Term
|
Definition
Fatal viral encephalitis caused by a rhabdovirus |
|
|
Term
What is the path of infection of rabies? |
|
Definition
Virus shed in saliva; inoculation occurs via bite -> to CNS -> then back out to salivary gland |
|
|
Term
Is rabies primarily a disease of animals or humans? |
|
Definition
Primarily a disease of animals
Human cases reflect animal rabies distribution and the degree of human-animal contact |
|
|
Term
What animal is rabies mainly seen in in developing countries? |
|
Definition
Dogs represent >90% of all animal rabies |
|
|
Term
What are the primary reservoirs of rabies in North America & Europe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the annual human death toll caused by rabies? |
|
Definition
Estimated to be btwn 40,000 and 70,000 - although the true incidence is believed to be much higher. |
|
|
Term
What is the average of rabid animals per year in Missouri, and in what animals? |
|
Definition
MO has averaged almost 50 rabid animals per year over the past 10 yrs, primarily involving bats and skunks, but also including domestic species such as cats, dogs, cattle, horses, and one goat |
|
|
Term
What are some animals that have been known to be rabies positive? |
|
Definition
Wolf, coyote, bobcat, ringtail, cougar, deer, otter, opposum, fishers, mongoose, groundhog, squirrel, muskrat, rabbit, beaver, bat, raccoons, skunks, foxes, dogs, cats, horses, mules, goats, sheep, ferret |
|
|
Term
About how many estimated bites occur each year in the US and how many approximately will seek medical care for those bites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: Merial is partnering with public health officials to fight rabies in wildlife populations by providing a unique, highly specialized and safe oral rabies vaccine called RABORAL V-RG. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two significant wildlife carriers of rabies in North America is RABORAL V-RG approved for immunization in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period of rabies and how does it progress? |
|
Definition
1. Typically 30-90 days (extremes are 5 days to > 2 yrs)
2. Virus initially bind to/multiplies in myocytes --> eventually enters sensory or motor axons; moves towards CNS by axoplasmic flow |
|
|
Term
What are some prodrome (aka vague symptoms before specific symptoms) of rabies? |
|
Definition
1. Fever, chills, malaise
2. Generally vague respiratory, GI, or neurologic symptoms
3. Paresthesia at or near bite site |
|
|
Term
What is the most common form of rabies infection and what do you see? |
|
Definition
1. The furious form (~80%) of the neurologic stage
2. hallucinations, agitation; thrashing, biting, running; hydrophobia/aerophobia; fluctuating mental status |
|
|
Term
What is the less common form of rabies and what do you see? |
|
Definition
1. Paralytic form
2. weakness, flaccid paralysis sometimes starting in the bitten extremity; paraplegia, quadriplegia; ascending paralysis |
|
|
Term
What do you see in either form of the neurologic stage of rabies? |
|
Definition
Fever, nuchal rigidity, muscle fasciculation, convulsions |
|
|
Term
What does the progression of the neurologic stage of rabies lead to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the best treatment option of exposed individuals? |
|
Definition
The slow development of rabies makes vaccination the best treatment option |
|
|
Term
What are the two post-exposure rabies vaccines? |
|
Definition
1. Human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV); Imovax Sanofi Pasteur Inc.
2. RabAvert rabies vaccine, also known as Purified Chick Embryo Cell vaccine (PCECV) from Chiron Corporation |
|
|
Term
What is the rabies pre-exposure vaccination protocol? |
|
Definition
Primary series: Vaccines x 3 IM injection into the deltoid
Periodic serology recommended to determine when booster is required
Does not eliminate the need for post-exposure prophylaxis after a recognized exposure |
|
|
Term
What is the Rabies Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (RPEP) for persons NOT previously vaccinated? |
|
Definition
Immediate cleansing of wound w/soap & water
1. Human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) on day 0
20 IU per kg, infiltrated at wound site to extent possible
give any remaining HRIG IM at site distal from vaccination site
2. Vaccine (HDCV, PCEC, or RVA) x 4 (previously 5)
1 ml into deltoid, days 0,3,7, and 14 (day 28 dose eliminated) |
|
|
Term
What is the Rabies Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (RPEP) for persons previously vaccinated? |
|
Definition
Immediate cleansing of wound w/soap & water
1. Vaccine x 2: 1 ml into deltoid, days 0 and 3
2. Do not use HRIG |
|
|
Term
What is required to say you've had an exposure? |
|
Definition
1. Presence of infective virus
typically in saliva, but also neural tissue, CSF
contact w/blood, urine, feces does not constitue an exposure per CDC
rabies virus is considered non-infectious in dried material
2. The potentially infectious material must come in contact w/an open wound, scratch, abrasion, or mucosal surface |
|
|
Term
What are the types of exposures of rabies? |
|
Definition
1. BITE
2. NON-BITE (rare)
potentially infective material in contact w/mucous membrane or break in the skin - consider fomites, scratches
tissue transplants
ingestion
bat "exposures" warrant special consideration |
|
|
Term
True/False: Rabies can be transmitted via organ transplant of infected people. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: Almost 50% of the cases of rabies in the US from 1990-2000 were due to an unknown exposure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
It is thought that unknown exposures of rabies are due to bat exposures. What is the rationale behind this? |
|
Definition
That the vast majority of bat variant-associated human cases had no definite history of a bite (bite/scratch likely went unnoticed)
Recommended that rabies postexposure prophylaxis should be considered when the person has been in close physical proximity to a bat and the person cannot exclude the possibility of a bite or scratch, unless bat is negative upon lab testing (this does not include being in the same room as a bat in a competent awake adult) |
|
|
Term
What viruses fall under the heading of viral hemorrhagic fever? |
|
Definition
Ebola, Marburg, Lassa fever, Dengue fever, etc. |
|
|
Term
True/False: VHF are not naturally occurring diseases.
|
|
Definition
FALSE! They are naturally occuring |
|
|
Term
How do humans get VHF and what does it cause? |
|
Definition
Transmitted to humans by infected animals or arthropod vectors
Produce microvascular damage |
|
|
Term
True/False: VHF viruses could be potential bioterrorism agents. |
|
Definition
TRUE! - aerosolization route potential is also there |
|
|
Term
What is the typical incubation period of VHF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: Clinical features of VHF don't depend on the virus. |
|
Definition
FALSE! - they do depend on the virus |
|
|
Term
What is the initial presentation of VHF? |
|
Definition
Nonspecific prodrome (fever, myalgias, headache, abdominal pain, prostration)
Exam may show only flushing of face and chest, conjunctival injection, and petechiae
Disease progresses to shock and generalized mucous membrane hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
How did Marburg Disease originate? |
|
Definition
From Vervet monkeys!
A filamentous virus was isolated from them - the first member of the genus Filovirus |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is Ebola? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When and where was Ebola discovered? |
|
Definition
Was discovered in 1976 and named after the Ebola River in Zaire as it emerged in the Sudan and Zaire |
|
|
Term
True/False: Filoviruses are ancient and integrated into mammalian genomes. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What animals have we detected integrated filovirus-like elements in? |
|
Definition
The genomes of bats, rodents, shrews, tenrecs and marsupials |
|
|
Term
True/False: Mammal-filovirus association has not resulted in candidates for functional gene products. |
|
Definition
FALSE!! - has resulted in candidates for functional gene products |
|
|
Term
What is known about the mammalian filovirus-like elements? |
|
Definition
They are homologous to a fragment of the filovirus genome whose expression is known to interfere w/the assembly of Ebola Virus |
|
|
Term
What are some synonyms for Macacine Herpes Virus 1? |
|
Definition
Cercopithecine Herpes Virus 1
B Virus
Herpes B
Monkey B virus
Herpes simiae
CHV-1
Simian B disease |
|
|
Term
What is unique about Macacine Herpes Virus 1? |
|
Definition
It is the only nonhuman primate herpesvirus clearly able to cause disease in humans |
|
|
Term
Where did the name herpes B come from? |
|
Definition
Derived from the initials of the first human case of Macacine Herpes Virus 1
A 29 yr-old lab worker ("W.B.") who developed fatal meningoencephalitis and transvere myelitis following a bite on the hand from a seemingly healthy rhesus monkey |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of Macacine Herpes Virus 1? |
|
Definition
Alpha herpesvirus
dsDNA
Enveloped
Icosahedral capsid |
|
|
Term
What is the natural reservoir of Macacine Herpesvirus 1? |
|
Definition
Members of the genus Macaca (> 16 species) are natural hosts of the virus; almost all of these species are found in Asia
Infection is particularly enzootic in the rhesus (Macaca mulatta) and cynomolgus (Macaca fascicularis) |
|
|
Term
True/False: Both wild and captive macaque populations generally exhibit high rates of infection with Macacine herpes virus 1, but most individuals express few or no symptoms. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the prevalence of herpes B virus-induced antibodies in captive populations, wild and semi-free-ranging populations of Japanese, long-tailed, and rhesus macaques? |
|
Definition
Captive - variable but up to 100%
Wild and semi-free-ranging - higher than 70% |
|
|
Term
Is the likelihood of infection of Macacine herpes virus 1 increased or decreased with age? |
|
Definition
Dramatically increased w/age
Horizontal rather than vertical transmission |
|
|
Term
What are the ways that Macacine Herpes virus 1 is transmitted in macaques? |
|
Definition
1. Macaques transmit MHV-1 to each other thru oral, ocular, or genital contact of mucous membranes or lesioned skin
2. Can be shed asymptomatically, including thru bodily fluids (semen, mother's milk, saliva, perhaps even in aerosol form). Animal stools also could conceivably transmit the B virus
3. For captive macaques, transmission often may occur during routine colony management protocols involving tube sharing, common instrumentation, or contaminated gloves
4. Animals most frequently become infected as juveniles at the onset of sexual activity; however, younger animals can become infected thru contact w/another virus-shedding animal (ex. mother grooming an infant) |
|
|
Term
Are most infected macaques symptomatic or asymptomatic? |
|
Definition
ASYMPTOMATIC! = but this doesn't mean they are not shedding virus!! |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms/clinical signs of Macacine herpes virus 1? |
|
Definition
They are very similar to those symptoms caused by herpes simplex virus in humans
Most obvious manifestation is fluid-filled vesicles on the back of the tongue, lips, and elsewhere in the mouth; occasionally, the vesicles appear on the skin
When the vesicles rupture, they often give rise to ulcers and fibronecrotic scabs, which may lead to secondary bacterial and fungal infections. Scabs typically heal w/in 7-14 days |
|
|
Term
What is a frequent symptom of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Conjunctivitis of varying severity |
|
|
Term
Is systemic illness associated w/MHV-1 in macaques? |
|
Definition
In rare instances.
Will see ulcerative lesions in the mouth, esophagus, and stomach, necrosis of the liver, spleen, and adrenal glands |
|
|
Term
What is the mode of transmission of MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
The virus occurs in monkeys as a latent infection and is reactivated spontaneously, resulting in shedding of virus in saliva; during periods of stress or diminished immuno-competence, higher rates of virus shedding occur
Transmission to humans occurs after a monkey bite or by direct or indirect contact/exposure of naked skin (broken or mucous membranes) to infected saliva, tissues, tissue fluid or monkey cell cultures, or by splashes or droplets of infected fluids to the eyes |
|
|
Term
Is is easy to conclusively determine the path of transmission of MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
No because most human cases of MHV-1 infection involve individuals who work with monkeys on a regular basis and, thus, have many potential means of exposure |
|
|
Term
What are some suspected transmission modes of MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
Monkey bites, monkey scratches, cage scratches, direct contamination of a preexisting wound w/macaque saliva; respiratory exposure to aerosol macaque saliva, cuts sustained from culture bottles containing macaque kidney cells, needle-stick injuries following needle use in macaques, and cleaning a rhesus macaque skull w/o gloves |
|
|
Term
Has there been human-to-human tranmission of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
There has been one apparent case of this: a woman with dermatitis on her finger
She touched her husband's herpetiform lesion which resulted from a monkey bite (I read this and immediately went dirty-minded ;-) guess I need to get my mind outta the gutter) |
|
|
Term
What is the frequency of MHV-1 in humans? When have the cases occurred and why? |
|
Definition
1. Since 1932 - 31 documented infections of which 21 were fatal
2. Cases occurred in 1950's and 1960's due to use of rhesus macaques in production and testing of poliomyelitis vaccines. Also several cases since late 1980s coinciding w/an increased use of macaques in retroviral research |
|
|
Term
Why are there an absence of reports from countries where macaques are prevalent and commonly interact w/humans? |
|
Definition
1. Limited availability of MHV-1 diagnostic facilities (i.e. actual cases not identified)
2. Some other factors responsible (e.g. different animal-handling procedures) |
|
|
Term
Why is it thought that there are relatively few documented cases of B virus infection in humans given the many potential transmission methods and the abundance of macaques in contact w/people? |
|
Definition
Most likely explanation is that, although most macaques test positive for herpes B virus antibodies, only a small percentage (i.e. 2-3%) shed the virus at any given time |
|
|
Term
What is the progression of MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
Causes an acute, usually fatal, ascending encephalomyelitis. Involvement of the respiratory center and death 1 to 3 weeks after onset of symptoms |
|
|
Term
What is the case fatality rate of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Approximately 70%, a rate similar to untreated Herpes Simplex Virus encephalitis.
Occasional recoveries have considerable residual disability |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
2-30 days w/progression of symptoms over 7-10 days |
|
|
Term
What are the early symptoms of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
They are variably present
1. Pain or pruritus at exposure site
2. Vesicles or ulcers at or near the exposure site
3. Local lymphadenopathy |
|
|
Term
What are the intermediate symptoms of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
They are also variably present
1. Fever
2. Malaise
3. Diffuse myalgias
4. Headache
5. Numbness or paresthesia at or near exposure site
6. Nausea and/or abdominal pain
7. Persistent hiccups |
|
|
Term
What are the late manifestations of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
1. Persistent headache
2. Alteration of mentation
3. Focal neurological complaints |
|
|
Term
True/False: Progression of signs and symptoms may not be modified by early antiviral therapy. |
|
Definition
FALSE!! - May be modified by early antiviral therapy |
|
|
Term
True/False: Asymptomatic human infection is rare, if not nonexistent. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some differentials for MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Rabies, Herpes simplex encephalitis, Arthropod-associated meningoencephalitis |
|
|
Term
What is the most common way to diagnose MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
Serologic evaluation of the exposed patient
If frozen serum from the last 6 months is not available, acquire, freeze, and store a serum sample.
Obtain a follow-up serum sample approximately 3 wks after exposure or after the onset of illness (as close to 3 wks as possible) to test w/the initial specimen for herpes B virus seroconversion |
|
|
Term
What is another way to test for diagnosis of MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must be considered if you are trying to do a veterinary evaluation of monkeys? |
|
Definition
The importance of evaluating the primate should be weighed against the potential of further injuries if the monkey must be recaptured w/o anesthesia. |
|
|
Term
When is asymptomatic shedding of herpes B more likely to occur? |
|
Definition
During breeding season or times of stress |
|
|
Term
What should be done after the monkey is anesthetized? |
|
Definition
The monkey should be examined for oral lesions, genital lesions, or conjunctivitis. |
|
|
Term
What can serial serologies of monkeys tell us about a MHV-1 infection? |
|
Definition
A rise suggests primary infection and a higher risk of viral shedding. Stable serologies do not predict shedding, which may occur only 2-3% of the time. |
|
|
Term
What is vital to the treatment of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Prompt attention to a potential exposure to minimize the risk of the disease due to the high morbidity and mortality rates. |
|
|
Term
What is recommended with wound decontamination? |
|
Definition
Cleansing of the exposed area w/in minutes of the episode is the only means of preventing a contaminated wound from progressing to actual infection. The B virus is likely to enter host cells w/in 5 minutes.
At least 15 minutes of scrubbing and/or irrigating the exposed area is recommended. Sterile saline or rapidly flowing water is used for the eye, and decontaminants (e.g. soap solution, povidone-iodine, chlorhexidine) can be used at other sites. |
|
|
Term
When is Antiviral therapy (Valacyclovir, Acyclovir) recommended in treatment of humans with MHV-1? |
|
Definition
1. Skin or mucosal exposure to high-risk source
2. Inadequately cleaned skin or mucosal exposure
3. Laceration of head, neck, or torso
4. Deep puncture bite
5. Needlestick associated w/high-risk tissue/fluid
5. Positive post-cleaning culture |
|
|
Term
When is antiviral therapy not recommended for treatment of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
1. Skin exposure in which the sking remains intact
2. Exposure associated w/non-macaque species |
|
|
Term
Is surgical care considered an effective treatment of MHV-1 in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is suggested with surgical care of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Some experts suggest surgical excision of needle-track sites under local anesthesia to reduce exposure and increase contact w/detergent.
Surgery is usually not justified unless it can be done w/in minutes |
|
|
Term
What is a risk of surgical care in treatment of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Procedure may further traumatize the site and increase the risk of secondary infection and/or poor wound healing. |
|
|
Term
True/False: ALL macaques should be considered Herpes B positive and handled accordingly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can be done to help prevent the spread of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Proper methods of restraint (chemical and physical) and protective clothing (long-sleeved garments, face shield mask and goggles, double gloves, etc.) to help prevent bites and scratches since conjunctiva is a well known methog of infection |
|
|
Term
What are the federal regulations regarding macaques? |
|
Definition
Since October 10, 1975; nonhuman primates have been prohibited for importation as pets, and neither nonhuman primates imported since that date nor their offspring may be legally bred or distributed for any other uses than bona fide science, university-level educational programs, or full-times zoologic exhibition.
The maintainence of nonhuman primates as pets, hobby, or an avocation w/occasional display to otherss is not a permissible use.
Captive-bred offspring of animals purported to have been imported before October 10, 1975 are frequently offered for sale. |
|
|
Term
What guidelines were published in 1987 and 1988? |
|
Definition
Occupational safetly guidelines were published based on evidence that all macaques species are inherently dangerous to humans b/c of the risk for B virus transmission, as well as the likelihood of serious physical injury from bite wounds. |
|
|
Term
What did the AVMA do in 1990 regarding the risk of MHV-1? |
|
Definition
Issued a general policy statement opposing the keeping of wild animals (especially those inherently dangerous to humans) as pets and advising veterinarians to exert their influence to discourage this practice. |
|
|
Term
When were updated guidelines for the prevention and treatment of B virus infections in exposed persons published? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are nonhuman primates (including macaques) still marketed and kept as pets in many states? |
|
Definition
YES, despite all the public health educational efforts |
|
|
Term
What may constitute an emerging infectious disease threat in the US? |
|
Definition
The pet trade in a variety of nonhuman primate species, and particularly the apparent increase in macaque species as part of this trade. |
|
|
Term
What helps to illustrate the difficulties of ascertaining B virus negative status? |
|
Definition
Ongoing efforts to establish B virus free macaque colonies, even with a battery of sophisticated laboratory tests and extended longitudinal follow-up of individual macaques. |
|
|
Term
What underscores the potential seriousness of all bite or scratch exposures from macaques? |
|
Definition
The high percentage of death in known cases of human B virus disease |
|
|
Term
What characteristics make the macaque species unsuitable as pets? |
|
Definition
The extremely high prevalence of B virus along with their behavioral characteristics |
|
|
Term
Is it possible to have a B virus infection resulting from an ocular exposure to macaque secretion? |
|
Definition
Yes, but there has only been one documented case. |
|
|
Term
What is lymphocytic choriomeningitis (LCM)? |
|
Definition
A rodent-borne disease that presents as aseptic meningitis (inflammation of the meninges and spinal cord), encephalitis (inflammation of the brain), or meningoencephalitis (inflammation of both the brain and meninges) |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of LCM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many of the 15 arenaviruses known to infect animals are zoonotic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the zoonotic arenaviruses and what disease do they cause? |
|
Definition
1. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus - Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
2. Lassa virus - Lassa fever
3. Junin virus - Argentine hemorrhagic fever
4. Machupo virus - Bolivian hemorrhagic fever
5. Guanarito virus - Venezuelan hemorrhagic fever
6. Sabia - Brazilian hemorrhagic fever |
|
|
Term
What is the primary host of LCMV and where is the virus found? |
|
Definition
Host - common house mouse, Mus musculus
Found in the saliva, urine, and feces of infected mice. Infected mice carry and shed it for the duration of their lives w/o showing any sign of illness
|
|
|
Term
About what percentage of mice throughout the US carry LCMV? |
|
Definition
About 5% but may vary by geographic location |
|
|
Term
What are some other animals that could become infected w/LCM? |
|
Definition
Other types of rodents, such as hamsters and guinea pigs, are not the natural reservoirs but can become infected w/LCMV from wild mice. Swine, dogs, and nonhuman primates are also susceptible |
|
|
Term
How are humans likely to contract LCMV? |
|
Definition
From house mice but infections from pet rodents have also been reported |
|
|
Term
Commercial laboratory rodents used in research are LCMV ____. However, numerous tumor and cell lines used in research are ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the route of infection of LCM? |
|
Definition
Individuals become infected w/LCMV after exposure to fresh urine, droppings, saliva, or nesting materials.
Transmission can also occur when these materials are directly introduced into broken skin, the nose, the eyes, or the mouth, or presumably, via the bite of an infected rodent |
|
|
Term
Is person-to-person transmission of LCMV possible? |
|
Definition
Has not been reported with the exception of transmission from infected mother to fetus |
|
|
Term
What happens when a LCMV infected organ is used for transplantation? |
|
Definition
The recipients get LCM - 3 of 4 patients that this happened in died |
|
|
Term
Where have LCM and milder LCMV infections been reported? |
|
Definition
In Europe, the Americas, Australia, and Japan
May occur wherever infected rodent hosts of the virus are found |
|
|
Term
True/False: LCM has historically been underreported, often making it difficult to determine incidence rates or estimates of prevalence by geographic region. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the prevalence of LCMV infection among humans? |
|
Definition
Ranges from 2-5% based on several serologic studies conducted in urban areas |
|
|
Term
What do about 70% of human LCMV infections clinically present as? |
|
Definition
Asymptomatic or so mild that they cannot be distinguished from common respiratory or GI illnesses |
|
|
Term
If an infected person becomes ill with LCM when to symptoms usually begin? |
|
Definition
Onset of symptoms usually occurs 8-13 days after being exposed to the virus |
|
|
Term
What follows onset of symptoms of LCM? |
|
Definition
A characteristic biphasic febrile illness then follows.
The intial phase, which may last as long as a week, typically begins w/any or all of the following symptoms: fever, malaise, lack of appetite, muscle aches, headache, nausea, and vomiting.
Following a few days of recovery, the second phase of the disease occurs, consistenting of symptoms of meningitis (for example: fever, headache, and a stiff neck) or characteristics of encephalitis (for example: drowsiness, confusion, sensory disturbances, and/or motor abnormalities, such as paralysis) |
|
|
Term
True/False: Most patients who develop aseptic meningitis or encephalitis due to LCMV do not recover. |
|
Definition
FALSE!! - recover completely |
|
|
Term
Is there chronic infection of LCMV in humans? |
|
Definition
No. After the acute phase of illness, the virus is cleared |
|
|
Term
What type of neurological damage is possible with LCMV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What happens during infection of LCM in a pregnant woman? |
|
Definition
Infection of the human fetus during the early states of pregnancy may lead to congenital hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, and mental retardation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
NO, in general mortality is less than 1% |
|
|
Term
True/False: There is a vaccine for LCM. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can you do to prevent LCM? |
|
Definition
1. Avoid contact w/house mice and their excretions
2. Although rare, pet rodents may become infected w/LCMV from wild rodents. Pet rodents should not come into contact w/wild rodents
3. If you have a pet rodent, wash your hands w/soap and water after handling rodents or their cages and bedding |
|
|
Term
What type of arenavirus is Lassa? |
|
Definition
novel Old World arenavirus; distinct from other arenaviruses |
|
|
Term
What is the number of Lassa virus infections per year in West Africa? |
|
Definition
Estimated at 100,000 to 300,000 with ~ 5,000 deaths |
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir, or host, of Lassa virus? |
|
Definition
Rodent known as the "multimammate rat" of the genus Mastomys |
|
|
Term
When do signs and symptoms of Lassa fever typically occur? |
|
Definition
Typically 1-3 weeks after the patient comes into contact w/the virus |
|
|
Term
True/False: Signs and symptoms of Lassa fever are mild to inapparent in 80% of patients. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of Lassa fever? |
|
Definition
Fever, retrosternal pain, sore throat, back pain, cough, abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhea, conjunctivitis, facial swelling, proteinuria, and mucosal bleeding.
Neurological problems have also been described, including hearing loss, tremors, and encephalitis |
|
|
Term
What are some common complications of Lassa Fever? |
|
Definition
1. Deafness (~33% of cases)
2. Increased maternal mortality in third trimester (>30%)
3. Spontaneous abortion |
|
|
Term
What is type of virus is ORF? |
|
Definition
Parapox virus - a large dsDNA enveloped virus |
|
|
Term
What are some synonyms of ORF? |
|
Definition
1. Contagious ecthyma
2. Infectious pustular dermatitis
3. Contagious pustular dermatitis
4. Sheep-pox
5. Lip scab of sheep
6. Sore mouth disease
7. Scabby mouth disease |
|
|
Term
What causes disease in ORF? |
|
Definition
Infection w/the ORF virus |
|
|
Term
What animals are affected with ORF? |
|
Definition
Widespread in sheep and goats, also found in llamas, alpacas, camels, and reindeer
Affects all breeds of sheep. Young animals are generally more suceptible than adults |
|
|
Term
What is the characteristic lesion of ORF? |
|
Definition
Characterized by the formation of vesicles, pustules, and thick scabs on the lips, nostrils, face, eyelids, teats, udder, feet, and occasionally, inside the mouth |
|
|
Term
What is the length of the incubation period of ORF? |
|
Definition
Scabs usually appear about 3-14 days after exposure to the virus
Scabs last 1-6 weeks |
|
|
Term
What does ORF cause in feeder lambs? |
|
Definition
Reduced gain and feed efficiency
Most serious when nursing animals contract the disease
Affected lambs/kids refuse to nurse and may die from starvation |
|
|
Term
Can ORF be transmitted to the mother? |
|
Definition
Yes may be transmitted to the teats and udder of the mother, causing pain and abdonment of the lamb or kid.
Mastitis may also result |
|
|
Term
Does ORF clear up on its own? |
|
Definition
Yes, usually clears up on its own unless the animal is severely affected |
|
|
Term
How can ORF infect other animals? |
|
Definition
Virus can survive for very long periods in scabs from infected animals that drop into the bedding and environment. This may serve as a source of infection for other animals (and humans) many months later.
The disease is commonly introduced into a flock/herd by replacement or breeding animals and by contact w/bedding material, trucks, and vehicles contamined by ORF virus. |
|
|
Term
How is ORF transmittted to humans? |
|
Definition
Transmitted by direct contact inoculation. Humans acquire the infection from contact w/infected animals, carcasses, or contaminated, non-living material |
|
|
Term
True/False: Transmission to cattle occurs in ORF, and human-to-human transmission occurs. |
|
Definition
FALSE!!
No transmission occurs to cattle, and no human-to-human transmission occurs |
|
|
Term
Among what human population is ORF common? |
|
Definition
Shepherds, veterinarians, and farmer's wives who bottle-feed young lambs, as well as in butchers who handle infected carcasses. |
|
|
Term
True/False: A higher frequency of ORF reports have occurred from Europe and New Zealand compared w/North America, but this is of unknown significance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical presentation of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Appears as a solitary lesion or as a few lesions, usually on the fingers, hands, or forearms
The fully developed lesion is typically 2-3 cm in diameter, but it may reach 5-10 cm. It is often tender and may bleed easily.
May have regional lymphadenopathy
May have mild fever and malaise |
|
|
Term
How long does ORF last in humans? |
|
Definition
Lasts anywhere from 3-6 wks |
|
|
Term
How many stages are there in clinical disease of ORF in humans and how long does each last? |
|
Definition
6 stages
Each can last up to a week |
|
|
Term
What is stage 1 of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Maculopapular - a red elevated lesion |
|
|
Term
What is stage 2 of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Targetoid - a bulla with an irislike configuration (nodule w/a red center, a white middle ring, and a red periphery) |
|
|
Term
What is stage 3 of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is stage 4 of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Regenerative - a firm nodule covered by a thin crust through which black dots are seen |
|
|
Term
What is stage 5 of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Papillomatous - small papillomas appearing over the surface |
|
|
Term
What is stage 6 of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Regressive - a thick crust covering the resolving elevation |
|
|
Term
What is the diagnosis of ORF? |
|
Definition
1. PCR can definitively identify a parapoxvirus as orf virus
2. Serologic tests and electron microscopy cannot distinguish orf virus from other parapoxviruses such as paravaccinia (pseudocowpox) virus |
|
|
Term
What is the most common danger with rupture of Orf in humans? |
|
Definition
Could get a secondary infection |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of ORF? |
|
Definition
1. A self-limiting disease
2. Symptomatic treatment w/moist dressings, local antiseptics, and finger immobilization is helpful
3. Secondary bacterial infection should be treated w/topical or systemic antibiotics |
|
|
Term
What is the natural course of ORF in humans? |
|
Definition
Spontaneous recovery in 3-6 weeks |
|
|
Term
What can be a problem in immunocompromised patients with ORF? |
|
Definition
Can have progressive, destructive lesions requiring medical interventions such as antiviral therapy and surgical debridement. Reports exist of immunosuppressed individuals w/large, fungating lesions that have been refractory to treatment |
|
|
Term
What is the best way to prevent ORF in animals? |
|
Definition
Best preventative measure in animals is vaccination every 6-8 months. Veterinary vaccines for ORF virus use non-attenuated, live virus preparations. |
|
|
Term
True/False: Vaccinated animals don't pose an increased risk to humans. |
|
Definition
FALSE!! They do pose an increased risk to humans |
|
|
Term
Control of sore mouth in sheep should include what? |
|
Definition
Thorough cleaning followed by disinfection of areas and equipment in contact w/infected sheep. Most common disinfectants work well and specific ones such as iodophores have been recommended. |
|
|
Term
True/False: Once an animal is infected w/ORF, it should be put in isolation. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: Humans infected w/ORF need to be isolated. |
|
Definition
FALSE! - b/c no human-to-human transmission occurs |
|
|
Term
What is the normal preventative measure for people regarding ORF? |
|
Definition
People handling infected animals or the vaccine should wear rubber or plastic gloves to prevent the virus from entering through small cuts or abrasions |
|
|
Term
What is the normal preventative measure for immunocompromised people regarding ORF? |
|
Definition
Patients who are immunosuppressed or persons w/compromised skin barriers (e.g. trauma, skin disease) must avoid contact w/infected animals b/c they have an increased susceptibility for contracting the infection |
|
|
Term
What is the main differences between H1N1 flu and the regular seasonal flu? |
|
Definition
Average seasonal flu actually kills more per year than the H1N1 pandemic did in 2009
The age group affected in the average seasonal flu is > 65 while the age group affected with H1N1 is those < 65 |
|
|
Term
What are the signs and symptoms of the seasonal flu? |
|
Definition
1. Fever
2. Cough
3. Sore throat
4. Runny or stuffy nose
5. Body aches
6. Headache
7. Chills
8. Fatigue
9. Vomiting
10. Diarrhea |
|
|
Term
What family virus is the influenza virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three main types of influenza and who do they preferentially infect? |
|
Definition
Type A - infects multiple species
Type B - humans
Type C - humans and swine |
|
|
Term
How is a influenza virus names? |
|
Definition
Virus type/Type of nuclear protein - Geographic origin - strain number - year of isolation ; virus subtype (hemagglutinin and neuraminidase)
Ex: A/USSR/90/77 (H1N1) |
|
|
Term
What are the proteins and RNA's of Influenza A virus and what do they do? |
|
Definition
PB1, PB2, PA - replication
NS2 (NEP)
M2 (ion channel) - penetration
Lipid bilayer
HA (hemagglutinin) - attachment, penetration
NA (neuraminidase) - release
M1 (matrix protein) - assembly
NP (nucleocapsid) - RNA transport, replication |
|
|
Term
What are the multiple host species of Influenza A? |
|
Definition
Humans
Avian influenza
H1N1 pandemic strain |
|
|
Term
True/False: Influenza A is the most virulent group. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Influenza A is classified by surface antigens into subtypes. What are they? |
|
Definition
Hemagglutinin (H or HA)
Neuraminidase (N or NA) |
|
|
Term
What is the host species for Influenza B? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Influenza B common or uncommon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is Influenza B less or more severe than Influenza A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do epidemics of Influenza B occur more or less often than Influenza A? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the human seasonal vaccine for the flu what three strains are in it? |
|
Definition
Two strains of type A
One strain of type B |
|
|
Term
What are the host species of Influenza C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: Influenza C has a different pattern of surface proteins in comparison to A or B. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
No it is rare - mild to no symptoms |
|
|
Term
By what age do most people have antibodies against Influenza C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which Influenza viruses are subtyped based on surface proteins? |
|
Definition
Types A and B
Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase |
|
|
Term
What are the current circulating human subtypes of influenza? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What animals are reservoirs for all HA and NA subtypes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species can become infected w/Influenza A or B viruses? |
|
Definition
Humans, swine, ferrets, dogs, horses, whales
H5 and H7 subtypes include viruses that are highly pathogenic for poultry |
|
|
Term
What is the function for hemagglutinin (HA) in influenza viruses? |
|
Definition
Sites for attachment to infect host cells |
|
|
Term
What is the function of Neuraminidase (NA)? |
|
Definition
Remove neuraminic acid from mucin and release from cell |
|
|
Term
True/False: Determinants of virulence and host range is affected by multiple amino acid positions in multiple genes. |
|
Definition
TRUE!!
Virulence: HA, NA, M, PB1, PB2
Host range: HA, NA, M, PB2 |
|
|
Term
What is necessary for full virulence of influenza virus? |
|
Definition
1. Severity of disease
2. How easily transmitted person-to-person |
|
|
Term
True/False: It is easy to predict how "hot" a strain will be. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Gradual alteration of the influenza surface proteins (mainly HA) w/in a subtype results in the inability of antibody raised against previous strains to neutralize new viruses |
|
|
Term
What does antigenic drift result from? |
|
Definition
Point mutations in the HA and NA genes |
|
|
Term
True/False: The composition of the influenza vaccine has to be updated annually as a consequence of antigenic drift. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Emergence of new human subtypes of influenza A virus containing a new hemagglutinin. |
|
|
Term
Is antigenic shift rare or common? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are two ways to get antigenic shift? |
|
Definition
1. Genetic mixing of human and animal viruses (ex: swine and birds co-infected >1 virus - viruses emerge w/different combinations of RNAs)
2. Direct transmission from animal viruses
|
|
|
Term
Why does antigenic shift possibly result in pandemics of type A virus? |
|
Definition
1. Little or no immunity in population
2. Easily transmitted among human population
3. Higher proportion of deaths in younger adults |
|
|
Term
What was the nastiest influenza A virus of this century? |
|
Definition
"Spanish" influenza of 1918 |
|
|
Term
Where did the Spanish influenza actually originate and why was it called the Spanish influenza pandemic? |
|
Definition
1. Camp Fundsten (a.k.a. Fort Reilly - outside of Fulton, Kansas)
2. Called it Spanish b/c didn't want it to be associated w/the US and we were still pissed at the Spanish for their civil war |
|
|
Term
What rare side effect was seen with the mass vaccination campaign of the swine influenza of 1977? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often are we supposed to have a flu pandemic? |
|
Definition
Supposed to happen once a generation - about every 50 years |
|
|
Term
Why was the 1918 Spanish Influenza so horrible? |
|
Definition
It killed 3-6% of the world population
It infected 1/4 of world population
Came at the end of WWI |
|
|
Term
What three Influenza A pandemics were due to a H1N1 virus? |
|
Definition
Spanish Influenza (1918)
Swine Influenza (1977)
Swine (H1N1) Influenza (2009) |
|
|
Term
True/False: Influenza-associated mortality is about equal among totals for pandemics and interpandemic years. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What was the Novel Influenza A (H1N1)? |
|
Definition
A new flu virus of swine origin that first caused illness in Mexico and the US in March and April 2009 |
|
|
Term
When was the first novel H1N1 patient in the US confirmed and when did all 50 states in the US, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the US Virgin Islands? |
|
Definition
1. April 15, 2009
2. June 19, 2009 |
|
|
Term
Is H1N1 virus contagious and lethal? |
|
Definition
Highly contagious
Not highly lethal |
|
|
Term
Was the H1N1 vaccine included in the seasonal vaccine formulation since it came out in 2009? |
|
Definition
No, only last year (2010) and this year (2011) |
|
|
Term
How is pathogenicity defined in avian influenza? |
|
Definition
On the basis of severity of disease in poultry |
|
|
Term
What are the two pathogenic avian influenzas? |
|
Definition
1. Low pathogenic AI (LPAI) - H1 to H15 subtypes
2. Highly pathogenic AI (HPAI) - some H5 or H7 subtypes |
|
|
Term
Can LPAI H5 or H7 subtypes mutate into HPAI? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are current human influenza vaccines efficacious against avian influenza virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What birds carry avian flu w/o symptoms and which birds develop disease? |
|
Definition
Geese and ducks can carry the virus w/o having symptoms
If chickens and turkeys are allowed to commingle w/wild geese and ducks, they can get the virus and develop disease
Migratory birds can carry the virus long distances |
|
|
Term
Was Avian Influenza previously considered non-pathogenic for humans but now isn't? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are human cases of avian influenza associated with? |
|
Definition
Outbreaks in area farms and live bird markets.
Swine are potentially a mixing vessel
There are some examples of human-human transmission |
|
|
Term
What is the public health significance of avian influenza? |
|
Definition
Risk is low
Strains vary in ability to infect humans
High occupational exposure may increase risk |
|
|
Term
What is the causative agent of toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
Toxoplasma gondii
An obligate intracellular protozoan parasite
|
|
|
Term
What is the only known definite host of T. gondii? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are intermediate hosts of T. gondii? |
|
Definition
Fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, mammals including humans |
|
|
Term
How do you get infection of T. gondii? |
|
Definition
By ingesting either sporulated oocysts or tissue cysts |
|
|
Term
What is considered to be the third leading cause of death attributed to foodborne illness in the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
More than 60 million men, women, and children in the US carry the Toxoplasma parasite but very few have symptoms. Why? |
|
Definition
Because the immune system usually keeps the parasite from causing illness |
|
|
Term
What is considered a Neglected Infection of Poverty and why? |
|
Definition
Toxoplasmosis b/c it's associated w/impoverished people |
|
|
Term
What are three routes of infections of T. gondii for cats? |
|
Definition
1. Congenita
2. Ingestion of sporulated oocysts from feces
3. Ingestion of infected intermediate hosts |
|
|
Term
What is the course of infection of toxoplasmosis following tissue cyst ingestion? |
|
Definition
Prepatent period approximately 3 days
Naive cats will shed oocysts for 7-10 days |
|
|
Term
What is the course of infection of toxoplasmosis following oocyst ingestion? |
|
Definition
Prepatent period > 20 days
Oocyst shedding for several weeks
(Oocysts shedding in chronically infected cats can be induced w/extremely high doses of glucocorticoids) |
|
|
Term
When are T. gondii oocysts infective? |
|
Definition
Oocysts in fresh feces are not infective! Oocysts must sporulate, a process that takes 1-5 days, depending upon environmental conditions
Infection from direct contact w/oocyst-shedding cats is extremely unlikely due to grooming behavior of cats. Cats would remove oocysts before they had time to sporulate. |
|
|
Term
How are humans infected w/T. gondii? |
|
Definition
Most common is either via geophagia while working w/soil or by drinking contaminated water.
Eating undercooked meat (pork) or improperly washed fruits and vegetables
Infrequently cleaned, poorly sanitized litter boxes |
|
|
Term
What are postnatal infections of T. gondii usually like? |
|
Definition
Usually asymptomatic. May have generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, and myalgia that resolve w/o treatment |
|
|
Term
Who is at risk w/T. gondii infection? |
|
Definition
At risk are fetuses of pregnant women who do not have immunity and immunocompromised individuals |
|
|
Term
What do you see in congenital infection of T. gondii? |
|
Definition
1. Ocular infections/blindness
2. Hepato and splenomegaly
3. Hydrocephalus
4. Jaundice
5. Mental retardation
6. Cerebral palsy
7. Seizures
8. Miscarriages/stillbirth |
|
|
Term
What are the statistics regarding congenital toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
In the US, 2-6 per 1,000 pregnant women acquire toxoplasmosis
In the US, 1 baby in 10,000 births will have congenital toxoplasmosis
In France, 1 baby in 1,000 births will have congenital toxoplasmosis |
|
|
Term
What plays an important role in the pathogenicity of toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is serologic diagnosis easy in toxoplasmosis in the immunocompromised host? |
|
Definition
No, difficult due to lack of immunological response |
|
|
Term
What can patients who are immunocompromised often develop w/T. gondii infections? |
|
Definition
Life-threatening pneumonitis, myocarditis, encephalitis, and an atypical, sight-threatening, severe necrotizing chorioretinitis |
|
|
Term
What are elderly patients who acquire toxoplasmosis at risk for developing? |
|
Definition
A severe chorioretinitis, presumably secondary to the waning of cellular immune function that occurs w/aging |
|
|
Term
What are some ways to prevent toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
Avoid feeding cats undercooked meats
Do not allow cats to hunt
Clean litter box daily; flush feces or discard in a sealed bag
Wear gloves when working w/soil
Keep children's sandboxes covered
Wash all raw fruits and vegetables
Avoid eating undercooked meats (lamb, pork) - microwaving may not kill cysts |
|
|
Term
If you have an adult cat that is T. gondii seropositive and is negative for oocysts on fecal exam what should you tell the client? |
|
Definition
That it is unlikely that the cat will shed oocysts in the future. However, there is no way to tell WHEN it had shed oocysts in the past |
|
|
Term
If you have a cat who is T. gondii seronegative what should you tell the client?
|
|
Definition
It is likely that the cat would shed oocysts if it became infected w/T. gondii and appropriate preventative measures should be taken |
|
|
Term
Is there currently a way to determine if an owner contacted toxoplasmosis from contact w/individual cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Is there a vaccine for T. gondii for cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What organisms are seen with Cutaneous Larval Migrans (CLM)? |
|
Definition
"Creeping eruption"
Ancylostoma caninum
Ancylostoma braziliense
Uncinaria stenocephala - Northern hookworm of dogs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Infective hookworm larvae acquired from soil that has been contaminated w/feces from infected dogs or cats. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
More prevalent in countries w/warm climates
Affects more children than adults
In the US, Southeastern states have the highest rates of infection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When human skin comes into contact w/infested soil, larvae burrow into the skin, causing intense inflammatory response.
Larvae may migrate from a few millimeters to a few centimeters a day |
|
|
Term
What are the CLM symptoms? |
|
Definition
Raised, snakelike tracks in the skin that may migrate over time
Itching at the site of penetration of the larvae and along the migratory path - may be worse at night
Occasional blister formation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Physical exam; rarely need biopsy |
|
|
Term
What is prescribed for CLM? |
|
Definition
Topical or oral thiabendazole, albendazole, ivermectin |
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis of CLM? |
|
Definition
Usually self-limiting over weeks or months; treatment speeds clearing of infection |
|
|
Term
What is an atypical infection of CLM? |
|
Definition
Human eosinophilic enterocolitis - rare
Occurs when hookworm larvae migrate systemically to GI tract, causing acute abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, and diarrhea
Ulceration of terminal ileum and colon w/eosinophilic inflammatory response
NOT preceded by CLM lesions |
|
|
Term
What can you do to prevent CLM? |
|
Definition
EDUCATE CLIENTS
Public sanitation - clean up after pets
Deworm all puppies and kittens; check fecals annually on adults
Prescribe heartworm preventative that also control hookworm infection
Wear shoes in endemic areas |
|
|
Term
What organisms are seen w/Visceral larval migrans (VLM) and Ocular larval migrans (OLM)? |
|
Definition
Toxocara canis
Toxocara cati
Baylisascaris procyonis
Ascaris suum (not common)
|
|
|
Term
True/False: Almost 14% of the US population is infected w/Toxocara, a parasite of dogs and cats that can be passed from animals to humans |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the natural host of Toxocara canis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the percentage of puppies < 3 months old infected w/Toxocara canis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: Female worms (Toxocara canis) produce huge numbers of eggs which are resistant to desiccation and can persist in the environment for years. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What must Toxocara canis eggs do to be infective? |
|
Definition
Must embryonate - this process takes 3-4 weeks or longer, depending on environmental conditions |
|
|
Term
What are humans in VLM and OLM? |
|
Definition
Dead-end hosts - larvae cannot complete their life cycle
However, they can persist in tissue, resulting in an immune-mediated inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
What are clinical signs of VLM and OLM dependent on? |
|
Definition
Upon the tissue location of the larvae and the extent of the inflammatory response |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of VLM? |
|
Definition
Nausea
Fever
Myalgia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Edema
Urticaria (hives)
Epilepsy (toddlers)
Eosinophilia and leukocytosis
Death is rare |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of OLM? |
|
Definition
Leukocoria (white mass in the pupillary region)
Loss of vision in affected eye
Eye pain
Strabismus (crossed eyes)
Unnecessary enucleation - mistaken for retinoblastoma |
|
|
Term
What age children are more prone to VLM and OLM? |
|
Definition
VLM - most common in children 1-4 yrs old but can occur at any age
OLM - more common in school-age children |
|
|
Term
What is a possible way to get VLM? |
|
Definition
Infection from pica (eating dirt) |
|
|
Term
What can you do to prevent VLM and OLM? |
|
Definition
EDUCATE CLIENTS
Deworm dogs and cats
Promptly dispose of animal waste
Minimize exposure of children to areas that may be contaminated w/animal feces
Wash hands after handling soil |
|
|
Term
What larval migrans infection is the big bad one? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Baylisascaris procyonis? |
|
Definition
Roundworm of raccoons
Life cycle can be direct or can involve a paratenic host |
|
|
Term
What must Baylisascaris eggs do to be infective? |
|
Definition
Must embryonate to larval stage (takes 3-4 wks) |
|
|
Term
True/False: Baylisascaris does not persist in the environment. |
|
Definition
FALSE - there are usually huge numbers of eggs shed - persist in the environment for years |
|
|
Term
What are humans to Baylisascaris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is affected by Baylisascaris larva migrans? |
|
Definition
Young children playing in dirt contaminated by raccoon feces ingest embryonated eggs |
|
|
Term
What happens when you ingest Baylisascaris embryonated eggs? |
|
Definition
Larvae hatch --> penetrate the gut wall --> migrate to liver, heart, lungs, eyes, or brain --> results in visceral, ocular, or cerebrospinal larva migrans |
|
|
Term
Why is Baylisascaris larval migrans a more severe disease than Toxocara? |
|
Definition
B/c the Baylisascaris larvae continue to grow as they migrate and do not readily die |
|
|
Term
What does severity of disease of Baylisascaris larva migrans depend on? |
|
Definition
Number of larvae ingested and tissue distribution |
|
|
Term
What happens if sufficient larve of Baylisascaris is ingested? |
|
Definition
Progressive CNS disease can occur in 2-4 wks and can result in death |
|
|
Term
Are Baylisascaris-infected raccoons sick? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are two preventative measures of Baylisascaris larval migrans? |
|
Definition
1. Minimize contact w/raccoons - educate clients about dangers of having raccoons as pets, raccoons are scavengers so prevent access to trash or other food sources outside
2. Use appropriate care when removing raccoon feces - extremely resistant to disinfectants, including bleach; flaming may be the only effective method; use protective equipment to prevent inhalation |
|
|
Term
What are raccoon latrines? |
|
Definition
Certain areas where raccoons prefer to relieve themselves.
Generally on horizontal surfaces, such as downed logs, tree crotches, flat stones, or barn lofts.
Since each defecation can contain millions of eggs, latrines are focal points for infection.
Even after the raccoon manure has rotted away, the eggs may remain - in moist soil, they stay alive for several years |
|
|
Term
How many raccoons in the Midwest are infected w/Bayliscaris? |
|
Definition
Btwn 70-82% w/the highest prevalence in the fall |
|
|
Term
How many species of animals has Bayliscaris larvae been found in? |
|
Definition
75 species of animals - including dogs, foxes, kangaroos, 26 types of rodent, and 23 kinds of birds |
|
|
Term
What is Dipylidium caninum? |
|
Definition
Most common tapeworm of dogs and cats in the US |
|
|
Term
What is the intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Dipylidium caninum diagnosed in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
By finding egg packets in feces or proglottids (rice) around the perineum |
|
|
Term
What is the principle definitive host for Dipylidium caninum? |
|
Definition
The dog, although other species can be affected |
|
|
Term
What is the life cycle of Dipylidium caninum once it is in the animal? |
|
Definition
The adult tapeworms reside in the small intestine of the host, where they attach to the intestinal mucosa by their scolex.
They produce proglottids which have two genital pores. This is helpful for identification as not all tapeworms have two genital pores.
The proglottids mature, become gravid (they're knocked up), detach from the tapeworm, and migrate to the anus or are passed in the stool
The proglottids contain egg packets which they release into the environment |
|
|
Term
What happens when Dipylidium caninum is released into the environment? |
|
Definition
The eggs are then ingested by the intermediate host, a flea.
An onchosphere develops in the flea and is released into its intestine
The oncosphere penetrates the intestinal wall, invades the insect's body cavity, and develops into a cysticercoid.
The flea containing a cysticercoid is infective to the definitive host and if ingested by the vertebrate host can complete its life cycle.
In the small intestine of the vertebrate host the cysticercoid develops into the adult tapeworm which reaches maturity about 1 month after infection. |
|
|
Term
What is unique about humans with the zoonotic cestode infection of Dipylidium caninum? |
|
Definition
They are a definitive host rather than an intermediate or dead-end host |
|
|
Term
What is diagnosis and treatment of dipylidium caninum in humans based on? |
|
Definition
Diagnosis - based on finding proglottids
Treatment - same as for dogs and cats - praziquantel (brand name Biltricide [Droncit]) |
|
|
Term
How can you prevent Dipylidium caninum? |
|
Definition
Control fleas on pet and in environment
Educate clients to look for tapeworm segments; treat promptly when found
Poop patrol |
|
|
Term
What organism is responsible for Hydatid disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus? |
|
Definition
Canids - wolves, coyotes, dogs |
|
|
Term
What can serve as intermediate hosts of Echinococcus granulosus? |
|
Definition
Most mammals, including cattle, sheep, pigs, and humans |
|
|
Term
What is the path of infection of Echinococcus granulosus? |
|
Definition
Gravid proglottids are passed in the feces from canids --> mammals ingest --> eggs hatch to hexacanth embryos which develop into oncospheres --> oncospheres penetrate gut wall, migrate to tissue (lung, liver) and develop into hydatid cysts (bladder worms) |
|
|
Term
True/False: Echinococcus granulosus eggs are immediately infectious. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the two distinct biotypes of hydatid disease found in North America and where are they found? |
|
Definition
1. Northern - found in tundra; slyvatic form that parasitized wolves, bison, and cervids (moose, elk, deer, caribou)
2. Southern European - pastoral or domestic form; found in domestic ungulates and dogs; may involve wild canids and other carnivores, wild ungulates, and rarely lagomorphs |
|
|
Term
How many different strains of E. granulosus are found worldwide and what and where are they? |
|
Definition
9 different strains
Horse and dog cycle (Europe)
Camel and dog cycle (Iran)
Swine and dog (Poland)
Reindeer and dog (Alaska, Scandinavia) |
|
|
Term
What other organism can cause hydatid disease and where is it found? |
|
Definition
1. Echinococcus multilocularis
2. In North America, predominately in north central region from eastern Montana to central Ohio. Also Alaska and Canada |
|
|
Term
What are the definitive and intermediate hosts of E. multilocularis? |
|
Definition
Definitive = foxes***, dogs, cats, coyotes, wolves. Prevalence up to 50% in some regions
Intermediate = rodents |
|
|
Term
How do humans get hydatid disease? |
|
Definition
Ingestion of food items contaminated w/feces from definitive hosts. Could include vegetables, berries, etc.
Petting or handling dogs or cats either infected w/the Echinococcus tapeworm or that may have rolled in the feces of an animal that is infected |
|
|
Term
What do you see with hydatid disease in humans? |
|
Definition
Each oncosphere develops into a cyst in the target organ which is most often liver but can be lungs, brain, skeletal muscle, or eye.
Cysts are thick-walled, fluid-filled and 2-30 cm in diameter
Take 1-2 yrs to develop |
|
|
Term
What is the incidence of hydatid disease in humans in rural areas of affected regions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do the symptoms of hydatid disease in humans depend on? |
|
Definition
Size and location of the cyst |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of hydatid disease in humans based on location? |
|
Definition
Liver cysts - obstructive jaundice
Peribronchial cysts - pulmonary abscesses
Renal cysts - renal dysfunction; death
Brain cysts - epilepsy; death
Cyst rupture - anaphylaxis |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose hydatid disease in humans? |
|
Definition
Clinical symptoms suggestive of slow growing tumor plus eosinophilia
Serology (ELISA) to detect antibodies to cyst fluid or protoscolices
Intradermal (Casoni) test w/cyst fluid (not as reliable as serology)
Radiographs
Autopsy |
|
|
Term
What is considered positive for the Casoni test for hydatid disease in humans? |
|
Definition
A wheal response occurring at the injection site w/in 20 minutes |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment for hydatid disease in humans? |
|
Definition
Surgical removal of cysts
Albendazole to kill any remaining larvae
Not always cured by surgery |
|
|
Term
What can be done for control/prevention of hydatid disease? |
|
Definition
Not feasible in wild canids
Domestic canids and cats - regular worming; do not feed carcasses to dogs or cats; rodent control
NO VACCINE AVAILABLE for domestic canids and cats
EG95 vaccine in livestock - kills oncosphere early in infection
Destroy contaminated material by heat; chemical disinfection is not reliable |
|
|
Term
What are the causal agents of Hymenolepiasis? |
|
Definition
(first off - this contains the word hymen...what does this disease do???)
Hymenolepiasis is caused by two cestode species Rodentolepis nana (the dwarf tapeworm, adults measuring 15-40 mm in length) and Hymenolepis diminuta (rat tapeworm, adults measuring 20-60 cm in length)
Both tapeworms can be found in mice |
|
|
Term
How is Hymenolepiasis transmitted? |
|
Definition
Rodentolepis nana and Hymenolepis diminuta can be transmitted by an indirect mode w/cockroaches, grain beetles, or fleas as intermediate hosts. Rodentolepis nana can also be transmitted by direct ingestion of hexacanth ova or by autoinfection in which the entire life cycle occurs in the host's small intestine (complete life cycle in 14-16 days)
***R. nana has both a direct and indirect life cycle |
|
|
Term
True/False: Eggs of Rodentolepis nana need to embryonate to be infective. |
|
Definition
FALSE!!
They are immediately infective when passed w/the stool and cannot survive more than 10 days in the external environment |
|
|
Term
What is the path of infection of R. nana eggs? |
|
Definition
When eggs are ingested by an arthropod intermediate host (various species of beetles and fleas may serve as intermediate hosts), they develop into cysticercoids, which can infect humans or rodents upon ingestion and develop into adults in the small intestine
When eggs are ingested (in contaminated food or water or from hands contaminated w/feces) the oncospheres contained in the eggs are released.
The oncospheres (hexacanth larvae) penetrate the intestinal villus and develop into cysticercoid larvae
After rupture of the villus, the cysticercoids return to the intestinal lumen, evaginate their scolices, attach to the intestinal mucosa and develop into adults that reside in the ileal portion of the small intestine, producing gravid proglottids. Eggs are passed in the stool when released from proglottids through the genital atrium or when proglottids disintegrate in the small intestine.
An alternate mode of infection consists of internal autoinfection, where the eggs release their hexacanth embryo, which penetrates the villus continuing the infective cycle w/o passage thru the external environment.
The life span of adult worms is 4-6 wks but internal autoinfection allows the infection to persist for years |
|
|
Term
What is the life cycle of the Hymenolepis diminuta? |
|
Definition
Eggs are passed out in the feces of the infected definitive host (rodents, man).
The mature eggs are ingested by an intermediate host (various arthropod adults or larvae), and oncospheres are released from the eggs and penetrate the intestinal wall of the host, which develop into cysticercoid larvae.
The cysticercoid larvae persist through the arthropod's morphogenesis to adulthood.
H. diminuta infection is acquired by the mammalian host after ingestion of an intermediate host carrying the cysticercoid larvae. Humans can be accidentally infected thru the ingestion of insects in precooked cereals, or other food items, and directly from the environment (e.g. oral exploration of the environment by children)
After ingestion, the tissue of the infected arthropod is digested releasing the cysticercoid larvae in the stomach and small intestine.
Eversion of the scolices occurs shortly after the cysticercoid larvae are relased. Using the four suckers on the scolex, the parasite attaches to the small intestine wall.
Maturation of the parasites occurs w/in 20 days and the adult worms can reach an average of 30 cm in length. Eggs are released in the small intestine from gravid proglottids that disintegrate after breaking off from the adult worms. The eggs are expelled to the environment in the mammalian host's feces. |
|
|
Term
How do you diagnose hymenolepiasis in humans? |
|
Definition
Visualization of proglottids
Recovery of hexacanth ova in feces |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of hymenolepiasis in humans? |
|
Definition
Most ppl who are infected don't have any symptoms
Those who have symptoms may experience nausea, weakness, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
Young children, esp. those w/a heavy infection, may develop a headache, itchy perineum, or have difficulty sleeping.
Sometimes infection is misdiagnosed as a pinworm infection |
|
|
Term
What is the severity of hymenolepiasis in humans? |
|
Definition
Infection w/dward tapeworm is generally not serious.
However, prolonged infection can lead to more severe symptoms so medical attention is needed to eliminate the tapeworm |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of hymenolepiasis in humans? |
|
Definition
Praziquantel (Biltricid) orally causes the tapeworm to dissolve w/in the intestines. This medication is generally well tolerated. Sometimes more than one treatment is necessary. |
|
|
Term
What is a detriment to hymenolepiasis prevention? |
|
Definition
Eggs are infectious which means they can re-infect you or infect other immediately after being shed in feces |
|
|
Term
What are some ways to prevent hymenolepiasis? |
|
Definition
Vermin control: rodents and intermediate hosts (cockroaches)
Wash hands w/soap and water after using the toilet, and before handling food
When traveling in areas where food is likely to be contaminated, wash, peel, or cook all raw vegetables and fruits w/safe water before eating |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A highly contagious fungal infection of keratinized tissue (skin, hair, and claws). Affects humans and many domestic animals. |
|
|
Term
What are the most important causative agents? |
|
Definition
Microsporum canis, Microsporum gypseum
Trichophyton mentagrophytes, T. verrucosum, T. equinum
Epidermophyton (Tinea: humans only)
|
|
|
Term
What are the three habitations of dermatophyte species? |
|
Definition
A few are soil inhabitants (geophilic) e.g Microsporum gypseum, and cause disease in animals that are exposed while digging or rooting.
Other species are host-adapted to humans (anthropophilic) e.g. Tinea rubrum and Epidermophyton, and infect other animals rarely
The most important animal pathogens (zoophilic) worldwide are M. canis, M. gypseum, T. mentagrophytes, T. equinum, T. verrucosum and M. nanum |
|
|
Term
What are the zoonotic dermatophytosis species? |
|
Definition
M. canis, M. gypseum, T. mentagrophytes, T. equinum, t. verrucosum, M. nanum
M. canis infections of domestic cats and T. verrucosum of cattle and lambs especially
|
|
|
Term
How are zoophilic species of dermatophytosis transmitted to humans? |
|
Definition
Primarily by contact w/infected individuals and contaminated fomites such as furniture, grooming tools, or tack. Broken hairs w/associated spores are important sources for spread of the disease |
|
|
Term
True/False: Dermatophytosis infection in long-haired (Persian) cats can be persistent, asymptomatic, and widespread. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
List the species of animal and most common cause of dermatophytosis in those species. |
|
Definition
Cat - Microsporum canis (majority of zoonotic ringworm infections caused by this and contracted from cats)
Dog - M. canis
Horse - T. equinum & T. mentagrophytes
Cattle - T. verrucosum
Swine - M. nanum
Sheep - T. verrucosum
Rabbits, rodents - T. mentagrophytes |
|
|
Term
Does contact w/a dermatophye always result in infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does dermatophytosis infection depend on? |
|
Definition
The fungal species
Host factors - such as age, immunocompetence, condition of exposed skin surfaces, host grooming behavior, nutritional status |
|
|
Term
What types of immunity does dermatophytosis infection elicit? |
|
Definition
Specific immunity, both humoral and cellular, that confers incomplete and short-lived resistance to subsequent infection or disease |
|
|
Term
Where do dermatophytes grow under most circumstances? |
|
Definition
Only in keratinized tissue and advancing infection stops on reaching living cells or inflamed tissue.
As inflammation and host immunity develop, further spread of infection is inhibited, although this process may take several weeks |
|
|
Term
What is the length of infection in healthy adults and in young or debilitated animals? |
|
Definition
Healthy adults - dermatophytes infections are self-limiting
Young/Debilitated animals - infection may be persistent and widespread (also see this in long-haired breeds of domestic cats) |
|
|
Term
What does dermatophytosis look like? |
|
Definition
May have a classic "ringworm" appearance
May mimic many other skin diseases |
|
|
Term
How can you diagnose dermatophytosis? |
|
Definition
1. Fungal culture: most accurate - Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)
2. Wood's lamp: screening examination for M. canis infections in cats and dogs. Only 80% of M. canis infections fluoresce. False-positive examinations may occur
3. Direct microscopic examination of hair or skin scale |
|
|
Term
What should you do when presented w/a patient with skin or hair lesions indicative of dermatophytosis? |
|
Definition
ALWAYS ask the client if anyone else in the household has pruritus or lesions similar to those on the pet. Do NOT diagnose or suggest treatment for anyone other than the patient.
Not all ringworm in humans in zoonotic!! |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A ubiquitous mycosis characterized by nodular lesions of the cutaneous or subcutaneous tissues and adjacent lymphatics that usually suppurate and ulcerate. |
|
|
Term
What is a secondary problem with sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
Secondary spread to the articular surface and bone or dissemination to the CNS, genitourinary tract or lungs |
|
|
Term
What are all forms of sporotrichosis caused by? |
|
Definition
A single species - Sporothrix schenkii |
|
|
Term
What are the two ways for humans to get sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
In the great majority of cases the fungus gains entrance into the body thru trauma to the skin w/some kind of plant materials such as thorns or splinters.
Zoonotic transmission is also possible |
|
|
Term
What animals are implicated in sporotrichosis zoonotic transmission? |
|
Definition
Horses, cats, dogs, pigs, and birds |
|
|
Term
When was the first report of human sporotrichosis transmitted by cats published? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the only difference in clinical picture of human sporotrichosis transmitted by cats vs. classical induced by wood splinters? |
|
Definition
Lymphangitic forms are more frequent |
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
The first symptom is usually a small painless bump resembling an insect bite. It can be red, pink, or purple in color.
The bump (nodule) usually appears on the finger, hand, or arm where the fungus first enters thru a break on the skin.
This is followed by one or more additional bumps or nodules which open and may resemble boils.
Eventually lesions look like open sores (ulcerations) and are very slow to heal. |
|
|
Term
Where are the majority of sporotrichosis infections located? |
|
Definition
Limited to the skin.
Cases of joint, lung, and CNS infection have occurred but are very rare. Usually they occur only in persons w/previous disorders of the immune system |
|
|
Term
What is the treatment of sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
Potassium iodide and itraconazole are both effective |
|
|
Term
Who is more likely to get zoonotic transmission of sporotrichosis? |
|
Definition
More frequent as an occupational hazard for veterinarians and veterinary assistant personnel, including students, but clinicians should be aware of transmission from household pet cats to family members. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Transmissible spongioform encephalopathies (TSE)
Rare brain diseases affecting mammals
Causes vacuoles in brain tissue (spongioform encephalitis)
Infectious agent is a protein (no RNA or DNA) |
|
|
Term
What is the molecular biology of prions? |
|
Definition
Prions are normal cellular proteins that misfold, resulting in aggregates that damage brain tissue
Prions replicate by acting as "pathological chaperones" |
|
|
Term
How can prion diseases be transmitted? |
|
Definition
In an infectious, genetic, or spontaneous manner |
|
|
Term
What are the TSEs seen today? |
|
Definition
Mad Cow, vCJD (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease), CWD |
|
|
Term
What prion diseases are seen in mammals and in what mammals are they seen? |
|
Definition
Scrapie - sheep
TME (transmissible mink encephalopathy) - mink
CWD (chronic wasting disease) - deer, elk
BSE (bovine spongiform encephalopathy) - cattle |
|
|
Term
What prion diseases are seen in humans? |
|
Definition
CJD - Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease
vCJD - variant CJ disease (caused by BSE)
FFI - Fatal familial Insomnia
Kuru
Alpers Syndrome
GSS - Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome |
|
|
Term
Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1997 for his discovery of Prions - a new biological principle of infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is PrP and its two forms? |
|
Definition
PrP = "Proteinacous Particle" - the name given to this infectious protein
PrPC - normal cellular form of the protein
PrPSc - form protein found in Scrapie diseased sheep |
|
|
Term
What is the normal function of PrP protein in humans? |
|
Definition
Cell surface glycoprotein involved in signaling or adhesion
PrP contains a high affinity binding site for copper ions - may be involved in copper transport/metabolism; conserved in many species (from humans to yeast) |
|
|
Term
Is PrP an essential protein? |
|
Definition
No! PrP-negative Holstein cattle have been created at NADC in Ames, IA and thus far appear normal (> 20 months) |
|
|
Term
What is prion "replication"? |
|
Definition
When an abnormal prion protein is introduced into neural tissue, it interacts w/normal "cellular" prion proteins and causes them to misfold into the abnormal conformation. Thus a single misfolded protein can result in the appearance of millions of copies of the abnormal protein.
The abnormal protein is less soluble and more resistant to enzymatic degredation than the normal protein |
|
|
Term
What are the three ways that prion diseases arise? |
|
Definition
1. Through horizontal transmission from e.g. a sheep to a cow (BSE)
2. In inherited forms, mutations in the prion gene are transmitted from parent to child
3. The can arise spontaneously |
|
|
Term
What happens when you have horizontal transmission of a prion? |
|
Definition
When cows are fed offals prepared from infected sheep, prions are taken up from the GI tract and transported along nerve fibers to the brain stem. Here prions accumulate and convert normal prion proteins to the disease-causing form, PrPSc. Years later, BSE results when a sufficient degree of neurological damage has occurred. |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of mad cow and other prion disease? |
|
Definition
Loss of motor control
Dementia
Paralysis
Wasting
Pneumonia
Death |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of prion diseases? |
|
Definition
Long Incubation Period
Extended Preclinical Period
Progressive Neurologic Dysfunction
Fatal
No Treatment
No Vaccine |
|
|
Term
What are the relative tissue infectivities? |
|
Definition
High infectivitiy - brain, spinal cord, eye
Medium infectivity - lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, placenta, CSF
Low infectivity - bone marrow, liver, lung, pancreas, nasal mucosa
No detectable infectivity - milk, saliva, bone, hair, skin, urine
Uncertain - blood, muscle |
|
|
Term
What have prion shedding routes been shown to be modified by? |
|
Definition
By inflammation in excretory organs, such as the kidney |
|
|
Term
What happens to scrapie infected sheep w/lentiviral mastitis? |
|
Definition
They secrete prions into the milk and infect nearly 90% of naive suckling lambs.
Thus, lentiviruses may enhance prion transmission, conceivably sustaining prion infections in flocks for generations.
The study also indicates a risk of prion spread to sheep and potentially other animals thru dietary exposure to pooled sheep milk or milk products. |
|
|
Term
What are the treatments and effectiveness of prion disinfection? |
|
Definition
Autoclaving - reduces, does not eliminate
Boiling - reduces, does not eliminate
Phenol - effective
NaOH - effective
50% Bleach - effective |
|
|
Term
How can you detect the prion? |
|
Definition
1. Assay must distinguish abnormal (PrPSc) from normal (PrPc)
Difficult b/c have identical AA sequence just different tertiary structure
2. Protease sensitivity
PrPC sensitive to proteinase K digestion
PrPSc resistant to proteinase K digestion
3. Immunohistochemistry (IHC) |
|
|
Term
What does IHC for prions involve? |
|
Definition
Need obex (brain stem), lymph, or tonsil tissue ~ 10 microns thick sections
Antibody reaction - prion protein antibody; ovine
Fixed tissue - formalin (10%) fixation; 1-3 day fixation
2nd antibody labelled w/horseradish peroxidase |
|
|
Term
What does IHC surveillance tell you? |
|
Definition
Positive reaction - infected animal
Negative reaction - abnormal protein not detected; animal may be infected |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who discovered that Kuru was in fact an infectious disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How did the Fore tribe of Papua New Guinea get Kuru? |
|
Definition
They were cannibalistic - it was a sign of respect to eat one's dead relatives |
|
|
Term
What were the clinical signs of Kuru? |
|
Definition
Occurred many years after eating dead relatives
Lack of coordination
Slurred speech
Coma
Death w/in 6-12 months of first symptoms
Much more common in women then men |
|
|
Term
What did Carlton Gajdusek do to win the Nobel prize award in 1976? |
|
Definition
Proved that Kuru was not a genetic disease by taking brain material from Kuru infected brains of dead Fore and injecting this into the brains of monkeys who developed Kuru like symptoms.
Initially called it a slow virus disease due to the long incubation period.
Convinced the Fore to give up cannibalism, and now Kuru is extinct |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)
A progressive neurological disorder of cattle that results form infection by a prion |
|
|
Term
When did we see BSE in the UK? |
|
Definition
1970's - first probable infections w/two cases of BSE being identified in 1986 |
|
|
Term
How did cows get BSE in the UK? |
|
Definition
Possibly originated as a result of feeding of scrapie-containing sheep meat-and-bone meal to cattle
There is strong evidence and general agreement that the outbreak was amplified and spread thruout the UK cattle industry by feeding rendered bovine meat-and-bone meal to young calves |
|
|
Term
When did we see the peak of the BSE epidemic in the UK? |
|
Definition
In January 1993 with almost 1,000 new cases per week. |
|
|
Term
How many cases of BSE had been confirmed in the UK through the end of April 2005? |
|
Definition
184,000 cases in more than 35,000 herds |
|
|
Term
When was the first known case of BSE in the US identified? |
|
Definition
December 2003
Cow was imported from Canada in August 2001 |
|
|
Term
Due to a cow receiving conflicting test results of BSE in Nov. 2004 what does the USDA now utilize to confirm BSE in a cow? |
|
Definition
USDA now utilizes a confirmatory Western Blot test to evaluate inconclusive BSE screening test results |
|
|
Term
What public heath control measures that have been instituted in order to prevent potentially BSE-infected tissues from entering the human food supply? |
|
Definition
Surveillance, culling sick animals, or banning specified risk materials has been instituted in many countries, particularly in those w/indigenous cases of confirmed BSE |
|
|
Term
What is the most stringent control measure to avoid BSE entering food supplies? |
|
Definition
A UK program that excludes all animals more than 30 months of age from the human food and animal feed supplies.
The program appears to be highly effective |
|
|
Term
What are the OIE Risk Groups/Classifications for BSE? |
|
Definition
Negligible BSE risk
Controlled BSE risk
Undetermined BSE risk |
|
|
Term
What does it mean to have a negligible BSE risk? |
|
Definition
Risk assessment
Surveillance
1 of 3: No BSE cases; only imported cases; indigenous BSE cases born no more recently than 11 years
Existing education and reporting program
Feed ban in place for at least 8 years if a case or risk factors exist |
|
|
Term
What does it mean to have controlled BSE risk? |
|
Definition
Countries w/indigenous BSE cases must demonstrate an education and reporting program and an effective feed ban
Both negligible risk and controlled risk countries must also identify, track and prevent birth cohort and feed cohort of the known BSE-infected animal(s) from entering the food and export trade
Live cattle selected for export are identified by a permanent identification system and the cattle selected for export are born after a feed ban was implemented |
|
|
Term
What does it mean to have an undetermined BSE risk? |
|
Definition
It cannot be demonstrated that it meets the requirements of another category |
|
|
Term
What has OIE classified the US as and what does that mean? |
|
Definition
A controlled risk country in regard to BSE
Means that US regulatory controls are effective and that US fresh beef and beef products from cattle of all ages can be safely traded |
|
|
Term
True/False: There has emerged strong epidemiologic and laboratory evidence for a causal association btwn variant CJD in humans and the UK BSE outbreak in cattle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A rare and fatal transmissible spongiform encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
What is different about CJD and vCJD? |
|
Definition
vCJD has affected younger patients (average age 29 yrs vs. 65 yrs); has a relatively longer duration of illness (median of 14 months as opposed to 4 months) and is strongly linked to exposure, probably through food, to BSE |
|
|
Term
Was the interval btwn most likely period for initial extended exposure of the population to potentially BSE-contaminated food (1984-1986) and the onset of initial vCJD cases (1994-1996) consistent w/the known incubation periods for the human forms of the disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is more efficient at converting prion proteis - human or bovine prion protein? |
|
Definition
Human prion protein so that exposure to human tissues is more of a risk than exposure to bovine tissues |
|
|
Term
What is the new, fast, very sensitive blood test for human prion disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What was found to be possible sources of contagion in various prion diseases? |
|
Definition
Nasal fluid b/c scientists found surprisingly high levels of prions in them
If wild animals come into contact w/domestic animals via fences - high transmission rate |
|
|
Term
When was CWD first identified? |
|
Definition
First identified as a fatal wasting syndrome in captive mule deer in Colorado in the late 1960's and in the wild in 1981.
It was recognized as a spongiform encephalopathy in 1978. |
|
|
Term
Is there strong evidence of CWD transmission to humans and is it conclusive? |
|
Definition
No there is no strong evidence and no it is not conclusive. B/c of the long time btwn exposure to CWD and development of disease may yrs of continued follow-up are required to be able to say what the risk, if any, of CWD is to humans. |
|
|
Term
What are the CWD prion disease characteristics? |
|
Definition
Animal to animal transmission - a "contagious" prion disease
Appears to have a "typical" species barrier |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of CWD? |
|
Definition
CWD attacks the brain causing symptomatic displays of abnormal behavior, altered head and ear position, tremors, excessive salivation and urination, emaciation, and loss of bodily function
Clinical signs occur primarily in deer older than 18 months of age |
|
|
Term
What should you do when an infected herd of CWD is found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True/False: As ecotourism becomes more popular, wild apes are succumbing to human diseases. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does the mumps virus cause in humans and animals and which animal is affected by it? |
|
Definition
Humans - mumps
Animals - parotiditis
Animal affected = dogs |
|
|
Term
What does hepatitis A virus cause in humans and animals and what animals are affected? |
|
Definition
Humans - hepatitis
Animals - hepatitis
Animals affected - nonhuman primates |
|
|
Term
What does Corynebacterium diphtheriae cause in humans and animals and what animals are affected? |
|
Definition
Humans - diptheria
Animals - ulcers on teats, mastitis
Animal affected = cattle |
|
|
Term
What does Staphylococcus aureus cause in humans and animals and what animals are affected? |
|
Definition
Humans - furuncuosis
Animals - furunculosis, mastitis
Animals affected = cattle, cats, dogs |
|
|
Term
What does Streptococcus pyogenes cause in humans and animals and what animals are affected? |
|
Definition
Humans - pharyngitis, scarlet fever
Animals - mastitis
Animal affected - cattle |
|
|
Term
What does Mycobacterium tuberculosis cause in humans and animals and what animals are affected? |
|
Definition
Humans - tuberculosis
Animals - tuberculosis
Animals affected = deer, dogs, nonhuman primates, elephants |
|
|
Term
What does Entamoeba histolytica cause in humans and animals and what animals are affected? |
|
Definition
Humans - amoebic dysentery
Animals - hemorrhagic diarrhea
Animal affected = cats |
|
|
Term
What does influenza virus A/B do to humans and animals and what animals are affected (reverse zoonoses)? |
|
Definition
Human - influenza
Animals - respiratory disease
Animals affected = rabbits, ferrets |
|
|
Term
What animals are affected by tuberculosis? |
|
Definition
Captive nonhuman primates
Captive elephants |
|
|
Term
What evidence is there that elephants get TB from humans? |
|
Definition
Don't see TB infections in wild elephants |
|
|
Term
Do elephants infected w/TB show signs of TB? |
|
Definition
Majority of cases seen to date did not |
|
|
Term
What is another name for measles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A live, attenuated combined vaccine against measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Morbillivirus (paramyxovirus family) |
|
|
Term
What animals get measles? |
|
Definition
Common in nonhuman primates
Affects both Old World (OWM) and New World (NWM) nonhuman primates |
|
|
Term
How do animals usually get the measles? |
|
Definition
Usually acquired thru contact w/infected humans |
|
|
Term
Does disease severity of measles in monkeys vary? |
|
Definition
Yes, ranges from subclinical to fatal |
|
|
Term
How is measles virus spread? |
|
Definition
By respiratory droplets and multiplies w/in upper respiratory epithelial cells and mononuclear cells, including B and T lymphocytes and macrophages |
|
|
Term
What happens if you are infected w/the measles virus? |
|
Definition
You become immunocompromised b/c the virus attacks immune cells. |
|
|
Term
What is the pathogenesis of the measles virus? |
|
Definition
A transient viremia spreads the virus thruout the body and may cause croup, pneumonia, diarrhea w/protein-losing enteropathy, keratitis, encephalitis, and hemorrhages.
T-cell mediated immunity usually develops to control the viral infection and often produces a rash which is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to measles antigen in the skin. The rash does not develop in animals w/deficient cell-mediated immunity |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period of measles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most recognizable clinical sign of measles? |
|
Definition
Maculopapular skin rash
Technically, tho, animals are sick before this - febrile |
|
|
Term
What are the respiratory clinical signs associated w/measles? |
|
Definition
More common in OWM (macaques, mangabeys, etc.)
Cough
Conjunctivitis
Epistaxis (nosebleed)
May develop pneumonia |
|
|
Term
What are the non-respiratory clinical signs seen in measles? |
|
Definition
GI signs - NWM
Neurologic
Abortions
Can cause immunosuppression - increasing susceptibility to secondary bacterial infections |
|
|
Term
What is seen histopathologically with measles? |
|
Definition
Syncytia in skin, lung, GI, and lymphoid tissue +/- intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion bodies |
|
|
Term
What can be done to prevent measles in nonhuman primates? |
|
Definition
Screen personnel caring for NHP to ensure adequate vaccination or measles infection history
Vaccinate w/MLV measles vaccine or canine distemper/measles vaccine
Vaccination w/MLV product may cause immunosuppression which can interfere w/TB skin testing |
|
|
Term
Who is S. aureus pathogenic for? |
|
Definition
For a variety of animal hosts - both zoonotic and reverse zoonotic potential |
|
|
Term
How long have peniccilin resistant strains of S. aureus been around? |
|
Definition
Since before the clinical use of penicillin due to production of penicillinase |
|
|
Term
When did we see Methicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus and how did they become this way? |
|
Definition
Appeared in 1960 w/in a yr of clinical introduction of methicillin
Acquisition of a "foreign" gene encoding a methicillin-insensitive peptidoglycan biosynthesis gene
It is multiply antiobiotic resistant - erythromycin, tetracycline, etc. |
|
|
Term
When did we see community acquired methicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus? |
|
Definition
Appeared in late 1980's; incidence increasing in the last decade
NOT multiply antibiotic resistant |
|
|
Term
When did we see veterinary MRSA isolates? |
|
Definition
Dairy cow isolate in 1972
Beginning in the 1990s - horses, chickens, dogs, and cats |
|
|
Term
What is the occurrence of MRSA in dogs and cats and what is it associated with? |
|
Definition
Still relatively rare
Majority are associated w/post-operative or other wound infections, prolonged hospitalization, and/or immunosuppressive treatment - likely acquired from human contact |
|
|
Term
What is an emerging problem for canine pyoderma infections? |
|
Definition
MRSP - methicillin resistant S. pseudintermedius |
|
|
Term
Can humans get S. aureus infections from dogs and cats?
Can dogs and cats get S. aureus infections from humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does Crohn's disease resemble? |
|
Definition
Johne's disease in cattle |
|
|
Term
Who is affected by Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
Commonly affects ppl of 15-35 yrs age
Incidence of approximately 13 per 100,000
Life-long disease w/no known cure |
|
|
Term
What do 50-75% of patients w/Crohn's disease have? |
|
Definition
Positive for M. avium subspecies paratuberculosis |
|
|
Term
Has there been an established connection btwn the contact w/Johne's disease animals or milk consumption and high number of Crohn's patients w/M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is seen with Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
Small intestine is thickened due to heavy infiltration by macrophages instead of thin and pliable |
|
|
Term
When was the first reported case of Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
1806 by Combe and Sanders |
|
|
Term
When was it named Crohn's and why? |
|
Definition
Named after Dr. Burrill B. Crohn in 1932 based on a published landmark paper describing the disease |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A chronic type of inflammatory bowel disease primarily affecting deep layers of the intestinal wall |
|
|
Term
What is the ileocolitis form of Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
Most common form of Crohn's, affecting the ileum and colon. Symptoms include diarrhea and cramping or pain in the right lower part or middle of the abdomen. Often accompanied by significant weight loss |
|
|
Term
What is the ileitis form of Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
Affects the ileum. Symptoms the same as ileocolotis. Complications may include fistulas or inflammatory abscess in the right lower quadrant of abdomen |
|
|
Term
What is the gastroduodenal form of Crohn's? |
|
Definition
Affects the stomach and duodenum. Symptoms include loss of appetite, weight loss, and nausea. Vomiting may indicate that narrowed segments of the bowel are obstructed |
|
|
Term
What is the jejunoileitis form of Crohn's? |
|
Definition
Produces patchy areas of inflammation in the jejunum. Symptoms include abdominal pain and cramps following meals, as well as diarrhea. Fistulas may form |
|
|
Term
What is the granulomatous colitis form of Crohn's? |
|
Definition
Affects the colon only. Symptoms include diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and disease around the anus |
|
|
Term
What are some possible causes of Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
CD is caused by a chronic infection (M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis)
CD is associated w/mutations in one or more genes involved in regulation of the immune response leading to an abnormal immune response in the gut
CD is associated w/development of an autoimmune response to unknown self antigens
Complex, multifactorial etiology |
|
|
Term
What is some evidence that Crohn's disease is caused by a chronic infection? |
|
Definition
Some (50-70% in relatively small trials) patients improve w/anti-mycobacterial antibiotic treatment |
|
|
Term
Don't really have a question for this one...but it's about MAP and Crohn's disease! |
|
Definition
Conclusions: evidence for the zoonotic potential of MAP is not strong, but should not be ignored. Interdisciplinary collaboration among medical, veterinary and other public health officials may contribute to a better understanding of the potential routes of human exposure to M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis |
|
|
Term
What has been shown to also lead to Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
A variant of the ATG16L1 - caused Paneth cell abnormalities |
|
|
Term
What is the more likely cause of Crohn's disease? |
|
Definition
A complex etiology of both ATG16L1 variant and MAP |
|
|
Term
Who are immunocompromised clients? |
|
Definition
AIDS patients
Systemic diseases associated w/immune suppression in ppl include congenital immunodeficiencies, diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, alcoholism and liver cirrhosis, malnutrition, and certain types of cancers
Persons likely to receive immunosuppressive treatments: cancer patients, organ or bone marrow transplant recipients, and patients w/autoimmune diseases
Other immunosuppressive treatments include splenectomy and long-term hemodialysis |
|
|
Term
What is the role of the veterinarian with immunocompromised clients? |
|
Definition
Through monitoring the health of companion animals and educating pet owners on zoonoses prevention, veterinarians can help reduce the likelihood of an immunosuppressed person acquiring certain zoonotic opportunistic infections and can help their clients make more informed decisions about the risks and benefits of owning a pet.
Veterinarians should inform their clients of the existence of an expanded zoonoses prevention program, while respecting the client's privacy. This may best be accomplished by announcing the program in a sign, brochure, or newsletter |
|
|
Term
What are the most common infections inquired by immunocompromised persons from pets? |
|
Definition
Those caused by Salmonella and Campylobacter spp. |
|
|
Term
What should you recommend immunocompromised patients with pets? |
|
Definition
Feed their pets only high-quality commercial pet foods
Pets should not be allowed to drink out of toilet bowls or have access to garbage
Pets should be closely supervised while outside, unless they are in their own fenced yard
Pets should not be allowed to scavenge, hunt, or eat other animal's feces
Immunocompromised persons should wash their hands after handling pets, esp. before eating, and should avoid contact w/their pet's feces |
|
|
Term
Why should immunocompromised persons choose healthy adult pets and not young animals? |
|
Definition
B/c young animals (esp. those w/diarrhea) are more likely to be shedding Salmonella, Campylobacter, Cryptosporidium, or Giardia spp. |
|
|
Term
When immunocompromised persons obtain a pet they should exercise caution if obtaining a pet from what sources? |
|
Definition
Pet breeders, pet stores, and animal shelter b/c the hygienic and sanitary conditions are highly variable |
|
|
Term
What should be done immediately after immunocompromised ppl obtain a pet? |
|
Definition
It should be examined by a vet. If health is questionable it shouldn't be allowed contact w/the immunocompromised person. Examination of fecal samples from healthy animals for pathogens may be advisable if the client's immune suppression is severe |
|
|
Term
What risk do pet birds pose to immunocompromised persons? |
|
Definition
Low risk - but don't handle wild birds |
|
|
Term
Many immunocompromised persons have been told they shouldn't own cats. Why? Is it valid? |
|
Definition
1. To avoid developing cerebral toxoplsmosis
2. Most cases of cerebral toxoplasmosis are caused by reactivation of a previously latent infection and not by an acute infection. And most acute infections apparently are acquired thru eating undercooked meats |
|
|
Term
What should be done to prevent toxoplasmosis transmission from cats to immunocompromised persons? |
|
Definition
Litter box hygiene!
Clean daily and not placed in kitchen or dining areas
Immunocompotent should clean it or immunocompromised should wear gloves and wash hands immediately after |
|
|
Term
What are two other common infections acquired from cats in immunocompromised persons? |
|
Definition
Salmonellosis
Campylobacteriosis |
|
|
Term
What three infections can immunocompromised people get from dogs? |
|
Definition
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Salmonellosis
Campylobacteriosis |
|
|
Term
Should immuncompromised people own reptiles? |
|
Definition
No b/c of the high rates of carriage and shedding of Salmonella organisms in reptiles
If they do they should wear gloves when cleaning the cages and handling the pet and should feed it a diet specifically processed for reptiles (w/o raw meat or egg products) |
|
|
Term
What do hamsters and gerbils transmit to immunocompromised persons? |
|
Definition
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Cryptosporidium
Giardia
So wash hands after handling animals and cleaning cages |
|
|
Term
What do fish transmit to immunocompromised persons? |
|
Definition
Mycobacterium marinum
usually acquired when cleaning the aquarium |
|
|
Term
Should immunocompromised persons avoid contact w/young arm animals? |
|
Definition
Yes, esp. those w/diarrhea b/c can act as a reservoir for several infective agents, including Cryptosporidium spp. |
|
|
Term
Why should immunocompromised persons avoid exposure to swine? |
|
Definition
Known source of Bordetella bronchiseptica infections |
|
|
Term
What are the principal zoonotic infections of concern in pregnant clients? |
|
Definition
Toxoplasmosis, listeriosis, LCMV, and Hansen's disease |
|
|
Term
What is Hansen's disease? |
|
Definition
Mycobacterium leprae
More severe in pregnant women, but not a common disease in the US |
|
|
Term
Are veterinary personnel at an increased risk for zoonotic diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What can help protect veterinary staff from zoonotic diseases, as well as protecting clients, their children, and other pets? |
|
Definition
A client education program that should include the importance of rabies vaccination, comprehensive internal and external parasite control and bite prevention |
|
|
Term
What are the highest risk category for humans visiting animal displays and what are the usual reported sources? |
|
Definition
1. Enteric diseases
2. Cattle, sheep, goats, and poultry |
|
|
Term
What populations are at a higher risk for disease from petting zoos? |
|
Definition
Infants
Children <5 (weaker immune and more likely to put things in mouth)
Pregnant women
People undergoing chemotherapy
People w/organ transplants
People w/HIV/AIDS
Elderly |
|
|
Term
What are the riskier animals for immunocompromised ppl or in petting zoos? |
|
Definition
Reptiles
Chicks/Ducklings
Puppies, kittens < 6 months
Animals w/diarrhea
Exotic and wild animals |
|
|
Term
What is the cause of monkeypox? |
|
Definition
The Monkeypox virus, an orthopoxvirus |
|
|
Term
When was monkeypox first seen in the US and in what animals? |
|
Definition
June 2003
Prairie dogs and humans |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A rare viral disease that occurs mainly in the rain forest countries of central and west Africa |
|
|
Term
When was monkeypox virus discovered? |
|
Definition
In laboratory monkeys in 1958.
In 1970 was reported in humans for the first time |
|
|
Term
Who can be infected by monkeypox? |
|
Definition
Naturally infects a number of African rodents and squirrels in addition to non-human primates
Lab studies show that the virus can also infect mice, rats, and rabbits
Humans |
|
|
Term
True/False: Monkeypox is more severe than smallpox. |
|
Definition
FALSE!
Similar to smallpox but often milder |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period for monkeypox? |
|
Definition
~12 days (range 7-17 days) |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of monkeypox? |
|
Definition
Begins with fever, headache, muscle aches, backache, swollen lymph nodes, a general feeling of discomfort, and exhaustion
W/in 1-3 days (sometimes longer) after the appearance of fever, the patient develops a papular rash. The lesions usually develop thru several stages before crusting and falling off |
|
|
Term
How long does monkeypox last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Not usually a fatal virus
However, fatality rates highest in children who have not been vaccinated for smallpox
In rural, central, and west Africa (remote areas and medically underserved) have reported case-fatality ratios of 1-10% |
|
|
Term
How can people get monkeypox? |
|
Definition
Monkeypox can spread to humans from an infected animal, either thru an animal bite or by direct contact w/the animal's lesion or body fluids.
The disease also can be spread from person to person, although it is much less infectious than smallpox
The virus is thought to be transmitted by respiratory droplets during direct and prolonged face-to-face contact
In addition, it is possibly spread by direct contact w/body fluids of an infected person or w/virus-contaminated objects, such as bedding or clothing |
|
|
Term
Is there a treatment or vaccine for monkeypox?
|
|
Definition
Currently, no proven, safe treatment for monkeypox
Smallpox vaccine has been reported to reduce the risk of monkeypox among previously vaccinated persons in Africa |
|
|
Term
What does the CDC recommend regarding smallpox vaccination to avoid monkeypox? |
|
Definition
Perons investigating monkeypox outbreak and involved in caring for infected individuals or animals should receive a smallpox vaccination to protect against monkeypox
Doesn't recommend pre-exposure vaccination for unexposed veterinarians, veterinary staff, or animal control officers unless such persons are involved in field investigations |
|
|
Term
How was monkeypox introduced into the US? |
|
Definition
A shipment of animals from Ghana that was imported to Texas
Gambian rats contaminated prairie dogs and they then infected humans |
|
|
Term
True/False: it should be assumed that any mammal could get monkeypox if exposed to another animal that is infected. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the signs of monkeypox in animals? |
|
Definition
Fever
Cough
Ocular discharge
Lymphadenopathy
Raised or blister-like rash
Lethargy
Some mortality |
|
|
Term
What are the signs of monkeypox in nonhuman primates? |
|
Definition
Disease ranges from mild to fatal
Old and New World primates as well as apes are susceptible w/most severe disease seen in cynomolgus macaques, orangutans, and infants of all species
In mild cases, 1-4 mm cutaneous papules progress to pustules, crust over, and ultimately drop off, leaving small scars
In more severe disease, facial edema, oral ulcers, lymphadenopathy, and rarely disseminated disease w/visceral lesions may be seen |
|
|
Term
Can you import any African rodents? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Hantavirus called in the US? In the rest of the world?
|
|
Definition
US - Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
World - Hemorrhagic fever w/renal syndrome |
|
|
Term
Why are hantaviruses unique among the genera Bunyaviridae? |
|
Definition
No arthropod vector is established
Have rodent hosts |
|
|
Term
How is hanta virus transmitted? |
|
Definition
Aerosolization of rodent excreta |
|
|
Term
What are the human clinical signs of hantavirus infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where did Hantavirus originate? |
|
Definition
Four corners area - Colorado, Arizona, New Mexico, Utah |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical presentation of Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome? |
|
Definition
1-6 weeks post-exposure
Most frequent: fever, myalgia, nausea/vomiting, cough
Other: dizziness, arthralgia, shortness of breath (late in course of disease)
Rare: rhinorrhea, sore throat
Can lead to cardiac and respiratory failure |
|
|
Term
What are the characteristics of the Sin Nombre virus? |
|
Definition
Family - Bunyaviridae
Spherical, 80-120 nm viral particles
ssRNA, trisegmented |
|
|
Term
How is the Sin Nombre virus transmitted? |
|
Definition
Vertebrate hosts
no arthropod vectors |
|
|
Term
What are the hantavirus pulmonary syndrome radiographic findings? |
|
Definition
Bilateral interstitial infiltrates - moderate to rapid progression
Bilateral alveolar infiltrates
Pleural effusion |
|
|
Term
What are the ways to get a laboratory-confirmed diagnosis of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome? |
|
Definition
Serology - IgM, IgG
Immunohistochemistry
RT-PCR |
|
|
Term
What is seen histopathologically in the lung with hantavirus pulmonary syndrome? |
|
Definition
Interstitial pneumonitis - congestion, interstitial infiltrate of enlarged mononuclear cells (immunoblasts), intra-alveolar and septal edema, focal hyaline membranes
Absence or minimal evidence of - cellular debris, neutrophils, epithelial injury, viral inclusions, fungi or bacteria by specific stains |
|
|
Term
How can you prevent hantavirus? |
|
Definition
Rodent control!
When cleaning in rodent infected areas - wear rubber gloves, don't stir up and breathe dust, wet contaminated areas w/disinfectant, dispose of dead animals properly, discard or disinfect used gloves |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the reservoir of nipah virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of nipah virus? |
|
Definition
Humans: encephalitis
Pigs: respiratory; neurological
Dog/cats: "distemper" |
|
|
Term
When and where was the first case of humans infected w/nipah virus? |
|
Definition
1998
City in Malaysia (Kampung Sungai Nipah) |
|
|
Term
How did infection occur in the first outbreak of Nipah virus? |
|
Definition
Through direct contact w/infected pigs or pig products
Other fewer cases caused by animals that contacted pigs, then contacted humans |
|
|
Term
What is the suspected transmission to humans of Nipah virus? |
|
Definition
Occurs from bats roosting in fruit trees close to pig confinements. The virus then spreads rapidly thru the swine herd by direct contact or aerosols.
It can then be passed to humans, dogs, cats and other species. Transmission can occur from direct contact w/infected body fluids
To date, no person-to-person or bat-to-person transmission has been reported |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period of Nipah virus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the symptoms of Nipah virus? |
|
Definition
Initial symptoms include fever and headache, dizziness, drowsiness, disorientation, and vomiting. Some cases show signs of respiratory illness. In severe cases, a rapidly progressive encephalitis can occur w/a mortality rate of 40%. |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical signs of Nipah virus in swine? |
|
Definition
In swine, Nipah virus is highly contagious and easily spread. Many pigs are asymptomatic. Clinical signs include acute fever, tachypnea and dyspnea w/open mouth breathing, and a loud, explosive barking cough may also be noted. Occasionally, neurological signs can occur |
|
|
Term
Where was West Nile Virus first isolated? |
|
Definition
In West Nile district, Uganda in 1937 |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is WNV? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where was WNV found before 1999? |
|
Definition
Africa, West Asia, Europe and the Middle East |
|
|
Term
When was WNV seen in the US? |
|
Definition
1999 - the isolate was similar to a goose isolate from Israel |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mosquitoes
Blood transfusion, organ donation, breast feeding |
|
|
Term
What animals can become infected w/WNV? |
|
Definition
Horses, birds, mammals, and reptiles |
|
|
Term
What is the length of sickness of WNV in humans? |
|
Definition
3-6 days
80% have no signs
20% develop "West Nile Fever" |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mosquitoes feed on infected birds
Pass the virus to warm-blooded animals
Horses cannot spread WNV to other horses, people or pet (dead-end host)
Mammals infected w/WNV |
|
|
Term
In what animals do you see mortality w/WNV and in what animals do you see seropositivity? |
|
Definition
Mortality: bats, rabbit, chipmunk, gray squirrel, horse, cat, alpaca, dog
Seropositive: dog, bears, sheep, goats, wolf |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period of WNV? |
|
Definition
5-15 day post mosquito bite |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical features of WNV infection? |
|
Definition
Typical case is mild: fever, headache, myalgia/arthralgia, anorexia (symptoms last 3-6 days)
Sore throat and GI complaints (N/V/D) may occur
Occasional maculopapular rash (trunk > extremities) (rare in US cases)
In elderly or patients w/co-morbidities, may progress to aseptic meningitis or encephalitis
Rare complications include myocarditis and pancreatitis |
|
|
Term
What neurologic involvement is seen in WNV in severe cases? |
|
Definition
Encephalitis
Meningitis
Meningoencephalitis
Anterior myelitis, encephalopolyradiculitis |
|
|
Term
What is the prognosis of WNV? |
|
Definition
Recovery is usually complete in non-hospitalized patients.
Less rapid recovery in adults compared to children, occasionally w/residual deficits
Hospitalized patients have 50% recovered but not to full functional level whereas 40% recovered fully
Most fatalities in patients > 50 yrs |
|
|
Term
What is the therapy and vaccine for WNV? |
|
Definition
Therapy - supportive
Vaccine (human) - under investigation
Equine vaccine -WN - Innovator (fort Dodge)
Inactivated virus; 95% efficacy in challenge studies |
|
|
Term
What type of virus is Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the case definition of SARS? |
|
Definition
Fever of > 100.5 F
Respiratory symptoms
Cough
Shortness of breath
Difficulty breathing
Hypoxia
Travel to infected areas or exposure to probable SARS patient
X-ray evidence of pneumonia or ARDS |
|
|
Term
What is the incubation period of SARS? |
|
Definition
Typically 2-7 days up to 10 days |
|
|
Term
What is the typical presentation of SARS? |
|
Definition
Illness generally begins w/a prodrome
Respiratory phase develops after 3-7 days
Most patients have been otherwise healthy adults |
|
|
Term
What are the SARS prodrome symptoms? |
|
Definition
Fever > 100.4 F (38C)
Possible - chills, rigors, headache, malaise, myalgia, diarrhea, dizziness
Absent - rash, neurological symptoms
Only 2% have rhinorrhea (runny nose) |
|
|
Term
What is the therapy and vaccine for SARS? |
|
Definition
No effective treatment
Supportive therapy only
No vaccine |
|
|
Term
What is the case fatality/mortality rates for SARS? |
|
Definition
Case fatality ~ 17% (Toronto), 10% globally
Mortality increased in elderly
1% persons < 24 yrs
6% in persons 25-44 yrs
15% in persons 45-64 yrs
>50% in persons 65+ yrs
Mortality increased w/diabetes and other chronic disease (Toronto) |
|
|
Term
What do we know about SARS? |
|
Definition
Animal reservoir - civet cat initially suspected ?
Virus in respiratory secretions, stool, and urine
Viral shedding highest at peak of illness
Virus viable up to 4 days in diarrheal stool
Virus persists on environmental surfaces > 24 hrs at room temp.
Virus killed by usual disinfectants
Transmission - droplet and direct contact
Aerosol generating procedures important in transmission - i.e. intubation |
|
|