Term
| Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs if a woman lies…. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Supine hypotension syndrome reduces the blood returned to the mothers heart which can lead to fetal _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can you as the nurse recommend for the pregnant female experiencing supine hypotension syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Turn to left side &/or elevate HOB |
|
|
Term
| What is a standardized way to describe the outcomes of a woman’s pregnancies on her prenatal record? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the “T” stand for in TPALM? |
|
Definition
| Number of term infants born |
|
|
Term
| What does the “P” stand for in TPALM? |
|
Definition
| Number of preterm infants born |
|
|
Term
| What does the “A” stand for in TPALM? |
|
Definition
| Number of pregnancies aborted before 20 weeks of gestation |
|
|
Term
| What does the “L” stand for in TPALM? |
|
Definition
| Number of children now living |
|
|
Term
| What does the “M” stand for in TPALM? |
|
Definition
| Multiple birth number of multiple gestations -- optional |
|
|
Term
| The _______ number increases by 1 each time the woman is pregnant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The _______ increases only when a woman delivers a fetus of at least 20 weeks gestation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _______ _______ is essential for the formation & maturation of both red & white blood cells in bone marrow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Folic acid reduces the incidence of _______ _______ defects |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What would you recommend for the pregnant female who is experiencing early morning nausea? |
|
Definition
| Eat dry toast or crackers before getting up in the morning |
|
|
Term
| What foods would you recommend to the pregnant female who does not like milk but needs calcium supplementation? |
|
Definition
| Enriched cereals, legumes, nuts, dried fruits, broccoli, green leafy vegetables, canned salmon/sardines |
|
|
Term
| Oxygenated blood enters the fetal body through the ___________ _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Half of fetal blood goes to the _______, half to the _______ _______ to the IVC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| From the IVC, fetal blood goes to the _______ _______ with majority going into the _______ _______ through the _______ _______ |
|
Definition
| Right atrium; left atrium; foramen ovale |
|
|
Term
| Small amounts of fetal blood from the right atrium goes to the _______ _______ to the ___________ _______ and to the _______ |
|
Definition
| Right ventricle; pulmonary artery; lungs |
|
|
Term
| Blood from the pulmonary artery and left ventricle join in the _______ ___________, then down the descending aorta |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blood leaves the fetal body through ___________ ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does fetal circulation cease? |
|
Definition
| Once the infant is born & cord is clamped |
|
|
Term
| When is a fetus considered fully developed & ready to be born? |
|
Definition
| By 38-40 weeks of gestation |
|
|
Term
| Nagele’s rule is used to determine the ______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Nagele’s rule calculated? |
|
Definition
| Identify 1st day of LNMP, count backward 3 months, add 7 days, update year if applicable |
|
|
Term
| What should the nurse teach a pregnant pt about varicose vein prevention? |
|
Definition
| Avoid wearing restrictive clothing or crossing legs, elevate legs above hip level when resting, wear support hose, avoid standing in one position for prolonged periods -- walk around for a few minutes every 2 hours |
|
|
Term
| How do you assess a child for scoliosis? |
|
Definition
| By having child bend at the waist -- look for asymmetry of the spine |
|
|
Term
| What should you assess for after a child has a tonsillectomy/adenoidectomy? Why? |
|
Definition
| Frequent swallowing while the child is sleeping -- this is an early sign of postop bleeding |
|
|
Term
| What is the best choice of fluid replacement for a child after a tonsillectomy? |
|
Definition
| Popsicle (clear liquids -- no red or brown colors) |
|
|
Term
| What acute change in respiratory assessment in a child with RSV should be reported to the charge nurse/physician immediately? |
|
Definition
| If lung sounds become quiet when child was previously wheezing -- this can mean that no air is getting into lungs |
|
|
Term
| Which respiratory disorder is caused by a dysfunction of the exocrine glands that causes the glands to produce thick, tenacious mucus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the stools of a pt with CF |
|
Definition
| Bulky, frothy, foul-smelling |
|
|
Term
| List respiratory treatments used for pt with CF |
|
Definition
| O2 therapy, aerosol therapy, inhalers, postural drainage, breathing exercises |
|
|
Term
| When should postural drainage be performed? |
|
Definition
| After nebulizer treatment and at least 2 hours after eating |
|
|
Term
| CF is caused by an _______ recessive trait, with _______ parents carrying a gene for the disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The child with CF should be given oral ___________ preparations with meals & snacks to help child to digest & absorb nutrients in food |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Explain the diet plan that would be taught to the child with CF |
|
Definition
| Diet should be high in proteins and calories with free access to salt -- but no salt supplements |
|
|
Term
| Child with CF should wear light clothing to prevent ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position should parents be taught to place infants in while sleeping to prevent SIDS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should the pts mouth be rinsed out after inhalation of a dry powder/steroid-containing inhaler? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the development of candidiasis |
|
|
Term
| Examining the throat with a tongue blade could trigger ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A ___________ _______ should always be at the bedside before examination of the throat takes place |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can parents prevent their child from getting laryngitis/epiglottitis? |
|
Definition
| Ensuring child receives HIB vaccine beginning at 2 months of age |
|
|
Term
| Child with RSV should be put in _______ precautions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| By direct contact with respiratory secretions (not airborne) |
|
|
Term
| What is known as an infection of the bone that generally occurs in children younger than 1 year of age and those between 5 and 14 years of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In osteomyelitis, inflammation produces _______ _______ that collects under the marrow and cortex of the bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In osteomyelitis, collection of _______ under the periostium of the bone can elevate periostium and can result in necrosis of that part of the bone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In osteomyelitis, local ___________ and increased ___________ can cause pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes osteomyelitis in children older than 5 years of age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ___________ ___________ is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in young children |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What may osteomyelitis be preceded by? |
|
Definition
| A local injury to the bone (fracture, burn, surgical contamination, heel punctures in infants, scalp vein access in neonates) |
|
|
Term
| What should be added to the diet of a child with osteomyelitis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt with osteomyelitis will remain on IV antibiotics for ____ to ____ weeks |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of activity should a child with osteomyelitis avoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What disorder occurs as an allergic reaction to a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection 10-21 days after having scarlet fever, skin infection, or strep throat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| S/S of acute glomerulonephritis occur 1-3 weeks after a _______ infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List S/S of acute glomerulonephritis |
|
Definition
| Periorbital edema, vague discomfort, elevated BP, oliguria, blood in urine |
|
|
Term
| Pts experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis will have blood glucose levels higher than ____ mg/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis will have a _______ odor to their breath |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pts experiencing hypoglycemia will have a blood glucose level less than ____ mg/dL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which musculoskeletal disorder is characterized by a malignant growth in the marrow of the long bones? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the primary sites for metastasis of Ewing’s sarcoma? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is Ewing’s sarcoma treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of activity should the pt with Ewing’s sarcoma avoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List 3 types of stress that contribute to child abuse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List social stress factors that contribute to child abuse |
|
Definition
| Poverty, unemployment, dysfunctional family |
|
|
Term
| List child stress factors that contribute to child abuse |
|
Definition
| Disabled, temperamental, hyperactive, foster child or step child |
|
|
Term
| List parental stress factors that contribute to child abuse |
|
Definition
| Abused as a child, low self-esteem, overworked or overwhelmed, uneducated, substance abuse |
|
|
Term
| List triggers for child abuse |
|
Definition
| Need for discipline, family conflict, substance abuse, financial crises |
|
|
Term
| What is the #1 priority when caring for a child with a burn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A child who has been burned will need to add _______ & _______ to his/her diet |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be added to the diet of a child who has a burn injury? |
|
Definition
| Calories, proteins, & iron -- supplement Vitamins A, B, C, & zinc |
|
|
Term
| List the 6 “C”s of burn care |
|
Definition
| Clothing, cooling, cleaning, chemoprophylaxis, covering, comfort |
|
|
Term
| How should 1st degree burns be treated? |
|
Definition
| Immerse in cold water to halt burning process & apply an antimicrobial ointment |
|
|
Term
| How should 2nd degree burns be treated? |
|
Definition
| If area is small, treat as 1st degree burn & apply antimicrobial ointment; otherwise, treat as deep dermal burn |
|
|
Term
| Nurse should avoid _______ _______ if a child comes in with a deep dermal burn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should never be applied to a pt with a 3rd degree burn? |
|
Definition
| Ointment or any other substance |
|
|
Term
| Child can be taught to administer own insulin at age ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of insulin is not given to children & why? |
|
Definition
| Long acting is not given to children due to hypoglycemia while asleep |
|
|
Term
| What is the onset of rapid acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the onset of short acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the onset of intermediate acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the onset of long acting insulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which skin condition occurs when bacteria enter a break in the skin and is contagious? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the 1st symptom of impetigo? |
|
Definition
| Bullous lesion or red papule |
|
|
Term
| Where is impetigo usually found? |
|
Definition
| In moist areas (Especially around mouth) |
|
|
Term
| How can impetigo be prevented? |
|
Definition
| By treating cuts promptly |
|
|
Term
| What complication can occur if impetigo is not treated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pt with staph aureus is considered contagious & is placed on strict _______ precautions |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which integumentary disorder occurs due to genetically hypersensitive skin due to oversensitivity to allergens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes infantile eczema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infantile eczema is more common during the first ____ years of life |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which season causes infantile eczema to worsen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pediculosis (lice) is transmitted by _______ contact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the main symptom of Pediculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of precaution should be used for a pt with Pediculosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Head lice (capitis) louse lay eggs that hatch in ____ to ____ days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the major nursing responsibilities during the 4th stage of labor? |
|
Definition
| Checking fundus, perineum, & bladder |
|
|
Term
| Why should the nurse help the new mother void after delivery if her bladder is firm, deviated, & located above the umbilicus? |
|
Definition
| To help prevent hemorrhage |
|
|
Term
| How do oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| Prevents ovulation, makes cervical mucus thick & resistant to sperm, makes endometrium less suitable for a fertilized ovum |
|
|
Term
| What are the complications after an Amniotomy is done? |
|
Definition
| Prolapse of umbilical cord, infection, Abruptio placenta |
|
|
Term
| What should the nurse monitor after an Amniotomy is performed? |
|
Definition
| FHR, amniotic fluid, mom’s temperature |
|
|
Term
| What is important to report to the MD concerning lochia after discharge? |
|
Definition
| Any change in lochia from pink to bright red |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal fetal heart rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List signs of distress in the newborn after birth |
|
Definition
| Grunting respirations, RR over 60 bpm, Apgar score 3 or below |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Given to the mother at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours of delivery when Rh+ baby is born to Rh- mom |
|
|
Term
| The grasp reflex should disappear around _____ months of age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does the development of prehension occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Around approximately what age does the parachute reflex appear? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pincer grasp should be well established by what age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what age will infant be able to hold head erect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By ____ months, the infant is able to roll over |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By ____ months, the infant can sit alone and pull to stand |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By ____ months the infant should be able to walk with assistance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| About how many steps should infant be able to walk by 12 months? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By ____ months the infant is able to sit alone steadily with hands forward for support |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By ____ months the infant is able to sit without support and pull to a standing position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| By ____ months the infant is able to stands alone and can sit from a standing position |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what age does separation anxiety begin to develop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is congenital hear disease not a problem for the fetus? |
|
Definition
| Because of the fetal-maternal circulations |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 categories of congenital heart disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3 defects that increase pulmonary blood flow |
|
Definition
| 1. Atrial septal defect 2. Ventricular septal defect 3. Patent ductus arteriosus |
|
|
Term
| Which heart defect obstructs blood flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which heart defect decreases pulmonary blood flow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a characteristic feature of defects that decrease pulmonary blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Cyanosis caused by the presence of unoxygenated blood in the circulation |
|
|
Term
| In congenital heart disease _______ is not always a clinical sign |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which heart defect occurs because of narrowing or constriction of the aortic arch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a characteristic sign on Coarctation of the aorta? |
|
Definition
| A significant difference in the BP between the upper extremities and the lower extremities |
|
|
Term
| The nurse should observe for __________ after Coarctation surgery |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is the best time for surgical intervention of Coarctation of the aorta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 defects that make up tetralogy of fallout? |
|
Definition
| Stenosis of the pulmonary artery, hypertrophy of the right ventricle, Dextroposition of the aorta, VSD |
|
|
Term
| In Dextroposition of the aorta, in which direction is the aorta displaced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tet spells occur during the first ____ years of life |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best position to place a child in when Tet spells occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is diagnosis of a Tet spell confirmed? |
|
Definition
| By an x-ray that shows a typical boot shaped heart |
|
|
Term
| In some cases, IV ___________ ____ therapy can open a constricted arteriosus and allow for oxygenation of the body until surgery is performed to correct tetralogy of fallot |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cardiac condition is characterized by underdevelopment of the left side of the heart? |
|
Definition
| Hypoplastic left heart syndrome |
|
|
Term
| When can Hypoplastic left heart syndrome be diagnosed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When does acquired heart disease occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cardiac condition occurs when the heart is unable to effectively pump the volume of blood that is presented to it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the right side of the heart is affected by CHF, a failure results in the backup of blood in the…. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the left side of the heart is affected by CHF, a failure results in backup into the…. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the early signs of CHF in infants that should be reported? |
|
Definition
| Tachycardia, fatigue during feedings, sweating around scalp and forehead, dyspnea, sudden weight gain |
|
|
Term
| What causes rheumatic fever to occur? |
|
Definition
| A complication of an untreated group A beta hemolytic streptococcus infection of the throat |
|
|
Term
| A common feature of rheumatic fever is destruction of __________ _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Peak incidence for rheumatic fever occurs from __ to __ years of age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rheumatic fever is more prevalent in which 2 seasons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is needed in order to have a positive diagnosis of rheumatic fever? |
|
Definition
| The presence of 2 major criteria and 1 major & 2 minor criteria, plus a history of streptococcal infection |
|
|
Term
| What must the pt with a history of rheumatic fever be put on before receiving any dental therapy? |
|
Definition
| Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy |
|
|
Term
| _______ or _______ HTN implies that no underlying disease is present |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the cause of HTN can be explained by a disease process, it is known as _______ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cardiac disorder causes inflammation in the BVs of the cardiovascular system & weakens the walls of the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Kawasaki disease usually affects children younger than ____ years of age |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Kawasaki disease spread from person to person? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Kawasaki disease often results in an ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The onset of KD is _______ with a sustained fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Some manifestations if KD include: conjunctivitis without _______, _______ lips, a “___________ tongue”, inflamed mouth and pharyngeal membranes, an erythematous skin _______, and swollen _______ and ___________ of the palm and soles |
|
Definition
| Discharge; fissured; strawberry; rash; hands; desquamation (peeling) |
|
|
Term
| What teaching should the nurse include when teaching the pt with KD who is receiving immune globulin? |
|
Definition
| Postpone active routine immunizations for several months after the administration of immune globulin |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of medications used in the pt with KD? |
|
Definition
| IV gamma globulin, salicylates, warfarin, low dose ASA |
|
|
Term
| Hodgkin's disease is diagnosed by the presence of ______ - __________ cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of Hodgkin's disease is restricted to a single area or localized in a group of lymph nodes & is usually asymptomatic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which group of Hodgkin’s disease involves 2 or more lymph nodes in an area or on the same side of the diaphragm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of Hodgkin's disease involves lymph node regions on both sides of he diaphragm and also involves an adjacent organ or spleen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of Hodgkin's diseased is classified as a diffuse disease and has the least favorable prognosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which GI disorder is caused by a failure of the tissue of the GI tract to separate properly from the respiratory tract early in prenatal life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is essential and must be performed on an infant who has TEF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs in the infant who has TEF when the first feeding is introduced? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Drooling in a newborn is ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which GI disorder occurs when perforation does not take place and causes the lower end of the GI tract and the anus to end in blind pouches? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Failure to pass meconium in the first ____ hours must be reported |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Newborn infants should not be discharged before a _______ _______ is observed and recorded |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is diagnosis of imperforate anus confirmed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pyloric stenosis occurs due to an obstruction and the _______ end of the stomach |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
| An overgrowth (hypertrophy) of the circular muscles of the pylorus or by spasms of the sphincter |
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of pyloric stenosis do not appear until infant is ____ or ____ weeks old |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major symptom of pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A pt with pyloric stenosis will experience projectile vomiting immediately _______ a feeding |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the appetite of the infant with pyloric stenosis |
|
Definition
| Constantly hungry and will eat again immediately after vomiting |
|
|
Term
| An _______ shaped mass may be felt in the RUQ of the abdomen in the pt with pyloric stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pt with pyloric stenosis should be fed __________ feedings by teaspoon through a _______ with a large hole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should the infant with pyloric stenosis be burped? |
|
Definition
| Before as well as during feedings |
|
|
Term
| In what position(s) should the infant with pylori stenosis be placed in after a feeding? |
|
Definition
| On the right side in fowler’s position |
|
|
Term
| If vomiting occurs in an infant with pyloric stenosis, the nurse may be instructed to ___________ the infant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should the diaper be placed after surgery to repair pyloric stenosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the leading Malabsorption problem in children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Celiac disease is an ___________ disposition with environmental triggers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Symptoms of celiac disease are not evident until 6 months to 2 years of age when foods containing _______ are introduced to the child |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the stools of the child with celiac disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the characteristic profile of an infant with celiac disease? |
|
Definition
| Abdominal distention with atrophy of the buttocks |
|
|
Term
| What are some foods that contain gluten? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which GI disorder causes a lack of peristalsis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hirschsprung’s disease results in chronic __________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the stools of the child with Hirschsprung’s disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There is a higher incidence of Hirschsprung's disease in children with _______ ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a serious complication of Hirschsprung’s disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which diagnostic evaluations are usually included for Hirschsprung’s disease? |
|
Definition
| Barium enema & rectal biopsy |
|
|
Term
| What is the manifestation of Hirschsprung’s disease in newborns? |
|
Definition
| Failure to pass meconium stools within 24-28 hours |
|
|
Term
| What are the manifestations of Hirschsprung’s disease during infancy? |
|
Definition
| Constipation, ribbon-like stools, abdominal distention, anorexia, vomiting, failure to thrive |
|
|
Term
| What GI disorder would the MD suspect if a parent brings their young child into the clinic after trying OTC laxatives to treat constipation, but no relief is found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When giving the child an enema at home, what type of solution should be used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of solution should never be used when giving a child an enema at home? |
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Definition
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Term
| What GI disorder is characterized by the slipping of one part of the intestine into another part just below it, resulting in edema and strangulation of the bowel? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What term is used to describe intussusception that has been corrected without treatment? |
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Definition
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Term
| The onset of intussusception is _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| The child with intussusception with have diminished _______ and will pass little _______ |
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Definition
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Term
| Describe the stools of the child with intussusception |
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Definition
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Term
| The MD may feel a ___________ shaped mass in the RUQ of the child with intussusception |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the treatment of choice for the child with intussusception? |
|
Definition
| Barium enema (with surgery scheduled if reduction is not achieved) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common sign of Meckel’s Diverticulum? |
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Definition
| Painless bleeding from the rectum |
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|
Term
| Describe the stools of the child with Meckel’s Diverticulum |
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Definition
| Bright red or dark red stools |
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|
Term
| When is a hernia considered “reducible”? |
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Definition
| If able to be put back into place by gentle pressure |
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Term
| Which type of hernia is classified by a protrusion of part of the abdominal contents through the inguinal canal? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of hernia appears as a soft swelling covered by skin, which protrudes when infant cries or strains? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When does a strangulated hernia occur? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| A strangulated hernia happens more often during the first ____ months of life |
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Definition
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Term
| ________ and severe ___________ pain are present in a child with a strangulated hernia |
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Definition
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Term
| Should a dressing be applied to an infant who is postop hernia removal? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which GI disorder involves inflammation of the stomach and intestines |
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the colon |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of colon and small intestines |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common non-infections causes of diarrhea? |
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Definition
| Food intolerance, overfeeding, improper formula preparation, ingestion of high amounts of sorbitol |
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|
Term
| What is the priority problem in a child experiencing diarrhea? |
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Definition
| Fluid and electrolyte imbalance and failure to thrive |
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|
Term
| Why does persistent vomiting require investigation? |
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Definition
| Because it results in dehydration and electrolyte imbalances |
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Term
| Continuous loss of HCL and NaCl from the stomach due to vomiting can cause ___________ |
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Definition
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Term
| To prevent aspiration of vomitus, the nurse should place the infant on his/her _______ side following feedings |
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Definition
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Term
| Which GI disorder results when the lower esophageal sphincter is relaxed or not competent, which allows stomach contents to be easily regurgitated into the esophagus? |
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Definition
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Term
| In many infants, symptoms of GER decrease around ____ months, when the child stands upright and eats more solid foods |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are some common symptoms related to GER? |
|
Definition
| Vomiting, weight loss, failure to thrive |
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|
Term
| ___________ problems can occur when vomiting stimulates closure of the epiglottis and infant presents with apnea |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What should be included in the teaching for a child with GER? |
|
Definition
| Burping, avoid overfeeding, proper positioning |
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|
Term
| When feedings are thickened with cereal, how much cereal should be added to water? |
|
Definition
| 1 teaspoon of cereal per 1 ounce of formula |
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|
Term
| What position should the infant with GER be positioned in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a guide to prevent gastric distention? |
|
Definition
| To feed infants no more than the age in months plus every 3-4 hours (Example -- a 3 month old infant should be fed a maximum of 6 ounces in one feeding) |
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|
Term
| Which GI disorder is classified as a sudden increase in stools from the infant’s normal pattern, with a fluid consistency and a color that is green or contains mucus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes infectious diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| Viral, bacterial, or parasitic infections |
|
|
Term
| What causes acute sudden diarrhea? |
|
Definition
| Inflammation, infection, or response to a medication, food, or poisoning |
|
|
Term
| How often does chronic diarrhea usually last? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the stools of an infant with diarrhea |
|
Definition
| Stools are watery and are expelled with force (explosive stools) -- may be yellowish green |
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|
Term
| In severe cases of diarrhea, the excessive loss of bicarbonate from the GI tract results in ___________ |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How is constipation defined? |
|
Definition
| Fewer than 7 BMs in a 2 week period |
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|
Term
| The daily use of _______ and _______ should be discouraged because of the risk of constipation |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Parents should be taught to add more _______ to the child’s diet to prevent constipation |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Kwashiorkor is a _______ deficiency that occurs in children 1 to 4 years old who have been weaned from the breast |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does Kwashiorkor affect a child's growth and development? |
|
Definition
| Child fails to grow normally and muscles become weak and wasted |
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|
Term
| How does Kwashiorkor affect a child’s hair? |
|
Definition
| Hair becomes thin and dry |
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|
Term
| Rickets is caused by deficient amounts of _______ ____ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the classis symptoms of rickets? |
|
Definition
| Bowlegs, knock-knees, beading of the ribs called rachitic rosary, improper formation of teeth |
|
|
Term
| Scurvy is caused by insufficient fruits and vegetables that contain _______ ____ |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the classic symptoms of scurvy? |
|
Definition
| Joint pain, bleeding gums, loose teeth, lack of energy |
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|
Term
| Rupture or perforation of the appendix can occur with serious complications within ____ hours of the onset of abdominal pain |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of fungus is the cause of thrush? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are parents taught to drop Nystatin or other medications into the mouth of the infant with thrush? |
|
Definition
| Place slowly into the side of the infants mouth |
|
|
Term
| How are pinworms diagnosed? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Erikson consider to be trust vs. mistrust? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What stage of development does Erikson consider to be autonomy vs. shame and doubt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Erikson consider to be initiative vs. guilt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Erikson consider to be industry vs. inferiority? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Erikson consider to be identity vs. role diffusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Piaget consider to be sensorimotor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Piaget consider to be preoperational? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Piaget consider to be concrete operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What stage of development does Piaget consider to be formal operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a communicable disease? |
|
Definition
| One that can be transmitted, directly or indirectly, from one person to another |
|
|
Term
| What are organisms that cause communicable diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the time between the invasion by the pathogen and the onset of clinical symptoms known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the initial stage of a disease known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is any inanimate material that absorbs and transmits infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an insect or animal that carries and spreads a disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a worldwide high incidence of a communicable disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a sudden increase of a communicable disease in a localized area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to a continuous incidence of a communicable disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term refers to moist secretions or parts of the body that can contain microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is known as a route by which the organism enters the body? |
|
Definition
| Portal of entry (example -- a cut in the skin) |
|
|
Term
| What is known as the route by which the organisms exit the body? |
|
Definition
| Portal of exit (example -- feces or urine) |
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|
Term
| What is known as a place that supports the growth of organisms |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is caused by organisms normally found in the environment that the immune-suppressed person cannot resist or fight? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Born (inherited) with resistance to certain pathogens |
|
|
Term
| Describe acquired immunity |
|
Definition
| Not the result of inherited factors but is gained as a result of having the disease or is artificially acquired by vaccines |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When the person produces his own immunity |
|
|
Term
| Describe passive immunity |
|
Definition
| Antibodies to a communicable disease are given to a pt -- acts immediately but does not last as long as active immunity produced by the body |
|
|
Term
| What is a diffused reddened area on the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a circular reddened area on the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an elevated circular reddened area on the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an elevated fluid filled circular reddened area on the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an elevated pus filled circular reddened area on the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a dried pustule that is covered with crust? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe a lesion or symptom that is characteristic of a specific illness? |
|
Definition
| Pathognomonic (example -- Koplik spots for measles) |
|
|
Term
| What is a resource that defines mental disorders and is used by health professionals to aid in diagnoses of specific mental health conditions? |
|
Definition
| DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) |
|
|
Term
| What technique focuses on modifying specific behaviors by means of stimulus and response conditioning? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What technique refers to the physical and social environment provided for the child? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What technique refers to the reading of stories about children in a situation similar to the child's situation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What technique refers to the dysfunctions of the body that seem to have an emotional or mental basis? |
|
Definition
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