Term
| Which Organism is a risk for patients receiving intravenous lipid supplements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism that can be found in the blood infects only T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common location where bacteria gain entry to the blood and cause bacteremia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What bacteria are most frequently implicated in nosocomial bacteremia?
In a hospital setting, what is the most common cause of infection with these organisms? |
|
Definition
Staphylococcus epidermidis and other coagulase negative Staphylococci.
Intravascular catheters |
|
|
Term
| Which organism is an asaccharolytic small gram-negative rod that is Oxidase positive, Catalase, Indole and Arginine dihydrolase negative, pits in the culture agar and has a bleach like odor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism is a fusiform, gram-negative bacillus that exhibits yellow pigment, gliding motility, grows best at 35 degrees Celsius and requires increased CO2 for growth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism exhibits Non-hemolytic colony growth, Oxidase positive, tends to pit agar, can be isolated on modified Thayer martin agar and can be misidentified as N. gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hos is Kingella dentrificans differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhea? |
|
Definition
| Kingella is catalase negative and Neisseria gonorrhea is catalase positive |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are caused by Bartonella quintana? |
|
Definition
| Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis and chronic lymphoadenopathy |
|
|
Term
| What conditions are caused by Bartonella henselae |
|
Definition
| "Cat scratch" disease, bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis and peliosis hepatic |
|
|
Term
| Malaria caused by Plasmodium species has a primary exo-erythrocytic cycle that occurs before infection of the red blood cells. Where does this cycle take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Plasmodium species demonstrates only delicate ring forms and crescent-shaped gametocytes in peripheral blood smears? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the Trypanosome that has CNS invasion early, but death may occur before CNS involvement, Inflammation of the heart is more common and severe, the disease progresses rapidly |
|
Definition
| Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense |
|
|
Term
| The etiology of acute pneumonia's is strongly dependent on age: What is the most common etiologic agent of Community-acquired pneumonia in adults regardless of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The etiology of acute pneumonia's is strongly dependent on age: What is the most common etiologic agent of bacterial pneumonia in school aged children (5-14 years)? |
|
Definition
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae |
|
|
Term
| The etiology of acute pneumonia's is strongly dependent on age: What is the most common etiologic agent of lower respiratory tract infection in adults younger than 30 years? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The etiology of acute pneumonia is strongly dependent on age: What is the most common etiologic agent of lower respiratory tract infection in previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What major morphological feature is first in determining the scheme to follow for identification of Streptococci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is incomplete hemolysis and a green discoloration of the media called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is complete hemolysis and a clearing of the medium called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Identify the organism that is alpha-hemolytic, catalase negative, gram positive cocci that is susceptible to optochin or ethyl hydrocupreine with colony morphology that resembles a donut as it ages?
What other test is positive and used for definitive identification?
What does this organism possess that is responsible for its virulence? |
|
Definition
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Bile solubility
An anti-phagocytic, polysaccharide capsule |
|
|
Term
| What species is partially acid-fast, catalase positive, produces aerial hyphae and is lysozyme resistant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What species is non acid-fast, catalase positive and produces aerial hyphae? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What characteristics are shared by Acinetobacter and Stenotrophomonas? |
|
Definition
| Non-fermenters, oxidase negative |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain morphology of Acinetobacter? |
|
Definition
| Gram negative, short plum rods or cocco bacilli |
|
|
Term
| Because of the morphology and the fact that it can resist decolorization Acinetobacter can be misidentified as Neisseria spp or Staphylococcus. Which test will differentiate it from Neisseria and Staphylococcus? |
|
Definition
| Acinetobacter is oxidase negative, Neisseria is oxidase positive. Acinetobacter is Vancomycin resistant and Staphylococcus is Vancomycin susceptible |
|
|
Term
| Name the organism that is known for its negative reactions and multi drug resistance, oxidase negative, motility negative, non-lactose fermenter but oxidizes lactose and can exhibit a pink to purple hue, Nicknamed "Iraqibacter" because it is the most common isolate from soldiers injured in Afghanistan and Iraq. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For more serious infections such as pneumonia or bacteremia, what treatment may be required to be effective? |
|
Definition
| Use of a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic |
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is most likely a colonizer, but can cause nosocomial infections, is oxidase negative, motility positive, non-lactose fermenter that oxidizes glucose and maltose, lysine decarboxylase positive: |
|
Definition
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
If a true pathogen what is the primary drug of choice for infections? Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole |
|
|
Term
| All of the gram negative cocci organisms discussed are positive for two biochemical tests. What are they |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is oxidase and catalase positive, butyrate esterase positive, DNase positive, glucose, maltose, lactose and sucrose negative, causes pneumonia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the appearance of a Mycobacterium stained with gram stain? |
|
Definition
| Poor, faintly stained, beaded, gram-positive bacilli |
|
|
Term
| Once appropriate media is inoculated what is the optimal incubation atmosphere, temperature and time for recovery of mycobacterium species? |
|
Definition
| 35 degrees Celsius, dark, high humidity, 5-10% humidity, CO2 for 8 weeks |
|
|
Term
| What is the first step always performed once there is growth on or in Mycobacterial culture media? |
|
Definition
| Acid fast stain to determine whether organism is acid fast or contaminant |
|
|
Term
| The atypical or non-tuberculosis Mycobacterium species are further classified into Runyon groups? What are the two characteristics used for the Runyon system of classification? |
|
Definition
| Growth rate and pigmentation of colony |
|
|
Term
| The most commonly isolated mycobacterium in the Untied States. It is often associated with HIV patients |
|
Definition
| Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare |
|
|
Term
| Mycobacterium of low virulence, commonly found in tap water that can be difficult to determine if a true pathogen or a laboratory contaminant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mycobacterium acquired from contaminated water such as aquariums. Requires incubation at 30 degrees Celsius |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two main characteristics that separate Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma from other micro organisms? |
|
Definition
| Lack of a cell wall, permanently, and are the smallest known free-living form |
|
|
Term
| What is the method of choice for laboratory detection of Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections? |
|
Definition
| PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) |
|
|
Term
| Identify the slow growing organism from the respiratory tract that produces spherical, slightly grainy colonies of SP4 agar after 5-2 days of incubation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism isolated from urine or a congenital specimen that produces alkaline reaction after overnight incubation in broth containing urea and has relatively small grainy colonies on A8 agar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common cause of fungal infections worldwide. Called "cave disease" because it is found in bat and bird droppings. Infection from airborne conidia and hyphal fragments. Small round to oval yeast cells 2 to 5 microns, not often seen |
|
Definition
| Histoplasmosis capsulatum |
|
|
Term
| Found in Latin America, but mainly Brazil, predominantly infects males. May go to liver, spleen, lymph nodes and bone marrow. Large rod or oval yeast cell with multiple buds making it appear like a "mariner" wheel. |
|
Definition
| Paracoccidioides brasiliensis |
|
|
Term
| Found in desert regions of North America and Causes "valley fever". Infection from inhalation of arthrospores found in soil. Non-budding thick walled spherule containing endospores. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Occurs worldwide but is endemic in Mississippi and Ohio river valleys. Only the conidial forms found in nature are infectious. Human or animal is a dead end in the life cycle. Large spherical thick-walled yeast cells usually with a single bud attached by a broad base. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rose handler's or rose gardener's disease, worldwide in soil, plants and decaying vegetation (peat moss). Spores infectious and enter the body through cuts or punctures to the skin. Causes cutaneous lesions and may spread along the lymph nodes. Cigar-shaped yeast cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Found in Southeast Asia, third most common infection in HIV patient in Indochina. Considered an AIDS defining illness. Etiologic niche uncertain but has been isolated from bamboo rats. Small yeast-like cells that have internal cross walls but no budding. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pneumocystis jiroveci, based on molecular sequencing, has been placed within the fungal kingdom. However the type of sterol found in the cell membrane differs from fungi What is the sterol found in Pneumocystis and in Fungus? |
|
Definition
| Pneumocystis: Cholesterol Fungi: Ergosterol |
|
|
Term
| Which form of Pneumocystis jiroveci is considered diagnostic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which patient population suffers from pneumocystis jiroveci infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infection of the epiglottis and other soft tissues above the vocal cord. Presents with fever, difficult painful swallowing, drooling, respiratory obstruction which may have complete blockage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common agent of Epiglottitis |
|
Definition
| Haemophilus influenzae type B |
|
|
Term
| Infection of the pharynx called "sore throat". Presents with erythematous and swollen tissue, possible inflammatory exudates, vesicles and mucosal ulceration or nasopharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most common agent of pharyngitis |
|
Definition
Viruses
Most common bacterial agent
Streptococcus pyogenes |
|
|
Term
| Infection of the buccal (cheek) mucosa, tongue or oropharynx resulting in creamy patches |
|
Definition
Thrush
Most common agent: Candida species
Usually Candida albicans |
|
|
Term
| Which media should be used to plate specimens from suspected cases of epiglottitis? |
|
Definition
| Sheep blood agar and Chocolate agar |
|
|
Term
| Why is chocolate agar required for the recovery of Haemophilus species? |
|
Definition
| For the recovery of Haemophilus influenzae factor X (heme) and factor V (NAD) are required for growth and are present in chocolate agar. Haemophilus Parainfluenzae only requires factor X, not factor V |
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is beta hemolytic, catalase negative, PYR negative, gram positive cocci in pairs or chains and is bacitracin susceptible: |
|
Definition
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which Lancefield group is it in?
Group A |
|
|
Term
| Name four diseases Streptococcus pyogenes can cause: |
|
Definition
| Rheumatic fever, Exudative pharyngitis, Glomerulonephritis, Necrotizing fasciitis |
|
|
Term
| What are two selective and differential medias used for the isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? |
|
Definition
| Cystein-Tellurite blood agar and Modified Tinsdale agar. |
|
|
Term
| What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae on Tinsdale agar that allows for presumptive identification? |
|
Definition
| Brown-black colonies with a gray-brown halo |
|
|
Term
| What is required for Corynebacterium diphtheriae to be pathogenic and how does it acquire this ability? |
|
Definition
| Toxin, exotoxin production. The toxin is acquired through viral transduction |
|
|
Term
| What media is used for the isolation of Corynebacterium, fastidious organisms? |
|
Definition
| Bordet-Gengou and charcoal containing media such as Regan-Lowe |
|
|
Term
| What highly contagious disease of the upper respiratory tract does this Bordetella cause? |
|
Definition
| Pertussis (whooping cough) |
|
|
Term
| What is the colony appearance of Bordetella pertussis and parapertussis? |
|
Definition
| Small, shiny colonies resembling mercury droplets |
|
|
Term
| Name the toxin that contributes to the virulence of Bordetella pertussis and describe how this toxin works. |
|
Definition
| Adenylate cyclase toxin, causes hemolysis of red cells, activates cyclic adenosine monophosphate. The cell is unable to inhibit adenyl cyclase activity. It interferes with cellular communication causing inactivation of several types of host immune cells. Azithromycin is used for treatment |
|
|
Term
| What is the proper storage of cerebral spinal fluid for bacterial culture? |
|
Definition
| Incubation at 35 degrees Celsius |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common source of central nervous system infections? |
|
Definition
| Hematogenous; originated in or spread through the blood |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and arachnoid membrane |
|
|
Term
| What is the condition that presents with pleocytosis in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is catalase positive, small gram positive bacilli that is CAMP factor positive and able to hydrolyze hippurate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is catalase negative, gram positive cocci in pairs and/or chains, that is CAMP factor positive and able to hydrolyze hippurate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the types of infection Listeria monocytogenes and streptococcus agalactiae can cause: |
|
Definition
Listeria: blood stream and CNS in all patients and neonatal infection in-utero are systemic, leading to bacteremia
Streptococcus: blood stream and CNS in neonates |
|
|
Term
| Name two rapid methods that will differentiate Listeria monocytogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae |
|
Definition
| Catalase negative and gram stain morphology |
|
|
Term
| Name the two types of motility Listeria exhibits at 25 degrees Celsius |
|
Definition
| End over End motility in nutrient broth and Umbrella motility in semi-solid media |
|
|
Term
| What two rapid biochemical tests are positive for gram negative cocci |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best method to differentiate the gram negative diplococcus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the following organism: glucose and maltose positive, lactose and sucrose negative, group B serotypes highly virulent, invasive strains usually encapsulate, causes rapid fetal bacterial meningitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cryptococcus neoformans isolated from cerebrospinal fluid exhibits extreme variation in size and polysaccharide capsule. What common stain or reagent is used to detect this encapsulated yeast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which bacteria is the most common cause of otitis media in children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What atmosphere is recommended for the isolation of Haemophilus species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism is the causative agent of Trachoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the infective cycle for Chlamydia trachomatis |
|
Definition
| An inert, infective extracellular body (EB) enters the body, EB differentiates into reticulocyte body (RB), RB replicates by binary fission within vacuoles, RB reverts to EB 48-72 hours post infection, EB released from cell |
|
|
Term
| What type of Hyphae do the mucorales (zygomycetes) exhibit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identification of mucorales is based in part on presence of absence and position of rhizoids. Name the organism with unbranched sporangiophores with round sporangium. Rhizoids are nodal or opposite the sporangiophores where stolons start: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identification of mucorales is based in part on presence of absence and position of rhizoids. Name the organism with sporangiophores singular or branched with round sporangium. No rhizoids or stolons: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identification of mucorales is based in part on presence of absence and position of rhizoids. Name the organism with sporangiophores branched with pyriform or pear shaped sporangium. Have funnel shapes apophysis. Rhizoids intranodal or between groups of sporangiophores: |
|
Definition
| Lichtheimia (syn. Absidia) species |
|
|
Term
| Which mold is the most frequently isolated opportunistic fungus and has been implicated in cases of pulmonary or sinus fungus balls, external otomycosis, mycotic keratitis and onychomycosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the follow mold: most commonly recovered species. Growth white to blue-green colony in 2 to 6 days. Uniserate with phialides covering upper half to two thirds of the dome-shaped vesicle: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the following mold growth of colonies most commonly shades of green to blue-green. Brush like conidiophores produced. Rarely associated with invasive disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most frequent cause of uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the illness that features dysuria, frequency and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms that 10 to the 5th CFU/mL urine on the culture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the illness that features isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the organism that is catalase positive, coagulase negative, gram positive cocci in clusters that causes uncomplicated urinary tract infections in sexually active young women: |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus saprophyticus |
|
|
Term
| What can be used to presumptively identify Staphylococcus saprophyticus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three characteristics that are common to all the Enterobacteriaecae |
|
Definition
| Ferment glucose with production of acid, reduces nitrates to nitrites, catalase positive (also oxidase neg) |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical colony morphology of Escherichia coli on blood agar and MacConkey agar? |
|
Definition
| Moist, gray, beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar and lactose fermenting on MacConkey agar |
|
|
Term
| Name the three genera that produce phenylalanine deaminase (PPA/TDA) |
|
Definition
| Proteus, Providencia and Morganella |
|
|
Term
| Flora from the female vaginal tract will vary with age. Name the predominant organisms that will grow from normal vaginal cultures from normal women of reproductive age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the infective agent for an organism that many women carry as part of their normal genital flora that may be transmitted to the neonate during childbirth |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the infective agent that is the number one cause of non-gonococcal urethritis (STD) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the infective agent that is the major cause of cervicitis and urethritis (STD) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the infective agent that is the cause of bacterial vaginosis characterized by large numbers of epithelial cells, many of which are covered by tiny gram variable rods and coccobacilli and the absence of inflammatory cells: |
|
Definition
Garderella vaginalis
What is the name given to these particular epithelial cells? Clue cells |
|
|
Term
| How would you report the presence of gram negative diplococci on a genital smear from a female patient: |
|
Definition
| Presence of gram-negative diplococci, follow up with culture |
|
|
Term
| How would you report the presence of gram negative diplococci on a genital smear from a male patient: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is the reporting different for female genital specimens than male genital specimens? |
|
Definition
| Female genital tract features normal colonizing gram negative diplococci that cannot be differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhoeae by gram stain morphology |
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is oxidase and catalase positive, must be cultured promptly, glucose positive, strict pathogen, requires factor X for growth, maltose, lactose and sucrose negative |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism is the common bacterial sexually transmitted disease (SDT) and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the organism that is a motile troph, measures 7 to 23 microns long and 5 to 15 microns wide, no cyst stage in life cycle, undulating membrane ends halfway down the side of the trophozoite, treatment of choice for urogenital infection is mentronidazole: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which disease is the primary non-viral sexually transmitted disease worldwide and which parasite causes this disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cornmeal agar is used to aid in identification of Candida species based on the microscopic features produced. What are the unique features of each of the following: |
|
Definition
Candida albicans: Spherical clusters at regular intervals on pseudohyphae. Chlamydoconidia
Candida glabrata: only small spherical blastoconidia in compact clusters. No hyphae or pseudohyphae |
|
|
Term
| Routine stool cultures screen for aerobic enteric pathogens. At the minimum in the United States, there are at least three pathogens that should be included in the laboratory screening. Name these pathogens: |
|
Definition
| Salmonella, Shigella and Campylobacter |
|
|
Term
| Campylobacter has two significant species. What are the two species and the incubation conditions necessary for the their recovery? |
|
Definition
| Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli, microaerophilic atmosphere at 42 degrees Celsius and cultures examined at 24 and 48 hours |
|
|
Term
| Which rapid test will differentiate Bacillus and Clostridium species and what is the reaction for each? |
|
Definition
| Catalase; Bacillus is positive and Clostridium is negative |
|
|
Term
| Of the Enterobacteriaecae, all but three genera are considered only opportunistic. Name the three genera that are always considered enteric pathogens |
|
Definition
| Yersinia, Salmonella and Shigella |
|
|
Term
| Although considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract, which organism also contains agents of important diseases such as urinary tract infections, bacteremia, dysentery and hemorrhagic colitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of pathogenic E. coli can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) and contains the serotypes O157, O126 and O111? |
|
Definition
Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
(VTEC/STEC/EHEC) |
|
|
Term
| Identify the selective media for Vibrio species |
|
Definition
| TCBS. Colonies of Vibrio will produce either yellow or green colonies based on their ability to ferment sucrose |
|
|
Term
| Vibrio cholera pathogenesis is related to its production of |
|
Definition
| A powerful cholera toxin (CT) |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary habitat of most Vibrios? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Campylobacter has a unique gram stain morphology; describe it |
|
Definition
| Small curved "S" shaped gram negative bacilli. Similar to seagull wings |
|
|
Term
| How can Campylobacter species be presumptively identified? |
|
Definition
| Gram stain characteristics, Oxidase positive and catalase positive |
|
|
Term
| Which test will differentiate Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli |
|
Definition
| Hippurate hydrolysis: C. jejuni positive, C. coli negative |
|
|
Term
| What rapid test can be used to presumptively identify Helicobacter pylori from culture or gastric biopsy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the most common etiologic agents involved in Bulbous impetigo |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the most common etiologic agents involved in aerobic isolates from animal bites |
|
Definition
| Pasteruella species (multicida), Staphylococcus, Streptococcus |
|
|
Term
| Name the most common etiologic agents involved in anaerobic isolates from animal bites |
|
Definition
| Fusobacteremia, Bacteroides, Porphorymonas |
|
|
Term
| Name the most common etiologic agents involved in lumpy jaw |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What superficial mycoses is lipophilic and causes skin lesions to reveal a golden yellow fluorescence when observed under a Wood's lamp? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism is associated with gas gangrene in the skin as a result of bullous lesions associated with sepsis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is Lemon yellow pigmented, non-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive of low virulence most often considered a contaminant |
|
Definition
Micrococcus species
Name the rapid test that will differentiate this organism from Staphylococcus species: Microdase (oxidase modified)positive |
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is gray to white, generally non-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive, coagulase negative, Novobiocin susceptible, part of the human skin flora, most likely cause of infections in compromised hosts: |
|
Definition
| Staphylococcus epidermidis |
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is yellow pigmented, beta hemolytic gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase positive, coagulase positive, one of the most important human pathogens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two toxin-mediated diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus |
|
Definition
| Scalded skin syndrome and Toxic shock syndrome |
|
|
Term
| Identify the organism that is alpha or non-hemolytic gram colonies, catalase negative, gram-positive cocci that are able to hydrolyze esculin, grow in 6% NaCl and are PYR positive: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the unique reaction that Erysipelothrix has in triple sugar iron agar |
|
Definition
| H2S production along inoculum line |
|
|
Term
| Erysipelothrix usually causes infection through puncture wound or skin abrasion |
|
Definition
| Red, diamond like patter on hands or fingers called erysipeloid |
|
|
Term
| What are the gram stain, oxidase, and motility results of Pasteruella |
|
Definition
| Small gram-negative, cocco-bacillus, oxidase positive, non-motile |
|
|
Term
| Which species of Pasteurella is most commonly isolated in the laboratory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Catalase positive, indole positive and nitrate positive organism related to acne |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Catalase negative, indole negative, nitrate positive, sulfur granule presence organism similar to Prionibacterium acnes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain and colony morphology of C. perfringens? |
|
Definition
| Anaerobic gram positive rod that produces spores, features a double zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar |
|
|
Term
| What is the life threatening illness caused by C. perfringens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Produce brick-red fluorescence under long wavelength ultraviolet light organism |
|
Definition
| Prevotella and Porphyomonas species |
|
|
Term
| An anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that fluoresces a chartreuse (yellow-green) color |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Mycobacterium species causes chronic disease of the skin, mucous membranes and nerve tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a fastidious organism, what special requirements does Legionella need for in vitro growth? |
|
Definition
| BCYE & BCYES Legionella requires high humidity, L-cysteine and iron for growth |
|
|
Term
| What is the gram stain morphology of Brucella species |
|
Definition
| Gram negative cocco-bacilli organism |
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Term
| Name 3 occupations that put individuals at greatest risk of contracting brucellosis |
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Definition
| Dairy farming, veterinary practice and laboratory professionals |
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Term
| Because of Francisells growth requirements, name another media that will support the growth of this organism |
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Definition
| BCYE, presumptive identification should be performed under BSL2 conditions |
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