Term
Parts of the Mental Status Exams (8) |
|
Definition
1. Appearance
2. Speech
3. Mood/affect
4. Thought - form & content
5. Perception
6. Cognition
7. Judgement
8. Insight |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
grooming, level of hygiene,
unusual physical characteristics/movements,
attitude to interviewer,
psychomotor activity - retardation or agigitation,
degree of eye contact |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
rate
volume
articulation
tone
Pressured speech - rapid, uninterruptible - ex. mania
Poverty of speech - yes/no responses
Blocking - cessation of speech before idea is completed
Echolalia
Neologisms
Clanging
Perseveration - repetition of words or phrases
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Mood - patient's subjective emotional state
Affect - external range of expression described in terms of quality, range, and appropriateness. Ex. flat (no affect), blunted/restricted, labile, full or wide-range (appropriate) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hallucinations and illusions
Derealization and depersonalization
*may be categorized as part of thought content |
|
|
Term
MSE: Form of Thought/ thought proces |
|
Definition
Circumstantial - lots of extra details, but eventually gets to the point
Tangential
Loosening of Associations --> Word salad
Flight of ideas (mania)
Goal-directed (normal) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Suicide/homicide ideation (always ask about plan & intent)
Delusions (persecutory, erotomanic, grandiose, somatic, guilt)
Obsessions
Ideas of reference
May include hallucinations/illusions |
|
|
Term
MSE: Cognition (6 components) |
|
Definition
1. Level of consciousness
2. Orientation - person, place, time
3. Attention/concentration - serial 7's, world backwards
4. Memory - registration (immediate), short term, long term
5. Fund of knowledge - presidents
6. Abstract thought - interpret proverbs (ex. Don't cry over spiled milk), similarities between 2 objects. |
|
|
Term
MSE: Insight and Judgemnt |
|
Definition
Insight - awaresness of problems/illness (can be a spectrum ex. insight into fact that something is wrong but doesn't know/understand exactly what/why)
Judgement - ability to make decisions regarding problems, everyday activities. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
SAD PERSONS Sex - male Age >60 Depression Previous attempt EtOH/drug abuse Rational thinking is lost Suicide history in family Organized plan & access No support Sickness |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
SIG E. CAPS Sleep Interest (lack of) Guilt (+ hopeless, helpless, worthless) Energy decreased Concentration decreased Appetite change Psychomotor slowing/changes Suicidal ideation |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - intoxication Alcohol and BDZs |
|
Definition
Intoxication - disinhibition, mood lability, incoordination, slurred speech, ataxia, blackouts (EtOH), respiratory depression. |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - withdrawal Alchohol and BDZs |
|
Definition
tremulousness, hypertension, tachycardia, anxiety, insomnia, psychomotor agitation, nausea, seizures, hallcinations, DT (EtOH) |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - intoxication and withdrawal - Barbiturates |
|
Definition
Intoxication - respiratory depression Withdrawal - anxiety, seizures, delirium, life-threatening CV collapse |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse -intoxication Opioids |
|
Definition
CNS depression, N/V, sedation, decreased pain perception, decreased GI motility, pupil constriction, respiratory depression |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - withdrawal Opioids |
|
Definition
increased sympathetic activity,N/V, diarrhea, diaphoresis, rhinorrhea, piloerection, yawning, stomach cramps, myalgias, arthralgias, restlessness, anxiety, anorexia |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse -intoxication Amphetamines, cocaine |
|
Definition
euphoria, increased attention span, aggressiveness, psychomotor agitation, pupil dilation, HTN, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, psychosis (paranoia with amphetamines, formication with cocaine) |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse -withdrawal Amphetamines, cocaine |
|
Definition
Post-use "crash": restlessness, headache, hunger, severe depression, insomnia/hypersomnia, strong psychological craving |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - intoxication PCP |
|
Definition
Belligerence, impulsiveness, psychomotor agitation, vertical/horizontal nystagmus, hyperthermia, tachycardia, psychosis, homidicality. May have recurrence of symptoms d/t reabsorption in GI tract |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - intoxication LSD |
|
Definition
Altered perceptual states (hallucinations, distortion of time and space), elevation of mood, "bad trip" = panic reaction, flashbacks afterward |
|
|
Term
Drugs of Abuse - intoxication and withdrawal Nicotine/caffiene |
|
Definition
Intoxication - restlessness, insomnia, anorexia, anxiety Withdrawal - irritability, lethargy, HA, increased appetite, weight gain. |
|
|
Term
Schizophrenia vs. Delusional disorder |
|
Definition
Schizophrenia: bizarre (or non-bizarre) delusions, daily functioning is significantly impaired. Must have 2 or more of the following: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganzied behavior, negative sx
Delusional disorder: only non-bizarre delusions, daily functioning is not significantly impaired, does not meet criteria for schizophrenia |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A peruid if abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, lasting at least 1 week and including 3 of the following (4 if irritable): DIG FAST
- Distractibilty
- Irritable mood/insomnia - decreased need for sleep
- Grandiosity
- Flight of ideas
- Acitivity increased, agitation
- Speech is pressured
- Thoughtlessness - impulsivity/impaired judgement
|
|
|
Term
How is a hypomanic episode different from a manic episode? |
|
Definition
- lasts 4 days (vs 7)
- no marked impaired in daily functioning
- Does not require hospitalization
- Does not have psychotic features
Manic episodes cause severe impairment in functioning, may require hospitalization, and may have psychotic features. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Irritability
Carbohydrate craving
Hypersomnia |
|
|
Term
Four most commos mental disorders |
|
Definition
- phobias
- substance induced disorders
- major depression
- OCD
|
|
|
Term
Personality disorders: Cluster A |
|
Definition
- schizoid, schizotypal, and paranoid
- patients are eccentric, withdrawn, or peculiar
- familial association with psychtoic disorders
|
|
|
Term
Personality disorders: Cluster B |
|
Definition
- antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
- patients seems emotional, dramatic, or inconsistent
- familial association with mood disorders
|
|
|
Term
Personality disorders: Cluster C |
|
Definition
- avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive
- patients seem anxious or fearful
- familial association with anxiety disorders
|
|
|
Term
Substance Abuse - DSM IV criteria |
|
Definition
substance use leadss to impairment or distress for at least 1 year with one or more of the following:
- failure to fulfill obligations at work, school, or home
- use in dangerous situation (ex. while driving)
- recurrent substance related legal problems
- continued use depsite social or interpersonal problems to the substance use
|
|
|
Term
Substance dependence - DSM IV criteria |
|
Definition
substance use leading to impairment or distress with at least 3 of the following during a 12 month period:
- tolerance
- withdrawal
- use substance more than originally intended
- desire or unsuccessful effots to cut down
- significant time spent in getting, using, or recovering
- decreased social, occupational, or recreational activities b/c of use
- continued use despite physical or psychological problems caused by use
|
|
|
Term
How does alcohol act on neurotransmitter receptors? |
|
Definition
Activates GABA and 5HT receptors in CNS.
Inhibits glutamate receptors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
1. Have you ever wanted to cut down?
2. Have you ever felt annoyed by criticism of your drinking?
3. Have you ever felt guilty about drinking?
4. Have you ever taken a drink as an "eye opener"?
2 or more "yes" = positive screen |
|
|
Term
Classic triad of opioid overdose |
|
Definition
- respiratory depression
- altered mental status
- miosis*
"Rebels Admire Morphine" *exception = meperidine - Demerol Dilates pupils. |
|
|
Term
Most common causes of dementia |
|
Definition
1. Alzheimer's disesae (50 - 60%)
2. Vascular dementia (10 - 20%)
3. Major depression ("pseudodementia") |
|
|
Term
Alzheimer's disease - DSM IV criteria |
|
Definition
Memory impairment plus at least one of the following:
- aphasia - problems with language affecting speech and understanding
- apraxia - inability to perform purposeful movements (ex. tying shoes, copying a picture)
- agnosia - inability to interepret sensations correctly/recognize things that were once known
- diminished executive functioning - problems with planning, organizing, abstracting
|
|
|
Term
Vascular dementia vs. Alzheimer's |
|
Definition
- Same general manifestations and DSM criteria
- vascular dementia may have focal neurological sx
- onset is usually more abrupt in vascular dementia
- greater personality preservation in vascular dementia
- can reduce risk of vascular dementia by modifying risk factors (smoking, HTN, DM). |
|
|
Term
Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI) |
|
Definition
Characterized by normaly daily function, but abnormal memory for age. Most cases progress to Alzheimer's. |
|
|
Term
Cortical vs. Subcortical Dementias |
|
Definition
Cortical dementias - marked by decline in intellectual functioning. Ex: Alzheimer's, Pick's, CJD.
Subcortical dementias - more prominent affective and movement sx. Ex: Huntington's, Parkinson's, multi-infarct dementia. |
|
|
Term
Amnestic vs. Dissociative disorders |
|
Definition
Amnestic disorders are caused by underlying medical condition, whereas dissociative disorder are not.
Onset of dissociative disorders is related to a stressful life event or personal problem and many have history of trauma/abuse in childhood. |
|
|
Term
Sleep disorders: dyssomnias vs. parasomnias |
|
Definition
Dyssomnias = disturbance in amount, quality, or timing of sleep (insomnia, hypersomnia, narcolepsy, etc)
Parasomnias = abornal event in behavior or physiology during sleep (nightmare d/o, night terror d/o, sleep walking) |
|
|
Term
EEG waves during sleep (1, 2, 3/4, REM) |
|
Definition
Stage 1 (lightest sleep) - alpha waves
Stage 2 (light sleep) - sleep spindles and k-complexes
Stages 3/4 (deep sleep) - Delta waves (lowest frequency)
REM - sawtooth waves and REM |
|
|
Term
Effects of dopamine and serotonin on libido |
|
Definition
Dopamine enhances libido.
Serotonin inhibits libido.
SSRIs and antipsychotics can contribute to sexual dysfunction. |
|
|
Term
Classical vs. Operant Conditioning |
|
Definition
Classical conditioning - stimulus can eventually evoke a conditioned response (Dog salivates when he hears bell because he associates it with food).
Operant conditioning - behaviors can be learned when followed by positive or negative reinforcement (Ex. Skinner's box: rat happended upon a lever and received food - eventually learns to press lever to get food).
*incorporated into behavioral therapy |
|
|
Term
Other Behavioral Therapy Techniques (Deconditioning, 5) |
|
Definition
- Systemic desensitization - tx of phobias
- Flooding and implosion - tx of phobias
- Aversion therapy - tx of addictions or paraphilias - couples a negative stimulus to a specific unwanted behavior
- Token economy - reward given for specific behavior
- Biofeedback - ex. of use: migraines
|
|
|
Term
Non-depression uses of SSRIs |
|
Definition
OCD
Eating d/o
Social phobia
Panic d/o
PTSD
IBS
Migraines
Autsim
PMDD
Dysthymia
Depressive phase of manic depression |
|
|
Term
Non-depression uses of TCAs |
|
Definition
OCD (clomipramine)
Eating d/o
Panic d/o
PTSD
IBS
Enuresis
Neuropathic pain
Migraines
Insomnia |
|
|
Term
Non-depression uses of MAOIs |
|
Definition
Panic d/o
Eating d/o
Social phobia
|
|
|
Term
Non-depression uses of atypical antidepressants |
|
Definition
Bupropion:
Migraines
Smoking cessation
Depressive phase of manic depression
Mirtazapine:
Insomnia |
|
|
Term
What is an alternative that may be effective in patients who cannot tolerate or don't respond to traditional antidepressants? |
|
Definition
Sympathomimetics (amphetamine-based drugs).
Used rarely due to addiction potention. Use should be short-term and carefully monitored. |
|
|
Term
What is special about: Nortriptyline, Desipramine, & Clomipramine? |
|
Definition
Nortriptyline - least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension
Desipramine - least sedating, least anticholinergic SE
Clomipramine - most serotnin-specific, useful in tx of OCD. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- anti-histaminic: sedation
- anti-adrenergic: orthostatic hypotension (most life threatening), tachycardia, arrhythmias.
- anti-muscarinic: dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, tachycardia, blurred vision
- Weight gain
- Lethal in OD - must assess suicide risk!
- Major complications = 3 C's: Convulsions, Comas, Cardiotoxicity
|
|
|
Term
MAOIs are effective for __________ (2). |
|
Definition
Refractory depression & Refractory panic d/o
Examples of MAOIs: phenelzine, tranylcypromine, isocarboxazid |
|
|
Term
What is special about: Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Fluvoxamine, Escitalopram |
|
Definition
- Fluoxetine - SSRI with longest half life. Has active metabolites. Do not need to taper.
- Sertraline - highest risk for GI SE
- Paroxetine - most serotonin-specific, most activating (stimulant)
- Fluvoxamine - approved only for OCD
- Escitalopram - levo enantiomer of citalopram. Similar efficacy, fewer SE, much more $$$$
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Sexual dysfunction (MC)
GI disturbance
Insomnia
Anorexia/weight loss
Headache
Serotonin sydrome when used w/ MAOIs |
|
|
Term
Bupropion - mechanism, uses, side effects, contraindications |
|
Definition
Mechanism: NE/DA reuptake inhibitor.
Uses: smoking cessation, SAD, adult ADHD. SE: Lacks sexual SE compared to SSRIs. High doses can exacerbate psychosis. SE similar to SSRIs with increased sweating and increased risk of seizures (lowers threshold) and psychosis at high doses. Not optimal for patients with significant anxiety. CI in patients with seizure, active eating d/o, or currently taking an MAOI. |
|
|
Term
Nefazodone and Trazodone -
mechanisms, uses, side effects |
|
Definition
Mechanism: serotonin antagonists and reuptake inhibitor.
Useful for tx of refractory depression, major depression with anxiety, and insomnia (secondary to its sedative effects).
SE: nausea, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, arrhythmias, sedation, and priapism (last 2 esp with trazadone). |
|
|
Term
Mirtazapine - mechanism, uses, side effects |
|
Definition
Mechanism – NE and 5HT antagonist.
Useful in tx of refractory depression, esp in patients who need to gain weight.
SE: sedations, weight gain, dizziness, somnolence, tremor, and agranulocytosis. Maximal sedative effect occurs at dose of 15 mg and less. At higher doses, it increases NE uptake and is less sedating. |
|
|
Term
Low potency typical antipsychotics (2) |
|
Definition
Low potency: low affinity for DA receptor. Equal efficacy, but uses higher dose.
Chlorpromaize (thorazine) and thioridazine (Mellaril) – higher incidence of anticholinergic effects & antihistaminic effects. Lower incidence of EPS and NMS. |
|
|
Term
High potency antipsychotics (5) |
|
Definition
High potency: have greater affinity for DA receptor – smaller dose required to achieve effect.
Includes haloperiodol, fluphenazine, trifluoperazine, perphenazine, pimozide. Higher incidence of EPS and NMS,
lower incidence of anticholinergic and antihistaminic effects. |
|
|
Term
Which typical antipsychotics are available in long-acting depot forms? (2) |
|
Definition
Haloperidol and fluphenazine decanoate.
Administer IM - every 2-3 weeks for fluphenazie, 4-5 weeks for haloperidol. |
|
|
Term
Typical antipsychotics - side effects (10 categories) |
|
Definition
- EPS (antidopaminergic effect) – parkinsonism, akathisia, dystonia.
- hyperprolactinemia à decreased libido, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, impotence, amenorrhea, osteoporosis.
- Anti-HAM effects
Antihistaminic – sedation
Anti-alpha-adrenergic – orthostatic hypotension, cardiac abnormalities, and sexual dysfunction
Antimuscarinic – dry mouth, tachycardia, urinary retention, blurry vision,constipation.
- weight gain
- elevated LFTs, jaundice
- ophthalmologic problems: high dose thioridazine à irreversible retinal pigmentation. Clorpromazine – deposits in lens and cornea
- dermatologic – rashes, photosensitivity, blue/gray discoloration with chlorpromazine
- seizures – lower thresholds. Low potency antipsychotics lower threshold more than high potency
- TD – may occur in pts that have used neuroleptic for > 6 months. Most often occurs in older women. 50% spontaneously remit, but can be permanent.
- NMS |
|
|
Term
Classic presentation of NMS |
|
Definition
Young man that was recently started on antipsychotic becomes catatonic. |
|
|
Term
Atypical antipsychotics - Side Effects (5) |
|
Definition
- Some HAM effects
- 1% incidece of agranulocytosis and 2-5% incidence of seizures with clozapine
- Olanzapine and clozapine – metabolic syndrome/weight gain
- Olanzapine – liver toxicity – monitor LFTs
- Quetiapine – less weight gain, but may cause cataracts – do slit lamp exam every 6 months.
|
|
|
Term
Which atypical antipsychotics are also approved for tx of mania? |
|
Definition
Quetiapine and ziprasidone. |
|
|
Term
Uses of mood stabilizers (besides mania) |
|
Definition
- potentiation of antidepressants in pts with MDD refractory to monotherapy
- potentiation of antipsychotics in pts with schizophrenia
- enhancement of abstinence in tx of alcoholism.
- Tx of aggression and impulsivity (dementia, intoxication, MR, PDs, and general medical conditions). |
|
|
Term
What are the 3 mood stabilizers? |
|
Definition
Lithium
Carbamezapine
Valproic acid |
|
|
Term
Factors that affect lithium levels (7) |
|
Definition
1. NSAIDS (increase)
2. Aspirin
3. Dehydration (increase)
4. Salt deprivation (increase)
5. Impaired renal fxn (increase)
6. Diuretics
7. Caffeine/theophylline (decrease) |
|
|
Term
Carbamazepine - uses, mechanism, onset of action |
|
Definition
anticonvulsant.
Esp. good for treating mixed episodes and rapid cycling bipolar d/o. Also used for trigeminal neuralgia.
Mechanism: blocks sodium channels and inhibits APs.
Onset of action 5-7 days. |
|
|
Term
Carbamazepine - SE (5 bold) |
|
Definition
skin rash, drowsiness, ataxia, slurred speech, leukopenia, hyponatremia , aplastic anemia, and agranulocytosis. Elevates liver enzymes and teratogenic effects (NT defects). CBC and LFTs must be obtained pre-tx and monitored regularly. |
|
|
Term
Valproic acid - uses and mechanism |
|
Definition
anticonvulsant – also esp good for treating mixed manic episodes and rapid-cycling bipolar d/o. Unknown mechanism of action, but has been shown to increase CNS levels of GABA. |
|
|
Term
Valproic acid - SE (3 bold) |
|
Definition
sedation, weight gain, alopecia, hemorrhagic pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity, and thrombocytopenia, teratogenic (NT defects). Monitor LFTs and CBCs regularly. |
|
|
Term
Long acting (1-3 days) BDZs and their uses (3) |
|
Definition
Chlordiazepoxide – alcohol dependence, presurgery anxiety
Diazepam (valium) – rapid onset, used in tx of anxiety and seizures
Flurazepam – rapid onset, tx of insomnia
|
|
|
Term
Intermediate acting BDZs (10 - 20 hours) - 4 |
|
Definition
almost all used for panic attacks (plus other indications):
Alprazolam,
Clonazepam – also for anxiety,
Lorazepam – also for alcohol withdrawal,
Temazepam – for insomnia only |
|
|
Term
Short acting BDZs (3 - 8 hours) - 2 |
|
Definition
Oxazepam &
Triazolam – rapid onset, for insomnia |
|
|
Term
Buspirone - use, mechanism, advantages |
|
Definition
alternative to BDZ or venlafaxine for treating GAD. Slower onset of action than BDZs (1-2 weeks for effect).
Anxiolytic action 5HT-1A receptor (partial agonist). Does not potentiate CNS depression of alcohol, so safe to use in alcoholics.
Low potential for abuse/addiction. |
|
|
Term
Psychiatric uses of propranolol |
|
Definition
Panic attacks
Performance anxiety
Akathisia |
|
|
Term
anti-HAM side effects, think of: _______ and ________. |
|
Definition
TCAs and low-potency antipsychotics |
|
|
Term
What is acute dystonic reaction? |
|
Definition
Sustained contraction of muscles of neck, tongue, eyes. Occurs with high-potentcy typical antipsychotics.
Reversible - occurs within days.
Can be life threatening.
Tx - benztropine |
|
|
Term
What is the Tarasoff Duty? |
|
Definition
The obligation of a physican to report patients who are potentially harmful to others (one of the exceptions to confidentiality). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
The legal doctrine that allows civil commitment of citizens who are unable to care for themselves. |
|
|
Term
Elements of informed consent (5) |
|
Definition
NARCC
Name and purpose of tx
Alternatives to tx
Risks/benefits
Consequences of refusing
Capacity (ability to make informed decision) |
|
|
Term
Assessing capacity (4 criteria that patient must meet) |
|
Definition
1. can communicate a choice/preference
2. understand relevant info regarding tx – purpose, risk, benefits, and alternatives. Patient must be able to explain this info to you.
3. appreciates the situation and its potential impact or consequences according his or her own value system and understand the ramifications of refusing tx.
4. can logically manipulate information regarding the situation and reach rational conclusions
*criteria may be more stringent if the consequences of the patient’s decision are very serious. |
|
|
Term
Assessing risk for violence - 5 factor that increase likelihood of patient becoming violent |
|
Definition
#1 (Most important) – history of violence
2. specific threat w/ a plan
3. hx of impulsivity
4. psychiatric dx
5. substance abuse. |
|
|
Term
What is a serious possible SE of nefazodone? |
|
Definition
Nefazodone has a black-box warning of causing hepatotoxicity. |
|
|
Term
Which antidepressant has the greatest specificity for serotonin reuptake? |
|
Definition
Citalopram has most specific effect on serotonin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Hallucinosis = a hallucination occurring in a person who is completely alert and oriented. Most commonly occurs in alcohol withdrawal or chronic alcohol abuse. |
|
|
Term
Primary treatment of Alzheimer's Disease |
|
Definition
The first line tx of AD is ACh-esterase inhibitor (ex. galantamine). Memantine, and NDMA antagonist, can be used adjunctively. |
|
|
Term
What percent of patients with complex partial epilepsy experience psychotic sx? |
|
Definition
20% of patient with complex partial epilepsy experience psychotic sx. |
|
|
Term
What constellation of personality traits is associated with complex partial epilepsy? |
|
Definition
- hyperreligious thinking/preoccupation with moral behavior
- altered sexual behaviors
- hypergraphia/overelaborative communication styles ("viscosity"
- heightened experience of emotions
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Range is from 3 (deep coma) to 14 (fully alert). Looks at:
- eye opening: 1 (not opening) to 4 (open spontaneously). 2=open in response to pain
- best motor response: 1 (no response), 2 (extension), 3 (flexion), 4 (localizes pain), 5 (obeys commands)
- best verbal response: 1 (no response) to 5 (fully oriented).
|
|
|
Term
What drug can be continued in patients undergoing ECT? |
|
Definition
Haloperidol/typical antipsychotics can be continued without signficant SE during ECT. They even lower the seizure threshold which facilitates ECT.
[Lithium is assoc with prolong delirium post-ECT. BDZs hinder ECT via anticonvulsant effects. Clozapine can cause tardive seizures (no good) when given with ECT.] |
|
|
Term
Features of seizures in complex partial seizure epilepsy |
|
Definition
- sensory aura before seizures
- automatic behaviors during seizure (lip smacking, eye blinking)
- pt may look dazed during seizure
- has impaired consciousness
*complex partial seizures are usually assoc with temporal lobe epilepsy |
|
|
Term
What are the DSM criteria for somatization d/o? |
|
Definition
Must have the following sx, with onset before 30 yo:
- 4 pain complaints
- 2 GI
- 1 sexual
- 1 neuro
|
|
|
Term
What % of the male prison population has antisocial PD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are antipsychotics used for other than psychosis? (3) |
|
Definition
Refractory depression, OCD, PTSD |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of aripiprazole? |
|
Definition
Partial agonist of D2 receptor and 5HT-1A receptor.
Anagonist of 5HT-2A (like other atypicals). |
|
|
Term
Age of onset and prevalence of OCD |
|
Definition
Age of onset: 20
Prevalence: 2-3%, M=F |
|
|
Term
Patients with OCD have increased activity in which parts of the brain (3)? |
|
Definition
Basal ganglia, frontal lobes, cingulum. |
|
|
Term
Common comorbidities with OCD |
|
Definition
MDD ad social phobia
*lifetime prevalence of MDD in patients with OCD is 67% |
|
|
Term
What type of therapy and meds are useful in panic d/o? |
|
Definition
CBT and antidepressants (SSRIs, TCAs, MAOIs), buspar, BDZs, and venlafaxine. |
|
|
Term
Good prognostic factors for PTSD |
|
Definition
rapid onset of sx, short duration of sx, high premorbid functioning, and strong social support. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
SSRIs. Other tx options: trazodone, carbamezapine, depakote, clonidine, propranolol, TCAs, and psychotherapy. |
|
|
Term
Which neurotransmitters are involved in anxiety (3)? |
|
Definition
NE, 5HT (use of SSRIs), GABA (BDZs). |
|
|
Term
What defense mechanisms are commonly used by patients with antisocial PD? |
|
Definition
Acting out and projection/projective identification. |
|
|
Term
What IQ test is most commonly used for ages 16-75? |
|
Definition
Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) |
|
|
Term
What age range does the Stanford Binet IQ test assses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What do the following tests assess:
1) Brown Peterson Task
2) Geriatric Rating Scale
3) Blessed Rating Scale |
|
Definition
- Brown Peterson Task evaluates short term memory.
- Geriatric Rating Scale assesses patient's ability to perform activities of daily living.
- Blessed Rating Scale asks patient's friends & family to assess patient's ability to function in his/her own environment.
|
|
|
Term
What is assessed by the following tests:
- Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)
- Draw-a-person Test
- Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychiatric battery
|
|
Definition
- WCST - tests executive functions
- Draw-a-person - screening test for brain damage
- Luria-Nebraska neuropsych battery - assesses specific cortical areas and helps in assessment of hemispheric dominance.
|
|
|
Term
What is assessed in the following tests:
- Stroop test
- Fargo Map test
- WMT
|
|
Definition
- Stroop Test - tests ability to concentrate (identification of words and colors)
- Fargo Map test - evaluates recent and remote spatial memory and visuospatial orientation
- WMT - tests memory in adults
|
|
|
Term
What is assessed in the following tests:
- Rey-Osterrieth Test
- Bender-Gestalt Test
- Random Letter Test
|
|
Definition
- Rey-Osterrieth Test - assesses visual/nonverbal memory (copying a picture from memory) and also can detect R. parietal lesion (left hemineglect)
- Bender-Gestalt Test - can help to localizes brain lesion/determine if organic lesion is present. Involves copying figures.
- Random Letter Test - concentration test; good alternative to serial 7s in patient w/ low education level.
|
|
|
Term
What is variable schedule ratio? |
|
Definition
Schedule of reinforcement where reward is given randomly. Ex. slot machine. This type of behavior is more difficult to extinguish than continuous-schedule reinforced behavior. |
|
|
Term
What is deja entendu?
What is jamais vu? |
|
Definition
Deja entendu - feeling that one is hearing something one has heard before (seeing --> deja vu)
Jamais vu - when somethiing should be familiar seems unfamiliar |
|
|
Term
Most common method by which adolescents complete suicide?
Most common method by which children attempt suicide? |
|
Definition
Complete - firearms
Attempts - substance ingestion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
When an infant repeatedly regurgitates and re-chews food. Must be for at least 1 month and follow a period of normal functioning.
Sx: may appear that baby's drooling (actually regurgitated food), baby fails to gain weight appropriately.
Often seen in infants who have a variety of caretakers in an unstable environment. |
|
|
Term
Comorbidities in childhood anxiety d/o (2, and %) |
|
Definition
MDD - 50% comorbid with childhood anxiety d/o
ADHD - 30% comorbid with childhood anxiety d/o |
|
|
Term
Treatment for lead toxicity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Comorbidities common in conduct d/o (2) |
|
Definition
Substance related disorders
ADHD |
|
|
Term
Most common initial sx of Tourette's d/o?
Average age of onset? |
|
Definition
#1 - eye tics - blinking, eye rolling
#2 - facial and vocal tics
Average age of onset - 7 yo (sx must occur for majority of 1 year for dx). |
|
|
Term
Most common predisposing factor for MR |
|
Definition
Early alterations in embryonic development (ex. chromosomal changes - Down's, toxin-induced damage- alcohol).
This category accounts of 30% of cases of MR. |
|
|
Term
At what age do children understand the irreversiblity of death? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Common: sedation
Less common: dry mouth, hypotension |
|
|
Term
Physical/lab findings that can be seen in anorexia |
|
Definition
hypercholesterolemia, increased CRH, leukopenia, sinus bradycardia, hypothyroid (but normal TSH response), increased ventricular:brain ratio. |
|
|
Term
Rubella infection is most dangerous during what time in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
First month of pregnancy. If mother gets infected with rubella in the 1st month, risk for congenital defects is 50%. Risk decreases as pregnancy continues. |
|
|
Term
What are the PANDAS (Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection)? |
|
Definition
Tourette's syndrome and OCD |
|
|
Term
Cotard Syndrome
Capgras Syndrome |
|
Definition
Cotard Syndrome - nihilistic delusions, including delusion that one is dead or is rotting away.
Capgras Syndrome - delusion that people have been replace by imposters |
|
|
Term
Postpartum psychosis is commonly associated with _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How are cortisol, catecholamines, and sex hormone levels altered in depression? |
|
Definition
Cortisol level is increased
Catecholamines and sex hormones are decreased. |
|
|
Term
Porphyria - symptoms & diagnostic test |
|
Definition
Manic/psychotic sx and abdominal pain.
Dx can be made with UA (elevated ALA and porphrobilinogen). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
bilateral damage to the amygdala - causes docility, lack of fear response, anterograde amnesia, hyperphagia, and hypersexuality. |
|
|
Term
How many ECT sessions are needed for
1) catatonia, 2) MDD, 3) psychosis/mania? |
|
Definition
- Catatonia: 2-4 sessions
- MDD: 6 - 12 sessions
- Psychosis/mania: 20+ sessions
|
|
|
Term
What are positive prognostic factors in schizophrenia (7)? |
|
Definition
Late onset, acute onset, precipitating stressor, good premorbid functioning, marriage, FHx of mood sx, and positive sx. |
|
|
Term
What are 2 additional negative prognostic factors for schizophrenia (besides the opposites of the positive factors)? |
|
Definition
neurologic sx and Hx of perinatal trauma |
|
|
Term
Eye Movement Desensitization & Reprocessing (EMDR) is used to treat _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Strokes in what area of the brain are most associated with depression? |
|
Definition
Strokes of the left frontal area (L. MCA) are often followed by depression. (Rule: L>R, Anterior>Posterior).
Infarcts of the right frontal area often present with euphoria, inappropriate indifference, and mania. |
|
|
Term
What neurotransmitter was found to be decreased in CSF of patients with impulsivity/violence and/or committed suicide? |
|
Definition
5HT (decreased 5HT metabolites, 5-HIAA) |
|
|
Term
Most common presenting psychiatric symptom in MS |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Types of amnesia: localized, selective, generalized, continuous, retrograde |
|
Definition
- Localized - memory loss surrounding a discrete period of time (usually a traumatic event)
- Selective - inability to recalll certain aspects of an event.
- Generalized - forget entire preceding life
- Continuous - forget all events following trauma except the immediate past
- Retrograde - forget all events from before trauma
|
|
|
Term
Sleep changes commonly seen in depression (4) |
|
Definition
- Increased sleep latency (i.e. trouble falling asleep)
- Early morning wakening (overall increased wakefulness)
- REM sleep is redistributed so most occurs earlier in the night
- Decreased REM latency
|
|
|
Term
What is cacodemonomania?
In what mental illnesses is cotard syndrome typically seen? |
|
Definition
Cacodemonomania = delusion of being poisoned by an evil spirit
Cotard syndrome (delusion of nihilism/dead/rotting away) can be seen in schizophrenia, bipolar d/o, and Alzheimer's. |
|
|
Term
What is Fregoli syndrome?
What are haptic hallucinations? |
|
Definition
Fregoli syndrome - delusion that a person is taking the form of a number of people or creatures
Haptic hallucinations - tactile hallucination in which one feels as if hes being touched |
|
|
Term
What is synesthesia and in what states might it occur? |
|
Definition
Synesthesia is when a secondary sensation follows an actual perception. Ex: a color associated with a taste.
It is seen in neurologic disease and hallucinogen use, esp. LSD. |
|
|
Term
What areas of the brain have smaller size in patients with schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
Hippocampus, parahippocampus, and amygdala
*Hippocampus size is decreased in patients with depression and/or Alzheimer's (Alzheimer's can present with depressive sx) |
|
|
Term
How do glucocorticoids affect mood? |
|
Definition
Most commonly they cause mania/hypomania, but can also cause depression. (Ex. MS patients on prednisone). |
|
|
Term
Which benzodiazepines are okay to use in patients with liver problems? Which should be avoided? |
|
Definition
Oxazepam and lorazepam are okay to use.
Don't use chlordiazepoxide or diazepam (these undergo extensive liver metabolism). |
|
|
Term
Most serious complication from NMS |
|
Definition
Rhabdomyolysis - dialysis may be needed to prevent renal failure. |
|
|
Term
MC SE (2) of methylphenidate |
|
Definition
trouble falling asleep & decreased appetite |
|
|
Term
What effect can low potency typical neuroleptics have on the heart? |
|
Definition
Chlorpromazine and thioridazine can cause prolonged QT interval. |
|
|
Term
Antipsychotics that are least likely to cause metabolic SE |
|
Definition
Aripiprazole and ziprasidone
(most likely = olanzapine and clozapine0 |
|
|
Term
antidepressants that do NOT cause sexual dysfunction (3) |
|
Definition
mirtazapine, bupropion, nefazodone |
|
|
Term
Time course for sx of alcohol withdrawal (4 categories) |
|
Definition
- 6 - 8 hours: tremulousness/jittery
- 8 - 12 hours: psychosis and perceptual sx
- 12 - 24 hours: seizures
- 24 - 72 hours, up to 1 week: DTs
|
|
|
Term
What is the risk of schizophrenia in 1st degree relatives of patients with schizophrenia? |
|
Definition
It is up to 10% (vs. 1% in the general population). |
|
|
Term
How do you test attention vs. concentration on the MSE? |
|
Definition
Attention = ability to focus one's perception on an outside or inside stimulus. Test = digit recall (backwards/forwards).
Concentration = sustained attention to an internal thought process. Test = serial 7s, WORLD backwards. |
|
|
Term
Psychogenic unresponsiveness vs. Coma |
|
Definition
Psychogenic unresponsiveness: normal EEG (vs abnormal in coma). In awake patients cold water in the ear produces nystagmus with the fast component away from the ear ("cold caloric induced nystagmus". In coma, eyes either do not react or deviate toward the ear in which the water was introducted. |
|
|
Term
What signs/sx are often seen in advanced cervical cancer? (3) What is the most common cause of death from cervical cancer? |
|
Definition
- Flank tenderness
- Leg swelling
- Ureter obstruction and hydronephrosis
Most common cause of death due to cervical CA is bilateral ureter obstruction leading to uremia. |
|
|
Term
What are the treatments of early and advanced cervical CA? |
|
Definition
- Early cervical CA (contained within the cervix) may be treated equally well with surgery (radical hysterectomy) or radiation tx.
- Advanced cervical CA is bested treat with radiotherapy, consisting of brachytherapy (implants) with teletherapy (whole pelvis radiation) along with chemotherapy (usually cis-platinum) to sensitize the tissue to radiation.
|
|
|
Term
What is the appropriate diagnostic work-up when there is a visible lesion of the cervix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the MC presenting symptom of invasive cervical CA? What is the mean age of presentation? |
|
Definition
- Abnormal vaginal bleeding. Postcoital spotting is common in women who are sexually active.
- Another symptom is water and/or malodorous vaginal discharge.
- The mean age of presentation is 51 yo.
|
|
|
Term
Risk factors for cervical CA (8) |
|
Definition
- early age of first intercourse
- STI's
- early childbearing
- Low SES
- HPV (= #1 risk factor)
- HIV
- cigarette smoking
- multiple sexual partners
|
|
|
Term
What does "acetowhite change" refer to? |
|
Definition
When doing a colposcopic exam of ther cervix after an abnormal pap smear, the cervix is first soak with 3% or 5% acetic acid solution. Many times cervical intraepithelial lesions turn white with the addition of acetic acid. |
|
|
Term
What is one way to assess the severity of dysplastic cervical lesions during the colposcopic exam? Where should you take the biospy? |
|
Definition
Dysplastic lesions often have vascular changes (reflecting rapid growth) that correlate with the severity of the disease: mild vascular pattern = punctations vs. "atypical vessels" = corkscrews & hairpins.
The biopsy should be taken of the worst-appearing area. |
|
|
Term
How is cervical cancer staged? |
|
Definition
- Cervical cancer is the only gynecologic cancer that is still staged clinically (as opposed to surgically).
- Staging may involve examination under anesthesia, IVP, chest XR, cystoscopy, and protoscopy or barium enema.
- Findings from MRI, CT, or surgery do NOT impact or change the staging of the disease.
|
|
|
Term
How are stages of cervical cancer defined? |
|
Definition
- Stage I - confined to cervix
- Stage II - extends beyond cervix but not to pelvic sidewalls or lower 1/3 of vagina
- Stage III - extends to pelvic sidewalls or lower 1/3 of vagina; any renal involvement
- Stage IV - extends beyond pelvis, invades local structures including bladder or rectum, or has distant mets.
|
|
|
Term
When should women start getting pap smears? How can HPV typing be useful? |
|
Definition
- Pap smears usually begin 3 years after onset of sexual activity, or by age 21.
- HPV typing can be useful for triaging atypical squamous cells of undetermined signficance (ASCUS). (
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of PCOS (5)
What lab finding is common? |
|
Definition
- obesity
- anovulation/oligomenorrhea
- hirsutism
- glucose intolerance
- estrogen excess
- Often there is an elevated LH:FSH ratio.
- PCOS is the MC cause of ovulatory dysfxn in reproductive-age women.
|
|
|
Term
What are the 2 MC causes of secondary amenorrhea after postpartum hemorrhage? What are the mechanisms of each? |
|
Definition
- Sheehan syndrome: anterior pituitary hemorrhagic necrosis is caused by hypertrophy of the prolactin-secreting cells in conjunction with a hypotensive episode (postpartum hemorrhage).
- Asherman syndrome/intrauterine adhesions: caused by uterine curretage (may be part of tx of postpartum hemorrhage); the decidua basalis layer becomes damaged, rendering the endometrium unresponsive.
|
|
|
Term
Definitions of 1) Amenorrhea & 2) Pospartum Hemorrhage |
|
Definition
- Amenorrhea = no menses for 6 months
- Postpartum hemorrhage = bleeading > 500 mL for a vaginal delivery and > 1000 mL for c-section. (The amount of bleeding that may result in hemodynamic instability if left unabated.)
|
|
|
Term
By when should you expect menses to resume in a non-lactating woman after pregnancy? |
|
Definition
Non-lactating women should resume menses by 12 weeks after delivery. If this does not occur, suspect another pregnancy or pathology. |
|
|
Term
How would you differentiate Sheehan syndrome and Asherman's syndrome as causes of secondary amenorrhea after postpartum hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
- Sheehan syndrome: low anterior pituitary hormones and their counterparts (TSH and T4, FSH and ER, ACTH and cortisol, prolactin, etc.) No LH surge = no biphasic basal body temp. There will be bleeding in response to progestin.
- Asherman's syndrome: normal levels of anterior pituitary hormones and their counterpart. Normal LH surge = normal bisphasic body temp. No bleeding in response to progestin.
|
|
|
Term
What are two broad categories of causes of hypoestrogenism? How are they distinguished? |
|
Definition
- Hypothalamic/pituitary pathology vs. ovarian failure.
- If the cause is ovarian failure, FSH will be elevated.
|
|
|
Term
What causes the biphasic basal temperature? What does it indicate? |
|
Definition
- The biphasic basal temperature is caused by progesterone (elevates body temp).
- Thus, when present, it indicates the presence of progesterone as well as normal pituitary fxn and normal ovulation.
|
|
|
Term
What is the tx for Sheehan syndrome? |
|
Definition
Hormone replacements to restore function to organs that the anterior hormones act upon. |
|
|
Term
What are the first steps in assessing fetal bradycardia after AROM? |
|
Definition
- Distinguish fetal HR from the maternal pulse - this can be done with an internal fetal scalp electrode or an US.
- Examine the vagina to assess for cord prolapse.
|
|
|
Term
What is the tx of umbilical cord prolapse? |
|
Definition
Elevate the presenting part and do an emergency c-section. |
|
|
Term
What fetal positions have increased vs. decreased risk of cord prolapse? What else increases the risk? |
|
Definition
- Vertex & frank breech presentations have a low risk of cord prolapse.
- Footling breech and transverse lie have a much higher risk of cord prolapse.
- The risk is also increased if the presenting fetal part is unengaged (not at the bony pelvis inlet, ex. -3 station). AROM should be avoided in these pts, as it can cause a cord prolapse.
|
|
|
Term
What is the MC finding in uterine rupture? What is the best tx for suspected uterine rupture? |
|
Definition
- The MC finding in uterine rupture is fetal HR abnormality, such as fetal bradycardia, deep variable decels, or late decels.
- The best tx for suspected uterine rupture is immediate c-section.
|
|
|
Term
What steps are taken to correct fetal bradycardia? (4) |
|
Definition
- The initial steps are improving maternal oxygenation and delivery of CO to the fetus:
- place patient on her left side to improve VR to heart
- IV fluid bolus if pt may be volume depleted
- administer 100% oxygen
- stop oxytocin if it is being given.
|
|
|
Term
Common causes of fetal bradycardia and their tx (3) |
|
Definition
- Hyperstimulation d/t oxytocin. Tx: IV beta agonist (terbutaline) helps relax the uterus.
- Hypotension d/t an epidural Tx: IV hydration; if unsuccessful, use a pressor agent (ephedrine).
- Cord prolapse (identified with vaginal exam); Tx: elevation of presenting part and emergent c/s.
|
|
|
Term
Causes of hyperprolactinemia (9) |
|
Definition
- drugs (meds)
- hypothyroidism
- pituitary adenoma
- hypothalamic causes (ex. craniopharyngioma)
- hyperplasia of lactotrophs (pregnancy)
- empty sella syndrome
- acromegaly
- renal disease
- chest surgery or trauma (implants, T2 herpes zoster).
|
|
|
Term
What sx are commonly seen in patients with hyperprolactinemia? What causes these sx? (3) |
|
Definition
- galactorrhea (will see fat droplets under microscope) - prolactin stimulates milk production
- amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea occur because high prolactin levels inhibit GnRH pulsations from the hypothalamus
- Hypoestrogenemia (lack of GnRH pulsations) - may lead to osteoporosis.
|
|
|
Term
How does hypothyroidism cause hyperprolactinemia? |
|
Definition
In hypothyroidism TRH levels are elevated. TRH acts as a prolactin-releasing hormone and results in hyperprolactinemia (mild elevation: 20-60 ng/mL). |
|
|
Term
What are the sx of a pituitary adenoma? What is the most sensitive test to detect pituitary adenomas? |
|
Definition
- Sx of a secreting pituitary adenoma include galactorrhea, headache, and bitemporal hemianopsia.
- MRI is the most sensitive test to detect pituitary adenomas.
|
|
|
Term
What is the management for a patient with galactorrhea in the context of normal menses and normal prolactin level? |
|
Definition
- These patients can be observed - following serum prolactin levels annually.
- Normal menses and serum prolactin put the patient at low risk for having a prolactinoma. (Regular menses indicate normal HT fxn).
|
|
|
Term
What is the management for a patient with galactorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and normal serum prolactin? |
|
Definition
- This patient should be worked up to determine if there's a prolactinoma:
- MRI scan of the sella turcica/pituitary gland
- Secondary amenorrhea and hypoestrogenism significantly increase the risk of a pituitary adenoma as well as early onset osteoporosis.
|
|
|
Term
What is the differential diagnosis of pruritis in pregnancy? (3) |
|
Definition
- Cholestasis in pregnancy = MC; pruritus with or w/o jaundice; no skin rash.
- Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy (PUPPP) = skin condition of unknown etiology, unique to pregnancy; Intense pruritus and erythematous papules that begin on the abdomen and spread to thighs and sometimes butt and arms.
- Herpes gestationis - rare skin condition; unique to pregnancy. Intense itching and vesicles on abdomen and extremities.
|
|
|
Term
When does intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy usually begin? How is the diagnosis confirmed? What is the tx? What else should be checked in these pts? |
|
Definition
- cholestasis of pregnancy usually begins in the 3rd trimester
- the diagnosis is confirmed by increased levels of circulating bile acids
- the tx includes: antihistamines and cornstarch baths; ursodiol (reduces cholesterol absorption) and cholestyramine (bile acid-binding resin; assoc with Vit K deficiency).
- Should also check LFTs
|
|
|
Term
What are adverse outcomes associated with cholestasis of pregnancy? (3) |
|
Definition
- Cholestasis of pregnancy, esp. when accompanied by jaundice, is assoc with increased incidence of:
- prematurity
- fetal distress
- fetal loss
|
|
|
Term
Herpes gestationis: when does it begin, what's the proposed cause, how do you confirm the dx? |
|
Definition
- Usually begins in 2nd trimester
- Autoimmune-related etiology: IgG auto-Ab against the basement membrane leads to activation of complement cascade
- Definitive dx is made by immunofluorescent exam of biopsy specimens.
|
|
|
Term
Herpes gestationis: what adverse outcomes are associated with it? what is the treatment? |
|
Definition
- Adverse outcomes include increased incidence of fetal growth retardation and stillbirth, as well as a transient (self-limiting) neonatal herpes gestationis
- Tx = oral corticosteroids.
|
|
|
Term
PUPPP: adverse outcomes? tx? |
|
Definition
- No studies suggest adverse effects of PUPPP on mom or fetus.
- Tx includes topical steroids and antihistamines.
|
|
|
Term
PUPPP: when does it usually begin? |
|
Definition
- Usually occurs at 35 - 36 weeks.
- Usually occurs with first pregnancy only (does not recur).
|
|
|
Term
Salpingitis (PID): cause, classic triad |
|
Definition
- Usually a polymicrobial infection (ascending infxn) - organisms may include gonorrhea, chlamydia, anerobes, & gram - rods.
- Classic triad: lower abdominal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, and adnexal tenderness.
|
|
|
Term
How is the diagnosis of PID made in practice? What is the "gold standard" for confirming the dx? What are the long-term sequelae of acute salplingitis? |
|
Definition
- In practice, dx of PID is made clinically (based on sx and PE: class triad +/- vaginal discharge, fever, pelvic mass indicating TOA).
- Gold standard for dx = laparoscopy - visualize purulent drainage from fallopian tubes
- Long term sequelae: chronic pelvic pain, ectopic pregnancy, infertility
|
|
|
Term
Tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)- organisms, PE, tx, complications |
|
Definition
- mostly anerobes
- adnexal mass on PE or US may reveal a complex ovarian mass
- Tx - Can often be treated with abx without surgical drainage: clindamycin or metronidazole (target anerobes). Radiological percutaneous drainage may be used to hasten resolution.
- Major complication = rupture - surgical emergency
|
|
|
Term
Signs/symptoms of pulmonary embolism (in pregnant pt or otherwise) (6+) |
|
Definition
- dyspnea (MC presenting sx)
- pleuritic chest pain
- clear chest radiograph
- hypoxemia (PO2 < 80 in pregnant woman is abnormal)
- some may have palpitations or feel like they are having an anxiety attack
- few pts have hemoptysis
- tachycardia
|
|
|
Term
What tests are used to confirm pulmonary embolism? (3) |
|
Definition
- Spiral (or helical) CT scan - uses IV contrast to detect vascular filling defects
- MR angiography - also uses IV contrast
- Ventilation-perfusion scan - uses IV radioactively-tagged albumin (technetium) in conjunction with ventilation imaging (inhaled xenon or technetium)
|
|
|
Term
How does pregnancy predispose patients to PE? |
|
Definition
- Venous stasis occurs d/t the mechanical effect of the uterus on the vena cava
- High ER level induces a hypercoaguable state d/t increase in clotting factors, esp. fibrinogen.
|
|
|
Term
How does pulse oximetry correspond to oxygen tension (PO2)? |
|
Definition
- A pulse oximetry reading < 90% corresponds to an oxygen tension < 60 mmHg.
|
|
|
Term
How is PE managed in a pregnant patient? |
|
Definition
- Full IV anticoagulation (heparin) for 5-7 days.
- Later, switch to subcutaneous therapy to maintain aPTT at 1.5 - 2.5x control for at least 3 months.
- After 3 months, heparin may be continued prophylacticly for the remainder of the pregnancy and for 6 weeks postpartum.
- Consider looking for other causes of thrombosis (besides pregnancy alone) - i.e. factor V leiden, antiphospholipid syndrome, etc.
|
|
|
Term
Most common cause of maternal mortality |
|
Definition
Embolism
(thromboembolism and amniotic fluid embolism) |
|
|
Term
How do most neonatal herpes infections occur? |
|
Definition
- Most neonatal herpes infections occur from HSV from genital tract secretions and fluids.
- 5-10% of neonatal infections are acquired in utero (transplacentally). These are usually d/t primary episodes.
|
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of treating primary HSV episodes during pregnancy with acyclovir? What is the purpose of suppressive acyclovir therapy? |
|
Definition
- Tx of the primary epsidoecan decrease the duration of viral shedding, pain sx, and the duration of lesions. Treating the primary episode does not affect the likelihood of future recurrence.
- Suppressive acyclovir tx may help decrease risk of recurrence at the time of labor and decrease the need for c/s. Therefore, some praciticioners use suppressive tx when a woman has her first episode during pregnancy. Suppressive therapy is also used in pts with recurrent outbreaks.
|
|
|
Term
When is c-section indicated in a woman with a h/o HSV? |
|
Definition
- C-section should be offered in patients with a h/o HSV who have (1) prodromal sx or (2) suspicious lesions of the genital tract.
|
|
|
Term
What are the prodromal sx of HSV? |
|
Definition
- These are sx that occur prior to the outbreak of vesicles.
- They can include burning, itching, or tingling.
|
|
|
Term
What is the MC reason for hysterectomy in the United States? |
|
Definition
The MC reason for hysterectomy in the United States is symptomatic fibroids (leiomyomata), which occur in up to 25% of women. |
|
|
Term
What is the MC presenting symptom of uterine leiomyomata? What is a typical finding on physical exam? |
|
Definition
- Menorrhagia is MC presenting sx.
- Physical exam demonstrates an irregular pelvic mass that is mobile, midline, and moves contiguously with the cervix.
- Note: fibroids can be submucosal (endometrial side), intramural (within the uterine muscle), or subserosal. They may or may not be pedunculated.
|
|
|
Term
What is carneous degeneration? |
|
Definition
- AKA "red degeneration"
- changes of the leiomyomata d/t rapid growth
- center becomes red and causes pain
|
|
|
Term
How do fibroids cause menorrhagia? (3 possibilities) |
|
Definition
- increased endometrial surface area
- fibroids may cause disruption of the hemostatic mechanisms during menses
- possible ulceration of submucosal fibroid surfaces
|
|
|
Term
What is the initial tx of symptomatic fibroids? |
|
Definition
Initial treatment is medical: NSAIDs or progestin therapy (provera). |
|
|
Term
When are GnRH agonists used to treat fibroids? |
|
Definition
- GnRH agonists are used to shrink fibroids.
- Achieve maximal effect in 3 months.
- After the agonist is removed, fibroids will return to pre-tx size.
- Therefore, GnRH agonists are only give for tumor shrinkage or correction of anemia prior to operative tx.
|
|
|
Term
When are patients with fibroids treated surgically? What are the surgical options? |
|
Definition
- Patients who do not respond to medical tx may consider surgical tx, which includes:
- Hysterectomy - for women who do not desire future pregnancy.
- Uterine artery embolization to cause fibroid infarction and subsequent hyalinizations/fibrosis
- Myomectomy - for women who desire future pregnancy
|
|
|
Term
What should raise suspicion of leiomyosarcoma (vs. leiomyoma)? What is the next step? |
|
Definition
- rapid growth
- history of prior pelvic irradiation
- significant growth of suspected uterine fibroids in a postmenopausal woman.
- Suspicion of leiomyosarcoma requires surgical evaluation.
|
|
|
Term
What is the tx of asymptomatic uterine fibroids? |
|
Definition
- Most cases can be observed.
- Asymptomatic fibroids require surgical intervention if there is: 1) unexplained rapid growth, 2) ureteral obstruction, or 3) inability to differentiate the fibroid from other types of pelvic masses.
|
|
|
Term
How is pre-eclampsia treated pre-term? How is it managed at term? |
|
Definition
- Preterm - observation until severe criteria are noted or term gestation is reached. [Severe preeclampsia requires delivery regardless of GA.]
- Term - give magnesium sulfate (prevent seizures) and deliver.
|
|
|
Term
What is the 1st sign of magnesium toxicity? What are additional signs/sx? What should be monitored? |
|
Definition
- 1st sign of Mg toxicity = decreased DTRs
- Respiratory depression
- Dyspnea (pulmonary edema)
- Should monitor DTRs and urine output (Mg is excreted renally).
|
|
|
Term
How is chronic HTN diagnosed in a pregnant patient? How is gestational HTN defined? How is pre-eclampsia defined? |
|
Definition
- CHTN = HTN prior to 20 weeks, or if HTN persists beyond 12 weeks postpartum.
- Gestational HTN = HTN without proteinuria beginning after 20 weeks.
- Preeclampsia = HTN w/ proteinuria (>300/24 hr; dipstick > 1+ to 2+) at GA > 20 weeks; caused by vasospasm.
|
|
|
Term
What causes epigastric pain in pre-eclamptic patients? What is an assosciated complication? |
|
Definition
- Epigastric pain is d/t ischemia of the liver.
- Rarely hepatic hematomas may form and may rupture, resulting in massive hemorrhage (requires immediate laparotomy)
|
|
|
Term
How is severe pre-eclampsia defined? |
|
Definition
- BP of at least 160 systolic or 110 diastolic (or)
- 24 hr protein >5 g or urine dipstick with 3+ / 4+ (or)
- Sx that indicate end-organ damage are present: HA, RUQ pain, vision changes, etc.
|
|
|
Term
Complications of pre-eclampsia (6) |
|
Definition
- placental abruption
- eclampsia (with possible intracerebral hemorrhage)
- coagulopathies
- renal failure
- hepatic subcapsular hematoma/rupture
- uteroplacental insufficiency
|
|
|
Term
Risk factors for pre-eclampsia (10) |
|
Definition
- nulliparity
- CHTN
- age extremes
- African American race
- Antiphospholipid syndrome
- DM
- multifetal gestation
- chronic renal dz
- personal h/o severe preeclampsia
- Family h/o preeclampsia
|
|
|
Term
When is a pre-eclamptic patient at greatest risk for eclampsia? |
|
Definition
- just prior to delivery
- during labor (intrapartum)
- first 24 hours postpartum (Mg is continued until 24 hrs postpartum).
|
|
|
Term
How are mild & severe HTN managed in pregnancy? |
|
Definition
- Mild - no treatment (unless pt was being treated for CHTN before pregnancy)
- Severe - labetalol, hydralazine
|
|
|
Term
What is the MC cause of maternal death d/t eclampsia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Characteristics of fibroadenoma of the breast |
|
Definition
- firm, rubbery, mobile mass that is solid in consistency in adolescent - 20s
- most common cause of a "dominant breast mass"
- does not change with menstrual cycle (as opposed to fibrocystic changes)
|
|
|
Term
Characteristics of fibrocystic changes of the breast |
|
Definition
- multiple, irregular "lumpiness of the breast"
- MC benign breast condition
- Much more common premenopause (hormone-dependent).
- Sx: cyclic, painful, engorged breast
|
|
|
Term
Tx of fibrocystic changes of the breast (5) |
|
Definition
- decrease caffiene intake
- NSAIDs
- wear tight-fitting bra
- combined OCPs or oral progestin
- danazol (weak anti-estrogen, androgenic compound) for severe cases
|
|
|
Term
Work-up of a suspected fibroadenoma |
|
Definition
- ALL 3D dominant masses require biopsy for histologic evaluation.
- Women < 35: often do FNA or core biopsy
- Women >35 or with increased risk (FHx) of breast cancer: excisional biopsy
- Triple assessment: clinical exam, imaging (US or mammography), and histology should all agree. (Nonconcordance --> obtain more tissue).
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
If mass is small and not growing, it may be watched closely. |
|
|
Term
Intraductal papilloma - what is it? presentation? work-up? |
|
Definition
- small, benign tumor of the milk duct
- bloody nipple discharge
- highest incidence beween ages 35 - 55.
- Since malignancy is the 2nd MC cause of bloody nipple discharge, ductal exploration is required to r/o cancer.
|
|
|
Term
What is usually the best imaging modailty to image the breast of a woman <30? |
|
Definition
- Ultrasound
- This is b/c the dense fibrocystic changes in younger women that interfere with mammogram interpretation.
- US can differentiate solid vs. cystic, but should stil obtain tissue to confirm dx of fibroadenoma.
|
|
|
Term
5 common etiologies ("factors") of infertility |
|
Definition
- Ovulatory
- Uterine
- Tubal
- Male
- Peritoneal
[6th, less common etiology = cervical]
|
|
|
Term
Infertility: ovulatory factor - hx, dx, tx |
|
Definition
- H/o of irregular menses, +/- obesity
- Dx: basal body temperature chart does not show biphasic pattern, midluteal (day 21) serum progesterone level (indicates ovulation), LH surge detectable with self-administered urine test, endometrial biospy, US.
- Tx: generally amenable to tx with clomiphene
|
|
|
Term
Infertility: Uterine factor - hx, dx, work-up/tx |
|
Definition
- H/o uterine fibroids (esp. submucosal myomata interfere with implantation)
- Dx: hysterosalpingogram showing abnromal uterine cavity
- Work-up/tx: hysteroscopy
|
|
|
Term
Infertility: male factor - hx, dx, tx |
|
Definition
- h/o hernia, varicocele, mumps
- dx: semen analysis
- tx: repair of hernia or varicocele; IVF
|
|
|
Term
Infertility: tubal factor - hx, dx, tx |
|
Definition
- H/o chlamydial or gonococcal infxn
- dx: hysterosalpingogram may be helpful, but gold standard = laparoscopy
- Tx: often surgery; IVF
|
|
|
Term
Infertility: Peritoneal factor - hx, dx, tx |
|
Definition
- Hx - Endometriosis. 3 D's: dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia. (May be asymptomatic or presenting sx = infertility.)
- Dx - laparoscopy = gold standard
- Tx - surgical ablation of lesions; medical tx
|
|
|
Term
Infertility: Cervical factor - hx, tx |
|
Definition
- infrequent etiology!
- hx: prior cryotherapy of the cervix; pt has thick mucus before ovulation
- tx: intrauterine inseminsation (catheter injects sperm directly into uterus).
|
|
|
Term
What types (3) of emergency contraception are there? Within how many hours after intercourse must it be given? What are the main side effects? Which is the preferred method? |
|
Definition
- High dose combination hormones (Yuzpe regimen), high dose progestin (Plan B), insertion of IUD.
- Hormones must be taken within 72 hours of intercourse. IUD up to 5 days.
- Main SE of combination hormonal contraception = nausea and vomiting (caused by high dose ER). May be given with an antiemetic.
- Progestin-only method has better efficacy (85% vs 75%) and less nausea compared to combination hormones.
|
|
|
Term
What are the specific effects of the progesterone and the estrogen in combined hormonal contraceptives? |
|
Definition
- PR - inhibits ovulation; thickens cervical mucus
- ER - maintains endometrium, prevents unscheduled bleeding, inhibits follicular development.
|
|
|
Term
Most common SE of combined OCP (4) |
|
Definition
- nausea
- fluid retention
- weight gain
- breast tenderness
|
|
|
Term
What are serious complications of pyelonephritis? (2) |
|
Definition
- Septic shock - pyelonephritis = MC cause of sepsis/septic shock in pregnancy
- ARDS.
|
|
|
Term
ARDS: Sx, mechanism, findings, tx, complications in pregnancy |
|
Definition
- sx: dyspnea, tachypnea
- mechanism: bacterial endotoxins (esp. gm neg) damage the endothelium, creating leaky pulmonary capillaries. Typically occurs after abx have been started (d/t lysis of bacteria).
- findings: may have CXR with patchy inflitrates. CXR may be normal early in dz process.
- Tx: oxygen supplementation, monitor fluids (not to overload), supportive measures. Intubation if necessary.
- In pregnancy endotoxemia may cause uterine ctx and put a pt into preterm labor.
|
|
|
Term
Which organisms are commonly causes of pyelonephritis (4)? |
|
Definition
- Aerobic bacteria:
- E. Coli (80% cases)
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Staph aureus
- Proteus mirabilis
|
|
|
Term
Tx and management of pyelonephritis in pregnant patients (3). If initial tx does not work, what is the next step? |
|
Definition
- IV antibiotics: cephalosporins or combination of gentamicin and ampicillin.
- Continue suppressive oral therapy for remainder of pregnancy.
- Obtain repeat urine culture to ensure clearance of infxn.
- If there's no clinical improvement in 48-72 hours, urinary tract obstruction or perinephric abscess should be suspected.
|
|
|
Term
What is a dominant breast mass? How are they managed? |
|
Definition
- It is a 3-dimensional mass that, on palpation, is felt to be separate from the remainder of the breat tissue.
- All dominant masses (even those with normal imaging) must be biopsied.
- Depending on risk factors, may choose an excisional biospy (remove entire mass) or FNA.
|
|
|
Term
What is the #1 risk factor for breast cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
BRCA1 and BRCA2 - which chromosomes? how much risk?who should be tested? |
|
Definition
- BRCA1 is on chr 17; BRCA2 is on chr 13.
- Both are tumor supressor genes (AD).
- Mutations confer increased risk for breast (50-70%) and ovarian (30%) cancers. (%s for BRCA1).
- Pts with 2 first degree relatives with breast CA are candidates for genetic testing.
- Ashkenzai Jews are at increased risk
|
|
|
Term
What component of staging is most significant for breast cancer patient's prognosis? |
|
Definition
Patient's lymph node status. |
|
|
Term
What is the most common histologic subtypic of breast cancer? |
|
Definition
Infiltrating intraductal carcinoma |
|
|
Term
What is the ACOG recommendation for breast cancer screening in the general population? |
|
Definition
- Women > 40: annual mammograms and annual clinical breast exam
- 20 - 39: annual clinical breast exam q1-3 years.
|
|
|
Term
How should breast cysts be managed? |
|
Definition
- Breast cysts that have a straw-colored or clear aspirate and breast mass disappears upon aspiration may be observed.
- If fluid is another color, the fluid should be sent for cytology.
- If the mass persists after aspiration it should be biopsied.
|
|
|
Term
Most common ovarian tumor in women < 30 years and in women > 30 years. |
|
Definition
- < 30 years: benign cystic teratoma (aka dermoid cyst, a germ cell tumor). Tx in a young woman = ovarian cystectomy.
- Dermoid cyst with thyroid tissue = struma ovarii
- > 30 years: serous cystadenoma (epithelial origin)
|
|
|
Term
How do ovarian germ cell tumors usually present? What stage? How can you diagnose? What complications can occur? |
|
Definition
- They usually present as a pelvic mass that causes pain d/t rapidly enlarging size.
- Most are unilateral. 10-15% are bilateral.
- 60-70% present in stage 1.
- Dx with ultrasound is very accurate.
- Most frequent complication = torsion - severe, acute abdominal pain. Occurs more frequently in pregnancy and puerperium.
- Another less common complication = rupture [leading to] hemorrhage.
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
- less common than mature teratomas; in general, uncommon
- contain all 3 germ layers AND embryonic-like tissue/structures.
- most occur in 1st and 2nd decades
- almost always unilateral
- tx - unilateral salpingooophorectomy with wide sampling of perioteal implants
|
|
|
Term
Epithelial ovarian tumors (5) |
|
Definition
- serous = most common; often bilateral.
- mucinous = very large; can cause pseudomyxoma peritonei if ruptured - leads to repeated bouts of bowel obstruction. Generally unilateral.
- Endometrioid - can coexist with primary endometrial CA of the uterus
- Brenner
- Clear cell
|
|
|
Term
How are epithelial ovarian tumors managed? |
|
Definition
- Tx is first surgical.
- If malignancy is confirmed, cancer staging is indicated.
- After surgical staging, combination chemotherapy.
|
|
|
Term
How can you distinguish functional ovarian cysts vs. neoplastic masses in women of reproductive age? |
|
Definition
- Masses > 8 cm - likely to be neoplastic.
- Masses < 5 cm - likely a functional cyst (follicular, corpus luteal, etc).
- Masses between 5 - 8 cm - Do sonogram - septations, solid components, or excrescences suggest neoplasm - must operate. May also observe for 1 month and operate if mass persists.
|
|
|
Term
What are 2 features of both granulosa cell tumors and seroli-leydig cell tumors? |
|
Definition
- these tumors are completely solid
- they secrete hormones.
|
|
|
Term
Wound dehiscence - definition, associations, presentation, tx |
|
Definition
- Wound dehiscence - separation of part of the surgical incision, but with intact peritoneum.
- Superficial separation is usually assoc. with infxn or hematoma.
- Presents 4-10 d post-op with red, tender incision.
- Tx = open wound and drain purulence. Give broad-spectrum abx with wet-to-dry dressings.
|
|
|
Term
Fascial disruption - definition, risk factors (9), presentation, tx |
|
Definition
- Fascial disruption - separation of facial layer, usually leadng to a communication of the peritoneal cavity with the skin.
- Increased risk with vertical incisions, obesity, intra-abdominal distension, diabetes, expsoure to radiation, corticosteroid use, infxn, coughing, and malnutrition.
- Presents as profuse serosanguinous drainage from the incision 5-7 days post-op.
- Requires repair ASAP (surgical emergency) and initiation of broad-spectrum abx.
|
|
|
Term
Evisceration - definition, tx |
|
Definition
- Evisceration - disruption of all layers of the incision with omentum or bowel protruding through. Significant mortality d/t sepsis.
- Surgical emergency
- When encountered - place sterile sponge wet with saline over bowel and take pt to OR. Start abx immediately.
|
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of facial breakdown in fascial disruption? |
|
Definition
Sutures tear through the fascia. |
|
|
Term
When do facial disruption and evisceration typicall occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Causes of hemoperitoneum in pregnancy |
|
Definition
- Most common = ectopic pregnancy
- ruptured corpus luteum (note: corpus luteum cysts tend to rupture more often during pregnancy)
|
|
|
Term
What is the "float test"? |
|
Definition
- Used to diagnose intrauterine pregnancy (95% accurate).
- Tissue passed by a pt floats in a "frond pattern" when placed in saline d/t presence of chorionic villi.
- Helps to r/o ectopic pregnancy
|
|
|
Term
What is the common presentation for ruptured corpus luteum cyst? How is the dx confirmed? What is the tx? |
|
Definition
- suddent onset of severe lower abdominal pain
- some women have unilateral cramping and lower abdominal pain for 1-2 weeks before overt rupture
- commonly ruptures between days 20-26 of menstrual cycle.
- Dx is confirmed by laparoscopy.
- Tx - first secure hemostasis. once bleeding stops no further tx is needed. If bleeding persists, cystectomy should be performed.
|
|
|
Term
What is the fxn of the corpus luteum during pregnancy? How does this affect management of corpus luteum cyst? |
|
Definition
- It is the main source of progesterone until about 10 weeks GA.
- hCG maintains luteal fxn until placenta is making its own progesterone sufficiently.
- If corpus luteum is removed surgically before 10-12 weeks GA, exogenous progesterone is needed to sustain the pregnancy.
|
|
|