Term
For cells that communicate by electrical synapses, the message travels between cells via ________.
A)
gap junction proteins
B)
passive transport across the synaptic cleft
C)
the diffusion of neurotransmitters
D)
active transport across the synaptic cleft
E)
ions moving across the synaptic cleft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When voltage-dependent calcium channels open, calcium moves out of the cell. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excitatory postsynaptic potentials can occur as either fast or slow responses. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the absence of active transport of chloride, membrane potential will determine the concentration of chloride ions across a neuron's plasma membrane. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once initiated, excitatory postsynaptic potentials last for hours, especially if a fast receptor is activated. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An action potential is triggered if the membrane potential at the axon hillock is depolarized to threshold. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| IPSPs can only summate with IPSPs, and EPSPs can only summate with EPSPs.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two or more impulses originating from a different synapse on the same neuron at approximately the same time will cause spatial summation. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Information on the amplitude of a particular response is coded for by the amplitude of the action potential generated. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Presynaptic modulation involves a neurotransmitter from the axon terminal of one neuron affecting the membrane potential of an axon terminal from another neuron on which the first has synapsed (axoaxonic synapse).T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An axoaxonic synapse is unique in its ability to affect only one synapse.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The similarity in structure between glutamate and GABA are indicative of the similarity in their function. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Connexons are a necessary component of electrical synapses. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most neurotransmitters are actively transported into synaptic vesicles.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Slow postsynaptic potentials can be caused by the opening or closing of ion channels, whereas fast postsynaptic potentials only involve the opening of ion channels. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Closing of potassium channels causes a hyperpolarization. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the equilibrium potential of a cation is -40 mV, then opening of channels for this cation will result in excitation of the neuron. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Neural integration occurs at a neuron's cell body.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Presynaptic modulation occurs at axo-somatic synapses.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| GABA is a biogenic amine. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When one neuron has several axon collaterals that communicate with several other neurons, it is called divergence. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| GABA acts as an autocrine at GABAA receptors.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most EPSPs are at least 10 mV in magnitude at the point of synaptic communication.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most communication between neurons in the central nervous system is one-to-one, that is, one presynaptic neuron communicates to just one postsynaptic neuron. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about synapses is FALSE?
A)
Electrical synapses can be gated.
B)
Most synapses in the nervous system are chemical synapses.
C)
Communication across electrical synapses is bi-directional.
D)
Neurotransmitters can move from one cell to another through gap junctions at an electrical synapse.
E)
Communication at chemical synapses is slower than at electrical synapses |
|
Definition
D)
Neurotransmitters can move from one cell to another through gap junctions at an electrical synapse. |
|
|
Term
The chemical synapse is bounded by the ________ neuron, from which neurotransmitters are released across the synaptic cleft, to the ________ neuron, where the receptors for that neurotransmitter are located.
A)
presynaptic : postsynaptic
B)
presynaptic : parasynaptic
C)
postsynaptic : presynaptic
D)
parasynaptic : postsynaptic
E)
terminal : presynaptic |
|
Definition
A)
presynaptic : postsynaptic |
|
|
Term
The coupling between an axon terminal and the axon from another neuron is called a(n) ________.
A)
somatoaxonic synapse
B)
axoaxonic synapse
C)
axodendritic synapse
D)
dendroaxonic synapse
E)
axosomatic synapse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The coupling between an axon terminal and the cell body from another neuron is called a(n) ________.
A)
axoaxonic synapse
B)
somatoaxonic synapse
C)
axosomatic synapse
D)
dendroaxonic synapse
E)
axodendritic synapse |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The neurotransmitter that is released from the presynaptic neuron must diffuse across the ________.
A)
axon hillock
B)
dendrite
C)
synaptic cleft
D)
cell body
E)
axon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of ion channels are necessary for the function of the axon and the axon terminal?
A)
ligand-gated
B)
receptor-gated
C)
chemically-gated
D)
voltage-gated
E)
mechanically-gated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Synaptic vesicles store ________.
A)
calcium
B)
enzymes that degrade neurotransmitter
C)
potassium
D)
neurotransmitter
E)
sodium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most neurotransmitters are synthesized in ________.
A)
cytosol
B)
axon hillock
C)
synaptic vesicles
D)
Golgi apparatus
E)
rough endoplasmic reticulum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neurotransmitter release occurs by what mechanism?
A)
secondary active transport
B)
exocytosis
C)
endocytosis
D)
primary active transport
E)
diffusion |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Voltage-gated calcium channels in the axon terminal open in response to ________.
A)
summation of graded potentials at the axon hillock
B)
arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal
C)
initiation of an action potential in the axon hillock
D)
paracrines released from the post-synaptic cell
E)
neurotransmitter binding to receptor |
|
Definition
B)
arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal |
|
|
Term
The influx of calcium into the axon terminal of a chemical synapse is responsible for the ________.
A)
termination of an action potential
B)
diffusion of the neurotransmitter across the membrane and into the cleft
C)
fusion of vesicles to the membrane and of exocytosis neurotransmitter
D)
initiation of an action potential |
|
Definition
C)
fusion of vesicles to the membrane and of exocytosis neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby neurotransmitters are rapidly removed from the synaptic cleft?
A)
active reuptake across the presynaptic membrane
B)
binding to the receptor
C)
degradation by enzymes
D)
transport back up the axon to be immediately repackaged
E)
diffusion out of the cleft |
|
Definition
D)
transport back up the axon to be immediately repackaged |
|
|
Term
Neurotransmitters can be reused through the process of ________, where neurotransmitters are transported across the presynaptic membrane.
A)
resynthesis
B)
reuptake
C)
recycling
D)
receptor binding
E)
regeneration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The extent of neurotransmitter binding to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane is determined primarily by ________.
A)
the concentration of neurotransmitter
B)
the distance of the cleft
C)
calcium
D)
sodium
E)
neurotransmitter vesicles |
|
Definition
A)
the concentration of neurotransmitter |
|
|
Term
The synaptic delay is caused by the time required for________.
A)
the synthesis of neurotransmitter
B)
the neurotransmitter to diffuse across the synaptic cleft
C)
calcium entry to trigger exocytosis
D)
an action potential to move from axon hillock to axon terminal
E)
packaging of neurotransmitter into synaptic vesicles |
|
Definition
C)
calcium entry to trigger exocytosis |
|
|
Term
Identify the type of receptor that is responsible for the rapid opening of ion channels in response to the interaction between the ligand and receptor.
A)
chemotropic receptor
B)
mechanotropic receptor
C)
metabotropic receptor
D)
potentiotropic receptor
E)
ionotropic receptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The opening of ion channels that is stimulated by the binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor on a neighboring neuron, and the subsequent movement of ions across that membrane, describes the development of a(n) ________.
A)
postsynaptic potential
B)
presynaptic potential
C)
cleft potential
D)
action potential
E)
neurogenic potential |
|
Definition
A)
postsynaptic potential |
|
|
Term
The rapid change in membrane potential that occurs when a ligand binds to an ionotropic receptor is caused by ________.
A)
the rapid G protein response that indirectly links receptor to channel
B)
the large ion gradient across the membrane
C)
the G protein amplification that causes the rapid channel response
D)
the presence of one potein that functions as both an ionotropic receptor and an ion channel
E)
the rapid gating of the ion channel by G protein |
|
Definition
D)
the presence of one potein that functions as both an ionotropic receptor and an ion channel |
|
|
Term
Synaptic potentials are produced at what type of synapse?
A)
axo-axonic and axo-dendritic synapses only
B)
axo-axonic and axo-somatic synapses only
C)
axo-axonic, axo-dendritic, and axo-somatic synapses
D)
axo-dendritic synapses only
E)
axo-dendritic and axo-somatic synapses |
|
Definition
E)
axo-dendritic and axo-somatic synapses only |
|
|
Term
At ionotropic receptors, a(n) ________.
A)
neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a separate protein from the receptor
B)
ion binding to a receptor opens channels in the plasma membrane
C)
neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens or closes channels that are part of the same protein as the receptor
D)
neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a part of the same protein as the receptor
E)
neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens or closes channels that are a separate protein from the receptor |
|
Definition
D)
neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a part of the same protein as the receptor |
|
|
Term
Metabotropic receptor-induced gating of ion channels requires more time to occur because ________.
A)
their gating is linked to a G protein
B)
the channels are slower to open
C)
metabolic byproducts are required to open those channels
D)
ion channels linked to metabotropic receptors must move to the membrane before gating
E)
intracellular calcium must increase before those channels will open |
|
Definition
A)
their gating is linked to a G protein |
|
|
Term
A change in the postsynaptic potential that brings membrane potential closer to threshold is called a(n) ________.
A)
suprathreshold postsynaptic potential
B)
hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potential
C)
inhibitory postsynaptic potential
D)
inhibitory presynaptic potential
E)
excitatory postsynaptic potential |
|
Definition
E)
excitatory postsynaptic potential |
|
|
Term
The influx of sodium ions across the postsynaptic membrane is a clear indication that a(n) ________ postsynaptic potential has been generated.
A)
subthreshold
B)
excitatory
C)
inhibitory
D)
suprathreshold
E)
hyperpolarizing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
)
The most common mechanism for producing a fast EPSP involves which of the following?
A)
opening of potassium-selective channels
B)
opening of sodium-selective channels
C)
closing of sodium-selective channels
D)
opening of channels that permit both sodium and potassium to flow through
E)
closing of potassium-selective channels |
|
Definition
D)
opening of channels that permit both sodium and potassium to flow through |
|
|
Term
Which of the following ions directly triggers neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron?
A)
potassium
B)
sodium
C)
chloride
D)
magnesium
E)
calcium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An example of a slow excitatory postsynaptic potential that involves closure of potassium channels relies on ________ to produce cAMP.
A)
G protein
B)
phosphodiesterase
C)
protein kinase C
D)
protein kinase A
E)
adenylate cyclase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The duration of a slow, excitatory postsynaptic potential mediated by cAMP is driven by the extent of time that cAMP remains active before being degraded by ________.
A)
protein kinase A
B)
G protein
C)
protein kinase C
D)
phosphodiesterase
E)
adenylate cyclase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fast excitatory responses not only occur quickly, but ________.
A)
they remain active for a long period of time
B)
they end quickly
C)
they always create a substantial depolarization
D)
they also have a slow component
E)
they are maintained for minutes to hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
A)
opening : sodium
B)
opening : calcium
C)
closure : chloride
D)
closure : potassium
E)
opening : chloride |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The duration of a slow, excitatory postsynaptic potential mediated by cAMP is driven by the extent of time that cAMP remains active before being degraded by ________.
A)
protein kinase A
B)
G protein
C)
protein kinase C
D)
phosphodiesterase
E)
adenylate cyclase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Fast excitatory responses not only occur quickly, but ________.
A)
they remain active for a long period of time
B)
they end quickly
C)
they always create a substantial depolarization
D)
they also have a slow component
E)
they are maintained for minutes to hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
A)
opening : sodium
B)
opening : calcium
C)
closure : chloride
D)
closure : potassium
E)
opening : chloride |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
)
The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
A)
closure : potassium
B)
opening : sodium
C)
opening : calcium
D)
opening : chloride
E)
opening : potassium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the absence of active chloride ion transport, opening of chloride channels in a cell that has hyperpolarized will result in the ________.
A)
depolarization of the cell
B)
net movement of chloride out of the cell
C)
movement of chloride equally in both directions
D)
absence of any chloride movement
E)
net movement of chloride into the cell |
|
Definition
B)
net movement of chloride out of the cell |
|
|
Term
In the presence of active chloride ion transport within a neuron, the opening of chloride channels will result in the ________.
A)
depolarization of the cell
B)
movement of chloride equally in both directions
C)
absence of any chloride movement
D)
net movement of chloride into the cell
E)
net movement of chloride out of the cell |
|
Definition
D)
net movement of chloride into the cell |
|
|
Term
If the resting membrane potential is equal to chloride's equilibrium potential, in which direction will chloride ions move if chloride channels open while the cell remains at resting membrane potential?
A)
inward
B)
Ions will move equally in both directions.
C)
outward
D)
Three chloride ions will move out for every two chloride ions that move in.
E)
No ions will move through the channel. |
|
Definition
B)
Ions will move equally in both directions |
|
|
Term
If the resting membrane potential is equal to chloride's equilibrium potential, in which direction will chloride ions move if chloride channels open as the membrane depolarizes?
A)
Three chloride ions will move out for every two chloride ions that move in.
B)
inward
C)
outward
D)
No ions will move through the channel.
E)
Ions will move equally in both directions. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the absence of an active chloride transporter in the plasma membrane, chloride acts to ________ membrane potential by resisting any change in membrane potential.
A)
modify
B)
stabilize
C)
depolarize
D)
alter
E)
hyperpolarize |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The opening of a chloride channel acts to ________ the development of an action potential at the axon hillock.
A)
facilitate
B)
inhibit
C)
enhance
D)
further
E)
stimulate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Convergence in neurophysiology refers to ________.
A)
the arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal
B)
the communication of several neurons to one postsynaptic cell
C)
the level of depolarization required to generate an action potential
D)
the presence of EPSPs and IPSPs on a neuron at the same time
E)
the summation of graded potentials to determine whether or not an action potential will be generated |
|
Definition
B)
the communication of several neurons to one postsynaptic cell |
|
|
Term
The final integration of postsynaptic potentials that determines whether an action potential is generated occurs within the ________ of a neuron.
A)
cell body
B)
axon
C)
axon hillock
D)
dendrites
E)
rough endoplasmic reticulum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The degree of summation that can occur for inhibitory postsynaptic potentials is limited by ________.
A)
the equilibrium potential for sodium
B)
the equilibrium potential for potassium
C)
the extent of depolarization that is occuring at the same time
D)
the equilibrium potential for chloride
E)
the equilibrium potential for the ion creating the hyperpolarization |
|
Definition
E)
the equilibrium potential for the ion creating the hyperpolarization |
|
|
Term
For ionotropic receptors, their ________ response ________ the likelihood that two pulses from the same neuron will summate.
A)
slow : increase
B)
rapid : decreases
C)
rapid : does not affect
D)
slow : decrease
E)
rapid : increases |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would increase the likelihood of an action potential being generated in a postsynaptic cell?
A)
presynaptic inhibition at an excitatory synapse
B)
presynaptic excitation at an excitatory synapse
C)
opening of potassium channels on the postsynaptic cell
D)
opening of chloride channels on a postsynaptic cell that actively transports chloride ions out of the cell
E)
opening of chloride channels on a postsynaptic cell with no active transport of chloride ions |
|
Definition
B)
presynaptic excitation at an excitatory synapse |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements about inhibitory synapses is FALSE?
A)
Opening of chloride channels can generate an IPSP.
B)
In presynaptic inhibition, opening of chloride channels can stabilize the membrane, opposing a depolarizing force.
C)
The membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell can be hyperpolarized.
D)
The postsynaptic cell is less likely to generate an action potential.
E)
Opening of potassium channels can generate an IPSP. |
|
Definition
B)
In presynaptic inhibition, opening of chloride channels can stabilize the membrane, opposing a depolarizing force. |
|
|
Term
For the slow receptors, the likelihood of summation is ________ by the ________ of time required for those responses to decay.
A)
increased : long period
B)
unaffected : long period
C)
increased : short period
D)
decreased : long period |
|
Definition
A)
increased : long period |
|
|
Term
As the amplitude of the excitatory postsynaptic potential increases above threshold, the time between each action potential will ________, thereby increasing the ________ of the action potentials.
A)
not be altered : amplitude
B)
decrease : amplitude
C)
increase : amplitude
D)
increase : frequency
E)
decrease : frequency |
|
Definition
A)
not be altered : amplitude |
|
|
Term
Suprathreshold graded potentials within a neuron can generate ________ action potential(s) at the axon hillock, which allows for the ________ of the magnitude of the stimulus.
A)
multiple : frequency coding
B)
several : amplitude coding
C)
multiple : amplitude coding
D)
a single : amplitude coding
E)
a single : frequency coding |
|
Definition
A)
multiple : frequency coding |
|
|
Term
Axoaxonic synapses are responsible for ________ the extent of neurotransmitter released at the synapse.
A)
enhancing
B)
inhibiting
C)
decreasing
D)
increasing
E)
modulating |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Presynaptic modulation of neurotransmitter release involves modifying ________ at the axon terminal.
A)
calcium influx
B)
the vesicles selected for release
C)
membrane potential
D)
potassium channels
E)
sodium channels |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During presynaptic inhibition, the release of a neurotransmitter from the modulating neuron causes ________.
A)
an EPSP on the postsynaptic cell
B)
a decrease in neurotransmitter release from the neuron it is modulating
C)
an increase in calcium entry into the axon terminal of the neuron it is modulating
D)
a hyperpolarization of the neuron it is modulating
E)
an IPSP on the postsynaptic cell |
|
Definition
B)
a decrease in neurotransmitter release from the neuron it is modulating |
|
|
Term
Which of the following best describes presynaptic facilitation?
A)
The modulating neuron enhances neurotransmitter release from the postsynaptic cell.
B)
The modulating neuron triggers an action potential in the postsynaptic cell.
C)
The modulating neuron causes an EPSP on the postsynaptic cell.
D)
The modulating neuron stabilizes the membrane potential of the postsynaptic cell.
E)
The modulating neuron decreases the effective communication between the cell it is modulating and its postsynaptic cell. |
|
Definition
A)
The modulating neuron enhances neurotransmitter release from the postsynaptic cell |
|
|
Term
The synthesis of acetylcholine involves an enzyme called ________, which is present within the cytosol and is responsible for converting ________ into acetylcholine.
A)
choline acetyl transferase : acetyl CoA
B)
acetylcholinesterase : acetyl CoA + choline
C)
choline acetyl transferase : choline + acetate
D)
acetylcholinesterase : choline
E)
choline acetyl transferase : acetyl CoA + choline |
|
Definition
E)
choline acetyl transferase : acetyl CoA + choline |
|
|
Term
Neurons that synthesize and release acetylcholine are called ________.
A)
acetylergic neurons
B)
adrenergic neurons
C)
cholinergic neurons
D)
dopaminergic neurons
E)
nitridergic neurons |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Once released, acetylcholine is degraded by extracellular enzymes into ________.
A)
choline only
B)
acetyl CoA + choline
C)
acetate + choline
D)
methylcholine + acetate
E)
acetate only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is transported back into the axon terminal of cholinergic neurons to be resynthesized into active neurotransmitter.
A)
Choline
B)
Acetyl CoA
C)
Acetylcholine
D)
Epinephrine
E)
Acetate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the receptors listed below is a type of cholinergic receptor that is ionotropic?
A)
muscarinic receptors
B)
dopaminergic receptors
C)
adrenergic receptors
D)
nicotinic receptors
E)
nitridergic receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the receptors listed below is a type of cholinergic receptor that is metabotropic?
A)
nitridergic receptors
B)
nicotinic receptors
C)
muscarinic receptors
D)
dopaminergic receptors
E)
adrenergic receptors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a neurotransmitter that contains a six-carbon ring with two hydroxyl groups and an amine group?
A)
neuroactive peptides
B)
catecholamine
C)
acetylcholine
D)
amino acids
E)
nitric oxide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Biogenic amines are synthesized within the ________.
A)
axon hillock
B)
extracellular space
C)
rough endoplasmic reticulum
D)
cytosol of the axon terminal
E)
cytosol of the cell body |
|
Definition
D)
cytosol of the axon terminal |
|
|
Term
The action of adrenergic receptors identifies them as ________ receptors.
A)
ionotropic
B)
chemotropic
C)
mechanically-gated
D)
metabotropic
E)
voltage-gated |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a biogenic amine that is NOT classified as a catecholamine?
A)
serotonin
B)
norepinephrine
C)
adrenaline
D)
dopamine
E)
epinephrine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two enzymes catalyze the breakdown of catecholamines?
A)
catechol-O-methyltransferase and acetylcholinesterase
B)
monoamine oxidase and phenylethanolamine N methyltransferase
C)
monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase
D)
dopa decarboxylase and phenylethanolamine N methyltransferase
E)
acetylcholinesterase and dopa decarboxylase |
|
Definition
C)
monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase |
|
|
Term
Epinephrine binds best to ________.
A)
alpha adrenergic receptors
B)
nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C)
beta2 adrenergic receptors
D)
muscarinic cholinergic receptors
E)
beta1 adrenergic receptors |
|
Definition
C)
beta2 adrenergic receptors |
|
|
Term
Fast EPSPs are produced at which of the following types of receptor?
A)
nicotinic cholinergic only
B)
both nicotinic cholinergic and AMPA receptors
C)
both nicotinic cholinergic and alpha-adrenergic receptors
D)
alpha-adrenergic only
E)
AMPA receptors only |
|
Definition
B)
both nicotinic cholinergic and AMPA receptors |
|
|
Term
In which region of the brain does histamine function as a neurotransmitter?
A)
hypothalamus
B)
medulla
C)
pons
D)
cerebellum
E)
cerebrum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ is an amino acid at excitatory synapses whereas ________ is an amino acid at inhibitory synapses.
A)
Glycine : aspartate
B)
Glutamate : aspartate
C)
Gamma-aminobutyric acid : glycine
D)
Gamma-aminobutyric acid : glutamate
E)
Aspartate : glycine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following GABA receptor types is coupled to chloride channels?
A)
GABAB only
B)
both GABAA and GABAB
C)
both GABAA and GABAC
D)
GABAC only
E)
GABAA only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
IPSPs are produced when GABA binds to what class of receptor?
A)
GABAA only
B)
GABAB only
C)
both GABAA and GABAC
D)
GABAC only
E)
both GABAA and GABAB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?
A)
glycine
B)
glutamate
C)
acetylcholine
D)
GABA
E)
aspartate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Neuropeptides are synthesized ________.
A)
within the axon terminal
B)
within the vesicles
C)
along the axon
D)
in the rough endoplasmic reticulum
E)
at the dendrite |
|
Definition
D)
in the rough endoplasmic reticulum |
|
|
Term
Neuropeptides tend to be ________ neurotransmitters in the axon terminal.
A)
synthesized with
B)
degraded by
C)
co-localized with
D)
separated from
E)
released independent of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following compounds is NOT a neuropeptide?
A)
substance P
B)
endorphin
C)
epinephrine
D)
vasopressin
E)
oxytocin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Nitric oxide is a ________ that functions as a neurotransmitter.
A)
gas
B)
biogenic amine
C)
amino acid
D)
catecholamine
E)
neuroactive peptide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following chemicals is NOT a known neurotransmitter?
A)
acetylcholine
B)
substance P
C)
carbon dioxide
D)
ATP
E)
nitric oxide |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ are gray structures located within the white matter of the cerebral cortex.
A)
arcuate fasciculi
B)
commissural fibers
C)
subcortical nuclei
D)
nerve fibers
E)
tracts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The composition of cerebrospinal fluid is identical to plasma. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The central nervous system is very sensitive to interruptions in blood flow. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tight junctions between astrocytes form the blood-brain barrier. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The facilitated diffusion of molecules across the blood-brain barrier relies on protein carriers that are specific for the movement of particular molecules. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cerebrospinal fluid is completely recycled every three days.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The central nervous system can only use ketones for energy. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hydrogen ions cannot permeate the blood-brain barrier. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| There are no nerves in the central nervous system. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The spinal cord travels the entire length of the vertebral column.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All spinal nerves are mixed nerves containing both sensory and motor fibers. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A region of the sensory innervation of the body by a certain spinal nerve is called a somatotopic region. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The brainstem is composed of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cerebral cortex carries out the highest level of neural processing. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the cerebral cortex, grooves are called sulci whereas ridges are called gyri.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thoughts are generated in the frontal lobe. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the somatosensory cortex, the hands have a greater area of representation than the feet.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Movement of the right side of the body is controlled by the right side of the cerebral cortex. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Somatic reflexes involve somatic neurons transmitting information to smooth and cardiac muscle cells. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Initiation of a withdrawal reflex also activates the crossed-extensor reflex.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Motor neurons are exclusively excitatory, which means that activity of those motor neurons cannot be modulated.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Normally, the vestibular nuclei and the red nuclei of the brainstem are incapable of originating voluntary movements. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although extrapyramidal tracts predominate in the control of large muscle groups, the pyramidal tract also controls those muscles to some degree. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As the night progresses, we spend more time in rapid eye movement sleep.T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Motivation is an impulse that is closely associated with emotion. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| All that we learn is put into memory. T/F |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following numbers is closest to the number of neurons in the human brain?
A)
1 × 1011
B)
1 × 1014
C)
1 × 106
D)
1 × 109
E)
1 × 1018 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of glial cell is necessary for normal development of the blood-brain barrier?
A)
oligodendrocytes
B)
microglia
C)
Schwann cells
D)
ependymal cells
E)
astrocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of glial cell acts locally to maintain normal electrolyte composition of the cerebrospinal fluid?
A)
Schwann cells
B)
astrocytes
C)
oligodendrocytes
D)
microglia
E)
ependymal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of glial cell is a phagocyte?
A)
oligodendrocytes
B)
Schwann cells
C)
astrocytes
D)
microglia
E)
ependymal cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of glial cell contributes to neurodegenerative diseases, such as Alzheimer's disease?
A)
microglia only
B)
astrocytes only
C)
both ependymal cells and microglia
D)
both astrocytes and microglia
E)
ependymal cells only |
|
Definition
D)
both astrocytes and microglia |
|
|
Term
What type of glial cell is located in both the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system?
A)
astrocytes
B)
Schwann cells
C)
none
D)
oligodendrocytes
E)
microglia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the correct order of the meninges, from neural tissue to bone?
A)
Pia mater : arachnoid mater : dura mater
B)
Arachnoid mater : pia mater : dura mater
C)
Dura mater : arachnoid mater : pia mater
D)
Pia mater : dura mater : arachnoid mater
E)
Arachnoid mater : dura mater : pia mater |
|
Definition
A)
Pia mater : arachnoid mater : dura mater |
|
|
Term
Where is cerebrospinal fluid synthesized?
A)
cerebral ventricles
B)
sinusoids
C)
subarachnoid space
D)
arachnoid villi
E)
central canal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced within the ________ and is reabsorbed into the venous circulation by special structures called the ________.
A)
central canal : arachnoid villi
B)
choroid plexus : subarachnoid space
C)
central canal : ependymal villi
D)
central canal : subarachnoid space
E)
choroid plexus : arachnoid villi |
|
Definition
E)
choroid plexus : arachnoid villi |
|
|
Term
________ are hollow cavities within the brain that are bathed by cerebrospinal fluid.
A)
Choroid plexi
B)
Arachnoid villi
C)
Arachnoid spaces
D)
Ventricles
E)
Central canals |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT an accurate explanation for the reliance of the central nervous system on blood flow?
A)
its inability to metabolize ketones
B)
its inability to obtain energy from anaerobic metabolism
C)
its inability to metabolize fatty acids
D)
its inability to store glucose
E)
50% of the glucose metabolized by the body fuels the central nervous system |
|
Definition
A)
its inability to metabolize ketones |
|
|
Term
Tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells in the central nervous system create the blood-brain barrier, thereby restricting the ________ molecules into the brain.
A)
facilitated diffusion of hydrophobic
B)
diffusion of hydrophilic
C)
active transport of
D)
transcytosis of
E)
diffusion of lipophilic |
|
Definition
B)
diffusion of hydrophilic |
|
|
Term
In order for ions to move across the capillary endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier, they must ________.
A)
move through the endothelial cell layer by transcytosis
B)
move through pores between endothelial cells
C)
be transported across endothelial cells
D)
be hydrophilic
E)
be lipophobic |
|
Definition
C)
be transported across endothelial cells |
|
|
Term
Which of the following substances is transported across the blood-brain barrier?
A)
oxygen
B)
ethanol
C)
hydrogen ions
D)
carbon dioxide
E)
glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures is found primarily in white matter?
A)
axon terminals
B)
dendrites
C)
myelinated axons
D)
neuron cell bodies
E)
synapses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The outermost layer of the brain is called the ________.
A)
commissure
B)
cerebral cortex
C)
choroid plexus
D)
corpus callosum
E)
coccyx |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ are gray structures located within the white matter of the cerebral cortex.
A)
arcuate fasciculi
B)
commissural fibers
C)
subcortical nuclei
D)
nerve fibers
E)
tracts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
________ are fibers that connect the cortical regions on one side of the brain with the corresponding cortical region on the other side of the brain.
A)
Commissural fibers
B)
Projection fibers
C)
Spinothalamic tracts
D)
Arcuate fasciculi
E)
Association fibers |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The face is innervated by ________ nerves.
A)
cervical
B)
cranial
C)
sacral
D)
lumbar
E)
thoracic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where is the cauda equina?
A)
within the ventricles
B)
surrounding the central canal
C)
surrounding the ventricles
D)
within the cranium
E)
within the vertebral column |
|
Definition
E)
within the vertebral column |
|
|
Term
Which spinal nerves originate in the neck region?
A)
coccygeal nerve
B)
lumbar nerves
C)
cervical nerves
D)
sacral nerves
E)
thoracic nerves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which nerves innervate the thigh?
A)
thoracic nerves
B)
cervical nerves
C)
sacral nerves
D)
cranial nerves
E)
lumbar nerves |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would NOT be found within the gray matter of the spinal cord?
A)
interneurons
B)
efferent neuron cell dendrites
C)
efferent neuron cell bodies
D)
axon terminals from afferent neurons
E)
afferent neuron cell bodies |
|
Definition
E)
afferent neuron cell bodies |
|
|
Term
The cell bodies of afferent neurons are located within the ________.
A)
dorsal root ganglia
B)
lateral horn
C)
ventral root ganglia
D)
dorsal horn
E)
ventral horn |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cell bodies of efferent neurons are located within the ________.
A)
ventral root ganglia
B)
dorsal root
C)
dorsal horn
D)
ventral horn
E)
dorsal root ganglia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a descending tract?
A)
anterior pyramidal tract
B)
spinotectal tract
C)
dorsal columns
D)
anterior spinothalamic tract
E)
lateral spinothalamic tract |
|
Definition
A)
anterior pyramidal tract |
|
|
Term
An ascending pathway that is always located on the same side of the central nervous system is called ________.
A)
longitudinal
B)
sideways
C)
lateralized
D)
ipsilateral
E)
commissural |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What two structures make up the forebrain?
A)
cerebrum and diencephalon
B)
thalamus and hypothalamus
C)
cerebrum and cerebellum
D)
brainstem and spinal cord
E)
brainstem and cerebellum |
|
Definition
A)
cerebrum and diencephalon |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a component of the brainstem?
A)
cerebellum
B)
pons
C)
reticular formation
D)
midbrain
E)
medulla oblongata |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where do most cranial nerves originate?
A)
cerebellum
B)
spinal cord
C)
cerebral cortex
D)
diencephalon
E)
brainstem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT transmit information associated with a special sense?
A)
facial
B)
olfactory
C)
optic
D)
oculomotor
E)
vestibulocochlear |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which cranial nerve controls the muscles for chewing?
A)
abducens
B)
glossopharyngeal
C)
trochlear
D)
trigeminal
E)
oculomotor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The central sulcus separates the ________.
A)
frontal lobe from the parietal lobe
B)
temporal lobe from the parietal lobe
C)
thalamus from the hypothalamus
D)
brainstem from the spinal cord
E)
cerebellum from the forebrain |
|
Definition
A)
frontal lobe from the parietal lobe |
|
|
Term
The ________ contains the visual cortex because visual information is processed there.
A)
occipital lobe
B)
frontal lobe
C)
temporal lobe
D)
parietal lobe
E)
medial lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ contains the auditory cortex because auditory information is processed there.
A)
temporal lobe
B)
frontal lobe
C)
parietal lobe
D)
occipital lobe
E)
medial lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ contains the primary motor cortex, which initiates voluntary movement.
A)
occipital lobe
B)
medial lobe
C)
parietal lobe
D)
frontal lobe
E)
temporal lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the right side of the cerebrum in most individuals?
A)
creativity
B)
spatial perception
C)
musical
D)
logic
E)
artistic qualities |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following characteristics is NOT a specialization of the left side of the cerebrum in most individuals?
A)
spatial perception
B)
analytical reasoning
C)
logical reasoning
D)
comprehension of language
E)
expression of language |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ is a region of the diencephalon that filters and refines sensory information, allowing us to direct our attention to specific external stimuli.
A)
thalamus
B)
limbic system
C)
basal nuclei
D)
hypothalamus
E)
putamen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ is a region of the diencephalon that provides an important link between the endocrine and nervous system.
A)
limbic system
B)
basal nuclei
C)
putamen
D)
hypothalamus
E)
thalamus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ plays a principle role in establishing the circadian rhythm of the body.
A)
globus pallidus
B)
suprachiasmatic nucleus
C)
putamen
D)
caudate nucleus
E)
cingulate gyrus |
|
Definition
B)
suprachiasmatic nucleus |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
A)
communication between the nervous and endocrine system
B)
controls hunger and thirst
C)
affects emotions and behaviors in response to emotions
D)
contains the cardiovascular control centers
E)
controls thermoregulation |
|
Definition
D)
contains the cardiovascular control centers |
|
|
Term
Which region of the limbic system is primarily involved in the emotion fear?
A)
hippocampus
B)
amygdala
C)
thalamus
D)
fornix
E)
cingulate gyrus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?
A)
amygdala
B)
cingulated gyrus
C)
putamen
D)
hippocampus
E)
fornix |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ reflex is one that involves signals originating from within the brain.
A)
spinal
B)
innate
C)
somatic
D)
visceral
E)
cranial |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ reflex is one that involves signals sent along autonomic sensory nerves.
A)
somatic
B)
visceral
C)
spinal
D)
cranial
E)
innate |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A(n) ________ reflex refers specifically to those reflexes that we are born with.
A)
innate
B)
spinal
C)
visceral
D)
cranial
E)
somatic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A ________ reflex involves a single synapse between two neurons.
A)
bineuronal
B)
polysynaptic
C)
monosynaptic
D)
polyneuronal
E)
bisynaptic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following does NOT describe a type of reflex that occurred when Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the ringing of a bell?
A)
visceral
B)
conditioned
C)
polysynaptic
D)
cranial
E)
spinal |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex found in the human body?
A)
crossed-flexor reflex
B)
muscle spindle stretch reflex
C)
crossed-extensor reflex
D)
pupillary light reflex
E)
withdrawal reflex |
|
Definition
B)
muscle spindle stretch reflex |
|
|
Term
The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
A)
muscle spindle stretch receptor
B)
warm receptor
C)
taste receptor
D)
nociceptor
E)
photoreceptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The crossed-extensor reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
A)
nociceptor
B)
taste receptor
C)
muscle spindle stretch receptor
D)
photoreceptor
E)
warm receptor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The integration center for the pupillary light reflex is the ________.
A)
occipital lobe
B)
cerebellum
C)
spinal cord
D)
hypothalamus
E)
brainstem |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following present those steps in the correct order?
A)
program, intent, feedback, execute
B)
intent, feedback, program, execute
C)
feedback, intent, program, execute
D)
program, intent, execute, feedback
E)
intent, program, execute, feedback |
|
Definition
E)
intent, program, execute, feedback |
|
|
Term
Which of the following regions of the cortex is NOT involved in formulating the intention to move?
A)
primary motor cortex
B)
association area
C)
limbic system
D)
frontal lobe
E)
supplementary motor area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cortical regions is NOT involved in the development of a motor program?
A)
limbic system
B)
somatosensory area
C)
supplementary motor area
D)
primary motor cortex
E)
premotor area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of these brain structures, outside of the cortex, is NOT involved in assisting with motor programming and providing feedback on the execution of a motor program?
A)
cerebellum
B)
hypothalamus
C)
thalamus
D)
basal nuclei
E)
brainstem nuclei |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The efferent neurons that innervate skeletal muscle, and induce them to contract, originate from the ________.
A)
dorsal horn of the spinal cord
B)
basal nuclei
C)
motor cortex
D)
pyramidal tract
E)
ventral horn of the spinal cord |
|
Definition
E)
ventral horn of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
The ________ is involved in the control of fine, discrete movements of the extremities.
A)
spinothalamic tract
B)
thalamocorical tract
C)
intrapyramidal tract
D)
pyramidal tract
E)
extrapyramidal tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ is involved in the control of large muscle groups that function in posture and balance.
A)
extrapyramidal tract
B)
thalamocortical tract
C)
intrapyramidal tract
D)
pyramidal tract
E)
spinothalamic tract |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Where do lower motor neurons originate?
A)
ventral horn of the spinal cord
B)
primary somatosensory cortex
C)
brainstem
D)
cerebellum
E)
primary motor cortex |
|
Definition
A)
ventral horn of the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
Pyramidal tract neurons cross to the opposite side of the body in what region?
A)
spinal cord
B)
brainstem
C)
primary motor cortex
D)
corpus callosum
E)
thalamus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ is the region of the brain involved in control of posture.
A)
thalamus
B)
brainstem nuclei
C)
pineal gland
D)
cerebellum
E)
cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ________ is the region of the brain that provides feedback control of voluntary movement to the motor program that was generated.
______
A)
brainstem nuclei
B)
cerebellum
C)
thalamus
D)
pineal gland
E)
cortex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Damage to the cerebellum will lead to ________.
A)
the generation of slow, fine movements only
B)
an inability to accurately plan a movement
C)
a complete inability to move (lack of execution)
D)
the generation of clumsy, poorly directed movements
E)
the generation of movement of large muscle groups only |
|
Definition
D)
the generation of clumsy, poorly directed movements |
|
|
Term
Which of the following structures does NOT have direct neural connections to the cerebellum?
A)
basal nuclei
B)
brainstem
C)
spinal cord
D)
cortex
E)
thalamus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Parkinson's disease appears to target ________ cells within the ________.
A)
cholinergic : red nuclei
B)
cholinergic : substantia nigra
C)
adrenergic : red nuclei
D)
adrenergic : substantia nigra
E)
dopaminergic : substantia nigra |
|
Definition
E)
dopaminergic : substantia nigra |
|
|
Term
What is dementia?
A)
loss of language expression
B)
loss of language comprehension
C)
excess muscle movement due to loss of inhibition
D)
loss of memory
E)
loss of mental function |
|
Definition
E)
loss of mental function |
|
|
Term
What area of the brain controls language comprehension?
A)
limbic system
B)
amygdala
C)
hypothalamus
D)
Wernicke's area
E)
Broca's area |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A person with aphasia would have which of the following symptoms?
A)
difficulty in communicating
B)
intention tremors
C)
deafness
D)
inability to sleep
E)
night sweats |
|
Definition
A)
difficulty in communicating |
|
|
Term
A person with Broca's aphasia has what type of symptom?
A)
difficulty speaking words clearly
B)
inability to comprehend spoken or written language
C)
insomnia
D)
intention tremors
E)
dementia |
|
Definition
A)
difficulty speaking words clearly |
|
|
Term
Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a function of sleep?
A)
to clear short-term memory
B)
to facilitate long-term memory
C)
to enhance immune function
D)
mental practicing while dreaming
E)
to conserve energy |
|
Definition
A)
to clear short-term memory |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of slow-wave sleep?
A)
decreased muscle tone
B)
elaborate and intense dreams
C)
increased parasympathetic activity
D)
decreased brain activity
E)
snoring |
|
Definition
B)
elaborate and intense dreams |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?
A)
increased parasympathetic activity
B)
postural muscles lose tone
C)
increased brain activity
D)
thoughts are illogical and bizarre
E)
decreased limbic system activity |
|
Definition
A)
increased parasympathetic activity |
|
|
Term
The ________ is the principle region of the brain that is involved in the maintenance of an alert, awake state.
A)
pons
B)
reticular formation
C)
forebrain
D)
cerebellum
E)
limbic system |
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Definition
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Term
The ________ is the principle region of the brain that is involved in the initiation of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
A)
limbic system
B)
forebrain
C)
reticular formation
D)
cerebellum
E)
pons |
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Definition
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Term
The ________ is the principle region of the brain that is involved in the induction of slow-wave sleep.
A)
cerebellum
B)
forebrain
C)
pons
D)
limbic system
E)
reticular formation |
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Definition
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Term
The neurotransmitter ________ appears to be involved in initiating slow-wave sleep.
A)
dopamine
B)
acetylcholine
C)
adenosine
D)
serotonin
E)
epinephrine |
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Definition
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Term
When awake and alert, the brain is generating ________ waves that are detectable with an electroencephalogram.
A)
epsilon
B)
gamma
C)
delta
D)
alpha
E)
beta |
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Definition
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Term
)
When awake but resting, the brain is generating ________ waves that are detectable with an electroencephalogram.
A)
gamma
B)
alpha
C)
epsilon
D)
beta
E)
delta |
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Definition
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Term
One difference between alpha and beta waves is that the alpha waves show ________.
A)
a greater frequency
B)
a greater synchronization
C)
a reduced amplitude
D)
similar frequency but greater amplitude
E)
similar amplitude but greater frequency |
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Definition
B)
a greater synchronization |
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Term
During slow-wave sleep, there is a progressive ________ in the strength of stimulus required to awaken a person and a(n) ________ frequency of electroencephalogram (EEG) activity, indicative of a synchronization of EEG activity.
A)
increase : enhanced
B)
increase : stable
C)
increase : reduced
D)
decrease : reduced
E)
decrease : enhanced |
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Definition
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Term
During rapid eye movement sleep, there is a(n) ________ in frequency of the electroencephalogram and a(n) ________ in arousal threshold.
A)
stabilization : decrease
B)
decrease : decrease
C)
increase : decrease
D)
decrease : increase
E)
increase : increase |
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Definition
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Term
Rapid eye movement (REM) is called paradoxical sleep because ________.
A)
electroencephalogram activity is quite different from slow-wave sleep
B)
people are less likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is lowest
C)
electroencephalogram activity reverts toward that observed in an awake, alert person
D)
electroencephalogram activity can change quite extensively during REM sleep
E)
people are more likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is highest |
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Definition
E)
people are more likely to awaken spontaneously during REM sleep when arousal threshold is highest |
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Term
The euphoria that is perceived when one ingests drugs such as opioids or amphetamines results from the activation of the ________ system.
A)
cholinergic
B)
nitridergic
C)
adrenergic
D)
dopaminergic
E)
sympathetic |
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Definition
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Term
Which of the following brain regions is NOT involved in emotion?
A)
thalamus
B)
hypothalamus
C)
limbic system
D)
cerebral cortex
E)
brainstem |
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Definition
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Term
What emotion drives addiction?
A)
aggression
B)
pleasure
C)
depression
D)
anger
E)
fear |
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Definition
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Term
The transitioning of a memory from short to long term is called ________.
A)
remembering
B)
plasticity
C)
declaration
D)
consolidation
E)
memorizing |
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Definition
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Term
The ability of the nervous system to alter its anatomy and function in response to changes in its activity pattern is called ________.
A)
plasticity
B)
memorizing
C)
consolidation
D)
declaration
E)
remembering |
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Definition
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Term
In long-term potentiation, the enhanced possibility that an activated postsynaptic membrane will generate an action potential is associated with a(n) ________.
A)
increased number of EPSPs
B)
decrease in its threshold
C)
increase in its threshold
D)
reduction in the number of IPSPs
E)
increased strength of the EPSPs |
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Definition
E)
increased strength of the EPSPs |
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Term
The increased influx of calcium at a postsynaptic terminal with glutamate receptors ________.
A)
activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the AMPA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate
B)
causes a greater release of neurotransmitter from the postsynaptic cell
C)
activates the AMPA receptor to increase sodium influx
D)
activates the NMDA receptor to increase calcium influx
E)
activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the NMDA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate |
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Definition
A)
activates a protein kinase that phosphorylates the AMPA receptor, making it more sensitive to glutamate |
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Term
In addition to an increase in sensitivity to glutamate, the binding of large amounts of glutamate to its receptors on the postsynaptic membrane also ________.
A)
stimulates presynaptic autoreceptors and enhances its release
B)
stimulates the release of a paracrine messenger that further increases glutamate release
C)
directly causes more NMDA channels to open
D)
affects other synapses that are close to the first
E)
can overwhelm the synapse |
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Definition
B)
stimulates the release of a paracrine messenger that further increases glutamate release |
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Term
Which of the following best describes events happening during long-term potentiation?
A)
The presynaptic cell releases more GABA compared to nonpotentiated conditions, but the postsynaptic cell is less sensitive to the GABA.
B)
The presynaptic cell releases acetylcholine at the same levels as under nonpotentiated conditions, but the postsynaptic cell has upregulated cholinergic receptors, thereby making the postsynaptic cell more sensitive to the acetylcholine.
C)
The presynaptic cell releases more glutamate compared to nonpotentiated conditions, but the postsynaptic cell is less sensitive to the glutamate.
D)
The presynaptic cell releases less GABA compared to nonpotentiated conditions, but the postsynaptic cell is more sensitive to GABA, thereby enhancing the overall communication.
E)
The presynaptic cell releases more glutamate compared to nonpotentiated conditions, and the postsynaptic cell is more sensitive to the glutamate |
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Definition
E)
The presynaptic cell releases more glutamate compared to nonpotentiated conditions, and the postsynaptic cell is more sensitive to the glutamate. |
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Term
Which of the following would consist of white matter?
A)
dorsal columns of the spinal cord
B)
cerebral cortex
C)
basal nuclei
D)
ventral horn of the spinal cord
E)
dorsal horn of the spinal cord |
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Definition
A)
dorsal columns of the spinal cord |
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Term
In response to stepping on a nail, the crossed-extensor reflex causes ________.
A)
flexion of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation
B)
extension of the arm on the side of receptor activation
C)
extension of the leg on the side of receptor activation
D)
flexion of the leg on the side of receptor activation
E)
extension of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation |
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Definition
E)
extension of the leg opposite the side of receptor activation |
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Term
A stroke occurring in the basal nuclei could produce which of the following symptoms?
A)
deafness
B)
altered sleep-wake patterns
C)
muscle rigidity
D)
loss of language comprehension
E)
blindness or blurred vision |
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Definition
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