Term
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Definition
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Term
most common cause of heparin resistance |
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Definition
antithrombin III deficiency |
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Term
what three problems can administration of protamine cause |
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Definition
1. systemic hypotension 2. pulmonary HTN 2. allergic reactions |
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Term
max recommended dose of protamine in 10 minutes is? |
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Definition
50 mg of protamine is max |
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Term
why does protamine have all the bad cardio and pulmonary side effects? |
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Definition
the culprit is histamine release!!!! |
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Term
is protamine or heparin acidic and basic |
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Definition
protamine is STRONGLY BASIC and heparin is strongly acidic |
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Term
what is the name for the type of reaction between heparin and protamine |
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Definition
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Term
discontinue warfarin how many days prior to surgery |
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Definition
discontinue 3-5 days prior to surgery |
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Term
why is vitamin K not the right drug to reverse warfarin emergently |
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Definition
it takes 3-6 hours to begin working and 4-24 hours to return PT to normal range |
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Term
what dose of vitamin K do you give to reverse coumadin |
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Definition
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Term
name three clinically useful GPIIb / IIIa antagonist |
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Definition
1. abciximab 2. eptifibatide (integrillin) 3. tirofiban (Aggrastat) |
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Term
how long after major surgery should you wait to restart heparin |
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Definition
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Term
when should metformin be discontinue before surgery, or day of surgery? |
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Definition
metofromin will not cuase hypoglycemia during fasting periods of 1-2 days. There is no risk of lactic acidosis with metformin in patients iwth a fucntioning liver and kidneys. Do not restart metformin until after there is no more risk lactic acidosis development. |
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Term
where does lasix work on the nephron |
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Definition
on the thick ascending limb of the loop of henle |
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Term
what receptor in the nephron does lasix work on |
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Definition
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Term
three major side effects of lasix are |
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Definition
1. deafness from damage to cranial nerve VIII 2. hypovolemia 3. hypokalemia |
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Term
how does lasix cause a decrease in BP |
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Definition
lasix causes prostaglandin to be released from the kidneys which causes venodilation. This equates to decrease preload and lower BP |
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Term
spironolactone works primarily on what segment of the renal tubule |
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Definition
acts primarily as a competitive antagonist of aldosterone at the collecting duct. |
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Term
what does spironalactone do to K, Na and H20 |
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Definition
Spiractolone competes with aldosterone. Causes increase H20 and Na excretion while preserving K so it increases serum K. |
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Term
a renal failure patinet that needs diuresis will respond best to what diuretic and why |
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Definition
best responds to mannitol since this drug does not depend on the healthy state of the kidney. |
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Term
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Definition
it is a weak diuretic. Works by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. |
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Term
diamox may do what to K, Na, and other ions |
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Definition
diamox will result in excretion of bicarb and potassium. So H20 loss. |
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Term
diamox acts on what part of the nephron |
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Definition
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Term
thiazide diuretics work where on the nephron |
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Definition
at the distal tubule on Na/Cl pumps. |
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Term
potassium sparing diuretics work where on the nephron |
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Definition
inhibit renal sodium channels in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts. |
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Term
BNP works where in the nephron |
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Definition
inner medullar colelcting duct |
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Term
top three antimicrobials to be involved in a allergic reaction are |
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Definition
1. pcn 2. cephalosporin 3. vancomycin |
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Term
what herbal can potentiate the effects of barbiturates |
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Definition
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Term
which herbal can decrease effect of barbiturates |
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Definition
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Term
which herbal may prolong effects of anesthetics |
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Definition
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Term
which supplement may enhance benzo effects |
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Definition
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Term
cyclosporine and tacrolimus are what class of immunosuppresants |
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Definition
calcineurin inhibitors resulting in inhibition of T lymphocyte proliferation. |
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Term
tacrolimus does what to some of our drug metabolism |
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Definition
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Term
how many grams of salt are in 0.9% NS |
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Definition
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Term
acid + acid = more ionized or nonionized |
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Definition
acid + acid = more nonionized acid + base = more ionized. |
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Term
What happens when a weak acid is injected into an acidotic patient? |
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Definition
More drug is nonionized; as pH falls, the nonionized fraction increases (acid + acid =nonionized). |
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Term
Will the eNS actions of barbiturates be intensified or diminished in the patient who is acidotic? Explain. |
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Definition
The eNS actions of barbiturates will be intensified in patients who are acidotic (acid + acid = nonionized). More barbiturate is nonionized at lower pH, so greater amounts cross the blood:brain barrier. |
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Term
Propofol, a weak acid, has a pK. of 11.0. Is propofol mostly ionized or mostly unionized at normal physiologic pH 7.4? Will the dominant form readily cross membranes or not? |
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Definition
Since the normal physiologic pH 7.4 is less than the pK. 11.0 ofpropofol, the body environment is an acidic environment for the weak acid propoI fol. Remember, the pK. of a given substance is "dividing mark" for acidic and basic environments. The mnemonic is "acids + acids -7 more unionized': therefore propofol will be mostly nonionized at physiologic pH 7.4. I The unionized form of a substance is lipid-soluble and thus readily crosses membr |
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Term
What agents used in anesthesia are weak bases |
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Definition
Weak bases include: all local anesthetics; all opioids (fentanyl, alfentanil, morphine, etc); benzodiazepines (diazepam, midazolam, etc); etomidate; and ketamine. |
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Term
What happens to the amount of weak base in ionized form as pH decreases? As pH increases? |
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Definition
.As pH decreases, the amount of weak base in ionized form increases. (Rule: base + acid more ionized). Conversely, as pH increases, the amount of weak acid in ionized form increases. (Rule: base + base = more nonionI ized). |
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Term
base + base = acid + baser = acid + acid =
more ionized or more nonionized |
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Definition
base + base = more non-ionized acid + baser = more ionized acid + acid = more nonionized |
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Term
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Definition
bumex is a loop diuretic and can treat HF with underlying renal disease. Acts primarily at the loop of henle. |
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Term
whats the big risk of mannitol in lung patients |
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Definition
mannitol can fluid shift lots of h20 to the itnravascular fast and this may cause pulmonary edema in patients. |
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Term
phenothiaxines and thioxanthenes work by |
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Definition
antagonism of dopamine in basal ganglia and limbic system |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
whats so great about 2nd generation anti-psychotics in regards to side effect profile |
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Definition
selective dopamine antagonism that spares the extrapyramidal tract
Example is risperidone |
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Term
therapuetic level of lithium is |
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Definition
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Term
what does lithium do to our anesthetic drugs |
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Definition
1. prlongs depolarizing and non-depolarizing drugs 2. lowers MAC |
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Term
what is the duration of action and onset of granisetron |
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Definition
24 hours. Onset is 1 hour. |
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Term
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Definition
antiemetic that is a Histamine blocker. |
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Term
Anti-emetic dose for droperidol |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
a gatric prokinetic due to its selective peripheral cholineergic agonism AND acts as a doparminergic receptor antagonist. |
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Term
whats one drawback for reglan with our anesthetic |
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Definition
may interfere with plasma cholinesterase |
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Term
onset and duration of action of reglan |
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Definition
onset: 10 minutes duration: 2-4 hours |
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Term
aprepitant is what kind of job |
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Definition
A substance P antagonist that antagonizes neurokinin I. Needs to be given 4 hours prior to surgery. |
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Term
antacids have two categories 1. particulate 2. non-particulate
which one is for aspiration prophylaxis. |
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Definition
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Term
non-particulates may cause what electrolyte abnormality |
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Definition
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Term
side effects of ranitidine (zantac) related to anesthesia meds |
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Definition
inhibits p450 which prolongs benzos, decrease serum digoxin, increase duration of depolarizing and nondepolarizing drugs, can cause bronchosapsms in adults. |
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Term
name four nociceptive substances that activate pain |
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Definition
1. substance P 2. bradykinin 3. histamine 4. serotonin |
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Term
whats the difference between complex reigonal pain syndrome I and II |
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Definition
Same but CRPS II you have a confirmed nerve injury. |
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Term
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Definition
there are trigger points, often begins after a acute muscle injury. - YOU CAN compress and TRIGGER these areas |
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Term
lower back pain, and cerfical pain that is sharp and aching, may shoot out, is called |
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Definition
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Term
name for when perceived increase in pain intensity over time when a given painful stimulus is given repeatedly above a critical rate |
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Definition
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Term
tagamet and cimetidine has what kind of structure |
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Definition
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Term
Who regulates the herbal industry |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
aldosterone is released as part of the RASS system and response. Binds to adlosterone receptors on the collecting ducts and causes reabsorption of NA nd excretion of K. |
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Term
myofascial syndrome most commonly occurs where |
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Definition
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Term
which local is least necrotic to muscle when treating myofascial syndrome |
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Definition
give procaine b/c bupivicaine is most toxic to muscle. |
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Term
does histamine cross the BBB |
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Definition
NOOOOOOO. but if you give anti-histamine drugs they may cross the brain. |
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Term
what can benadryl an antihistamine treat related to side effects from giving a dopamina antagonist to a parkinson patient |
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Definition
antihistamine can treat extrapyridmal sx |
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Term
whats the difference between dopamine and acetylcholine in movement in the pyridmal tract |
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Definition
dopamine enhances movement and AcH slows movement. |
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Term
in parkinsonian disease whats up with AcH and dopamine |
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Definition
these patients have bradykinesia. They have too much AcH and not enough dopamine. So give dopamine agonist or AcH antagonist. (can give benadryl) |
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Term
treat tardive dyskinesia with |
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Definition
in tardive dyskinesia there is too much dopamine and too little AcH. Treat with anti-dopamine drug. |
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Term
mneumonic for corticoids in adrenal cortex |
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Definition
Go find rex, make good sex. G: Zona glomerulosa F: Zona fasiculata R: Zona reticularis M: Mineral coritcoids G: Glucocorticoids S: Sex hormones |
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Term
four major effects of glucocorticoids |
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Definition
1. inhibit inflammation 2. raise WBC 3. cause immunosuppresion 4. cause increase blood glucose. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
SQ regular insulin peaks how long |
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Definition
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Term
Major determinate of where your spinal height will be is |
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Definition
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Term
major determinate of height of your epidural is |
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Definition
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Term
a post dural puncture causes pain due to cerebral hypotension and its stretching on what cranial nerve? How would you asses for this |
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Definition
ABducens nerve XI. Which helps you move your eyes lateral. So patient may only have central forward stare |
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Term
how long after a retrobulbar block would you see retrobulbar block syndrome |
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Definition
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Term
how would you know there was a retrobulbar hemorrhage |
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Definition
because almost immediately the yee is anesthetized and protrudes when it should take 10 minhutes to onset. |
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Term
the lower the pKa the faster or slower onset of action |
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Definition
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Term
safe doses of bupivicaine and lidocaine without epi |
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Definition
lidocaine: 4-5 mg/kg bupivicaine: 3 mg/kg |
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