Term
In patients with Horner’s Syndrome, a cocaine drop test is used to test for:
a. The quantity or amount of anhidrosis
b. The dilation of the pupil in size (miosis)
c. The evidence of ptosis in superior oblique muscle
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Why is there only partial ptosis seen in Horner’s Syndrome?
a. Because the anhidrosis keeps the lid half shut
b. Because the miosis of one eye makes an optical illusion that the eye is partially open
c. Because levator palpebrae is innervated by the motor component of the oculomotor nerve (CN III)
d. A and C only
e. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
True or False: Interruption at any location along the nervous pathway (preganglionoc or postganglionic) will induce a contralateral Horner’s syndrome.
a. True
b. False |
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Definition
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Term
The 3 most common symptoms of Horner's syndrome include:
a. Anhidrosis, Miosis, Complete Ptosis
b. Anhidrosis, Hematochromia, Complete Ptosis
c. Hematochromia, Partial Ptosis, Miosis
d. Miosis, Anhidrosis, Partial Ptosis |
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Definition
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Term
Horner’s Syndrome can be genetically passed to offspring via:
a. Mitochondrial
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Autosomal dominant
d. Sex-linked |
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Definition
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Term
All of the following can be signs and symptoms of scoliosis EXCEPT:
A. Sideways spinal curvature
B. A postural lean to one side
C. Shoulder height is not uniform
D. Uneven waist or hips
E. All are signs and symptoms |
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Definition
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Term
To have a diagnosis of scoliosis the degree of curvature must be over:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D.35 |
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Definition
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Term
A congenital vertebral abnormality (such as scoliosis) that acts as a wedge throwing the spine out of balance and functions as an unbalanced growth center that continues to worsen a curve is a/an….
A. thoracic vertebra
B. hemivertebra
C. herniation
D. disc deterioration |
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Definition
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Term
What is the most common type of scoliosis?
A. Congenital Scoliosis
B. Neuromuscular Scoliosis
C. Idiopathic Scoliosis
D. Degenerative Scoliosis |
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Definition
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Term
A curvature of the spine between 25 and 70 degrees is considered______ scoliosis.
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Very Severe |
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Definition
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Term
Which of these is a possible cause of Klippel-Fiel syndrome?
a) Embryonic Vascular Disruption
b) Mutations of PAX genes
c) Infection
d) A and B
e) All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What are the chances of a child having Klippel-Fiel Syndrome when both parents are carriers?
a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d) 25% |
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Definition
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Term
The clinical triad of Klippel-Fiel syndrome includes a low posterior hair line, a short neck and limited cervical ROM. The limited ROM in the cervical region is due to:
a) Fusion of ANY of the cervical vertebrae
b) Fusion of NONE of the cervical vertebrae
c) Fusion of C1 and C2 only
d) Both A and C |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are possible treatments for Klippel-fiel syndrome?
a) Fixation of cervical or craniocervical instability
b) Decompression or fusion to relieve spinal stenosis
c) Surgery or bracing to correct scoliosis
d) All of the Above
e) None of the Above |
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Definition
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Term
Characteristics of Type I Klippel-Feil syndrome include:
a) all cervical and upper thoracic vertebrae are fused together
b) one or two pairs of cervical vertabrae are fused together
c) lower thoracic or lumbar fusion occurs
d) none of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following presents as being the MOST severe type of Spina Bifida?
A. closed neural tube defect
B. myelomenigocele
C. occulta
D. menigocele |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not considered a prenatal diagnosis for spina bifida?
A. maternal serum alphafetoprotien for high levels of AFP
B. examination of amniocentesis for high levels of AFP
C. fetal ultrasound
D. CT scan |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following are NOT an acceptable form of treatment for spina bifida:
A. orthotic brace
B. spinal closing surgery within the first week of birth
C. medications
D. physical therapy |
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Definition
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Term
What is the exact genetic inheritance of Spina bifida?
a. X-linked recessive
b. Autosomal recessive inheritance
c. Y-linked inheritance
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Which race/ethnicity has the most frequent occurrence of spina bifida?
a. Caucasian
b. Hispanic
c. African American
d. Asian |
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Definition
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Term
A rare type of spondylolithesis due to a malformation of the lumbosacral junction with poorly developed posterior elements and transverse processes of the vertebra.
a. Degenerative spondylolithesis
b. Dysplastic spondylolithesis
c. Pathologic spondylolithesis
d. Isthmic spondylolithesis |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is associated with the symptoms of spondylolisthesis?
a. Fibromyalgia
b. Arthritis
c. Sciatica
d. Ankylosing spondylitis |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Hangman's Fracture is an example of what type of spondylolisthesis?
a. Congenital
b. Isthmic
c. Degenerative
d. Traumatic
e. Pathologic |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What type of radiological imaging technique is most useful for the diagnosis of spondylolithesis?
a. CT Scan
b. MRI
c. Lateral X-ray
d. Ultrasound |
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Definition
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Term
Typically, the prognosis of a person diagnosed with spondylolisthesis is:
a. Better if early attention is given
b. Good for 80% of people with grades II or lower when treated conservatively
c. Worse if patient lets inactivity result from injury
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Coarctation of the Aorta:
a. Is a congenital defect
b. Occurs after a heart attack
c. Is an expansion of the aorta
d. Occurs only in older individuals who are overweight |
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Definition
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Term
The Pathogenesis of Aortic Coarctation…
a. Is not exactly known
b. May be explained by the Ectopic Ductal Tissue Theory
c. May be explained by the Hemodynamic Theory
d. All of the Above |
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Definition
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Term
In coarctation of the aorta, what valve is most commonly affected structurally?
a. Aortic Valve (bicuspid instead of tricuspid)
b. Pulmonary Valve (bicuspid instead of tricuspid)
c. Mitral Valve
d. Tricuspid Valve |
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Definition
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Term
Which combination of symptoms below best represents how a person with Coarctation (of the aorta) would present?
a. Male neonate (one week old) with peripheral cyanosis, hypertension of the upper extremities, absent femoral pulse, and tachypnea.
b. 40 year old man with hypertension, chest pain, and a family history of coronary artery disease
c. 14 year old girl with chest pain and dyspnea during exercise.
d. 10 year old boy with headaches, dizziness, loss of appetite, increasing fatigue, and fever |
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Definition
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Term
What is the purpose for a newborn to receive prostaglandin E in regards to coarctation of the aorta?
a. Lower blood pressure
b. Keep the ductus arteriosis open to allow blood flow to bypass the aorta
c. Treat the coarctation of the aorta by chemically widening the aorta
d. To prevent aneurysms |
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Definition
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Term
A/An _________occurs when the peritoneal sac enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring.
A. Umbilical Hernia
B. Direct Inguinal Hernia
C. Indirect Inguinal Hernia
D. Diaphragmatic Hernia |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not a sign of an inguinal hernia?
A. A bulge that enlarges when supine
B. An indirect hernia will bulge at the internal inguinal ring
C. A direct hernia will bulge at the external inguinal ring
D. A bulge that enlarges when straining. |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following would be considered a cause of an inguinal hernia:
A. Straining while urinating or defecating
B. Obesity
C. Persistent cough
D. Both A and C
E. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Although they can be pushed back to improve patient discomfort, most direct and indirect inguinal hernias usually require surgery in order to:
A. Prevent metastasis to other areas of the body
B. Prevent strangulation of the intestine
C. Allow patient to have use of his/her legs again
D. Give the patient his/her bladder control back |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following is not a potential cause of inguinal hernia?
A. Weak internal oblique muscle
B. Low type1/type3 collagen ratio
C. Weak conjoint tendon
D. Enlarged testes |
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Definition
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Term
Which type of Hepatitis is usually transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What is the genetic structure of the Hepatitis virus?
a. Single-stranded DNA virus
b. Single-stranded RNA virus
c. Double-stranded DNA virus
d. Double-stranded RNA virus |
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Definition
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Term
What causes the liver damage and clinical symptoms of Hepatitis?
a. Caused directly by the virus' cytopathic process
b. The multiplication of the virus in the hepatocytes
c. The action of cytotoxic cells, an immune response elicited by the presence of the Hepatitis surface antigens
d. None of the above |
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Definition
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Term
What are the common signs and symptoms of Hepatitis A, B, and C?
a. Short, mild, flu-like illness
b. Nausea
c. Vomiting
d. Loss of appetite
e. All of the above |
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Definition
|
|
Term
How is Hepatitis C primarily treated?
a. Body develops natural immunity after a few months
b. Antiviral drugs
c. Interferon and Ribaviron
d. No specific treatment |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is the most definitive diagnostic test for kidney stones?
A. noncontrast helical CT
B. X-ray
C. ultrasonography
D. intravenous urography (IVU) |
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Definition
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|
Term
What are some of the common complications with the passage of a kidney stone?
a. urine flow obstruction and decreased glomerular filtration
b. hydroureter and hydronephrosis
c. decreased glomerular pressure and increased renal blood flow
d. a and b
e. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the most commonly formed type of kidney stone?
a. Calcium based stones
b. uric acid stones
c. struvite stones
d. cystine stones |
|
Definition
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Term
(Kidney stones) Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is:
A.Is non invasive and low risk for bleeding and infection
B.Recovery time of 6 weeks
C.Is commonly used for kidney stones 1 inch in diameter or more
D.Does NOT require a sedative
E.A and C only |
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Definition
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|
Term
What is the most common type of pain that is experienced when passing a kidney stone?
A. Referred pain
B. Colic pain
C. Radiating pain
D. Chronic pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following methods are used to diagnosed pancreatic cancer?
a. Blood tests to check levels of bilirubin, liver enzymes, and CA 19-9
b. Ultrasound, CT, MRI
c. Endoscopic Ultrasound (EUS), Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), and biopsy
d. All of the above |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What percent of pancreatic cancer is due to genetic mutations?
a. 10%
b. 90%
c. 50%
d. 75% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False: Pancreatic cancer continues cell growth through interfering with cellular aptosis.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False: Signs and symptoms in pancreatic cancer are nonspecific and can be related to other causes.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False: Distal pancreatectomy removes the body of the pancreas and part of the small intestine and the gallbladder.
a. True
b. False |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT a drug choice for treatment of TB?
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampicin
c) Ethambutol
d) Prevacid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following symptoms are not classic of tuberculosis?
a)persistant cough that lasts 3 weeks or longer
b)a dry, non-productive cough
c)pain in chest
d)coughing up blood or sputum |
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Definition
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|
Term
What factor does not increase your risk of obtaining Tuberculosis?
A) Previous Intestinal Surgeries
B) IV Drug Abuse
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes Mellitus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species is responsible for the vast majority of TB cases in the United States?
A. M. bovis
B. M. microti
C. M. tuberculosis
D. M. canettii |
|
Definition
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Term
What is the primary site of TB infection in the lungs?
a.) The bronchi
b.) The carina
c.) The Ghon Focus
d.) The cardiac notch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment for Huntington's Disease includes:
A. New surgeries that cure the disease
B. Ensuring the comfort of the patient, but there is NO cure
C. A vaccine
D. Medicines that STOP the progression and eventually cure the disease |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| T or F: Huntington chorea is a progressive brain condition that causes uncontrolled movements, emotional, problems, and cognitive difficulties. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a type of symptom of Huntington’s disease?
A. Movement Disorders
B. Cognitive Disorders
C. Psychiatric Disorders
D. All are types of Disorders |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the likelihood that a parent with Huntington’s Disorder will have a child that develops Huntington’s Disorder?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100% |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| T or F: People that have a CAG repeat between 36-39 have a later onset and slower progression than those with a CAG repeat greater than 39. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Where all can the cysts associated with PKD potentially develop?
a) The kidneys
b) The liver
c) The pancreas
d) A and B only
e) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a process that is involved in cyst formation and progressive enlargement?
a) tubular cell hyperplasia
b) tubular fluid secretion
c) abnormalities in tubular extracellular matrix and function
d) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a symptom of PKD?
a) High blood pressure
b) kidney stones
c) abnormal heart valves
d) diplopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The two most common clinical features common to both women and men affected with polycystic kidney disease are:
a) High blood pressure and blood in the urine
b) High blood pressure and chronic heaviness in the back, side and abdomen
c) Urinary tract infections and kidney stones
d) Kidney stones and blood in the urine |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most important symptom or complication of PKD to treat?
a) Hypertension
b) Cysts
c) Infections
d) Kidney stones |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of these is not part of the myc family of oncogenes that is found in Small Cell Lung Cancer?
a. N-myc
b. C-myc
c. J-myc
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is true about the precancerous stage of Small Cell Lung Cancer?
a. They form masses or tumors.
b. They cause symptoms.
c. They can be seen in x-rays.
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which stage of small cell lung cancer does thoracic radiation therapy work most effectively?
a. limited-stage SCLC
b. extensive-stage SCLC
c. recurrent SCLC
d. none of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False: When you experience any of the symptoms of small cell lung cancer, it is a definite indicator that you have the cancer. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following can cause Small Cell Lung Cancer EXCEPT
a. Smoking
b. Radon gas
c. Asbestos
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Medications for asthma can be broken up into which two basic groups?
a. Long term control and quick relief
b. Inhalers and oral medications
c. Steroids and preventative long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs)
d. Immunotherapy and prescription |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of asthma?
a. Shortness of breath
b. Frequent cough
c. Pericardial effusion
d. Wheezing
e. Intercostal retractions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the underlying cause of the sensitivity in the airways.
a. Leukotrienes
b. Mucus
c. Inflammation
d. Triggers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements concerning asthma is INCORRECT:
a. Allergen exposure, diet and perinatal factors are environmental factors influencing predisposition for asthma.
b. TH2 suppressing agents can decrease the risk for asthma/hypersensitivity.
c. Spirometry (pulmonary function testing) should not be repeated in patients with asthma. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or false: There is one specific gene that causes asthma |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common sequence of treatment for a child with a Wilm's
Tumor?
A.) Abdominal surgery, radiation therapy, and tylenol
B.) Radical nephrectomy, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy
C.) Radical nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and stem cell transplant
D.) Chemotherapy, stem cell transplant, and aspirin |
|
Definition
|
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Term
Corresponding diseases of Wilms tumor all involve:
a.) Chromosome # 11
b.) Chromosome # 20
c.) Chromosome # 5
d.) no chromosomal involvement |
|
Definition
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Term
Wilms tumor is
A. also called a nephroblastoma
B. a childhood cancer of the kidneys
C. Caused by excessive sodium intake
D. Caused by environmental factors that occur during adolescence
E. Both A and B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements regarding the molecular pathogenesis of Wilms’ Tumor is MOST correct:
a)The first mutation involves only prezygotic aspects.
b)The first mutation involves only postzygotic aspects.
c)The first mutation involves prezygotic and postzygotic aspects
d)The second mutation involves prezygotic and postzygotic aspects. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is USUALLY the first detectable sign/symptom a Wilm’s Tumor patient
presents with?
a) Abdominal Pain
b) Abdominal petechiae
c) Abdominal swelling
d) Diplopia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Congenital Hypothyroidism is only inherited:
A. An autosomal recessive disorder
B. An autosomal dominant disorder
C. In only 15 to 20 percent of the cases
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In patients with Primary Hypothyroidism, test will reveal:
A. Decreased TSH and increased T4
B. Increased TSH and decreased T4
C. Increased TSH and Increased T4
D. Decreased TSH and decreased T4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Myxedema is
A) a mixture of two diseases with similar symptoms
B) a nonpitting, boggy edema, especially around the eyes, hands, feet, and in the supraclavicular fossa.
C) a mixed drink you get from the bartender at Applebees
D) swelling of the index finger and pinkie finger at the same time |
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Definition
|
|
Term
What is the synthetic thyroid hormone found in most medications for hypothyroidism?
A. T3
B. levothyroxine sodium
C. TSH
D. T4 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the United States?
A. Iodine deficiency
B. Failure of the pituitary gland to produce enough TSH
C. Autoimmune disease
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia can be diagnosed by:
a. Blood and urine tests resulting in low cortisol and aldosterone levels
b. CT scan of the adrenal glands
c. Physical exam alone
d. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) has what kind of heredity?
A. Sex-linked recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Sex-linked dominant
E. None – CAH is not a hereditary disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Insufficient amounts of cortisol & aldosterone can lead to which of the following:
a) Salt-wasting CAH
b) Simple virilizing CAH
c) Non-classical CAH
d) All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Females with Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia present with?
a) ambiguous external genitalia
b) excessive hair growth
c) amenorrhea
d) all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the course of treatment for CAH?
a.Cortisol replacement therapy
b.Surgery to correct abnormal external genitalia
c.Mineralcorticoid therapy (in salt-losing form)
d.All of the above
e.A and B only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following can cause a seizure?
A. withdrawal syndromes
B. head trauma
C. drugs and toxins
D. all of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What side effects can occur with anti-seizure medications:
A. Neutropenia
B. Decreased Liver Function
C. Neural tube defects
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In Diagnosing Tonic Clonic Seizures:
A. Jerking motions are seen
B. Stiffening is followed by jerking
C. An EEG may help to confirm the diagnosis
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is/are generalized seizures?
a. “Grand Mal” or Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
b. “Petit Mal” or Absence seizure
c. Atonic Seizure
d. Myoclonic seizure
e. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is/are a partial seizure/s?
a. all of the following
b. simple partial seizure
c. complex partial seizure
d. secondarily generalized seizure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which treatment option is most effective in treating PD?
A) Anti-cholinergics
B) COMT-inhibitors
C) MAO – inhibitors
D) Dopamine Replacement Therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The onset of Parkinson’s disease characteristic tremors is usually
A.) Unilateral.
B.) Bilateral.
C.) Contralateral.
D.) None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A possible cause(s) of Parkinson’s disease include:
A.) Genetic Factors
B.) Environmental factors
C.) Oxidative stress
D.) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dopaminergic neuronal dead can be caused by which of the following:
a) Enviromental toxins
b)Oxidative stress and mitochondrial dysfunction
c)Used of MPTP
d) All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T or F: The substantia nigra deterioration is responsible for the decreased levels
of dopamine in a Parkinson's patient |
|
Definition
|
|
