucose, 1.6 mEq/L decrease in sodium)     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is diabetes insipidus diagnosed? Why is hypernatremia not always present? What is the differential diagnosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Inappropriately dilute urine (osmolality under 700 mOsm/L in presence of hypernatremia) in the absemce of renal failure and loop diureticsTypically, water intake is increased to match volume of water lossedGive patient synthetic ADH (dDAVP)
Increase in urine osmalality indicates central DINo change = nephrogenic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the danger of rapidly correcting hyperosmolality/hypoosmolality? Which tissue will not be in danger? |  | Definition 
 
        | Since brain autocorrects for chronic osmolality change, rapid osmolality reduction will cause swelling, and rapid increase will cause brain dehydration and intracranial bleeds   Muscle has no compensatory mechanism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely acid-base disorder based on the following conditions? 
Low pH, low PCO2Low pH, high HCO3High pH, high PCO2High pH, low HCO3   |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Metabolic acidosis, compensated by hyperventilationRespiratory acidosis, compensated by production bicarbonateMetabolic alkalosis, compensated by hypoventilationRespiratory alkalosis, compensated by excretion of bicarbonate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is serum anion gap measured? What measurements would you expect in metabolic acidosis? What are some non-acid-base imbalances that can cause of low AG? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Na - (Cl +HCO3)If AG is high, serum Cl is normal; if AG is normal, Cl is high.Hypoalbuminemia, lithium intoxication, hyper-gammaglobulinemia, bromide intoxication (high Cl artifact) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis? Normal AG metabolic acidosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, uremic acidosis, toxic acidosisRTA, uremic acidosis (early), recovery stages of ketoacidosis, diarrhea, toluene |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the major causes of respiratory alkalosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lung diseases, CNS lesions, aspirin, progesterone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is urine anion gap used in differential diagnosis of acid-base disorders? |  | Definition 
 
        | In patient with metabolic alkalosis and high urine anion gap, most likely vomit-induced   In patient with metabolic acidosis and reduced urine anion gap, most likely diarrhea-induced |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main mechanism of lactic acidosis? What is the pathogenic mechanism of d-lactic acidosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Increased NADHCan be induced by hypoxia, metformin, anti-retroviral drugs, diabetic ketoacidosis, all toxic alcoholsSevere carb. malabsorption --> colonic proliferation of d-LDH bacteria, which converts unabsorbed carbohydrate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the toxins that induce metabolic acidosis and their corresponding acid? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Methanol: formic acid and lactic acidEthylene glycol: glycolic acidToluene: hippuric acidAcetaminophen: pyroglutamic acidSalicylate: ketoacids (probably lactic acids) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the differential diagnosis of hypophosphatemia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Intracellular shift P (urine P is low)
Alkaline pHCarbohydratesInsulinFecal loss of P (urine P is low)Urinary loss of P (urine P is normal) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is calcium excretion effected by loop diuretics? Thiazide? Low effective volume? Salt infusion? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Ca reabsorption impaired by diminished Na reabsorption in loop of Henle; increased excretionDo not directly affect Ca reabsorption; indirectly decreased by volume depletionDecrease effective volume increases Na reabsorption in proximal tubule; calcium follows NaCalcium reabsorption in proximal tubule decreased by NaCl infusion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A patient is given an unknown diuretic. After a week, you notice the following urine values: 
Reduced calcium and increased MgIncreased calcium and increased MgSlightly reduced calcium and slightly reduced Mg For each case, what diuretic would you suspect? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Thiazide diureticLoop diureticK-sparing diuretics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would you expect ionized Ca concentration to change with elevation and depression of (1) pH, (2) albumin levels, (3) globulin levels? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
An increase in blood pH by 0.1 unit increases protein-bound calcium by 0.17 mg/dLAn increase in albumin concentration by 1 g/dl increases protein-bound Ca by 0.8 mg%An increase in globulin by 1 gm/dL increases protein-bound calcium by 0.18 mg/dl |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which kidney stones are radio-opaque? Radio-lucent? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Ca (oxalate or phosphate), struvite, and cystine stones are radio-opaque stones.Uric acid stones are the only important radio-lucent stone.      |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the composition of struvite stones? What conditions predispose individuals to struvite stones? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Mg2+, NH4+, PO43- Urinary tract infection with urease-forming bacteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are two mechanisms to decrease uric acid formation? Which is more effective? |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase in urine pH; decrease in uric acid production   An increase in urine pH from 5.5 to above 6.5 would be more effictive in preventing UA stone formation than reducing the production of UA by 50. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is urine citrate excretion affected by renal pH. Which conditions cause an increase or decrease in urine citrate excretion? |  | Definition 
 
        | Proximal tubular cell pH is inversely proportional to urine citrate reabsorption (and is directly proportional to excretion) 
Metabolic acidosis generally increases citrate reabsorption (decreases intracellular pH)K+ depletion increases citrate reabsorptionProximal RTA and type IV RTA does not cause hypcitraturia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the factors that predispose to stone formation? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
HypercalciuriaHypocitraturiaHyperuricosuriaHyperoxaluria Urine pH abnormalitiesUrine infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the inhibitors of renal stone formation? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Hight citrateHigh urine MgTamm-Hosfall proteinOsteopontin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the mechanism of enteric hyperoxaluria? |  | Definition 
 
        | Severe fat malabsorption with the subsequent binding of calcium by fatty acid in the colon, releasing oxalate from calcium oxalate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Suppose a patient's large arteries had a decrease in compliance; what would the effect on diastolic BP, systolic BP and mean BP |  | Definition 
 
        | Increase in systolic BP, decrease in diastolic BP (overall increase in pulse pressure), no change in mean BP (assuming no change in CO and PVR) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is malignant hypertension classified? What is the mechanism of pathology? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypertension with grade 3 or grade 4 retinopathy (exudates, hemorrhages, papilledema)   Severe hypertension --> renal vascular damage and narrowing --> renin-angiotensin system stimulated --> higher BP --> more renin vascular damage --> etc. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the common causes of secondary hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Renal artery stenosis 
AtherosclerosisFibromuscular dysplasia Primary hyperaldosteronismRenal parenchymal diseaseHyperthyroidism/hypothyroidismCushing's sydnromePheochromocytomaContraceptive pills |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What difference would you expect to see between a patient with unilateral renal stenosis vs. bilateral? |  | Definition 
 
        | No plasma renin increase in bilateral stenosis; hypertension is due to salt retention   In unilateral stenosis, high renin and renal salt retention both play a role in htn |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some common causes of low renin hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Primary hyperaldosteronismIncreased non-aldosterone mineralocorticoidsLicorics, carbenoxoloneLow renin essential hypertensionLiddle's syndrome (overexpression of ENaC), Gordon's syndrome (enhanced NaCl reabsorption at distal convoluted tubule), apparent mineralocorticoid excess state (ß-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase defficiency)  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some common causes of high renin hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Renal artery stenosisPatients with htn treated with diureticMalignant htnRenin producing tumorContraceptive pill use |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the ideal diet for treatment of htn? |  | Definition 
 
        | Low salt, high K, high Mg, high Ca |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What clinical characteristics would you expect to see in a patient with malignant hypertension? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rapidly progressive renal failure, high renin and aldosterone, grade 3-4 retinopathy, severe htn, proteinuria, LVH, hypokalemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ACE inhibitors? What is their mechanism of action? What are common side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Captopril, enalapril, ramiprilPrevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, minimizing vasoconstriction, aldosterone secretion, while increasing vasodilators (bradykinin, NO, prostcyclin)Cough in 30%, angioedema, hyperkalemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the calcium channel blockers? What is their mechanism of action? What are  common side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
DHPs 
 
Amlodipine, nifedipinePotent vasodilatorsNon-DHPs
 
Diltiazem,  verapimilSlow HR, reduce cardiac contraction, retard A-V nodal conductionVasodilatory in nature (headaches, flushing, pedal edema), constipation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the angiotensin II receptor blockers? Common side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lorsartan (Ang II receptor blocker), aliskerin (renin inhibitor)   Aliskerin can cause diarrhea |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the adrenergic inhibit drugs and their respective side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Centrally acting alpha-agonists = methldopa, propanolol, clonidine  (drowsiness and dry-mouth)Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents = prazosin (first-dose hypotensive effect), terazosin, doxasinß-adrenergic blockers = metoprolol (ß-1 selective), atenolol (ß-1 selective), labetolol (alpha and beta blocker), carvedilol (alpha and beta blocker), nebivolol (third generation ß-1 blocker) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the direct vasodilators and what are their respective side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hydralazine (increases CO, HR, requiring concomitant ß-blocker and diuretic; headaches, tachycardia, lupus-like reaction)   Minoxidil (volume expansion, pericardial and serous effusions), also known Rogaine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Define the various risk groups, and the various stages of blood pressure. Which groups require drug therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anyone with Stage 2+ or in Risk Group C 
Risk groups
Risk Group A = no risk factors or TOD/CCD (target organ disease, clinical cardiovascular disease)Risk Group B = at least 1 risk factor, excluding DM, with no TOD/CCDTOD/CCD and/or DMStages
High normal = 130-139/85-89Stage 1 = 140-159/90-99Stage 2+ = >160/>100 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the target organ diseases of hypertension? What are the major risk factors? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Atherosclerosis affecting the kidney, heart and brain (causing MI, stroke, renal artery stenosis)Smoking, dyslipidemia, diabetes mellitus, age > 60 yrs, men and post-menopausal women, family history of CV disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some of the clinical signs of uremia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Neruological abnormality, muscle twitching, pruritis with cause unknown, decreased libido, red eyes, GI abnormality, bleeding tendency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some of the laboratory manifestations of uremia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Vitamin D deficiencyElectrolyte abnormalities (metabolic acidosis, hyperphophatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia)Gynecomastia, hypogonadism, secondary hyperPTHHigh homocystein, high AGE, hyperlipidemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three modalities of chronic uremia management and their respective pros and cons? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
Hemodialysis- requires dietary changes, risk of infection, constant visits to hospitalPeritoneal dialysis- allows more flexibility, risk of peritonitisRenal transplantation- best survival statistics, but difficulty obtaining organ, requires immunosuppressive therapy, risk of transplant rejection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common source of ESRD? What is the most common hereditary cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diabetes; polycystic kidney disease |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A uremic patient comes in with small kidneys, nocturia and polyuria, severe anemia, and severe secondary hyperparathyroidism. Would you suspect chronic or acute renal failure? |  | Definition 
 
        | Chronic   (Note: large kidney seen in polycystic kidney disease and amyloidosis) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | The lab values comes back for your patient. He has massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia. Patient has a history of stroke, pulmonary embolism and other clotting disorders. Physical exam revealed edema. What is the most likely diagnosis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main types of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in children? Adults? |  | Definition 
 
        | Children = liquid nephrosis   Adult = focal segmental glomerular sclerosis and membranous nephropathy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main causes of secondary nephrotic syndrome? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diabetes, SLE, amyloidosis, hepatitis B and C infection, HIV infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A patient's urinalysis indicates a pH > 8. What is the most likely cause? |  | Definition 
 
        | Urinary tract infection with urease-forming bacteria |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | True or false: dip stick test for urine protein can detect Bence-Jones protein from multiple myeloma? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do RBC casts indicate with respect to renal pathology? WBCs? |  | Definition 
 
        | RBCs = glomerular pathology WBCs = tubulointerstitial inflammation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the significance of a positive esterase and nitrite test? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gram negative bacterial infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do hemoglobin and myoglobin in the urine suggest? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemolysis or rhabdomyolysis. Both are causes of ATN. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is cystatin C and how is it used with respect to nephrology? |  | Definition 
 
        | Produced at constant rate by all nucleated cells and filtered freely at glomerulus; completely reabsorbed and broken down in proximal tubule   Serum levels reflect GFR better than creatinine, but test is too expensive |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the pathological cause of high anion gap acidosis? Normal anion gap acidosis? |  | Definition 
 
        | H+ ions of the acid are buffered by HCO3-, which is counterbalanced by anions of acid (example, toxic acidosis, renal failure, lactic acidosis)   In normal Ag, chloride is increased to counterbalance loss of buffered bicarb (hypercholeremic acidosis). Examples include diarrhea and the RTA's |  | 
        |  |