Term
How can you add recordable or non-recordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
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Definition
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Term
What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
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Definition
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Term
Which names are used to identify the status of your application before and after your automated test
executes? (Select two.)
A. initial condition
B. static state
C. end condition
D. down condition
E. done condition
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Definition
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Term
During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals. Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
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Definition
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Term
What are the default add-ins installed with QuickTest Professional? (Select three.)
A. .NET B. ActiveX C. HTML D. Web E. Java F. OCX G. Visual Basic |
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Definition
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Term
Which Quick Test Professional View Option will show you the repositories associated with each action?
A. Resources
B. Information
C. Script Repository
D. Active Screen
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Definition
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Term
Where can you reset the add-in manager if it does not display when you launch QuickTest Professional?
A. General Options
B. Run Options
C. Test Properties
D. Test Settings
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Definition
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Term
You set your Record and Run settings to Record, and then run a test on any open browser. Which
applications will be recorded? (Select two.)
A. Firefox
B. Safari
C. Silverlight
D. Chrome
E. Internet Explorer
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Definition
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Term
Which directory is the default directory in the QuickTest Professional file structure where the local Data
Table is located?
A. Action 0 folder
B. Local Action folder
C. Default Test folder
D. Data folder
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Definition
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Term
Which QuickTest Professional menu item should you use when emailing a QuickTest Professional test to
another tester?
A. Send Email...
B. Export Test to Zip File...
C. Save Test with Resources...
D. Export Test and Email...
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Definition
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Term
You have defined a global synchronization timeout of 30 seconds for your test. The synchronization point
timeout for a button to become enabled is set to 10000.
During playback of the script, what is the maximum amount of time QuickTest Professional will wait for the
button to become enabled?
A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 10030 seconds
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Definition
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Term
How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
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Definition
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Term
Which QuickTest Professional feature should you use to view methods and properties of objects in your
application?
A. Spy Object
B. Object Repository
C. Object Spy
D. Object Viewer
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Definition
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Term
Which object repository type is created by default?
A. shared
B. reusable
C. local
D. global
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Definition
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Term
You need to change the properties of an object in your object repository. Which repository feature enables
you to quickly access the specific item if your repository contains hundreds of objects?
A. Highlight in Application
B. Search in Repository
C. Identify in Repository
D. Locate in Repository
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Definition
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Term
Which step categories can be added using the Step Generator Tool? (Select three.)
A. run-time objects
B. default object types
C. test objects
D. utility objects
E. data objects
F. functions
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Definition
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Term
Which QuickTest Professional feature confirms that the application is functioning correctly?
A. parameterization
B. checkpoint
C. breakpoint
D. validation
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Definition
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Term
Which statement type can you use in your test to wait for a condition to be met and fail the test if it times
out before meeting the condition?
A. pause method
B. exist method
C. standard checkpoint
D. wait statement
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Definition
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Term
Which checkpoint type should you use to validate the enabled state of a button?
A. text
B. standard
C. bitmap
D. XML
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Definition
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Term
Which term is used to define a string of special characters that define the condition of the search?
A. constant expression
B. placeholder
C. regular expression
D. parameter
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Definition
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Term
You have multiple test cases that require you to test valid and invalid username and password combinations.
Which parameter type should you use?
A. Output
B. Input
C. Random Number
D. Environment
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Definition
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Term
Where is data for an Input parameter stored?
A. run-time Data Table
B. design-time Data Table
C. run-time Data Repository
D. design-time Data Repository
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Definition
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Term
User-defined environment variables can be imported from an external file. What is the valid file type that
can be imported?
A. txt
B. xml
C. csv
D. html
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Definition
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Term
After playing back a test containing output values, where can the output values be viewed?
A. global Data Table
B. local Data Table
C. design-time Data Table
D. run-time Data Table
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Definition
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Term
How can the Data Table be used in a custom checkpoint? (Select two.)
A. to store output values
B. to store input parameters
C. to use formulas
D. to access global values
E. to compare columns
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Definition
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Term
Which checkpoint type uses a query to validate expected value?
A. standard
B. table
C. database
D. text
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Definition
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Term
What is compared in a bitmap checkpoint?
A. bits
B. RGB
C. pixels
D. text
E. jpegs
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Definition
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Term
Which bitmap checkpoint feature allows the checkpoint to pass even if bitmaps are not identical?
A. bit tolerance
B. RGB tolerance
C. BW tolerance
D. image tolerance
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Definition
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Term
Which status is reported in the Test Results Summary if the test does not include checkpoints?
A. Fail
B. Passed
C. Done
D. Complete
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Definition
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Term
You ran a test scenario with 10 iterations. What does the Test Results Summary report if 8 iterations pass
and 2 iterations fail?
A. The summary reports PASS because more iterations passed than failed.
B. The summary reports the status for each iteration.
C. The summary reports DONE.
D. The summary reports FAIL because all iterations did not pass.
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Definition
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Term
A tester uses QuickTest Professional connected to Quality Center and the tests are stored in Quality Center.
At an upcoming conference, this tester wants to demonstrate a new QuickTest Professional test.
The test makes calls to reusable actions from other QuickTest Professional tests stored in Quality Center.
What is the simplest way to make the test portable so it can run disconnected from Quality Center?
A. Use the QuickTest Professional Save test with resources feature.
B. Change the calls to the reusable actions, use copies of the reusable actions, and then use the QuickTest
Professional Save test with resources feature.
C. Use the QuickTest Professional Save test with resources feature for main test and do the same for the test
that contains the called reusable actions.
D. Use the QuickTest Professional Export to zip feature.
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Definition
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Term
What happens when a tester performs an Insert > Call to Copy of Action?
A. The local Data Table and the run iterations settings (in action call properties) are copied over.
B. The steps, checkpoints, parameterizations, action parameters, and object repository are all copied over.
C. Only the called action, but none of its child actions (that is, actions called by it), is copied over.
D. The Use data stored with the original action is disabled.
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Definition
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Term
Which feature displays all the test's actions?
A. Actions tree within the Resources panel
B. Test Flow panel
C. Flow Viewer panel
D. Test Action Manager Tool
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Definition
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Term
Where are the local data sheet iterations specified?
A. Test Run Properties
B. Action Settings
C. Action Call Properties
D. Test Flow Settings
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Definition
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Term
When inserting a call to a reusable action, how are the data resources in that action handled?
A. The data continues to be stored with the original action (read-only) and the new action refers to it.
B. A copy of the data is made (editable) and stored with the new action.
C. The tester must make a one-time selection to either copy the data or refer to the original data.
D. The tester always has the option to copy the data or refer to the original data.
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Definition
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Term
Where do you go to modify a shared object repository?
A. Resources > Object Repository Manager
B. Resources > Object Repository
C. Tools > Object Repository Manager
D. Tools > Resources Manager > Object Repository
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Definition
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Term
Which QuickTest Professional tool uses the Object Repositories Merge Tool?
A. Map Repository Parameters Tool
B. Update from Local Repository Tool
C. Object Repository Comparison Tool
D. Update from Application Tool
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Definition
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Term
Which conflicts does the Objects Repositories Merge Tool detect? (Select three.)
A. same object different parent
B. same name different description
C. same description different name
D. same name extra properties
E. similar description
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Definition
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Term
Which steps are required to connect to Quality Center from QuickTest Professional? (Select three.)
A. define a project
B. connect to the server
C. authenticate user
D. create a user
E. define a domain
F. select a project
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Definition
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Term
Which feature requires a connection to Quality Center?
A. Version Control
B. Jump to Step
C. System Monitor
D. Save Test with Resources
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Definition
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Term
Identify QuickTest Professional resources. (Select three.)
A. test versions
B. actions
C. checkpoints
D. function libraries
E. images
F. recovery scenarios
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Definition
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Term
Which menu option should you use to save your test to a version controlled Quality Center project for the
first time?
A. Check-in
B. Save As
C. Save Test with Resources
D. Create Version
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Definition
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Term
Which feature can you use to teach QuickTest Professional to recognize any area of your application?
A. object identification
B. object wizard
C. virtual objects
D. virtual identification
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Definition
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Term
Click the Exhibit button.
You are creating a recovery scenario to handle the pop-up shown in the exhibit. Which recovery option
should you select?
A. Keyboard or mouse operation
B. Close application process
C. Function call
D. Restart Microsoft Windows
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Definition
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Term
How can you pause and interact with the playback of a test?
A. Add a wait statement.
B. Add a breakpoint.
C. Add a delay.
D. Add a stop point
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Definition
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Term
Which tab in the Debug Viewer pane allows you to view or change variables or properties?
A. Watch
B. Variables
C. Command
D. View
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Definition
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Term
Which Settings tab enables QuickTest Professional to measure the resources being used by the application?
A. Resources
B. Environment
C. Local System Monitor
D. Run
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Definition
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Term
How can you use monitors to cause the test to fail?
A. Add a monitor checkpoint.
B. Add custom code to evaluate monitor data.
C. Define a counter scale.
D. Define a monitor limit.
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Definition
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Term
What can you do using the To Do pane? (Select two.) A. Assign tasks to others. B. Mark a task as In progress. C. View TODO comments existing in the current test recovery scenarios. D. Export TODO comments to comma-separated values or XML format. E. View TODO comments existing in the current test checkpoints. |
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Definition
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Term
Where is the System Monitor tab located?
A. in the right pane of the Test Results window
B. in the Information pane
C. in the Resources pane
D. in the right pane of the System window
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Definition
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Term
What happens when you import data from an external Excel file into the QuickTest Professional Data Table?
A. Row data is overwritten when column headers in Excel and the Data Table match.
B. A new column is added to the Data Table when column headers in Excel and the Data Table match.
C. All the sheets in the Excel file are imported.
D. Excel listboxes are expanded and one row is added to the Data Table per value in the list.
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Definition
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Term
Which statement should you use to export all sheets in the Data Table?
A. DataTable.Export ("C:\flights.xls")
B. DataTable.ExportSheet ("C\flights.xls.", ALL)
C. DataTable.ExportAllSheets ("C:\flights.xls")
D. DataTable.Export ("C:\flights.xls" , ALL)
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Definition
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Term
Which statement will retrieve the test object's properties during the test run?
A. iCount = WebRadioGroup("seat").GetROProperty("Items Count")
B. WebRadioGroup("seat).CheckProperty("Items Count")
C. oDesc = WebTable("Firstname").GetTOProperties
D. propsList = WebTable("FirstName").ChildObjects(oDesc)
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Definition
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Term
Which method retrieves a property of a runtime object?
A. GetROProperty
B. GetTOProperty
C. GetRuntimeProperty
D. GetRTProperty
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Definition
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Term
What is the correct syntax for a programmatic description?
A. WebEdit("Name:=Author" , Index:=3)
B. WebEdit("Name:=Author" , "Index:=3")
C. WebEdit("Name:=Author";"Index=3")
D. WebEdit("Name:=Author";"Index:=3)
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Definition
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Term
Why would a tester use the Description object in the Expert View of a test?
A. to programmatically modify a test object's definition directly in the object repository
B. to bypass the object repository when identifying an object at runtime
C. to data-drive logical names and make the test more generic
D. to make it easier to retrieve child objects using the ChildObjects method
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Definition
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Term
Which language is used for Expert View?
A. TSL
B. VB
C. VBScript
D. Python
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Definition
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Term
What does the dot indicate in VBScript? (Select two.)
A. property
B. child object
C. statement
D. function
E. method
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Definition
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Term
When is it best to use a programmatic description?
A. when you work with properties and methods of an object not in the object repository
B. when you are retrieving a property from a static run-time object
C. when you are retrieving a property from a test object
D. when you need to click static buttons
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Definition
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Term
Which operator do you use to concatenate two strings in VBScript?
A. &
B. &&
C. concat
D. ++
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Definition
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Term
Which DataTable method makes an external spreadsheet available to QuickTest Professional?
A. GetSheet
B. OpenSheet
C. ImportSheet
D. ExportSheet
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Definition
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