Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the 5 mechanisms of hemostasis? |
|
Definition
- vessel spasm
- formation of platelet plug
- blood clot formation (development of insuable fibrin)
- clot retraction and fibrous tissue growth (permanent repair of vessel injury)
- clot dissolution
|
|
|
Term
what substance released from platelets causes vascoconstriction (spasm)? |
|
Definition
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
released from platelets, plays a primary role in the recruitment and activation of more platelets |
|
|
Term
what are the life-span and normal values for platelets |
|
Definition
life-span: 7-9 days
Normal counts: 150,000 - 400,000 /cumm |
|
|
Term
what is the hemopoietic cell line and maturation sequence for platelets? |
|
Definition
myeloid progenitor
↓
megakaryoblast
↓
megakaryocyte
↓
platelets
thrombopoietin stimulates megakaryocytes in the bone marrow → plateles formed (fragments of megakaryocyte) → released into circulation and processed in the spleen for ~8hrs → released into circulation |
|
|
Term
activation of platelets requires what factor? |
|
Definition
von Willebrand factor (vWF)
vWF is found in the endothelial cells of blood vessels and circulates attached to Factor VIII |
|
|
Term
what is the mechanism of platelet adherence to the vessel wall? |
|
Definition
trauma to the vessel wall → vessel wall loses (-) charge →
(-) charged platelets adhere to the (+) charged vessel wall and become activated (expose surface receptors) →
bind to vWF in the exposed matrix (collagen) |
|
|
Term
what is the role of ADP, TXA2, and thrombin in platelet function? |
|
Definition
ADP
TXA2, thrombin (platelet activating factors)
involved in aggregation of platelets → meshwork formation |
|
|
Term
petechiae, purpura, and eccymoses are small hemorrages of the _________________ that result from _____________ deficiencies. |
|
Definition
petechiae, purpura, and eccymoses are small hemorrages of the skin, mucous membrane that result from platelet deficiencies. |
|
|
Term
all of the procoagulant factors are made in the liver except for ___________ |
|
Definition
all of the procoagulant factors are made in the liver except for Factor VIII |
|
|
Term
what factors are dependent of Vitamin K? |
|
Definition
Factors II, VII, IX, X
2+7 = 9 + 1 = 10 |
|
|
Term
Name the following Factors:
Factor I
Factor II
Factor III
Factor IV
Factor IX
Factor XIII |
|
Definition
Name the following Factors:
Factor I Fibrinogen
Factor II Prothrombin
Factor III Tissue thromboplastin
Factor IV Calcium
Factor IX Christmas Factor
Factor XIII Fibrin stabilizing factor |
|
|
Term
which are more predominant in the blood, anticoagulants or coagulants? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
name the 4 anticoagulants |
|
Definition
antithrombin II
heparin
alpha2 macroglobin
Protein C |
|
|
Term
what are the stages of blood clot formation? |
|
Definition
stages of blood clot formation
Stage 1: formation of prothromin activator (release/generation of thromboplastin) via the intrinsic or extrinsic pathways
Stage 2: conversion of prothrombin → thrombin
Stage 3: conversion of fibrinogen → fibrin |
|
|
Term
conversion of prothrombin → thrombin occurs at what stage of blood clotting (1-3)?
|
|
Definition
Stage 2: conversion of prothrombin → thrombin
|
|
|
Term
conversion of fibrinogen → fibrin occurs at what stage of blood clotting (1-3)? |
|
Definition
Stage 3: conversion of fibrinogen → fibrin |
|
|
Term
the __________ pathway is activated by tissue damage and involves tissue/thromboplastin factor (TF) and factor VII.
what blood test is used to assess this pathway? |
|
Definition
the extrinsic pathway is activated by tissue damage and involves tissue/thromoplastin factor (TF) and factor VII.
Prothromin time (PT) is used to assess this pathway
the extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factor from damaged tissue cells. Tissue factor (TF) activates Factor VII, which then converges with the intrinsic pathway at factor X |
|
|
Term
the __________ pathway is activated by damage to the blood or contact with collagen within the vessel wall and involves factors XII, XI, IX, VIII
what blood test is used to assess this pathway? |
|
Definition
the intrinsic pathway is activated by damage to the blood or inner blood vessel and involves factors VIII, IX, XI, XII.
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to assess this pathway |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Factor III = tissue thromboplastin |
|
|
Term
explain what happens in stage IA of blood clot formation |
|
Definition
Stage Ia (extrinsic pathway)
trauma to vascular wall or extravascular tissue
↓
release of TF
↓
activation of Factor VII
↓
activation of Factor X
↓
cleaving of prothrombin to thrombin (accelerated by Factor V)
↓
formation of prothombin activator via Factor X, Factor V, and Ca+
[image] |
|
|
Term
how is warfarin tx monitored? |
|
Definition
PT (reported in INR)
extrinsic pathway |
|
|
Term
explain what happens in stage Ib of blood clot formation |
|
Definition
Stage Ib (intrinsic pathway)
blood trauma or exposure of blood to vascular wall collagen
↓
activation of Factor XII, release of vWF, TXA2, ADP
↓
activation of Factors XI, IX, VII + Ca+
↓
activation of Factor X and V
↓
cleaving of prothrombin to thrombin (accelerated by Factor V)
↓
formation of prothombin activator
[image] |
|
|
Term
how is unfractionated heparin tx monitored?
|
|
Definition
PTT (aPTT/PTT)
intrinsic pathway |
|
|
Term
prothrombin (factor II) is converted to Thrombin under the influence of what factors/substances? |
|
Definition
Factors V, VII, X and Ca+ |
|
|
Term
_____________ attaches to receptors on platelets bound to damaged tissues. |
|
Definition
prothrombin attaches to receptors on platelets bound to damaged tissues. |
|
|
Term
______________ activates fibrinogen to fibrin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
lack of vitamin K and/or severe liver disease will cause bleeding due to a decrease in what coag factor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what coag factor is formed in stage II and acts on Fibrinogen to form fibrin monomer?
what factor stabilizes fibrin monomer to form stable fibrin bands? |
|
Definition
Thrombin is formed in stage II and acts on Fibrinogen to form fibrin monomer
Factor XIII (released from platelets) stabilizes fibrin monomer to form stable fibrin bands? |
|
|
Term
lupus and blood transfusion can cause intravascular clotting by what mechanism? |
|
Definition
antigen-antibody reaction |
|
|
Term
consumptive coagulopathy is another name for what? |
|
Definition
DIC
Dissiminated Intravascular Coagulation
Consumptive coagulopathy is a syndrome cx by bleeding due to a depletion of the clotting factors secondary to excessive intravascular thrombosis |
|
|
Term
__________________ results from the overactivation of the coagulation sequence, leading to depletion of platelets and coag factors. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what proteoltic enzyme is involved in lysis of blood clots and digestion of other coagulation factors? |
|
Definition
plasmin
plasmin is formed by the activation of plasminogen by plasminogen activator (t-PA) |
|
|
Term
what is required for the inactivation of Factors V and VII (natural mechanism of anticoagulation) |
|
Definition
acitvation of Protein C by Thrombin |
|
|
Term
what substance combines with anti-thrombin III cofactor to suppress fibrin formation?
what cells secrete this substance? |
|
Definition
Heparin
Basophils and pericapillary mast cells |
|
|
Term
fibrin is directly inactivated by ____________
fibrin formation is suppressed by ____________ |
|
Definition
fibrin is directly inactivated by AT3 (antithrombin III)
fibrin formation is suppressed by Heparin (+ AT3) |
|
|
Term
what is more common: acquired or genetic hypercoaguable states?
give exampes of acquired and genetic causes of hypercoag states |
|
Definition
aquired > genetic
aquired:
increased platelet function (smoking, ↑ chol, atherosclerosis)
accelerated activation of coag system (↑ estrogen, CA, post-surgery)
genetic:
antiphospholipid syndrome
deficiency of natural anticoags |
|
|
Term
what type of thrombi are associated with stasis of blood flow and ↑ levels of procoagulants? |
|
Definition
venous thrombi = stasis of blood flow and ↑ levels of procoagulants |
|
|
Term
what type of thrombi are associated with turbulent blood flow and platelet activation? |
|
Definition
Arterial thrombi = turbulent blood flow and platelet activation |
|
|
Term
vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy), hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Weber-Osler-Rendu) and Cushings Disease lead to bleeding disorders by what mechanism?
what would you see on PE? |
|
Definition
vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy)
hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Weber-Osler-Rendu)
Cushings Disease
↓
damaged or weak vessels ( ↓ vascular integrity)
PE: purpura, petechiae |
|
|
Term
what disease causes bleeding disordered due to platelet abnormalities?
|
|
Definition
ITP (idiopathic thrombocytopenia) |
|
|
Term
sulfa, penicillin, and cephalosporin ABX and quinine cause bleeding disorders by what mechanism?
how is this different than bleeding disorders due to radiation exposure? |
|
Definition
sulfa, penicillin, and cephalosporin ABX and quinine cause bleeding disorders due to ↓ platelet counts
radiation exposure causes bleeding disorders due to ↑ platelet counts |
|
|
Term
name 4 causes of thrombocytopathia and their mechanisms |
|
Definition
von Willebrand's disease = defect in platelet adherence
ASA = defect in platelet aggregation (irreversible)
NSAIDs = defect in platelet aggrecation (reversible)
Uremia = ↑ platelet inhibitory factors, ↓ TXA2
(Uremia infor from http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/201722-overview) |
|
|
Term
which anticoagulant drug is used to prevent arterial thrombi due to its antiplatelet action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which anticoagulant drug affects Vitamin K (Factors II, VII, IX, X)?
monitored by which test?
Antidote? |
|
Definition
Warfarin (Coumadin)
PT test
Antidote: Vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma |
|
|
Term
which anticoagulant drug inhibits the action of thrombin?
monitored by which test?
Antidote? |
|
Definition
Heparin
PTT test
intrinsic pathway
Antidote: protamine sulfate |
|
|
Term
what congenital (2) and aquired disorders (2) are associated with deficiencies in coagulation factor synthesis/funtion or increased consuption of coagulation factors?
What type of bleeding is cx of theses disorders? |
|
Definition
congenital:
Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency)
Hemophilia B / Christmas Disease (Factor IX deficiency)
aquired:
liver disease
Vitamin K deficiency
Evidence/bleeding:
deep hemorrhages and hemarthroses |
|
|
Term
what Factors are deficient in the 2 types of Hemophilia? |
|
Definition
Hemophilia A = Factor VIII deficiency
Hemophilia B / Christmas Disease = Factor IX deficiency |
|
|
Term
what drugs are used to tx MI and DVT? (3) |
|
Definition
Thrombolytic drugs
t-PA (tissue plasminogen activator)
Streptokinase
Urokinase |
|
|
Term
Mechanism of DIC
trauma, CA initiate the _______ pathway
s
tasis of blood, immune and infectious (endotoxins) etiolgy initiate the _______ pathway
↓
unregulated generation of ________ leads to systemic fibrin formation
↓
clot formation consumes coagulation factors and __________
↓
intravascular coagulation and bleeding
|
|
Definition
Mechanism of DIC
trauma, CA initiate the extrinsic pathway
stasis of blood, immune and infectious (endotoxins) etiolgy initiate the intrinsic pathway
↓
unregulated generation of thrombin leads to systemic fibrin formation
↓
clot formation consumes coagulation factors and platelets
↓
intravascular coagulation and bleeding
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
one of the mechanisms of erythropoiesis is the release of ___________ from the kidney in response to tissue _______________. |
|
Definition
one of the mechanisms of erythropoiesis is the release of erythropoietin from the kidney in response to tissue hypoxia
|
|
|
Term
stimulation of hematopoietic stem cells comes from what growth factors?
originate in blood cells (2)
originated from tissues/organs (3) |
|
Definition
Originate from blood cells:
Cytokines: Colony Stimulating Factors (CSFs)
Interleukins
Originate from Tissues/Organs:
Erythropoietin
Thrombopoietin
Leukopoietin
|
|
|
Term
what are the sites of erythropoiesis in Adults vs. Fetus? |
|
Definition
Adult:
axial skeleton
proximal epiphyses (long bones)
skull
lymph nodes
Fetus:
yolk sac
placenta → shifts by the end of gestation to...
bone marrow, spleen, liver, lymph nodes |
|
|
Term
dead, damaged, or abnormal RBC’s are removed from circulation by ________________ in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow |
|
Definition
ged, damaged, or abnormal RBC’s are removed from circulation by macrophages in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow |
|
|
Term
What type of hemoglobin is the major source of fetal hemoglobin and can be a cause of pediatric anemia? |
|
Definition
HgbF (HbF)
HbF should be replaced by HbA after ~3months to adapt to the changing oxygen supply system/demands (placenta vs. lungs)
NOTE: HbF and HbA2 are increased in beta-thalassemia |
|
|
Term
what is a measure of [Hgb] in a single RBC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what causes secondary hemochromatosis? |
|
Definition
secondary (acquired) hemochromatosis can be caused by thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, or chronic EtOH**
**EToH was Pepe's only reason for seconday hemochomatosis but actually is less common than other causes
Hemochormatosis = too much Fe build up in the body, especially the liver.
|
|
|
Term
what condition is cx by a temporary increase in RBC production due to chronic hypoxia? |
|
Definition
secondary polycythemia**
**can also be caused by a EPO secreting tumor
primary polycythemias are due to genetic mutations causing abnormally high RBC precursors
e.g. polycythemia vera |
|
|
Term
what are the three morphologic classifications of anemias?
give the name/mechanism for anemias for each category |
|
Definition
Microcytic, hypochromic
IDA
Thallassemia
Sideroblastic anemia
Normocytic, normochromic
Hemolytic anemias
acute blood loss
anemia of chronic disease
aplastic anemia
sickle cell anemia
Macrocytic, normochromic
Megaloblastic anemias: B12 deficiency, pernicious anemia, folate deficiency |
|
|
Term
what is the role of WBCs in the pathophysiology of iron deficiency anemia? |
|
Definition
Macrophages and lymphocytes sequester iron in the spleen
lymphocytes release cytokines that suppress EPO action/production |
|
|
Term
abnormal nucleic acid synthesis causes abnormal RBC membrane synthesis and maturation.
pathophysiology of what type of anemia? |
|
Definition
megaloblastic anemia:
vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies |
|
|
Term
what type of anemia is cx by absent or defective synthesis of alpha or beta Hb chaing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is an inherited hematologic disorder cx by oxidation of RBCs to form Heinz bodies?
what morphological type of anemia is this? |
|
Definition
G6PD deficiency
normocitic, normochromic anemia
due to inc. loss or destruction of RBCs |
|
|
Term
what is the difference between sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait? |
|
Definition
sickle cell disease is a homozygous (rr) genetic trait
sickle cell trait is heterozygous (Rr) genetic trait and will not cause sickle cell anemia (but does provide immunity to malaria) |
|
|
Term
_____________ is an abnormally high total RBC mass with a hematocrit >54% (males), >51% females. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of WBC is responsible for maintaining normal host defences, has a life span on 4-5 days and normally constitue 55-65% of circulating WBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of WBC is involved in allergic reactions (asthma, allergies) and parastic infections and makes up 1-3% of WBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what WBC is involved in allergic reactions and makes up 0.3-0.5% of WBCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of WBC is a phagocyte that can live 1-3 days in circulation or years in tissues? |
|
Definition
monocyte
in tissues = macrophage, myeloid dendritic cell |
|
|
Term
chronic infections (TB, syphilis) and leukemia are associated with what type of leukocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of cancer would be evidenced by basophilia and eosinophilia? |
|
Definition
CML
chronic myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
_____________ is cx by uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal plasma cells that secrete IgG or IgA. |
|
Definition
multiple myeloma (plasma cell CA of the osseous tissue) |
|
|
Term
_____________are proliferations of white cells in the bone marrow. Malignant neoplasms come from the transformation of a single cell line derived from hematopoietic stem cells) |
|
Definition
leukemias are proliferations of white cells in the bone marrow (transformation of a single cell line derived from hematopoietic stem cells) |
|
|
Term
__________ are proliferations/malignancies of WBC in the lymphatic tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of lymphoma is cx by Reed-Sternberg cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what causes rubor and calor in acute inflammation? |
|
Definition
vascular response to acute inflammation:
constriction of small vessels
dilation of arterioles/venues
keeps infection localzed |
|
|
Term
what cx feature of cells that respond to early tissue injury is associated with recognition of infectious agents? |
|
Definition
Toll like Receptors (TLR) |
|
|
Term
what type of WBC invovled in the inflammatory response is capable of dividing and surviving at the site of inflammation?
what immune response do these cells help activate/coordinate?
what substance do they produce to suppress further inflammation and intiate healing? |
|
Definition
Macrophages
involved in activating the adaptive immune response
secrete cytokines to suppress further inflammation and intiate healing |
|
|
Term
what are the 3 key plasma protein systems that are activated by the inflammatory response? |
|
Definition
complement system
clotting system
kinin system |
|
|
Term
what chemical mediatosr involved in inflammation cause vessel dilatation/dilation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and TXA2 are ______________ involved in vascoconstriction and platelet activation |
|
Definition
prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and TXA2 are arachidonic acid metabolites involved in vascoconstriction and platelet activation |
|
|
Term
what chemical mediator causes smooth muscle relaxation, reduces platelet aggregation and adhesion and helps with phagocytosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of WBC recognizes and eliminates cells infected with viruses? |
|
Definition
natural killer cells (NKCs) |
|
|
Term
what are 4 cytokines produced by macrophages and monocytes? |
|
Definition
IL-6, 1beta
TNF-alpha
TFG-beta
INF-gamma
IL6-TNFalpha-TFGbeta-INFgamma |
|
|
Term
what type of cytokine are produced by mactophages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what type of cytokine is involved in protecting against viral infections by preventing viruses from infecting healthy cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what cytokine is secreted mostly my macrophages and helps initiate the inflammatory response and increases pro-inflammatory proteins in the liver?
what can this cytokine cause in prolonged infection?
|
|
Definition
TNF-alpha
can cause muscle wasting and cachexia in prolonged infection |
|
|
Term
__________ is a systemic sign of inflammation that is initiated by exogenous and endogenous pyrogenes.
|
|
Definition
Fever is a systemic sign of inflammation that is initiated by exogenous and endogenous pyrogenes.
|
|
|
Term
PEG2, IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha, and interferon are ______________ produced by phagocytic cells and are involved in the pathogenesis of fever |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what bacteria can survive in multinucleated giant cells (ganulomas)? (4) |
|
Definition
histoplasmosis***
TB
parasites
syphilis |
|
|
Term
__________ cells continually divide to regenerate after injury/insult. Ex: surface epithelium, uterine, vaginal tissue, GI tract |
|
Definition
Labile cells can regerate after insult and continually divide. Ex: surface epithelium, uterine, vaginal tissue, GI tract |
|
|
Term
_____________ cells stop dividing when growth stops, but can regenerate after being damaged. Ex. bone marrow, liver |
|
Definition
stable cells stop dividing when growth stops, but can regenerate after being damaged. Ex. bone marrow, liver |
|
|
Term
____________ cells do not undergo mitosis (cannot divide or regenerate). Ex. nerve cells, cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle cells
what is formed once these cells are destroyed? |
|
Definition
Permanent/fixed cells do not undergo mitosis (cannot divide or regenerate). Ex. nerve cells, cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle cells
scar tissue (collagen) replaces destroyed/damaged cells |
|
|
Term
in the reconstruction phase of wound healing, macrophages stimulates the proliferation of _________, which synthesize and secrete collagen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how long after an injury does the maturation phase begin?
what happens to scar tissue in this phase? |
|
Definition
maturation begins 3 weeks after injury (can last >6months)
scar tissue is remodeled and becomes avascular |
|
|
Term
what type of wound healing (intention) occurs with excess epithelialization? |
|
Definition
secondary intention
in primary intention, there is minimal tissue loss and so the wound heals by opposition of wound edges (Ex. surgical incision) |
|
|
Term
what leads to dysfunctional wound healing by inhibiting fibroblast migration to the wound and impairing angiogenesis, wound contraction, and epithelialization
|
|
Definition
Anti-inflammatory med (NSAIDS, STEROIDS) |
|
|
Term
what are the 3 ways the complement system is activated? |
|
Definition
classical pathway (antigen-antibody)
lectin pathway (bacterial CHOs)
alternative pathway (gram negative bacteria, fungal cell wall components) |
|
|
Term
_____ is activated by the compliment system and is a chemotactic factor for neutrophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the 4 functions of the complement system? |
|
Definition
Opsonization
Mast cell degranulation
Leukocyte chemotaxis
Cell lysis |
|
|
Term
___________ is a componenet of the kinin system that acts with prostaglandins to induce pain and increases vascular permeability and leukocyte chemotaxis. |
|
Definition
|
|