Term
1. The mineral content of enamel is:
a) approximately 85% by volume
b) approximately 85% by weight
c) is made up of phosphate, sodium and nickel
d) is made up of calcium, molybdate and phosphate
e) similar to a ceramic crown |
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Definition
| a) approximately 85% by volume |
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Term
2. Hydroxyapatite is a mineral composed of the following ions:
a) magnesium, phosphate, fluoride
b) calcium, phosphate, fluoride
c) calcium, phosphate, hydroxyl
d) calcium, strontium, hydroxyl
e) calcium, carbonate, fluoride |
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Definition
| c) calcium, phosphate, hydroxyl |
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Term
3. The mineral in dentin is best described as:
a) hydroxyapatite
b) a calcium deficient calcite-like marble compound
c) fluorapatite
d) carbonated hydroxyapatite
e) a calcium rich defective hydroxyapatite |
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Definition
| d) carbonated hydroxyapatite |
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Term
4. The least demineralized zone in a “classic” enamel white spot lesion is called:
a) the apparently intact outer surface,
b) the body of the lesion,
c) the affected zone,
d) the infected layer,
e) the passing zone |
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Definition
| a) the apparently intact outer surface, |
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Term
5. Lipid in dental enamel is:
a) a buffer against acids during a caries attack
b) strongly adsorbed to the surface of the mineral crystals
c) Broken down by bacterial enzymes, causing demineralization
d) from saliva and takes years to penetrate
e) a transient item that is not really part of the enamel |
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Definition
| e) a transient item that is not really part of the enamel |
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Term
6. Acidogenic bacteria are:
a) the basis of periodontal disease
b) bacteria that are extremely difficult to grow anaerobically
c) bacteria that produce acid as a by product of their metabolism
d) bacteria that can only grow if fed acids
e) bacteria that produce alkali from fermentable carbohydrates |
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Definition
| c) bacteria that produce acid as a by product of their metabolism |
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Term
7. The two species of mutans streptococci most commonly found in humans are:
a) S. rattus, S. sobrinus
b) S. mutans, S. salivarius
c) S. sobrinus, S. mucous
d) S. sobrinus, S. mutans
e) S mutans, S. gordonii |
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Definition
| d) S. sobrinus, S. mutans |
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Term
8. Sorbitol is:
a) a mixture of xyltiol and sucrose,
b) the most common flavor in medicines
c) a compound formed from sorbate and ethanol
d) a sugar alcohol that cariogenic bacteria can not readily metabolize
e) a carpentry tool for cutting small objects |
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Definition
| d) a sugar alcohol that cariogenic bacteria can not readily metabolize |
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Term
9. Mutans streptococci colonize the mouths of young children:
a) if transmitted there by airborne aerosols
b) only after the infant reaches 18 months of age
c) by transmission from zoo animals
d) by transmission via saliva from infected individuals
e) by spontaneous colonization during the spring |
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Definition
| d) by transmission via saliva from infected individuals |
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Term
10. Frequent snacking on fermentable carbohydrates:
a) results in a very good taste in the mouth that lasts all night
b) kills S. sobrinus on contact
c) is necessary to keep cariogenic bacteria under control
d) results in demineralization of the teeth via acid byproducts of the bacteria
e) is necessary for the survival of dogs |
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Definition
| d) results in demineralization of the teeth via acid byproducts of the bacteria |
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Term
11. Fluoride inhibits demineralization of dental mineral:
a) by protecting the crystal surface against hydroxyl ion action
b) by forming a complex with sodium bicarbonate
c) by diffusing slowly out of the tooth and blocking calcium
d) by strongly adsorbing to the positive calcium ions at the crystal surface
e) by precipitating in the plaque |
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Definition
| a) by protecting the crystal surface against hydroxyl ion action |
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Term
12. Fluoride incorporated into dental mineral at 500 ppm during tooth development in a fluoride drinking water area:
a) dramatically lowers the acid solubility of the mineral
b) forms a new mineral that is more acid soluble
c) has no measurable effect on the acid solubility of the mineral
d) makes the tooth look chalky white all over
e) inhibits plaque formation |
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Definition
| c) has no measurable effect on the acid solubility of the mineral |
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Term
13. Fluoride ion can interfere with S mutans metabolism by:
a) diffusing as fluoride ion through the cell membrane
b) adsorbing to the cell membrane
c) interfering with enzymes necessary for cell metabolism
d) interfering with the phantolase enzyme inside the cell
e) combining with glucose molecules to stop them being taken into the cell |
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Definition
| c) interfering with enzymes necessary for cell metabolism |
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Term
14. Fluorapatite:
a) is more acid soluble than hydroxyapatite
b) is less acid soluble than hydroxyapatite
c) is more acid soluble than carbonated hydroxyapatite
d) has about the same acid solubility as dicalcium phosphate
e) is more acid soluble than fluoride treated dentin crystals |
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Definition
| b) is less acid soluble than hydroxyapatite |
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Term
15. Subsurface demineralization in a white spot carious lesion:
a) is a characteristic of the dental caries process in dentin
b) occurs when we eat salmon
c) is caused by basic salivary proteins
d) occurs by diffusion of acids into, and calcium out of the tooth
e) is caused by the adsorbed salivary protein called amylase |
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Definition
| d) occurs by diffusion of acids into, and calcium out of the tooth |
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Term
16. Remineralization is:
a) caused by the action of salivary lipids on the tooth surface
b) what happens when miners get employed for a second year
c) the natural repair mechanism for the early carious lesion
d) a process in the tooth that requires the presence of salivary mucins
e) the repair of the tooth by glass ionomer restoations |
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Definition
| c) the natural repair mechanism for the early carious lesion |
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Term
17. Remineralized dentin crystals are:
a) more soluble than the original mineral
b) less soluble than the original mineral
c) more soluble than bone mineral
d) formed into cubic shaped crystals
e) formed into a spherical crystal |
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Definition
| b) less soluble than the original mineral |
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Term
18. During remineralization fluoride works by:
a) slowing down the metabolism of the cariogenic bacteria
b) coating the surface of proteins in the plaque
c) speeding up the formation of a new crystal surface
d) forming a new crystal surface that is glossy white in appearance
e) combining with the phosphate ion in an aqueous complex |
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Definition
| c) speeding up the formation of a new crystal surface |
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Term
19. Fluorapatite is:
a) a calcium phosphate that contains 20% water
b) the name of a mineral used for ocean exploration
c) the main mineral in dentin
d) a calcium phosphate mineral that contains calcium, phosphate, and hydroxyl ions
e) a mineral that contains about 30,000 ppm F |
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Definition
| e) a mineral that contains about 30,000 ppm F |
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Term
20. The three topical mechanisms of fluoride action are:
a) inhibit demineralization, enhance bacterial growth, enhance remineralization
b) enhance demineralization, inhibit remineralization and speed up bacterial metabolism
c) inhibit remineralization, enhance demineralization, inhibit bacteria
d) inhibit remineralization, inhibit demineralization, inhibit bacteria
e) inhibit demineralization, enhance remineralization, inhibit bacteria |
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Definition
| e) inhibit demineralization, enhance remineralization, inhibit bacteria |
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Term
21. One salivary protein that binds calcium and helps keep it in solution is:
a) mucin
b) amylase
c) statherin
d) amelogenin
e) cystaline |
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Definition
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Term
22. Salivary proteins that bind to apatite crystals:
a) have acidic amino acid residues
b) always contain cysteine
c) include glucosamine
d) are basic peptides
e) have molecular weights greater than 40,000 |
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Definition
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Term
23. Hyposalivation:
a) leads to less dental caries
b) inhibits biofilm formation on the tooth
c) is often related to use of multiple medications
d) is a rare phenomenon only found in geriatric patients
e) can be easily reversed by sipping soda |
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Definition
| c) is often related to use of multiple medications |
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Term
24. Cystatin S
a) is one of the cysteine rich proteins
b) is a protein that is especially good for inhibiting S sobrinus attachment
c) has wound healing properties
d) tastes really good
e) is one of the hisstatins |
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Definition
| a) is one of the cysteine rich proteins |
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Term
25. One important function of the proline rich proteins in saliva is:
a) to maintain gingival health by antibacterial action
b) maintain hydration of the oral tissues
c) to maintain supersaturation of calcium and phosphate
d) to keep saliva thin and flowing
e) to maintain saliva flow rate higher than 2 ml/minute |
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Definition
| c) to maintain supersaturation of calcium and phosphate |
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Term
26. The average age of onset for the majority of patients with Chronic periodontitis would be:
a. 20-30 years
b. 30-40 years
c. 40-50 years
d. greater than 50 years |
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Definition
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Term
27. If you observed a patient with Chronic Periodontitis in a patient with a BMI of 31. Which of the following systemic conditions would you most likely need to also investigate with the patient’s physician?
a. HbA1C levels
b. Depression
c. HIV infection
d. Vitamin D deficiency |
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Definition
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Term
28. Perhaps the best way to control gingival enlargements in a patient who is taking dilantin for seizures in the long run is:
a. vitamin supplemenation with High doses of Ascorbic Acid
b. occlusal adjustment (bite adjustment)
c. Switch to isradipine (Dynacirc) and improve plaque control
d. Switch to Tacrolimus and improve plaque control |
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Definition
| c. Switch to isradipine (Dynacirc) and improve plaque control |
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Term
29. Aggressive forms of periodontitis (LJP) occur most frequently in which group:
a. African-Americans
b. Hispanics
c. Asian /Pacific Islanders
d. Caucasians |
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Definition
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Term
30. In Generalized Aggressive Periodontitis, the areas most commonly affected would be (choose the best answer):
a. maxillary bicuspids
b. maxillary third molars
c. mandibular third molars
d. no distinct pattern |
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Definition
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Term
31. Which of the following is a distict histological feature of the Established Lesion in the Page and Schroeder Model?
a. increased bone loss
b. decreased migration of lymphocytes into the lamina propria
c. increased presence of plasma cells in the lamina propria
d. decreased migration of neutrophils into the gingival crevice |
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Definition
| c. increased presence of plasma cells in the lamina propria |
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Term
32. Significant increases in osteoclast and macrophage activitiy is first seen during the:
a. early lesion
b. advanced lesion
c. established lesion
d. initial lesion |
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Definition
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Term
33. Which defect or alterations in neutrophil function which has reported to be associated with aggressive periodontal diseases (choose the best answer):
a. chemotaxis
b. phagocytosis
c. degranulation
d. adhesion
e. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
Products of the Host Response will leak into the gingival crevice and can be detected by various techniques. I we were to develop a test to measure these substances in the gingival crevicular fluid, which would be the most useful in determining whether a patient has active periodontal disease or is at risk for developing active disease:
a. levels of calcium ion concentrations
b. Levels of Interleukin-1
c. Levels of Interleukin-10
d. Levels of candida albicans |
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Definition
| b. Levels of Interleukin-1 |
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Term
In a site where the clinically detectable level of epithelial attachment is 5 mm apical to the cemento-enamel junction, and the pocket reading is 7 mm, we would term this type of pocket a:
a. periodontal pocket
b. pseudo pocket
c. healthy pocket
d. seven ball in the corner pocket |
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Definition
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Term
36. According to the Critical Path Model, which would be considered to be one of the beneficial effects of scaling and root planing on the Host response (choose the best answer):
a. A transient bacteremia stimulating a humoral response
b. A shift in the cytokine profile to an increase in cytokines with growth potential activity
c. A decrease in the bacterial load in the mouth.
d. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
37. Pericoronitis is an inflammatory enlargement of the gingiva that is seen around which teeth:
a. Central incisors
b. Maxillary first molars
c. Mandibular premolars
d. Mandibular third molars |
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Definition
| d. Mandibular third molars |
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Term
38. The conventional view of the pattern of attachment loss in Chronic Adult Periodontitis most resembles:
a. The myth of Sisyphus (you push the rock up the hill, then it rolls down to the bottom)
b. The Energizer Bunny (it continuously keeps going and going)
c. Dr. Ryder’s hair loss (random bursts of attachment loss followed by relative inactivity |
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Definition
| c. Dr. Ryder’s hair loss (random bursts of attachment loss followed by relative inactivity |
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Term
39. Which of the following Inflammatory major function is as a chemoattractant for neutrophils?
a. TGF-beta
b. IL-8
c- MCP-1
d. IL-12 |
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Definition
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Term
40. The Cytokine Interleukin -1 beta shares many functions (Overlapping functions) with which of the following:
a. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-)
b. Platelet Derive Growth Factor
c. Cyclooxegenase -1
d. Interleukin-4 |
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Definition
| a. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-) |
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Term
41 Studies have shown that a positive clinical sign of bleeding on probing is a poor indicator of the presence of active periodontal disease at the probed site. However the absence of bleeding on probing, is a good indicator of the absence of active disease at that probed site. Therefore in detecting active periodontal disease, one can say that bleeding on probing has:
a) High sensitivity, low specificity
b) Low sensitivity, high specificity
c) High sensitivity, high specificity
d) Low sensitivity, low specificity |
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Definition
| b) Low sensitivity, high specificity |
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Term
42 An an evidence based approach to analyzing studies, the highest quality of evidence would be
a) A case series
b) A meta analysis of randomized clinical controlled trials
c) A case controlled study
d) A randomized clinical trial |
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Definition
| b) A meta analysis of randomized clinical controlled trials |
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Term
43 The following factor(s) must be taken into account and statistical corrections made before making the statement that periodontal diseases are directly linked to systemic diseases
a. tobacco use
b. stress
c. age
d. socioeconomic status
e. all of the above |
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Definition
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Term
. If we found in a cross sectional study that the percentage of patients who chew a certain type of tobacco have a higher percentage in the prevalence of periodontal disease, without following these patients over time, we would call this habit a:
a. Confounding factor
b. Risk factor
c. Risk indicator
d. Causal indicator |
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Definition
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Term
45. The indigenous microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract provides all of the following host benefits EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Vitamin production.
b. Synthesizes antibodies.
c. Enhances digestion of carbohydrates.
d. Promotes maturation of the immune system.
e. Promotes shedding of surface epithelial cells. |
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Definition
| b. Synthesizes antibodies. |
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Term
46. Acquired pellicles are primarily derived from
a. the patient.
b. oral bacteria.
c. dietary proteins.
d. prostaglandin E2.
e. components of tobacco. |
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Definition
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Term
47. Certain salivary antimicrobial proteins have a significant effect on the bacteria that colonize all of the following oral sites EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Dorsum of the tongue.
b. Subgingival tooth surfaces.
c. Supragingival tooth surfaces.
d. Keratinized gingival surfaces.
e. Nonkeratinized alveolar mucosa. |
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Definition
| b. Subgingival tooth surfaces. |
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Term
48. Acquired pellicles on supragingival surfaces of teeth are the same as (i.e., synonymous with)
a. basal laminae.
b. dental plaques.
c. deposits of material alba.
d. salivary glycoprotein films.
e. hypermineralized hydroxyapatite structures |
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Definition
| d. salivary glycoprotein films. |
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Term
49 The composition of acquired pellicles has a significant effect on the
a. turnover rate of gingival collagen.
b. flow rates of gingival crevicular fluid.
c. mitotic activity of the junctional epithelium.
d. kinds of bacteria that adhere to intraoral surfaces.
e. synthesis of quorum sensors by biofilm bacteria. |
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Definition
| d. kinds of bacteria that adhere to intraoral surfaces. |
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Term
50. The development of pyogenic granulomas during pregnancy is probably due to a transient selective pressure on _____________ caused by elevated levels of estrogen and progesterone.
a. Candida albicans
b. Treponema denticola
c. the “normal” periodontal microbiota
d. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
e. pus-generating bacteria in the oral microbiota |
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Definition
| c. the “normal” periodontal microbiota |
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Term
51. A culture-independent method to study the diversity of the oral microbiota utilizes the characterization of
a. corrosive effects on agar.
b. 16S ribosomal RNA genes.
c. carbohydrate fermentation patterns.
d. CO2 production in the presence of sucrose.
e. high molecular weight proteolytic products. |
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Definition
| b. 16S ribosomal RNA genes. |
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Term
52 In periodontally healthy people approximately __________ of the members of the normal oral microbiota have not yet been cultivated on artificial media.
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
e. 90% |
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Definition
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Term
53 All of the following are clinically important fundamental features of established biofilms EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION.
a. Facilitate horizontal gene transfer.
b. Nonpermeable to large molecules.
c. Resistant to many antimicrobial agents.
d. Rapidly adapt to environmental changes.
e. Not ordinarily “cleared” or removed by host defenses. |
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Definition
| b. Nonpermeable to large molecules. |
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Term
54. During the initial stage of biofilm formation, the irreversible attachment of pioneer bacteria to the conditioned surface is accompanied by
a. horizontal gene transfer.
b. synthesis of a glycocalyx.
c. formation of a digestive consortium.
d. activation of genes that facilitate bacterial adhesion.
e. intergeneric modulation of virulence gene expression. |
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Definition
| b. synthesis of a glycocalyx. |
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Term
55. In biofilms, the regulation of gene expression in response to changes in the number of bacteria in a given area is known as
a. quorum sensing.
b. autoinducer neutralization.
c. nutrient-limited physiology.
d. primary production of nutrients.
e. cooperative trapping of nutrients. |
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Definition
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Term
56. The “nutrient-limited physiology” mechanism of resistance of biofilms to antimicrobials postulates that bacteria below the biofilm surface are less susceptible to antimicrobial agents because they are
a. in a slow-growing, non-growing, or starved state.
b. surrounded by a nonpermeable glycocalcyx matrix.
c. metabolically suppressed by autoinducer molecules.
d. in close contact with bacteria carrying resistance genes. |
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Definition
| a. in a slow-growing, non-growing, or starved state. |
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Term
57. Chronic periodontitis is a classic example of a biofilm-induced infection caused by
a. Archaea.
b. exogenous pathogens.
c. glycocalyx-lysing bacteria.
d. commensal microorganisms.
e. fluoride-resistant microorganisms |
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Definition
| d. commensal microorganisms. |
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Term
58. Which of the following has NO MEASURABLE EFFECT on the formation of supragingival biofilms?
a. Xerostomia.
b. Consumption of sucrose-containing foods.
c. Dental restorations with defective margins.
d. Topical application of chlorhexidine varnish.
e. Vigorous rinsing with community-fluoridated tap water |
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Definition
| e. Vigorous rinsing with community-fluoridated tap water |
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Term
59. Optimal prevention of biofilm-caused diseases such as interproximal dental caries is by
a. eating foods with a high-fiber content.
b. daily rinsing with polymer surfactants.
c. administering a course of 3rd-generation antibiotics.
d. mechanical disruption of polymicrobial communities.
e. topical application of Streptococcus-specific bacteriophages |
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Definition
| d. mechanical disruption of polymicrobial communities. |
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Term
60. The disease-producing abilities of periodontal pathogens are significantly modified by their interactions with
a. high-fiber diets.
b. calcium and phosphate salts of saliva.
c. fluoride added to local water supplies.
d. other members of the subgingival biofilm community.
e. sucrose-loving bacteria such as Streptococcus mutans. |
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Definition
| d. other members of the subgingival biofilm community. |
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Term
61 In cases of chronic periodontitis, subgingival biofilms are in close contact with the
a. alveolar bone.
b. periodontal ligament.
c. keratinized oral epithelium.
d. epithelial rests of Malassez.
e. soft tissue wall of the pocket. |
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Definition
| e. soft tissue wall of the pocket. |
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Term
62 Quorum-sensor molecules or autoinducers produced by some biofilm-forming bacteria can affect the expression of factors that
a. stop calculus formation.
b. confer antibiotic resistance.
c. cause the lysis of pioneer bacteria.
d. interfere with microbial adherence.
e. accelerate acquired pellicle formation. |
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Definition
| b. confer antibiotic resistance. |
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Term
63 Most of the bacteria that have been implicated as periodontal pathogens are
a. producers of true exotoxins.
b. motile under physiologic conditions.
c. members of the endogenous oral flora.
d. rarely found at periodontally healthy sites.
e. found in pockets under planktonic conditions. |
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Definition
| c. members of the endogenous oral flora. |
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Term
64. Collectively, the lines of evidence used to determine that a given microorganism is a periodontal pathogen are called
a. Pasteur’s proof.
b. Löe’s guidelines.
c. Koch’s postulates.
d. Socransky’s criteria.
e. Vincent’s principles. |
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Definition
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Term
65. The general types of bacteria associated with necrotizing ulcerative periodontal diseases are
a. coliforms and enterics.
b. fusiforms and spirochetes.
c. streptococci and staphylococci.
d. anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.
e. Mycobacteria and their relatives. |
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Definition
| b. fusiforms and spirochetes. |
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Term
67. In the Socransky & Haffajee pyramid of association and succession of subgingival species in chronic periodontitis, members of the “Red Complex” include Porphyromonas gingivalis and
a. Micromonas micros.
b. Tannerella forsythia.
c. Campylobacter rectus.
d. Streptococcus intermedius.
e. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans. |
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Definition
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Term
68 In those patients with chronic periodontitis in whom Porphyromonas gingivalis appears to be playing an etiologic role, this organism will usually represent approximately _____ % of the cultivable subgingival flora at affected sites.
a. <10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50 |
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Definition
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Term
69 Cultural analysis (i.e., colony-forming units, CFU) of the microbiota associated with periodontal abscesses indicate that these lesions contain
a. no Gram-positive bacteria.
b. enteric rods at ~20% of the CFU.
c. P. gingivalis at ~50% of the CFU.
d. A. actinomycetemcomitans at ~30% of the CFU.
e. a mixture of Gram-negative and Gram -positive bacteria. |
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Definition
| e. a mixture of Gram-negative and Gram -positive bacteria. |
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Term
70. Among the heat-shock or stress proteins produced by A. actinomycetemcomitans is
a. endotoxin.
b. chaperonin 60.
c. matrix metalloproteinase (MMP).
d. a Cytolethal Distending Toxin (CDT).
e. the Repeat Toxin (RTX) known as LtxA. |
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Definition
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Term
71 Which of the following protein groups is present in the highest concentration in human whole saliva?
a. Mucins
b. Histatins
c. Amylases
d. Statherins
e. Proline-rich proteins |
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Definition
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Term
72 An important feature of salivary macromolecules that influences their overall function is their ability to
a. ionize.
b. degrade hydroxyapatite.
c. be internalized by oral epithelium.
d. avoid interacting with the oral flora.
e. form complexes with other molecules. |
|
Definition
| e. form complexes with other molecules. |
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Term
73 In whole saliva, cationic peptides of epithelial origin with broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against bacteria and fungi are called
a. histatins.
b. cystatins.
c. B-defensins.
d. extra-partoid glycoproteins.
e. tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases. |
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Definition
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Term
74 In whole saliva, a potent inhibitor of calcium phosphate crystal growth
a. is calprotectin.
b. is chromogranin A.
c. is carbonic anhydrase.
d. are the immunoglobulins.
e. are the proline-rich proteins. |
|
Definition
| e. are the proline-rich proteins. |
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Term
75 Within the context of general functional features of salivary macromolecules, “amphifunctional” refers to having
a. molecular asymmetry.
b. both positive and negative charges.
c. both detrimental and protective effects.
d. hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties.
e. proteolytic effects at both high and low pH |
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Definition
| c. both detrimental and protective effects. |
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Term
76. In patients with severe chronic periodontitis who have poor oral hygiene, the reformation of subgingival calculus after scaling and root planing often occurs within
a. 30-45 minutes.
b. 24-48 hours.
c. 7-10 days.
d. 3-4 weeks.
e. 6-12 months. |
|
Definition
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Term
77. A major feature of salivary macromolecules that has a profound effect on their functionality is their ability to
a. cleave DNA.
b. form complexes.
c. trigger epithelial apoptosis.
d. synthesize lipopolysaccharides.
e. promote horizontal gene transfe
78. Gingival crevicular fluid is derived from |
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Definition
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Term
78. Gingival crevicular fluid is derived from
a. serum.
b. lysed fibroblasts.
c. subgingival bacteria.
d. junctional epithelial cells.
e. slime matrices of subgingival biofilms. |
|
Definition
|
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Term
79 The salivary component that is primarily known for its ability to kill Gram-positive bacteria is
a. MUC7.
b. statherin.
c. lysozyme.
d. cystatin SN.
e. carbonic anhydrase. |
|
Definition
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Term
80) List the morphologic zones of the pulp as you head from the center of the pulp toward the DEJ (from the middle of the tooth to the outside of the tooth.)
a. Cell rich zone; cell free zone; odontoblast layer; pulp proper
b. Pulp proper; odontoblast layer; cell rich zone; cell free zone
c. Cell rich zone; cell free zone; pulp proper; odontoblast layer
d. Pulp proper; Cell rich zone; Cell free zone; Odontoblast layer |
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Definition
| d. Pulp proper; Cell rich zone; Cell free zone; Odontoblast layer |
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Term
81) Reactionary dentin and reparative dentin are both forms of tertiary dentin. What are the differences between reactionary dentin and reparative dentin
a. Reactionary dentin is from original odontoblasts and the tubules are continuous with the original tubules. Reparative dentin is from replacement odontoblasts and is largely atubular.
b. Reparative dentin is formed as the first layer and reactionary dentin is formed as the 2nd layer
c. Reparative dentin is next to the enamel while reactionary dentin is next to the pulp
d. Odontoblasts form reparative dentin. Fibroblasts form reactionary dentin |
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Definition
| a. Reactionary dentin is from original odontoblasts and the tubules are continuous with the original tubules. Reparative dentin is from replacement odontoblasts and is largely atubular. |
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Term
82) Odontoblast cells in the coronal pulp have a shape which is:
a. Cubodial
b. Squamous
c. Columnar
d. Dendritic |
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Definition
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Term
83) The largest efferent blood vessel entering the pulp is:
a. Arteriole
b. Venuole
c. Artery
d. Capillary |
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Definition
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Term
84) Choose the false statement regarding sensory fibers in the pulp
a. All sensory nerves in the pulp are nociceptors
b. There are no proprioceptors in the dental pulp
c. Sensory fibers in the pulp which respond to heat also control blood flow
d. A-delta fibers have a larger diameter and are faster conducting than C-fibers |
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Definition
| c. Sensory fibers in the pulp which respond to heat also control blood flow |
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Term
85) Cells present in the pulp include all types listed except:
a. Microglia
b. Fibroblasts
c. Stem cells
d. Cells of the immune system |
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Definition
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Term
86) Age changes in the pulp
a. Are usually not present before the 8th decade in life
b. Result in a poor attachment of the periodontal ligament to the pulp chamber pulp
c. Occurs as an asymmetrical calcification in the pulp chamber. The apical-coronal dimension calcifies faster than the mesial-distal dimension.
d. Cause pre-odontoblasts to reduce the effect of immune cells in the pulp |
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Definition
| c. Occurs as an asymmetrical calcification in the pulp chamber. The apical-coronal dimension calcifies faster than the mesial-distal dimension. |
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Term
87) Local anesthetics have the following effect on the pulp:
a. Result in increased blood flow when vasoconstrictor is used
b. Result in a 30% reduction in pulpal blood flow when the anesthetic without vasoconstrictor is used
c. Result in more than 50% reduction in pulpal blood flow when vasoconstrictor is used
d. Have little effect on the pulp when a carious exposure is present |
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Definition
| c. Result in more than 50% reduction in pulpal blood flow when vasoconstrictor is used |
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Term
88) Dentinal tubules close to the pulp are _________compared to tubules near the DEJ
a. Larger and have a lower density
b. Larger and have a higher density
c. Smaller and have a higher density
d. Smaller and have a lower density |
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Definition
| b. Larger and have a higher density |
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Term
89) Which statement regarding dental materials is false?
a. Composites have been found to have less inflammation over deep cavities than amalgam.
b. Amalgam is the only restorative material that seals better over time
c. Calcium hydroxide liners, such as Dycal, are antibacterial
d. Acid etching does not injure the pulp |
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Definition
| a. Composites have been found to have less inflammation over deep cavities than amalgam. |
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