Term
1. main functions of the respiratory system. |
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Definition
1) GASSEOUS EXCHANGE, 2) ACID-BASE BALANCE |
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Term
2. Gaseous exchange is dependent on these mechanisms. |
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Definition
1) VENTILATION, 2) PERFUSION, 3) DIFFUSION |
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Term
3. _____ deals with the amount of gas delivered by the lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
4. _____ states that when the temperature is constant, the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. |
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Definition
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Term
5. _____ states that when the pressure is constant, the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. |
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Definition
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Term
6. _____ deals with the amount of blood delivered by the heart to the lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
7. _____ deals with the amount of gas that passes through the air-blood barrier. |
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Definition
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Term
8. The air-blood barrier is made up of these 3 components. |
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Definition
1) CAPILLARY ENDOTHELIUM, 2) BASEMENT MEMBRANE, 3) TYPE 1 PNEUMOCYTES |
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Term
9. Type 1 pneumocytes make up _____% of the cell types in the alveolus. |
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Definition
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Term
10. Type 2 pneumocytes produce _____, which reduces the surface tension in the alveoli. |
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Definition
SURFACTANT (DIPALMITOYL PHOSPHATIDYCHOLINE) |
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Term
11. The rate of diffusion in gaseous exchange is governed by _____, which states that diffusion through a tissue membrane is inversely proportional to the tissue thickness. |
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Definition
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Term
12. In the ventilation/profusion ration (Va/Q), Va is _____L/min and the pulmonary blood flow is _____L/min. |
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Definition
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Term
13. Va/Q is highest in the _____ of the lung, and lowest in the base of the lung; while it is closest to the ideal ratio of 0.8 in the _____ of the lung. |
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Definition
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Term
14. _____ is highest in the apex of the lung. |
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Definition
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Term
15. _____ is highest in the base of the lung. |
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Definition
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Term
16. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is dependent on the amount of _____ and _____. |
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Definition
OXYGEN IN PLASMA, AND AMOUNT CARRIED AS OXYHEMOGLOBIN |
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Term
17. 4 factors that cause the oxygen saturation curve to shift to the right, which decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen (releases more oxygen). |
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Definition
1) ACIDOSIS, 2) INCREASE IN CO2, 3) INCREASE IN TEMP, 4) 2,3-DPG (DIPHOSPHOGLYCERATE) |
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Term
18. An increase in CO2 and decrease in pH causes the oxyhemoglobin to give up O2, which is referred to as the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
19. The Bohr effect causes the oxidation saturation curve to shift to the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
20. Does blood carry more CO2 or O2? |
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Definition
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Term
21. Blood carries about _____mL of CO2 compared to _____mL of O2 per 100mL of blood. |
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Definition
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Term
22. ways CO2 is transported in the blood. |
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Definition
1) AS BICARBONATE (70%) , 2) CARBAMINOHEMOGLOBIN (23%) , 3) DISSOLVED IN PLASMA (7%) |
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Term
23. The maiN way the body transmits CO2 in the blood is through the use of a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
24. _____is the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin causing CO2 to be displaced. |
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Definition
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Term
25. High O2 levels in the _____ displaces CO2, and low O2 levels in the _____ binds more CO2. |
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Definition
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Term
26. _____and _____ of breathing so that arterial PCO2 is roughly _____mmHg. |
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Definition
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Term
27. Under normal circumstances, the concentration of _____ in the blood is the major determinant of breathing. |
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Definition
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Term
28. components of the brain stem that control respiration. |
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Definition
1) PNEUMOTAXIC CENTER, 2) APNEUSTIC CENTER, 3) DORSAL MEDULLA, 4) VENTRAL MEDULLA, 5) CEREBRAL CORTEX |
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Term
29. _____ in the upper pons turns off or inhibits the respiratory center, causing a decrease in the depth of inspiration. This results in an increase of the respiratory rate. |
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Definition
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Term
30. _____ in the lower pons prevents the turning off of the inspiratory center. |
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Definition
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Term
31. The dorsal center in the medulla is responsible for _____, while the ventral centers in the medulla are responsible for _____. |
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Definition
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Term
32. Higher centers in the _____ are responsible for controlling the medullary centers. |
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Definition
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Term
33. CO2 can freely cross the blood brain barrier and enter the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
34. In the CSF, CO2 combines with _____ to form _____, which then dissociates to form _____ and _____. |
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Definition
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Term
35. The medulla senses the levels of _____ directly, and the _____ indirectly. |
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Definition
H+ IN THE CSF; CO2 IN THE BLOOD |
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Term
36. Are the medullary receptors sensitive to O2? |
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Definition
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Term
37. Chemoreceptors in the carotid body, and adjacent to the aorta are peripheral chemoreceptors that are stimulated by these things. |
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Definition
1) DECREASED PO2, 2) INCREASED PCO2, 3) DECREASED pH |
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Term
38. _____ is characterized by periods of rapid breathing with increasing then decreasing the tidal volume, followed by a period of apnea. |
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Definition
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Term
39. Cheyne-stokes breathing can be seen in a patient with _____. |
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Definition
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Term
40. _____ is characterized by deep rapid regular breathing (air hunger). |
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Definition
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Term
41. Kussmaul breathing can be seen in patients with _____. |
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Definition
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Term
42. _____ is characterized by bouts of irregularly irregular breathing and apnea. |
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Definition
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Term
43. Biot’s respiration can be seen in patients with _____. |
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Definition
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Term
44. _____ is a reflex that limits over inflation of the lungs. It is mediated by stretch receptors found in the smooth muscle of the airways. |
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Definition
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Term
45. The hering-breuer reflex sends afferents along the _____ nerve, and efferents via the _____ nerve. |
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Definition
VAGUS NERVE; PHRENIC NERVE |
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Term
46. _____ is a measure of the distensibility of the lungs and chest wall. |
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Definition
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Term
47. Lung compliance is the changing _____ caused by a given change in _____. |
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Definition
LUNG VOLUME, RESPIRATORY PRESSURE |
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Term
48. Lung compliance is related to the _____, _____ and _____ in the lungs. |
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Definition
ELASTIC FIBERS, WATER CONTENT, AND SURFACTANT |
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Term
49. Lung compliance is inversely related to the amount of _____, and proportional to the _____. |
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Definition
ELASTIC TISSUE; FORCE NEEDED TO EXPAND THE CHEST |
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Term
50. The elasticity of the lungs tends to_____ the lung. |
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Definition
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Term
51. _____ helps to counter the lungs tendency to collapse. |
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Definition
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Term
52. _____ is a condition that increases lung compliance, allowing the lungs to over-expand. |
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Definition
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Term
53. _____ and _____ are 2 conditions that decrease lung compliance. |
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Definition
PULMONARY FIBROSIS, PULMONARY EDEMA |
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Term
54. _____ is a condition that decreases the ability of the chest wall to expand. |
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Definition
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Term
55. _____ is a condition that will cause a decrease in the chest wall’s ability to expand. |
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Definition
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Term
56. _____ is a measurement of the total volume held in the lungs. |
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Definition
TLC (TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY) |
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Term
57. The average total lung capacity is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
58. _____ is a measurement of lung volume expired after maximal inspiration. |
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Definition
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Term
59. The average vital capacity is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
60. _____ is a measurement of the volume of normal breath. |
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Definition
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Term
61. The average tidal volume is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
62. _____ is a measurement of the volume inspired after tidal volume. |
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Definition
INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME |
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Term
63. The average inspiratory reserve volume is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
64. _____ is a measurement of the volume expired after normal breath. |
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Definition
EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME |
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Term
65. The average expiratory reserve volume is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
66. _____ is a measurement of the lung volume after maximal expiration. |
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Definition
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Term
67. The average residual volume is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
68. _____ is a measurement of the air left in lungs after normal expiration. |
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Definition
FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL VOLUME |
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Term
69. The average functional residual volume is _____mL. |
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Definition
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Term
70. _____ is a measurement of forced volume expired after 1 second of time. |
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Definition
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Term
71. The average forced expiratory volume is _____% of air. |
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Definition
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Term
1. The respiratory center is developed as a respiratory diverticulum from the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
2. From the upper end of the foregut _____ develop. |
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Definition
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Term
3. The 2 lung buds develop into the _____ of each lung. |
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Definition
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Term
4. The primary bronchi subdivide into _____. |
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Definition
SECONDARY (LOBAR) BRONCHI |
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Term
5. The secondary bronchi divide into _____. |
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Definition
TERTIARY (SEGMENTAL) BRONCHI |
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Term
6. The tertiary bronchi continue to divide until the _____ are formed. |
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Definition
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Term
7. The terminal bronchioles give rise to the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
8. The _____ develop later from the respiratory bronchioles in the 3rd trimester. |
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Definition
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Term
9. _____ is a congenital defect when the upper end of the esophagus is blind-ending. |
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Definition
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|
Term
10. _____ is a congenital anomaly when the lower end of the esophagus is connected to the lower end of the trachea by a fistula. |
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Definition
TRACHEO-ESOPHAGEAL FISTULA |
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Term
11. The trachea begins at the lower border of the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
12. The trachea is lined by this type of tissue. |
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Definition
PSEUDOSTRATIFIED CILIATED COLUMNAR EPITHELIUM |
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|
Term
13. The trachea is held open by _____ to _____ U-Shaped rings. |
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Definition
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|
Term
14. The trachea is _____ inches long and _____ inch in diameter. |
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Definition
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Term
15. Each tracheal ring is incomplete posteriorly and linked by the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
16. The trachea ends at the _____ by bifurcating into the right and left _____. |
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Definition
STERNAL ANGLE (OF LOUIS); BRONCHI |
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Term
17. There is a V-shaped cartilage that marks the bifurcation of the trachea called the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
18. The esophagus lies _____ the trachea. |
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Definition
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Term
19. The _____ to _____ tracheal rings are crossed anteriorly by the isthmus of the thyroid gland. |
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Definition
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Term
20. The right bronchus is _____, _____ and _____ compared to the left. |
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Definition
SHORTER, WIDER, AND MORE VERTICAL |
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Term
21. Aspirated foreign bodies are more likely to go into the middle lobe of the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
22. The right main bronchus divides into _____, while the left divides into _____. |
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Definition
3 SECONDARY BRONCHI, 2 SECONDARY BRONCHI |
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Term
23. Each lobar bronchus divides within each lobe into _____. |
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Definition
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Term
24. Each segmental bronchus feeds a _____. |
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Definition
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Term
25. The segmental bronchus continues to subdivide until it reaches the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
26. The terminal bronchioles lead to the _____, which bear a number of _____. |
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Definition
RESPIRATORY BRONCHIOLES; ALVEOLAR SACS |
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Term
27. The lungs provide a surface area for _____. |
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Definition
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Term
28. The surface area of the lungs is over _____m² per lung. |
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Definition
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Term
29. 4 components that make up the structure of a lung. |
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Definition
1) APEX, 2) BASE, 3) LATERAL SURFACE, 4) MEDIAL SURFACE |
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Term
30. The right lung is _____, _____ and _____ compared to the left. |
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Definition
LARGER, WIDER, AND SHORTER |
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Term
31. The left lung is _____, _____ and _____ compared to the right. |
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Definition
SMALLER, NARROWER, AND LONGER |
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Term
32. Each lung is made up of several _____ segments, which are the functional units. |
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Definition
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Term
33. Each bronchopulmomary segment is _____ in shape, with its apex directed toward the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
34. The right lung is made up of _____ segments. |
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Definition
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Term
35. 3 segments in the upper lobe of the right lung. |
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Definition
APICAL, POSTERIOR AND ANTERIOR |
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Term
36. 2 segments that make up the middle lobe of the right lung. |
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Definition
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Term
37. 5 segments that make up the lower lobe of the right lung. |
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Definition
SUPERIOR, LATERAL, ANTERIOR, MEDIAL AND POSTERIOR BASAL |
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Term
38. The left lung may have _____ or _____ segments. |
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Definition
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Term
39. 4 segments that make up the upper lobe of the left lung. |
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Definition
APICOPOSTERIOR, ANTERIOR, SUPERIOR, AND INFERIOR LINGUAL |
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Term
40. 4 segments that make up the lower lobe of the left lung. |
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Definition
SUPERIOR, ANTERIOR, LATERAL, AND POSTERIOR BASAL |
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Term
41. _____ veins drain each segment of the lung, and they empty into either the _____ or into the _____. |
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Definition
INTER-SEGMENTAL VEINS; AZYGOS VENOUS SYSTEM OR PULMONARY VEINS |
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Term
42. Segmental arteries are derived from the _____. |
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Definition
BRONCHIAL BRANCHES OF THE AORTA |
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Term
43. In the root of the lungs the bronchus lies _____ the lung, while the veins lie _____. |
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Definition
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Term
44. The pulmonary artery lies in the _____ anterior to the _____. |
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Definition
RIGHT LUNG ROOT, BRONCHUS |
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Term
45. The left pulmonary artery lies _____ to the bronchus. |
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Definition
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Term
46. Each lung is surrounded by 2 layers of _____, which are continuous at he _____. |
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Definition
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Term
47. The _____ pleura lies against the inner aspect of the thoracic cage. |
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Definition
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Term
48. The _____ pleura directly covers the lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
49. The parietal pleura is sensitive to _____, and is supplied by _____ and _____nerves. |
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Definition
PAIN, INTERCOSTAL AND PHRENIC NERES |
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Term
50. The innervation to the visceral pleura is mainly through the _____ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
51. The _____ is a sleeve of pleura at the root of the lung that functions as an anatomical dead space allowing for expansion of the pulmonary veins. |
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Definition
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Term
52. The cervical pleura is called the _____, and it extends above the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
53. The extension of the lung into the neck is limited by the _____. |
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Definition
SUPRAPLEURAL MEMBRANE (SIBSON’S FASCIA) |
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Term
54. The suprapleural membrane (sibson’s fascia) is a fibrous structure that extends from the _____ to the _____. |
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Definition
C7 TP TO THE INNER BORDER OF THE 1ST RIB |
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Term
55. The pleura of the thoracic cavity are supplied by branches of the _____ and _____ arteries. |
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Definition
ANTERIOR AND POSTERIOR INTERCOSTAL ARTERIES |
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Term
56. The upper 6 anterior intercostal arteries are derived from the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
57. The internal thoracic artery is derived from the _____. |
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Definition
1ST PART OF THE SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY |
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Term
58. The lower 5 anterior intercostal arteries are derived from the _____. |
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Definition
MUSCULOPHRENIC BRANCH OF THE INTERNAL THORACIC ARTERY |
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Term
59. The 1st and 2nd posterior intercostal arteries are derived from the _____. |
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Definition
COSTOCERVICAL TRUNK OF THE SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY |
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Term
60. The 3rd to 11th posterior intercostal arteries are derived from the _____. |
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Definition
DESCENDING PART OF THE THORACIC AORTA |
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Term
61. The venous drainage of the anterior and posterior intercostal arteries is via the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
62. Lymphatics of the lung drain from the periphery of the lungs to these 5 sets of nodes. |
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Definition
1) PULMONARY, 2) BRONCHOPULMONARY, 3) TRACHEOBRONCHIAL, 4) PARA-TRACHEAL, 5) MEDIASTINAL LYMPHATIC TRUNKS |
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Term
63. The azygos vein lies on the _____ side of the lower 8 thoracic vertebrae. |
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Definition
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Term
64. The azygos vein receives the _____ and _____ veins. |
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Definition
2ND-11TH POSTERIOR INTERCOSTAL AND RIGHT SUBCOSTAL VEINS |
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Term
65. The azygos vein passes through the diaphragm at T12, along with the _____ and the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
66. The hemiazygos vein lies on the _____ of the lower 8 thoracic vertebrae. |
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Definition
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Term
67. The hemiazygos vein receives the _____ and the _____ veins. |
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Definition
LEFT SUBCOSTAL AND 3-4 LOWER LEFT INTERCOSTAL VEINS |
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Term
68. The _____ vein is formed by the 5th-8th left intercostal veins. |
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Definition
ACCESSORY HEMIAZYGOS VEIN |
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Term
69. The 1st and 2nd posterior intercostal veins may drain separately or together into the _____, which are found in the superior division of the mediastinum. |
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Definition
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Term
70. The _____ is a fibromuscular septum that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. |
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Definition
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Term
71. Embryologically, the diaphragm is developed from these 4 origins. |
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Definition
1) THE CENTRAL TENDON COMES FROM THE SEPTUM TRANSVSUM (3RD-5TH CERVICAL SOMITES), 2) PERIPHERAL RIM OF THE BODY WALL, 3) PLEUROPERITONEAL MEMBRANES, 4) DORSAL MESENTERY OF THE ESOPHAGUS |
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Term
72. The muscle fibers of the diaphragm originate from these 4 areas. |
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Definition
1) RIGHT CRUS FROM THE BODIES OF L1-L3, 2) LEFT CRUS FROM THE BODIES OF L1-L2, 3) THE LOWER 6 RIBS, 4) THE POSTERIOR ASPECT OF THE XYPHOID PROCESS |
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Term
73. The muscular fibers of the diaphragm are inserted into the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
74. There are 3 major openings in the diaphragm at _____, _____ and _____ respectively. |
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Definition
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Term
75. The diaphragm is innervated by the _____ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
76. The phrenic nerve is derived from these nerve roots. |
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Definition
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Term
77. The peritoneum and pleura in the center of the diaphragm is innervated by the _____ nerve. |
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Definition
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Term
78. The peritoneum and pleura in the periphery of the diaphragm are supplied by the _____. |
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Definition
LOWER 6 INTERCOSTAL NERVES |
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Term
79. The condensation of fascia over the psoas muscle is called the _____. |
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Definition
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Term
80. The _____ is the condensation of fascia over the quadratus lumborum. |
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Definition
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Term
81. The _____ connects the right and left crura, and arches over the aorta. |
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Definition
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Term
1. 3 pathologies that can affect the tracheobronchial tree. |
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Definition
1) ASTHMA, 2) BRONCHIECTASIS, 3) KARTAGENER’S SYNDROME |
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Term
2. _____ is a condition that affects the tracheobronchial tree that consists of reversible bronchospasms due to hypersensitivity of the bronchi. |
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Definition
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|
Term
3. 3 extrinsic causes of asthma. |
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Definition
1) ALLERGENS, 2) ECZEMA, 3) HAY FEVER |
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Term
4. _____ is an intrinsic cause of asthma. |
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Definition
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Term
5. When one has asthma, there is bronchial mucosa _____ and _____ of the bronchial smooth muscle. |
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Definition
INFLAMMATION, CONSTRICTION |
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Term
6. If one has asthma, _____ and _____ will be found in sputum cultures. |
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Definition
CURSCHMANN SPIRALS, AND CHARCOT-LEYDEN CRYSTALS |
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|
Term
7. 3 presentations of a patient with asthma. |
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Definition
1) SHORTNESS OF BREATH, 2) WHEEZING, 3) SYMPTOMS WORSE AT NIGHT |
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Term
8. _____ is a pathology affecting the tracheobronchial tree that causes chronic dilation of the bronchi. |
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Definition
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Term
9. Bronchiectasis is typically due to bronchial obstruction by _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
10. Bronchiectasis may be associated with _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
11. This will be the main presentation in a patient with bronchiectasis. |
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Definition
COPIOUS FOUND SMEEL MUCOPURULANT SPUTUM EARLY IN THE MORNING |
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|
Term
12. _____ is a condition affecting the tracheobronchial tree that causes immotile cilia. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
13. Patients with katagener’s syndrome present with this clinical triad. |
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Definition
1) CHRONIC SINUSITIS, 2) BRONCHIETASIS, 3) SITUS INVERSUS |
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|
Term
14. _____ is a lung pathology that consists of collapse of or incomplete expansion of the alveoli. |
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Definition
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|
Term
15. The 3 types of atelectasis are _____, _____ and _____. |
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Definition
COMPRESSION ATELECTASIS, RESORPTION ATELECTASIS, AND CONTRACTION ATELECTASIS |
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Term
16. Compression atelectasis causes collapsing of the alveoli due to external pressures such as _____ and _____. |
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Definition
PLEURAL EFFUSION AND PNEUMOTHORAX |
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|
Term
17. Resorption atelectasis causes collapse to the distal end of an obstructed broncus by either a _____ or _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
18. Contraction atelectasis causes collapse of the alveoli due to _____ and a _____. |
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Definition
INTERSTITIAL FIBROSIS, AND A LOSS OF ELASTIC RECOIL |
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|
Term
19. Contraction atelectasis is commonly seen in patients with _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
20. 3 conditions associated with COPD. |
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Definition
1) EMPHYSEMA, 2) CHRONIC BRONCHITIS, 3) PNEUMONIA |
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|
Term
21. _____ is a COPD condition that typically causes patients to thin. |
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Definition
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|
Term
22. 3 characteristics regarding emphysema. |
|
Definition
1) ALVEOLAR WALL IS DESTROYED, 2) LOSS OF ELASTIC RECOIL , 3) GOOD OXYGENATION |
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|
Term
23. This type of emphysema is smoking related and it affects the respiratory bronchioles. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
24. Centriacinar emphysema causes the patients to have a _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
25. This type of emphysema is hereditary and caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
26. Panacinar emphysema affects all _____. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
27. Panacinar emphysema leads to the destruction of _____ in the alveolar wall. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
28. _____ is a lung condition that generally causes patients to be overweight. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
29. 4 clinical presentations of a patient with chronic bronchitis. |
|
Definition
1) CHRONIC COUGH THAT LASTS LONGER THAT 3 MONTHS FOR 2 CONSECUTIVE YEARS, 2) BRONCHIAL GLAND HYPERPLASIA DUE TO INFECTION, 3) CYANOSIS, 4) RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE |
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|
Term
30. _____ is inflammation of the lung tissue. |
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Definition
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|
Term
31. In lobar pneumonia, there is inflammation of a lobe with _____ then _____ hepatization. |
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Definition
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|
Term
32. _____ is the microorganism the causes lobar pneumonia. |
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Definition
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|
Term
33. This type of pneumonia consists of patchy inflammation of both lungs, usually in the bases. |
|
Definition
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Term
34. This type of pneumonia is the only one that always affects both lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
35. 2 microorganisms that can cause interstitial pneumonia. |
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Definition
1) MYCOPLASMA, 2) CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE |
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Term
36. This type of pneumonia generally affects patients with a compromised immune system (HIV/AIDS). |
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Definition
PNEUMOCYSTIS JIROVECL PNEUMONIA (PJP) |
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Term
37. Pneumocystis jirovecl pneumonia causes a _____ appearance on chest x-rays |
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Definition
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Term
38. _____ cause pus-filled cavities in the lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
39. 2 microorganisms that typically cause lung abscesses. |
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Definition
1) STAPH AUREUS, 2) KLEBSIELLA PNEUMONIAE |
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Term
40. Lung abscesses are typically seen in patients who are _____ or _____. |
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Definition
ALCOHOLICS, OR EPIPLEPTICS |
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Term
41. _____ are occupational lung diseases caused by the inhalation of inorganic industrial particles. |
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Definition
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Term
42. _____ is a pneumoconiosis caused by coal dust in coal miners. |
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Definition
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Term
43. _____ is a pneumoconiosis caused by silica dust in quarry workers (quartz and sand). |
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Definition
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Term
44. _____ is a pneumoconiosis caused by asbestos fibers in miners. |
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Definition
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Term
45. Asbestosis increases ones chance of developing _____. |
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Definition
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Term
46. _____ is a pneumoconiosis caused by iron dust in iron miners. |
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Definition
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Term
47. _____ is pneumoconiosis with progressive pulmonary fibrosis in rheumatoid arthritis. |
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Definition
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Term
48. _____ are allergic lung reactions caused by organic dust. |
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Definition
HYPERSENSITIVITY PNEUMONITIS |
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Term
49. _____ is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by cotton dust from mill workers. |
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Definition
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Term
50. _____ is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by moldy fibrous waste (bagasse) in sugar cane workers. |
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Definition
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Term
51. _____ is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by moldy hay in farmers. |
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Definition
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Term
52. _____ is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by nitrogen dioxide in corn-filled silos. |
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Definition
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Term
53. _____ is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction with non-casseous granulomas with epithelioid macrophages. |
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Definition
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Term
54. 3 clinical presentations of a patient with sarcoidosis. |
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Definition
1) BILATERAL HAIR LYMPHADENOPATHY, 2) PULMONARY FIBROSIS-DYSPNEA, 3) DRY COUGH |
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Term
55. Sarcoidosis may affect the spleen, eyes, nerves or skin and produce these 4 conditions. |
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Definition
1) SPLENOMEGALY, 2) UVEITIS, 3) BELL’S PALSY, 4) ERYTHEMA NODUSUM |
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Term
56. _____ are red painful bumps over the shins. |
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Definition
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Term
57. Sarcoidosis will cause elevated _____ due to an increased conversion of Vitamin D in the epithelioid macrophages. |
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Definition
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Term
58. Sarcoidosis is associated with raised levels of _____ in 40-80% of patients, which is produced by the epithelioid cells in the granulomas. |
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Definition
ANGIOTENSIN CONVERTING ENZYME (ACE) |
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Term
59. Ghon focus tuberculosis is caused by _____ in the lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
60. The casseous granulomas causing ghon focus tuberculosis are _____ and _____. |
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Definition
EPITHELIOID CELLS AND LANGERHAN’S GIANT CELLS |
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Term
61. Epithelioid cells are _____. |
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Definition
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Term
62. Ghon focus tuberculosis affects with the _____ or _____ of the lung. |
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Definition
LOWER PART OF THE UPPER LOBE, OR UPPER PART OF THE LOWER LOBE |
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Term
63. Ghon complex tuberculosis consists of peripheral _____ with the involvement of _____. |
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Definition
GHON FOCUS, REGIONAL LYMPH NODES |
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Term
64. Ghon complex tuberculosis is seen in _____. |
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Definition
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Term
65. _____ are fused epithelioid cells with the nuclei arranged in a horse-shoe pattern. |
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Definition
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Term
66. _____ are commonly heard in patients who have secondary tuberculosis. |
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Definition
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Term
67. _____ is the most common lung cancer associated with cigarette smoking, mining, or living in industrial cities. |
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Definition
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Term
68. _____ cells are the most common cell type involved in bronchogenic carcinoma. |
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Definition
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Term
69. Bronchogenic carcinoma is more common in _____. |
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Definition
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Term
70. 3 presentations of a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma. |
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Definition
1) CHRONIC COUGH, 2) HEMOPTYSIS, 3) WEIGHT LOSS |
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Term
71. A patient with bronchogenic carcinoma may present with these SPHERE symptoms. |
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Definition
S- SUPERIOR VENA CAVA SYNDROME, P- PANCOAST TUMOR, H- HORNER’S SYNDROME, E- ENDOCRINE DISORDERS, R- RECURRENT LARYNGEAL DAMAGE, E- PLEURAL OR PEICARDIAL EFFUSIONS |
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Term
72. _____ causes about 25% of lung cancers and it is associated with ectopic hormone production. |
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Definition
SMALL CELL LUNG CARCINOMA |
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Term
73. Small cell lung carcinoma is also called an _____. |
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Definition
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Term
74. These 3 ectopic hormones are associated with small cell lung cancer. |
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Definition
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Term
75. _____ is a bronchogenic carcinoma in one of the lung apices. |
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Definition
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Term
76. A pancoast tumor may invade these 4 places. |
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Definition
1) ROOTS OF THE BRACHIAL PLEXUS, 2) FIRST RIB, 3) SYMPATHETIC TRUNK, 4) SUBCLAVIAN VEIN OR ARTERY |
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Term
77. A pancoast tumor may cause _____ due to damage of the sympathetic trunk in the neck. |
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Definition
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Term
78. Horners syndrome is classified by causing these 3 things. |
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Definition
1) PTOSIS, 2) ANHYDROSIS, 3) MIOSIS |
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Term
79. _____ is having air within the pleural cavity. |
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Definition
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Term
80. 3 causes of a pneumothorax. |
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Definition
1) SPONTANEOUS, 2) SECONDARY, 3) TENSION |
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Term
81. If one has a tension pneumothorax, the trapped air in the pleural space cannot escape and builds up in the space causing _____ away from the affected side. |
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Definition
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Term
82. _____ is having a pus-filled pleural cavity. |
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Definition
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Term
83. Empyemas occur secondary to _____ in the lungs. |
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Definition
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Term
84. _____ is a fluid filled pleural cavity that may be an exudate or a transudate. |
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Definition
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Term
85. Exucate pleural effusions are a result of _____. |
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Definition
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Term
86. Transudate pleural effusions are related to _____. |
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Definition
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Term
87. _____ is used to distinguish between exudate and transudate pleural effusions. |
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Definition
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Term
88. A _____ pleural effusion has more protein. |
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Definition
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Term
89. Exudate pleural effusions are seen in these 4 conditions. |
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Definition
1) PNEUMONIA, 2) TUBERCULOSIS, 3) LUNG CANCER, 4) PULMONARY EMBOLISM |
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Term
90. Transudate pleural effusions are seen in these 4 conditions. |
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Definition
1) CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE, 2) NEPHROTIC SYNDROME, 3) RENAL FAILURE, 4) LIVER FAILURE |
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Term
91. _____ is a malignant tumor if the pleura associated with a prolonged exposure to asbestos. |
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Definition
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