1) Any loan that exceeds the conforming loan limits set by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac is called what?

a) A nonconforming loan
b) A step-rate loan
c) A "jumbo" loan
d) A conforming loan

2) ______________ is a shareholder-owned company that works to make sure mortgage money is available for people across the country.

a) Freddie Mac
b) Ginnie Mae
c) Freddie Mae
d) Fannie Mae

3) Loans originated in the primary mortgage market can be bought, sold or traded in the

a) primary mortgage market.
b) secondary mortgage market.
c) Federal Reserve System.
d) S&P 500.

4) When a lender is evaluating a buyer's ability to repay a loan, the lender looks at all of these items except which one?

a) Educational history
b) Past credit history
c) Present employment status
d) Liabilities

5) Regulation Z applies to which of these situations?

a) $35,000 farm loan
b) $50,000 restaurant loan
c) $75,000 condominium loan
d) $85,000 warehouse loan

6) A loan-to-value-ratio is the ratio of

a) the down payment to the value of the property.
b) the mortgage principal to the value of the property.
c) the mortgage principal to the down payment.
d) the down payment to the mortgage principal.

7) When an underwriter is looking at an applicant_s income, he or she wants to see

a) income that is not stable and not enough.
b) income that is stable and not enough.
c) income that is stable and enough.
d) income that is not stable and enough.

8) Who would probably NOT be targeted by predatory lenders?

a) People with "A" paper
b) People with "B," "C" or "D" paper
c) People who are poorly educated.
d) People who are not fluent in English.

) A balloon mortgage is a loan that

a) the monthly payment increases over time.
b) must be paid off within a year.
c) has one large final payment due when the loan matures.
d) has the largest monthly payment halfway through its life.

10) What is the risk of debt consolidation?

a) Forgetting to pay many different bills
b) A person could lose all his financed assets when they cannot pay the one bill.
c) The total debt is increased by at least 75%.
d) There are no major risks.

1) Who introduced the first security backed by conventional loans in 1971?

a) Freddie Mac
b) Fannie Mae
c) Ginnie Mae
d) Bank of America

Which statement about Ginnie Mae is false?

a) Ginnie Mae is a government agency.
b) Ginnie Mae is a former government agency that became a private corporation in the 1970s.
c) Ginnie Mae developed the first mortgage-backed security in 1970.
d) Ginnie Mae guarantees that the monthly payments will be made every month.

What is not a common way that mortgage funds are shifted?

a) Lenders selling loans to one another.
b) Through mortgage-backed securities
c) The Federal Reserve purchasing mortgages from smaller member banks.
d) One institution selling a part interest in a block of loans to another institution.

Which of the following is a low loan-to-value ratio?

a) Jake is getting a VA loan with no down payment.
b) Sandy and Bill are putting 30% down on their home purchase.
c) Alice is getting a conventional loan and making a 15% down payment.
d) Tim and Gail have qualified for an FHA loan.

It is important for the lender to determine the ___________ of a particular piece of property at any given point in time.

a) rental value
b) land value
c) book value
d) market value

If the dwelling is owner-occupied, the lender may think the risk is less because the property will be better taken care of. In this case, the lender may require

a) smaller down payment than if it was a rental property.
b) larger down payment than if it was a rental property.
c) a higher interest rate than if it was a rental property.
d) higher monthly payments than if it was a rental property.

Why is the borrower's net worth significant to the lender?

a) The borrower's net worth shows how the borrower spends their cash.
b) The borrower's net worth is a reflection of the borrower's income.
c) The borrower's net worth indicates ability to keep up with loan's payments if the borrower loses their job.
d) The borrower's net worth only displays the borrower's assets.

When a qualified borrower is approved for a mortgage loan, the loan is referred to as what?

a) _A_ paper
b) _B" paper
c) "C" paper
d) "D" paper

Loan flipping is

a) when a lender bases an unaffordable loan on the applicant_s assets rather than his or her ability to repay the loan.
b) when a lender uses fraud or deception to hide the true obligations of the loan from the borrower.
c) when a borrower pays off the mortgage as soon as possible.
d) when a lender encourages a borrower to refinance a loan so that they can charge high points and fees for the new loan.

Redlining is

a) when a lender seeks only buyers with "A" paper.
b) when lender requires a higher down payment from the unqualified buyer because of the type of neighborhood in which the property is located.
c) when a lender encourages a borrower to refinance a loan so that they can charge high points and fees for the new loan.
d) when a lender bases an unaffordable loan on the applicant_s assets rather than his or her ability to repay the loan.

All of the following are primary mortgage market lenders except which?

a) Investment groups
b) Credit unions
c) Mortgage brokers
d) Holding warehouse agencies

In what type of mortgage-backed security does the security holder receive payment of both principal and interest, whether or not is has been collected?

a) The modified pass-through security
b) The fully modified pass-through security
c) The straight pass-through security
d) The reverse pass-through security

Who is not a major player in the secondary mortgage market?

a) Fannie Mac
b) Ginnie Mae
c) Fannie Mae
d) Freddie Mac

Determining a borrower's ability to repay a loan and evaluating a property are known as what?

a) Qualification
b) Underwriting
c) Credit evaluation
d) Screening

The Truth in Lending Act exists

a) so lenders disclose to buyers the true cost of obtaining credit.
b) so lenders do not discriminate against minority buyers.
c) to eliminate lending advertisements.
d) to cut down on the number of loans.

What is not a criteria that lenders look at when determining whether to grant a loan?

a) The borrower_s ability to repay the loan
b) The economy
c) The investment quality of the property
d) The borrower's age, sex, race, and religion

Who is not a major credit reporting agency?

a) Equifax
b) Titlemax
c) Experian
d) TransUnion

Which of the following is not prohibited by New York Anti-Predatory lending Law?

a) Balloon payments
b) Loan flipping
c) Discount points
d) Negative amortization

Borrowers who fall into the _below A_ categories are referred to as

a) prime borrowers.
b) avoided borrowers.
c) untouchable borrowers.
d) sub-prime borrowers.

What is a predatory lending practice that one might see with sub-prime loans?

a) A lender often gifts $5,000 to the unqualified buyer because of the type of neighborhood in which the property is located.
b) Lenders often add insurance and other unnecessary products to the sub-prime loan amount.
c) Lenders charge lower interest rates and lower closing costs on sub-prime loans to make up for the loss they might suffer if the borrower defaults.

1) __________ control of land use was the precursor to public land use control in the United States.

a) Total
b) Government
c) Communal
d) Private

The property owners of a subdivision can enforce the covenants by taking a court action known as a/n

a) restraining order.
b) suit to quiet title.
c) injunction.
d) warrant of seizin.

If an action is determined to have possible significant adverse environmental impacts, a/n _____________ is required.

a) environmental footprint analysis
b) environmental impact statement
c) environmental committee
d) environmental lobbyist

If a municipality exerts its power of eminent domain against a certain property owner, what happens?

a) The owner must pay higher property taxes or give up the property.
b) The owner must cede an easement without receiving any compensation.
c) The municipality annexes the property.
d) The owner must sell the property or grant an easement to the municipality for just compensation.

In addition to government entities, which of these organizations may be able to condemn property under the power of eminent domain?

a) Financial institutions
b) Major employers
c) Public utilities
d) Neighborhood associations

What is typically not covered by building codes?

a) Architectural and engineering standards
b) The zoning of a building
c) Building support systems such as life safety, electrical, mechanical, and utility systems
d) Construction materials standards

Who can enact zoning ordinances?

a) State governments
b) City or county governments
c) The Federal government
d) All levels of government

What is a type of zoning in which density is determined for an entire area, rather than on a lot-by-lot basis?

a) Incentive zoning
b) Transfer of development rights zoning
c) Cluster zoning
d) Individual zoning

What makes it possible for there to be a free exchange of development rights without having to buy or sell land?

a) Incentive zoning
b) Transfer of zoning
c) Transfer of mortgages
d) Transfer of development rights

A non-profit organization wants to erect a much needed daycare center in a residential zone. Given other favorable circumstances, the local authorities grant permission by allowing what?

a) An illegal nonconforming use
b) A special exception
c) A variance
d) A license

What are the primary objective/s of a land use plan?

a) To limit landowner rights and the area's growth
b) To satisfy the Federal government's desire for zoning
c) To control/ accommodate social and economic growth
d) To increase government ownership and control of private property

What is a housing concept that produces a high density of residential housing units, a maximum use of open spaces, and greater development flexibility?

a) An utopian development
b) A planned unit development
c) A commune development
d) A specialized development

If the zoning appeals board rejects a zoning appeal, the land owner may appeal the ruling by petitioning the New York Supreme Court through a/n

a) Article 78 proceeding.
b) sunshine law.
c) Article 23 proceeding.
d) class action lawsuit.

What is not a core purpose underlying the control of land use?

a) To slow economic growth of the country
b) To preserve property values
c) To promote the highest and best use of property
d) To incorporate the community's consensus into regulatory and planning activities

Which form of land use control places limits on how a property can be used?

a) Licensing provision
b) Limit agreement
c) Deed restrictions
d) Plat map

) The Doctrine of Laches states that if property owners are

a) stringent in protecting their property rights, the property owner may lose those rights.
b) stringent in protecting their property rights, the property owner may gain new rights.
c) lax in protecting their property rights, the property owner may lose those rights.
d) lax in protecting their property rights, the property owner may gain new rights.

What is the fundamental purpose of a building permit?

a) To restrict the number of new development projects
b) To ensure that improvements comply with codes
c) To establish the basis for an inspection
d) To promote certificates of occupancy

What is not an example of a police power exercised by the government?

a) Eminent domain
b) Zoning ordinances
c) Environmental restrictions
d) Free property maintenance

The Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act prevents

a) fraud in marketing factories that can be sold sight unseen.
b) fraud in marketing land that can be sold sight unseen.
c) fraud in marketing houses that can be sold sight unseen.
d) fraud in marketing office buildings that can be sold sight unseen.

What is the principal mechanism for implementing a master plan?

a) Zoning
b) Referendum
c) Public election
d) Property management

Which of the following is not a common type of zone classification?

a) Residential
b) Recreational
c) Military
d) Commercial

What law(s) requires meetings of governmental agencies and departments to be open to the public?

a) The Open Government Law
b) The sunshine laws
c) The Fair Housing Act
d) The Sharing is Caring Law

What is the best definition of a master plan?

a) An annual review of all land use permits and zones.
b) A comprehensive analysis of existing land use patterns in a market.
c) A state or regional land use law requiring compliance on a county-by-county basis.
d) A fusion of land use laws and local land use objectives and strategies.

The approval process for development of multiple properties in an area includes submission of which of these?

a) A covenant of restrictions
b) A plat of subdivision
c) A court order
d) A developer's pro forma

What is a temporary suspension of the development of a group of properties called?

a) A moratorium
b) Spot zoning
c) Eminent domain
d) Dezoning

A zoning _________ allows a use that differs from the applicable ordinance for a variety of justifiable reasons.

a) violation
b) designation
c) oddity
d) variance

Zoning is

a) the process of planning for land use by a locality to allocate certain kinds of structures in certain areas.
b) an illegal form of public land control.
c) the concept of allowing landowner to build whatever they want.
d) only relevant to residential properties.

What is the purpose of restrictive covenants in a subdivision?

a) To preserve and protect the quality of land in subdivisions and to maximize land values
b) To prevent certain groups of people from moving to the subdivision
c) To anger all the current residents
d) To promote individuality of the homeowners

New York's ___________________ requires all state and local government agencies to assess the environmental significance of all actions they have discretion to approve, fund or directly undertake.

a) Environmental Oversight Committee
b) Environmental Protection Assurance
c) State Environmental Quality Review Act
d) Environment Assessment Act

To be valid, a local zoning ordinance must do what?

a) Reasonably promote community health, safety and welfare
b) Comply with federal zoning laws
c) Apply only to unique properties
d) Be published periodically in the local newspaper

What happens to a person's property if he or she dies with no will and no heirs?

a) It remains untouched.
b) The state will use the power of eminent domain to claim the property.
c) The state will tax the property but not claim the it.
d) The state will use the power of escheat to claim the property.

In New York, ___________ liens take priority over any other liens.

a) mechanic's
b) property tax
c) judgment
d) mortgage

What do we call programs that encourage a shift in development away from environmentally sensitive areas to more appropriate areas?

a) Moratoriums
b) Planned development units
c) Transfer of development rights
d) Rezoning

Residential zoning regulates

a) the density, value, and aesthetics of the area.
b) the density, availability, and aesthetics of the area.
c) the culture, value, and demographics of the area.
d) the preferences, desirability, and prices of the area.

____________ include hospitals, prisons, courthouses, colleges and public schools.

a) Parklands
b) Commercial areas
c) Recreational areas
d) Institutional areas

In most jurisdictions, who manages the master plan?

a) The mayor
b) The Board of Equalization
c) The planning board
d) The zoning board of adjustment

Which of the following is not included in the subdivision regulations?

a) Property tax rates
b) Public utility easements
c) Minimum dimensions of property lots
d) Location, grading, surfacing, alignment and widths of streets and highways

What is it called when a small area of land in an existing neighborhood is singled out and placed in a different zone from that of neighboring property?

a) Moratorium
b) Selective zoning
c) Spot zoning
d) The cul-de-sac exception

What is the term for a property with a use that clearly differs from current zoning?

a) Legal use
b) Nonconforming use
c) Conforming use
d) Unfortunate use

When construction is complete, final inspections will be done and if all is up to code, the building department will issue a

a) deed.
b) building permit.
c) title.
d) certificate of occupancy.

Who provides guidelines for the construction of private wells in New York?

a) The Environmental Protection Agency
b) The New York Real Estate Commission
c) The New York State Department of Health
d) The New York State Department of Environmental Conservation

What is not typically included in a building's specifications?

a) A list of the materials and finishes that will be used in the construction.
b) A specific selling price which the property will be listed at when completed.
c) An explanation of any features that are not clearly visible in the drawings.
d) A description of how the landscaping will be treated.

In platform framing, what are the members called that frame the structure?

a) Studs
b) Beams
c) Joists
d) Rafters

The slope of the roof is also known as

a) the angle.
b) the sheath.
c) the pitch.
d) the ridge beam.

A __________ is a wooden support member that is laid on top of and bolted to the foundation wall.

a) bearing wall
b) sill plate
c) header
d) girder

Which of the following heating methods would probably be the most efficient in the New York climate?

a) Solar
b) Ground source heat pump
c) Forced air
d) Electric baseboard

Ventilation air is the air used for providing

a) pure oxygen air.
b) only cool air.
c) acceptable indoor air quality.
d) enough carbon dioxide to breathe.

What amount of heat energy is needed to raise the temperature of one pound of water by one degree F?

a) A British Thermal Unit
b) One watt
c) One joule
d) An American Thermal Unit

When a one or two-family property is sold in New York, what is required?

a) A structural inspection
b) A service affidavit
c) A smoke alarm and carbon monoxide detector
d) Authorization from a fire inspector

What is a brand name for a type of plastic insulated wire, sometimes called non-metallic sheath?

a) Armored Cable
b) Romex
c) Conduit
d) Greenfield Conductor

A _________ is a protective device containing a wire that melts and breaks the circuit when the current exceeds a certain value.

a) voltage dam
b) booster
c) pressure valve
d) fuse

Contractors and developers must apply for and receive _____________ before they can start construction.

a) the blueprints
b) building specifications
c) building permits
d) the certificate of occupancy

What onsite system is designed to treat and dispose of domestic sewage?

a) A sewer
b) A septic system
c) A port-a-potty
d) A waste management system

What is the separation between the interior and the exterior environments of a building known as?

a) The building envelope
b) The building divide
c) The buffer space
d) The d-value

Which is the most common type of framing for residential construction?

a) Balloon
b) Platform
c) Stud
d) Post and beam

The part of the foundation which transmits loads directly to the soil is called

a) the basement.
b) the stud.
c) the transmitter.
d) the footing.

Walls that support the ceiling and the roof are called

a) non-bearing walls.
b) bearing walls.
c) eaves.
d) headers.

Oil-fired heating has what disadvantage?

a) Emits toxic fumes
b) Requires delivery and storage
c) Is the most expensive heating solution
d) Cannot be used for residences

What does the R-factor measure?

a) The range of temperatures that a heating unit can provide.
b) How quickly heat is conducted across a surface
c) How many gallons of water a well can replenish per day
d) How much shade a property possesses

What type of insulation is used for work on flat roofs, on basement walls, as perimeter insulation at concrete slab edges, and in cathedral ceilings?

a) Rigid board insulation
b) Spray foam insulation
c) Batt and blanket insulation
d) Reflective insulation

Which type of pipe is typically found in drainage systems?

a) Aluminum
b) Cast iron
c) Plastic
d) Brass

How is amperage calculated?

a) Cubic feet per minute
b) Voltage
c) Meters per second
d) Watts or kilowatts

What dictates the minimum and maximum pressures allowed for plumbing fixtures?

a) The building codes
b) The certificate of occupancy
c) The zoning laws
d) The blueprints

The detailed set of plans that will be used as a guide to construct the building are

a) the building permits.
b) the blueprints.
c) the certificates of occupancy.
d) the master plans.

_____________ is anything attached to a piece of land or building such that it becomes a part of that property and is passed on to a new owner when the property sells.

a) An appurtenance
b) An easement
c) An encumbrance
d) Personal property

Shade affects

a) the rate of erosion.
b) whether the property can have a septic system or not.
c) the use and development of the building.
d) the energy efficiency of the building.

Studs used to frame the roofing system are called

a) rafters.
b) slabs.
c) girders.
d) sill plates.

What foundation is a flat concrete pad poured directly on the ground?

a) The fundamental
b) The joist
c) The slab
d) The pitch

In _____________ construction, exterior wall studs continue through the first and second stories. First floor joists and exterior wall studs both bear on the anchored sill.

a) advanced
b) post and beam
c) platform
d) balloon-frame

What kind of gas is used for cooling in air conditioners?

a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Propane
d) Freon

__________ insulation is a two-part liquid containing a polymer and a foaming agent.

a) Reflective
b) Spray foam
c) Rigid board
d) Batt and blanket

What type of furnace has a heat exchanger to burn the fuel, which is either natural gas, propane, or butane?

a) A gas-fired furnace
b) An electric furnace
c) An oil-fired furnace
d) A wood-fired furnace

Which of these types of wire would probably not be found in a residence?

a) Romex cable
b) Copper wire
c) Greenfield conductor
d) Steel wire

Which type of water heater is most popular?

a) Gas
b) Tankless
c) Electric
d) Solar

What type of pipe is utilized in areas where hard water is a problem, is very lightweight, and is inexpensive?

a) Brass
b) PVC
c) Cast iron
d) Copper

1) What legislation was originally passed by Congress in 1974 to protect public health by regulating the nation's public drinking water supply?

a) The Water Monopolization Act
b) The Safe Drinking Water Act
c) The Protection Act
d) The Water Standardization Act

Which of the following is not a category of wetland and is not protected by the Freshwater Wetlands Act of 1975?

a) A forest
b) A marsh
c) A swamp
d) A bog

___________ is a chemical insecticide that was used for termite exterminations until it was banned in the early 1980s because of its toxicity.

a) Mustard gas
b) Asbestos
c) DDT
d) Chlordane

What is a common source of lead contamination?

a) Insulation from plumbing pipes
b) Above ground storage tanks
c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Paint, plumbing pipes and airborne particles

__________ minerals are fibrous silicates with a crystalline structure and are found in rock formations throughout the United States and the world.

a) Polychlorinated biphenyl
b) Asbestos
c) Radon
d) Radioactive

What environmental hazard is the easiest to detect and mitigate but is totally odorless?

a) Asbestos
b) Termites
c) Radon
d) Water contamination

Which statement is true about sick building syndrome?

a) It subsides when the person leaves the building.
b) It should be treated with an insecticide.
c) It is covered by the Clean Air Act.
d) It is caused by contaminated drinking water.

If a soil sample tests positive for PCBs, what is the remediation?

a) To condemn the area
b) To quarantine the area
c) To move the soil to special incinerators or landfills
d) To utilize chlorine gas to neutralize the effects

If a licensee is aware of any mold problems in a home, he or she should

a) not disclose that information as a latent defect.
b) disclose that information as a latent defect.
c) disclose that information as a material defect.
d) overlook the issue unless they represent the buyer.

10) Which of the following laws created the Superfund?

a) National Environmental Policy Act
b) Shoreline Management Act
c) State Environmental Policy Act
d) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act

What is the primary environment hazard of underground storage tanks?

a) They might catch on fire.
b) They might release dangerous fumes into the air.
c) They might leak hazardous substances which will contaminate the groundwater.
d) They might be made of lead.

During which phase of an environmental assessment tests does remediation occur?

a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV

When is a percolation test used?

a) To test for lead paint.
b) Before a septic tank is installed.
c) To find the presence of radon.
d) As proof of due diligence.

In most cities and towns, water utility companies provide drinking water through a

a) private system.
b) series of wells.
c) sewer system.
d) municipal system.

Highly corrosive water often has a dangerously high level of

a) uranium.
b) asbestos.
c) lead.
d) alkalinity.

When does asbestos pose a health hazard?

a) When it is used in paint.
b) When it is released into the air as dust or fibers.
c) When it finds its way into the groundwater supply.
d) When it builds up inside interior building walls.

What devices detect and record radon?

a) Continuous Radon Monitors
b) Electret Ion Chambers
c) Charcoal Canisters
d) Electromagnetic pulsers

) In the _____________ section of the Lead-Based Paint Disclosure Form, the real estate licensee initials to indicate that he or she has inform the sellers as required and is aware of his or her responsibility to ensure compliance.

a) Purchaser_s Acknowledgement
b) Certification of Accuracy
c) Agent_s Acknowledgement
d) Seller_s Disclosure

The most effective way to control indoor mold growth is to

a) increase humidity.
b) control moisture.
c) increase radon gas levels.
d) increase amount of standing water.

8) Which of the following is not a significant source of formaldehyde?

a) Particleboard
b) Hardwood plywood paneling
c) Medium density fiberboard
d) Wallboard

9) Mixtures of synthetic organic chemicals with the same basic chemical structure and similar physical properties ranging from oily liquids to waxy solids are

a) polychlorinated biphenyls.
b) chlorofluorocarbons.
c) freon.
d) mold.

) Which phase of an environmental assessment confirms contamination at a site?

a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV

Why are some chlorofluorocarbons banned?

a) They destroy the ozone layer.
b) They cause allergies.
c) They are intoxicants.
d) They can cause explosions.

There are no laws currently that regulate ____________ emissions.

a) polychlorinated biphenyl
b) chlorofluorocarbon
c) electromagnetic field
d) asbestos

Which of the following substances could pollute drinking water?

a) Asbestos
b) Freon
c) Pesticides
d) Termites

Areas where water covers the soil, or is present either at or near the surface of the soil all year are

a) wetlands.
b) forests.
c) the watershed.
d) jungles.

3) If there is a private well on the property, the homeowner or potential homeowner should be advised to

a) have the water tested by a health or private laboratory at least once a year.
b) dig a new well once every three years.
c) not drink the water.
d) put chlorine tablets in the well to kill potential contaminants.

4) Who should remove asbestos?

a) The seller
b) The buyer
c) A certified professional
d) A neighborhood handyman

5) To what types of properties do lead-based paint disclosures apply?

a) To regions where lead poisoning is common
b) To houses built before 1978
c) To houses built after 1996
d) To properties without lead monitoring devices.

6) The Surgeon General has warned that __________ is the second leading cause of lung cancer in the United States today and is therefore a serious public health problem.

a) smoking
b) mold
c) lead
d) radon

7) An increasing amount of corroborating research indicates that the presence of __________ in modern environments help improve indoor air quality in any building?

a) carbon monoxide molecules
b) live plants
c) oversized windows
d) ceiling fans

8) Which statement is false about sick building syndrome?

a) Sick building syndrome is uncommon.
b) People get better once they leave the building.
c) Live plants can reduce the number of contaminants.
d) The effects can be permanent, even once they do leave the property.

9) What is a thermal insulation material that is no longer used because of formaldehyde gas emission?

a) Urea formaldehyde foam insulation
b) Wall board
c) Lead paint
d) Polychlorinated biphenyls

10) The government regulates USTs when the storage capacity reaches how many gallons?

a) 600
b) 750
c) 1100
d) 2000

c) 1100
d) 2000

What is the primary hazard of chlorofluorocarbons to the environment?

a) They cause forest fires.
b) They are toxic and build up in basements.
c) They contaminate the water supply.
d) They deplete the ozone layer.

AThe principle purpose for the Superfund is

a) to clean up hazardous waste dumps and to respond to spills of hazardous materials.
b) to make a profit from environmental disasters.
c) to prevent environment disasters in the future.
d) to use the police power of eminent domain on all houses with lead paint.

1) What legislation was originally passed by Congress in 1974 to protect public health by regulating the nation's public drinking water supply?

a) The Water Monopolization Act
b) The Safe Drinking Water Act
c) The Protection Act
d) The Water Standardization Act

2) Which of the following is not a category of wetland and is not protected by the Freshwater Wetlands Act of 1975?

a) A forest
b) A marsh
c) A swamp
d) A bog

3) ___________ is a chemical insecticide that was used for termite exterminations until it was banned in the early 1980s because of its toxicity.

a) Mustard gas
b) Asbestos
c) DDT
d) Chlordane

4) What is a common source of lead contamination?

a) Insulation from plumbing pipes
b) Above ground storage tanks
c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Paint, plumbing pipes and airborne particles

5) __________ minerals are fibrous silicates with a crystalline structure and are found in rock formations throughout the United States and the world.

a) Polychlorinated biphenyl
b) Asbestos
c) Radon
d) Radioactive

6) What environmental hazard is the easiest to detect and mitigate but is totally odorless?

a) Asbestos
b) Termites
c) Radon
d) Water contamination

7) Which statement is true about sick building syndrome?

a) It subsides when the person leaves the building.
b) It should be treated with an insecticide.
c) It is covered by the Clean Air Act.
d) It is caused by contaminated drinking water.

8) If a soil sample tests positive for PCBs, what is the remediation?

a) To condemn the area
b) To quarantine the area
c) To move the soil to special incinerators or landfills
d) To utilize chlorine gas to neutralize the effects

9) If a licensee is aware of any mold problems in a home, he or she should

a) not disclose that information as a latent defect.
b) disclose that information as a latent defect.
c) disclose that information as a material defect.
d) overlook the issue unless they represent the buyer.

10) Which of the following laws created the Superfund?

a) National Environmental Policy Act
b) Shoreline Management Act
c) State Environmental Policy Act
d) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act

11) What is the primary environment hazard of underground storage tanks?

a) They might catch on fire.
b) They might release dangerous fumes into the air.
c) They might leak hazardous substances which will contaminate the groundwater.
d) They might be made of lead.

12) During which phase of an environmental assessment tests does remediation occur?

a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV

1) When is a percolation test used?

a) To test for lead paint.
b) Before a septic tank is installed.
c) To find the presence of radon.
d) As proof of due diligence.

2) In most cities and towns, water utility companies provide drinking water through a

a) private system.
b) series of wells.
c) sewer system.
d) municipal system.

3) Highly corrosive water often has a dangerously high level of

a) uranium.
b) asbestos.
c) lead.
d) alkalinity.

4) When does asbestos pose a health hazard?

a) When it is used in paint.
b) When it is released into the air as dust or fibers.
c) When it finds its way into the groundwater supply.
d) When it builds up inside interior building walls.

5) What devices detect and record radon?

a) Continuous Radon Monitors
b) Electret Ion Chambers
c) Charcoal Canisters
d) Electromagnetic pulsers

6) In the _____________ section of the Lead-Based Paint Disclosure Form, the real estate licensee initials to indicate that he or she has inform the sellers as required and is aware of his or her responsibility to ensure compliance.

a) Purchaser_s Acknowledgement
b) Certification of Accuracy
c) Agent_s Acknowledgement
d) Seller_s Disclosure

7) The most effective way to control indoor mold growth is to

a) increase humidity.
b) control moisture.
c) increase radon gas levels.
d) increase amount of standing water.

8) Which of the following is not a significant source of formaldehyde?

a) Particleboard
b) Hardwood plywood paneling
c) Medium density fiberboard
d) Wallboard

9) Mixtures of synthetic organic chemicals with the same basic chemical structure and similar physical properties ranging from oily liquids to waxy solids are

a) polychlorinated biphenyls.
b) chlorofluorocarbons.
c) freon.
d) mold.