Term
| What are the components of thelipophilic layers of the cornea? |
|
Definition
epithelium
endothelium
(the back and front of the cornea) |
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Term
| What is the first barrier of the eye? |
|
Definition
THE CORNEA
the first barrier of the cornea is the epithelium |
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Term
| What composes the tear layer? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the two ways ocular drugs are absorbed topically? |
|
Definition
- penetrate the cornea
- systemic through conjunctiva |
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Term
| What two methods can be applied to increase the drug concentration of tissue when applied topically? |
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Definition
- increase application frequency
- increase drug concentration that is being administered |
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Term
| Why do ophthalmic topical drugs have a short contact time? |
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Definition
| 75% will be lost through lacrimal drainage |
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Term
| What precautions should be taken in administering multiple topical ophthalmic drugs in the same patient? |
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Definition
the second drop will wash out and dilute the first one
**wait 5 minutes between drugs** |
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Term
| What are the benefits of using topical ophthalmic ointments over topical ophthalmic drops? What are the negative aspect? |
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Definition
Ointment PROS
- longer contact time
- reduce lacrimal loss
- more stable
- lubricant
Ointment CONS
- may slow ulcer healing time
- more difficult application |
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Term
| What would be the best method of topical ophthalmic administration in a difficult horse that needs longer term medication? |
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Definition
| SPL - sub-palpebral levage |
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Term
| How do you preform a Subpalpebral levage? |
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Definition
1) regional nerve block
2) clean dorsal fornix (inside the eye)
3) topical anesthetic of the eye
4) place big needle through eyelid to orbital ridge (place high so it doesnt rub on the eye)
5) tape and suture the tube in place
6) drug can be applied from the tube (that traces back to the neck) |
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Term
What drugs characteristics would make optimal use for ophthalmic continuous lavage? More than one
a) Use of multiple drugs
b) use of single drug
c) use of drug in solution
d) use of drug in suspension |
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Definition
| Use of a SINGLE drug in SOLUTION |
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Term
Subconjunctival injections are no better than frequently applied topical ophthalmic medications.
True or False? |
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Definition
TRUE
he only prefers them under certain circumstances. |
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Term
| What are the main indications for using subconjunctival injections of ophthalmic medications? |
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Definition
animals that will not allow repeated topical administration of ophthalmic drugs
(like wildlife, animals that need sedation, etc) |
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Term
| What are the disadvantages of subconjunctival injections? |
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Definition
Cannot change medication once injected (lasts for 3 days there)
may develop granuloma at injection site
May be painful |
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Term
| When would retrobulbar injections be used? Why? |
|
Definition
-For administering regional anesthesia before ocular surgery
-used when systemic administration doesnt work
THERE ARE MANY DISADVANTAGES:
may penetrate sclera and enter choroid
can damage globe
can cause retrobulbar hemorrhage |
|
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Term
| what are the indications for using ophthalmic antibiotics? |
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Definition
- treat infection
- PREVENT infection (preop) |
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Term
Most antibiotics have good corneal penetration.
True or False? |
|
Definition
FALSE
they mostly have poor corneal penetration
- but if cornea is affected, then it will be absorbed better |
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Term
| Why might topical ophthalmic antbiotics be more effective when the cornea is already damaged? |
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Definition
| Most antibiotics have poor corneal absorption, so they will be better absorbed if they can bypass through the damaged cornea |
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Term
What is not true regarding Polypeptide ophthalmic medications?
A) only can be used topically
B) can be toxic if used systemically
C) it is bacteriostatic
D) Often used in combination
E) is effective emperic treatment |
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Definition
C)
it is bacticidial not static |
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Term
| Which two ophthalmic antibiotic classes can only be used topically because they cause toxicity when used systemically? |
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Definition
Poplypeptide, (polymyxin, bacitracin, gramicidin)
Aminoglycosides (tobramycin, amikacin, gentamycin) |
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Term
| What antibiotics are most effective against kittens with mycoplasma or chlamydophila infections of the eye? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the primary use of penicillin in ophthalmology? |
|
Definition
Systemic treatment of IBK (pink eye) of cattle
but there may be resistance
** no topical ophthalmic preparation** |
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Term
| What are the most significant protozoal diseases? |
|
Definition
COCCIDIOSIS
EPM
Giardia
toxoplasma
neospororosis
cryptococcus
babesiosis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ponazuril, Diclazuril, Antifolates |
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|
Term
| What are the pathogens of coccidiosis? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the important anti-coccidial drugs used in mammals? |
|
Definition
Decoquinate (oldest, have resistance)
Na+, H+ ioniophores: monensin, lasalocid
Amprolium
Antifolates
Triazine derivatives
diclazuril
ponazuril |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
coccidiostat
old and has some resistance built up
Not recommended for use
MOA: decreases electron transport of SPOROZOITES |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
A quaternary compound - thiamine agonist
ANTICOCCIDOSIS
effective against trophozoites, schizonts
*lots of resistance* |
|
|
Term
| Which drugs can be used for prevention and outbreak treatment of coccidiosis ? |
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Definition
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Term
Diclazuril is approved for coccidiosis and EPM in horses.
True or false? |
|
Definition
FALSE
it is extra-label for the treatment of coccidiosis |
|
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Term
| What the potential adverse effects of ionophores? |
|
Definition
CARDIAC
because they cause an increase in the Na+ entering the cell, Ca2+ enters cells, which increases myocardial contractility causing cell death and degeneration of the myocardium
*also very sensitive in horses* |
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Term
| What are the top two drugs most effective (2nd generation effective) against coccidiosis? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the mode of action of amprolium? |
|
Definition
| thiamine agonist (vitamin B1) |
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Term
| Which anticoccidal drug would cause the least residue problems? |
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Definition
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Term
| What ophthalmic antifungal is effective against Aspergillus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which ophthalmic antifungals are effective against Fusarium? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is the primary use of ophthalmic nucleoside analogs? |
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Definition
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Term
Topical corticosteroids are an effective treatment of ulcerative keratitis.
True or False? |
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What are some indications for using ophthalmic corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
Allergy, hypersensitivity,
IMMUNE MEDIATED DISEASES (chronic superficial keratitis, episcleritis, uveitis) |
|
|
Term
| When would ophthalmic corticosteroids be contraindicated? |
|
Definition
CORNEAL ULCERATION
Severe infections |
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Term
Which one of the following anticoccidial drugs is the best choice for treating the sulfonamide-resistant coccidian outbreak in animals?
a. Ponazuril
b. Monensin
c. Decoquinate
d. Amprolium |
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Definition
|
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Term
The use of all the following anticoccidial drugs does not require a preslaughter withdrawal period when used in food animals except:
a. Amprolim
b. Decoquinate
c. Lasalocid
d. Sulfadimethoxine |
|
Definition
| Answer: D) Sulfadimethoxine |
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|
Term
Toxic effects of monensin in mammals include:
a. Asphyxia
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Hepatotoxicity
d. Nephrotoxicity
e. Teratogenicity |
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Definition
Answer: B) cardiomyopathy
degeration of myocardium from increase contractility |
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Term
The following drugs have been used or have been suggested for the treatment of cryptosporidiosis except:
a. Azithromycin
b. Metronidazole
c. Nitazoxanide
d. Paromomycin |
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Definition
|
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Term
The following drugs have be used or been suggested for the treatment of giardia except:
a. Fenbendazole
b. Metronidazole
c. Sulfadimethoxine |
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Definition
| Answer: C) sulfadimethoxine |
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Term
Which of the following antiprotozoal drugs is well known for its stimulatory effects of the parasympathetic nervous system due to its anti-cholinesterase activity?
a. Ponazuril
b. Paromomycin
c. Ormetoprim
d. Monensin
e. Imidocarb |
|
Definition
Answer: E) imidocarb - used for babesia because it binds to its DNA and denatures it. It decreases AChE so it can cause SLUDD<- use atropine to reverse
no cholinergic stimulants!! can be teratogenic and carcinogenic, irriatating and painful
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Term
Which of the following ectoparasiticides may most likely cause CNS depression, bradycardia, and GI stasis in animals?
a. Amitraz
b. Fipronil
c. Ivermectin
d. Permethrin
e. Rotenone |
|
Definition
Answer: A) Amitraz
Octopamine receptor agonist- HAS Alpha2 agonism!!!!
Causes CNS depression, bradycardia, GI stasis-> colic
treats demodex, mites, ticks |
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Term
The following are nicotinic receptor agonists that are used as flea adulticides. At the clinical doses, which one of them has the shortest duration of action?
a. Dinotefuran
b. Imidacloprid
c. Nitenpyram
d. Spnosad |
|
Definition
Answer: C) Nitenpyram (nicotinic R agonist)
This is CAPSTAR - which is awesome, safe, fast but really SUPER short acting (like 24-48 hours max for flea killing) |
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Term
Which of the following is a true statement about cholinesterase inhibitors as ectoparasiticides?
a. Cattle are more resistant to organophosphate poisoning than swine
b. Pralidoxime (2-PAM) is still effective in reactivating cholinesterase 48 hours after onset of organophosphate poisoning
c. When using 2-PAM, it always has to be administered concurrently with atropine sulfate
d. 2-PAM is a useful antidote for both carbamate and organophosphate poisonings |
|
Definition
Answer: C) give 2-pam with atropine sulfate
Organophosphates are anti-cholinesterase agents, can cause SLUDD. Reverse with atropine and AChE reactivator pralidoxime (2-pam)
= use this within 24 hours of exposure to organophosphate |
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|
Term
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding ectoparasiticides?
a. Macrocyclic lactones have knockdown effects on arthropods
b. Amitraz is an approved miticide for horses
c. Thio-organophosphates directly and potently inhibit cholinesterases
d. Piperonyl butoxide increases the activity of a pyrethroid by inhibiting its degradation |
|
Definition
| Answer: D) it increases the activty of pyrethroids by inhibitor microsomal ezymes! |
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|
Term
Which of the following anti-flea products also is effective against ticks?
a. Fipronil
b. Imidacloprid
c. Lufenuron
d. Metaflumizone
e. Methoprene |
|
Definition
Answer: Fipronil
FRONTLINE baby |
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|
Term
Which of the following should not be used concurrently with metaflumazone?
a. Amitraz
b. Ivermectin
c. Lufenuron
d. Permethrin
e. Pyriproxyfen |
|
Definition
Answer:
Metaflumizone is a Na+ channel blocker, shouldn't be used with permethrin because it is an AGONIST of Na+ channels |
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|
Term
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of alkalinizing and acidifying agents to treat acid-base disturbances?
a. Na acetate can only form HCO3- in the liver, whereas Na lactate can form in liver and skeletal muscle
b. NH4Cl acidifies the body by releaseing HCl from NH4Cl
c. Na gluconate may induce vomiting in dogs and cats
d. NaCl acidifies the body by decreasing HCO3- reabsorption from the renal tubules |
|
Definition
| Answer: D) NaCl acidified the body, decreases HCO3- reabsorption in renal tubules |
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Term
Which of the following should serve as the most appropriate plasma expander, if homologous plasma is not available?
a. Plasma from another species
b. Lactated ringers solution
c. 6% hetastarch
d. 10% dextran40 |
|
Definition
| Answer: C) hetastarch because it is a colloid and will increase osmotic pull bringing more fluid into vessel and expanding plasma |
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Term
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding route of administration for fluids?
a. Oral route is practical in animals with severe diarrhea-induced dehydration and acidosis
b. Intravenous route causes fewer side effects than other routes
c. Subcutaneous route is the safest for administering >30 mEq/L of KCl if parental administration is necessary
d. Subcutaneous route is versatile because it can be used for administration of large isotonic, hypertonic, and hypotonic solution |
|
Definition
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Term
1 How much of a 50% glucose solution would be needed to meet the daily maintenance required for a 25 kg dog?
a. 13 ml
b. 65 ml
c. 130 ml
d. 650 ml
e. 1300ml |
|
Definition
Answer: dog needs 1300 Kcal,
glucose = 4g/kcal = 325 g
50g/100ml solution SO =325g
325 X 100 = 32,000/50 = 650 mL
ahhhh..stoichiometry |
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|
Term
Which of the following solutions of sodium gluconate (m.w.= 218) is considered isotonic?
a. 6.6%
b. 3.3%
c. 1.6%
d. 0.8%
e. 0.4% |
|
Definition
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|
Term
How would you measure Bicarb to give a 35 kg dog with base deficit of 23 mEq/L? |
|
Definition
Body weight X 0.3 X Base deficit
35 X 0.3 X 23 = 241.5 mEq
BIcarb MW = 84;
241.5mEq = 1mg/84
(241.5X84) = 20,286mg = 20.3g
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Term
Consider the patient in question 18 (35 kg ) the animal needs rehydration therapy. The ongoing loss of body water was estimated at 500 ml. From what you have learned, the total fluid that should be administered during the first 24 hours is approximately:
a. 1800 ml
b. 2300 ml
c. 3600 ml
d. 5300 ml
e. 6700 ml |
|
Definition
Answer: D)
Maintanence + Ongoing loss + Deficit
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Term
Which of the following is a true statement regarding fluid therapy?
a. When using amino acids to induce positive nitrogen balance, one does not need to add glucose to provide calories to the animal
b. 5% dextrose solution is a good choice for supplying calories for total nutritional therapy
c. Dextran and hetastarch may interfere with fibrin clot formation
d. Ringers solution contains 147 mEq/L Na+ , 4 mEq/L K+, 151 mEq/L Cl-, and no Ca+ |
|
Definition
| Answer: C) dextran and hetastarch can interfere with fibrin clot formation |
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|
Term
Which of the following is a true statement regarding hypokalemia ?
a. In acute hypokalemia, K+ should be administered when the plasma K+ level drops to 3.5 mEq/L
b. Hypokalemia may be seen in patients with hypoadrenocorticism
c. ECG lead II recording in a hypokalemia patient may show high T waves
d. Hypokalemia may induce an increase in myocardial Ca2+ levels |
|
Definition
| Answer: D) hypokalemia can increase myocardial Ca2+ levels leading to cardiac arrhythmias |
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|
Term
Which of the following is a true statement regarding special problems in fluid therapy ?
a. Severe K+ deficit may be seen in anorectic cattle
b. In horses, severe hypernatremia is usually associated with dehydration
c. Metabolic alkalosis is usually associated with grain overload in cattle
d. Vasoconstriction is usually seen during general anesthesia |
|
Definition
Answer: A) anorexic cattle will have hypokalemia and can cause alkalosis
this can cause cardiac arrhythmias |
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Term
Which of the following is a false statement regarding the administration of hypertonic solution?
a. Its main use is for resuscitation of animals suffering from shock
b. It may cause an increase in afterload because it may induce vasoconstriction
c. It may cause volume overload and edema
d. It is recommended in patients with blood coagulation problems |
|
Definition
| Answer: B) Doesnt cause vasoconstriction and DECREASE afterload to the heart |
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|
Term
Which of the following is a false statement regarding the administration of lipid therapy ?
a. It is not needed unless the animal is on prolonged parental nutrition
b. Each gram of lipid generates 4 Kcal
c. The recommended dose is not more than 2 g/kg/day
d. Dysfunction of granulocytes is an adverse effect of the therapy
e. It is contraindicated in patients with high plasma concentration of triglycerides |
|
Definition
Answer: B) because each gram of lipid generates 9Kcal
(its glucose that is 4Kcal/g) |
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Term
An aqueous solution of an antibiotic is applied to the conjunctiva and cornea. The most significant barrier to its penetration into the anterior chamber is:
a. The tear-film
b. Corneal epithelium
c. Corneal stroma
d. Corneal endothelium |
|
Definition
| Answer: B) corneal epithelium |
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|
Term
The best choice for topical treatment of one of the sources of pain accompanying a corneal ulcer is:
a. Pilocarpine
b. Prednisolone acetate
c. Atropine
d. phenylephrine |
|
Definition
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|
Term
In order to treat uveitis (no corneal ulceration) the best topical drug is:
a. Dexamethasone phosphate
b. Prednisolone acetate
c. Flurbuprophen sodium
d. Hydrocortisone sodium
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|
Definition
| Answer: B) prednisolone acetate |
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|
Term
The two most useful drugs to keep in your exam room to facilitate examination of dogs and cats’ eyes would be:
a. Acepromazine and lidocaine
b. Tropicamide and proparacaine
c. Phenylephrine and atropine
d. “eye wash” and methylcellulose |
|
Definition
| Answer: B) tropicamide and proparacaine |
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Term
Which topically applied drug would you treat a cat with high intraocular pressure?
a. Latanoprost
b. Dorsolamide
c. Brinzolamide
d. Phenylephrine |
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Definition
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|
Term
In order to treat keratomalacia (‘melting cornea”) you should chose a topical drug that is :
a. Antiprotease
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Beta bocker
d. Cox 2 inhibitor |
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Definition
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