Term
How well tolerated are trizoles compared to ketoconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Does Triazoles inhibit CYP-450 enzymes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Do you see endocrine effects with Triazoles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Itraconazole mechanism of action? |
|
Definition
inhibits fungal cell sterol synthesis
fungistatic |
|
|
Term
Itraconazole spectrum of action? |
|
Definition
•Aspergillus
Dermatophytes
•
Yeasts (Malassezia)
•
Systemic fungi
|
|
|
Term
Itraconazole
what effects absorption of capsules? |
|
Definition
enhanced by food
decreased by anti-acid drugs
interactions do not affect oral solution |
|
|
Term
How lipophilic is itraconazole? |
|
Definition
highly lipophillic
concentrates in tissues for 2-4 weeks
allows for pulse dosing |
|
|
Term
Clinical uses of itraconazole? |
|
Definition
cats
dermatophytes
dogs
blastomycosis
dermatophytosis |
|
|
Term
Formulations of itraconazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Itraconazole adverse effects? |
|
Definition
increased liver enzymes
hepatotoxicosis
anorexia
vomiting |
|
|
Term
How does the activity of Fluconoazole compare to Itraconazole with the aspect of treating Aspergillus? systemic fungi? dermatophytes? hydrophillicity? |
|
Definition
Fluconazole has less activity on Aspergillus
less active against systemic fungi
less active against dermatophytes
greater hydrophilicity |
|
|
Term
What are some differences in Flucoonazole compared to other Azoles? |
|
Definition
water soluble
higher concentrations in urine, CSF, aqueous humor
high oral absorption |
|
|
Term
Factors that affect the drug solubility and drug absorption? |
|
Definition
disintegration
dissolving
membrane barriers |
|
|
Term
formulations of fluconazole? |
|
Definition
tablets
suspension
injection |
|
|
Term
Use of Fluconazole in cats? |
|
Definition
treatment of cryptococcosis in cats (orally administered) |
|
|
Term
Pharmacokinetics of Fluconazole in horses?
half life?
volume of distribution?
clearance rate?
%F
where are there high concentrations |
|
Definition
42 hour half life
1.2 L/kg volume of distribution
clearance is 0.02 L/kg/hour
%F is greater than 100%
high concentrations in tissues, eyes, urine |
|
|
Term
Dosing recommendations for Fluconazole in horses? |
|
Definition
14mg/kg oral loading dose
5mg/kg q24hr, oral maintenance dose |
|
|
Term
What are some new antifungal drugs? |
|
Definition
Voriconazole
Posaconazole |
|
|
Term
Voriconazole is mostly for what species? |
|
Definition
humans
(limited experience in animals) |
|
|
Term
What is the relative activity of Voriconazole against Aspergillus? |
|
Definition
great activity against Aspergillus |
|
|
Term
What is the relative solubility of Voriconazole compared to itraconazole? |
|
Definition
Voriconazole is more soluble (better absorbed) than itraconazole |
|
|
Term
What anti-fungal drug may be neurotoxic in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What kind of antifungal is Terbinafine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
fungicidal
decreases synthesis of ergosterol in the cell membrane |
|
|
Term
What are all the types of canine lymphoma? |
|
Definition
mediastinal lymphoma
alimentary lymphoma
multicentric lymphoma *
cutaneous lymphoma
lymphocytic leukemia |
|
|
Term
What are the possible outcomes of anticancer treatment? |
|
Definition
cure-kill and remove all cancer cells
remission-reduce the tumor burden so that there are no clinical signs
palliation-to improve the well being of the patient |
|
|
Term
What are the different methods of treating cancer? |
|
Definition
surgery
radiation
hyperthermia
chemotherapy
cryotherapy
gene therapy
immunotherapy |
|
|
Term
What drugs are involved in the CHOP protocol for lymphoma treatment? |
|
Definition
C=cyclophosphamide
H=doxorubicin (hydroxydaunomycin)
O=Vincristine (Oncovin) P= prednisone |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-G1=normal cellular events; synthesis of cellular components for DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis
S=synthesis phase (DNA synthesis)
G2=spindle and microtubule synthesis
M=mitosis |
|
|
Term
what is the action of cell cycle specific drugs? |
|
Definition
preferential toxicity for a specific phase of the cell cycle |
|
|
Term
What is the action of cell cycle non specific drugs? |
|
Definition
toxic to cells irresponsive to cell cycle phase |
|
|
Term
anticancer drug toxicity?
other cells in the body that are affected? |
|
Definition
-GI tract (epitheilum) -bone marrow suppression (granulocytes)
-hair growth
-drug specificy toxicity
cardiotoxicosis with doxorubicin
neurotoxicosis with vincristine
renal toxicosis with cisplatin |
|
|
Term
Waht are the most common clinical signs of anticancer drug toxicity? |
|
Definition
vomiting
diarrhea
neutropenia (leading to increased infections) |
|
|
Term
What are the bone marrow effects of Cyclophosphamide? |
|
Definition
-granulocytes affected most severely
-nadir of toxicity in 7-10 days
-recovery (dogs) in 21-28 days
-stem cells are usually spared
-RBCs are less affected than WBCs |
|
|
Term
steps to minimize the toxicity of anticancer drug therapy? |
|
Definition
1. use combination drugs
2. monitor fot toxicity (CBC, renal function, cardiac toxicity)
3. administer fluid therapy prior to nephrotoxic drugs
4. administer anti-emetic drugs when nausea or vomiting is anticipated
5. dose selection (surface area versus body weight) |
|
|
Term
When can body suface area not predict durg doses? |
|
Definition
when drug clearance is determined by:
hepatic function
hepatic blood flow
protein binding |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of alkylating agents? |
|
Definition
-alkylate bases of DNA
-disrupts DNA base pairing, synthesis, and replication
-causes cell death |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of alkylating agents? |
|
Definition
-binds alkyl group to cellular macromolecules (nucleic acids, enzymes)
-bifunctional alkylating agents: Cross link DNA molecule
(example:N-7 of guanine, N-3 of cytocine, N-3 of adenine) |
|
|
Term
What are these:
nitrogen mustards (cyclophosphamide)
nitrosoureas (BCNU carmustine)
busulfan (Myleran)
Dacarbazine (DTIC)
platinum compleses (cisplatin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are these?
cyclophosphamide
chlorambucil
melphalan |
|
Definition
nitrogen mustard alkylating agents |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use of cyclophosphamide? |
|
Definition
lymphosarcoma
carcinomas
immunosuppressive therapy (Pemphigus vulgaris, IMHA, systemic lupus) |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide? |
|
Definition
-dose dependent bone marrow suppression
-nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
-sterile hemorrhagic cystitis |
|
|
Term
hemorrhagic cystits with the use of Cyclophosphamide? |
|
Definition
-direct injury from cytotoxic metabolites (acrolein)
-in dogs more so than cats
-mechanisms to decrease toxicity:
1. promote dilute urine
2. corticosteroids
3. furosemide diuretic
4. mesna (mercaptoethanesulfonate) |
|
|
Term
mechanism of action of plantinum complexes (cisplatin)? |
|
Definition
cross links DNA molecule with the platinum molecule |
|
|
Term
clinical use of cisplatin? |
|
Definition
carcinomas, sarcomas
osteosarcoma
TCC
give the group about once a month |
|
|
Term
nephrotoxicity of cisplatin? |
|
Definition
most dose limiting effect
fluid loading with saline prior to therapy |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of cisplatin? |
|
Definition
vomiting is common (pre treat animals with antiemetic)
toxicity and death reported in cats
myelosuppression (but minor compared to other drugs) |
|
|
Term
What are these?
Vincristine
Vinblastine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Vinca Alkaloids:
derived from?
action
|
|
Definition
-derived from plants
-"spindle poison"
-binds tubulin proteins
-blocks polymerization of microtubules
-arrests cells in m phase
-interrupts mitotic spindle formation |
|
|
Term
clinical use of Vincristine? |
|
Definition
combination therapy for LSA
treats TVT |
|
|
Term
Adverse effects of Vincristine? |
|
Definition
local vesicant action
peripheral neuropathy (attributed for affinity for tubulin proteins)
constipation
causes very little myelosuppression compared to other drugs |
|
|
Term
Vincristine action on the platelets? |
|
Definition
increases release of functional platelets from bone marrow
inhibits platelet destruction in IMT |
|
|
Term
What kind of drugs are these:
Doxorubicin
Danorubicin
Mitoxantrone |
|
Definition
anthracycline antibiotics |
|
|
Term
Mechanism of action of Doxorubicin? |
|
Definition
inhibits topisomerase II-dependent DNA synthesis
forms free radicals causing oxidative injury to cancer cells |
|
|
Term
anticancer mechanisms of Doxorubicin? |
|
Definition
-intercalates between DNA base pairs
-inhibits DNA, RNA, protein synthesis
-generate oxygen radicals in cancer cells
-cell membrane toxicity |
|
|
Term
clinical use of Doxorubicin? |
|
Definition
Sarcomas
carcinomas
lymphoma
osteosarcoma |
|
|
Term
adverse effects of Doxorubicin? |
|
Definition
-bone marrow suppression (nadir at 7-10 days, recovery in 21-28 days after IV dose)
-cardiotoxicity (dose limiting effect, acutely arrhythmias, chronically cardiomyopathy) DOGS
-alopecia
-GI (vomiting, diarrhea_
-histamine reaction |
|
|
Term
Cardiotoxicity seen with Doxorubicin? |
|
Definition
-oxidative stress from redox cycling procedures (mitochondrial injury, changes in sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca channels)
-mechanism:complex with iron to produce oxygen radical formation
-prevention: Dexrazoxane chelates the iron and may be used to reduce toxicity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
-new cancer drug: approved in dogs in 2009
-first anticancer approved by the FDA for animals
-indication: mast cell tumors |
|
|
Term
The use of glucocorticoids in cancer therapy? |
|
Definition
-cytotoxic to malignant lymphocytes
-antiemetic
-decreases inflammation associated with cancer
-decreases the synthesis of TNF
-improves appetitie |
|
|
Term
What glucocorticoids are used to treat cancer? |
|
Definition
-prednisone
-dexamethasone (antiemetic) |
|
|
Term
Guidelines for safe use of cancer chemotherapy? |
|
Definition
-utilize services of a qualifies pharmacist
-avoid handling if you have a risk factor
-wear protective gloves, eye protection
-mix drugs in ventilated hood
-observe proper recommendations for disposing of drugs and materials |
|
|
Term
Combination cancer therapy? |
|
Definition
-synergisism with other drugs increases tumor cell kill
-decreased toxicity
-optimize tumor cell killing by using drugs that affect different phases
-delay drug resistance |
|
|
Term
treatment of pain and inflammation? |
|
Definition
acupuncture
physical therapy
chiropractic
dietary supplements
chondroprotective agents
anti-inflammatory/analgeic drugs
opioids
NSAIDS
local anesthetics
corticosteroids
benzodiazepines
muscle relaxants
antidepressants
antianxiety agents |
|
|
Term
Review of NSAIDS registered for dogs? |
|
Definition
meloxicam
tepoxalin
carprofen
etodolac
firocoxib
dercoxib
phenylbutazone
meclofenamic acid (not marketed)
Salicylates
flunixin meglumine
naproxen
ketoprofen
piroxicam
telfenamic acid
vedaprofen |
|
|
Term
NSAIDS registered for use in cats? |
|
Definition
carprofen
tepoxalin
meloxicam
aspirin
dercoxib |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
inexpensive
analgesic and anti-inflammatory
no tolerance or dependence with chronic administration
few drug interactions(compatible with antestheitics and opioids)
|
|
|
Term
potential adverse effects of NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
GI effects
renal perfusion
bleeding (platelet inhibition) |
|
|
Term
what info can you find at www.fda.gov/cvm/nsaids.htm |
|
Definition
adverse reactions
current labels
client information sheets |
|
|
Term
What can you find at http://www.usp.org?
with the use of NSAIDS |
|
Definition
indications
dosing information
off-label uses |
|
|
Term
only NSAID approved for long term use in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the action of COX-2 inhibitors? |
|
Definition
inhibits COX-2 expression
which prevents the formation of PGE
which prevents edema, swelling, pain |
|
|
Term
take a look at the mechanism cascade of cell injury and the role of COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitors |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
(biological effects in brain, spinal cord, kidney, GI mucosa, bone, cartilage, lung)
aid in ulcer healing
promotes angiogenesis
contributes to bone remodeling
preserves renal function |
|
|
Term
What are some of the adverse effects of NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
gastritis
vomiting
diarrhea
GI ulcaration and hemorrhage
renal injury
hepatic injury
platelet inhibition and bleeding
allergic reactions |
|
|
Term
NSAIDS GI adverse reactions? |
|
Definition
non selective drugs (COX1 and COX2 inhibitors) cause ulcers at high doses
even selective COX2 inhibitors can cause ulcers |
|
|
Term
Are there certain NSAIDS that are shown to be more effective than others in controlled clinical trials? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How should you select which NSAID to use? |
|
Definition
drug selection should be made based on personal experience and individual response to the NSAID |
|
|
Term
Do all animals respond the same to NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
no
all animals respond differently |
|
|
Term
What factor makes it difficult to distinguish between different NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
see slide about the half lives and dosing of different NSAIDS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
do all nsaids have potential to cause hepatic injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
if an animal has been on NSAIDS, and has liver toxicity, what will the chemistry look like? |
|
Definition
increased ALP
increased ALT
increased Bilirubin |
|
|
Term
adverse effects associated with Caprofen are mostly what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the mechanisms of adverse drug reactions? |
|
Definition
side effects
intrinsic reactions
idiosyncratic reactions
allergic reactions |
|
|
Term
Most common summary of adverse effects of Carporfen? |
|
Definition
elevated liver enzymes
depression, lethargy
elevated bilirubin
death
diarrhea |
|
|
Term
Hepatopathy with the use of Carprofen? |
|
Definition
the second most common advese event
70% of adverse effects were seen in dogs that were 6 years old or older (but this may not really be relevant due to the fact that dogs under 6 probably wouldn't need Carprofen anyway) |
|
|
Term
Is there any suggestion that Labs are most sensitive to Carprofen than other breeds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What defines a side effect?
examples? |
|
Definition
undesirable, but unavoidable effects
expected reactions, usually related to the drug's pharmacolgocial effect
usually does not require treatment
examples are antihistimines that cause drowsiness or glucocorticoids that cause Pu/Pd |
|
|
Term
What classifies an intrinsic reaction?
What are some examples? |
|
Definition
dose related
predictable
can be reproduced in experimental animals
examples are renal injury caused by aminoglycosides, gastric ulceration with high doses of NSAIDS, enrofloxacin induced blindness in cats |
|
|
Term
What is the difference in a high therapeutic ratio and a low therapeutic ratio? |
|
Definition
high theraputic ratio=wide gap between the safe dose and the toxic dose
low therapeutic ratio=small gap between the safe dose the the toxic dose |
|
|
Term
What is the classification of an idiosyncratic toxicty? |
|
Definition
unpredictable
not dose related
difficult to demonstrate in experimental animals
may represent 3-25% of reactions
may be under genetic control
examples include:
carprofen=hepatotoxicosis in dogs
phenobarbital=hepatotoxicosis
diazepam=hepatotoxicosis in cats
azathioprine=bone marrow injury
sulfonamides=keratoconjunctivities sicca |
|
|
Term
What is the classification of an allergic reaction to a drus? |
|
Definition
not dose related
reaction is unrelated to the drug's pharmacological action
minimal reaction from initial exposure but more serious reaction from subsequent exposure
can be minimized or treated with antihistimines, glucocorticoids, or epinephrine
examples include=penicillins causing skin reactions, and sulfonamides causing joint injury or hepatic injury |
|
|
Term
the use of SAMe as a dietary supplement in hepatic disease? |
|
Definition
(S-Adenocylmethionine)
hepatic anti-oxidant
glutathione conjugation reactions
sulfation of bile acids
reduces hepatocyte apoptosis
may be beneficial in hepatitis and hepatotoxicosis |
|
|
Term
The use of Silymarin (milk thistle) supplement for hepatic disease? |
|
Definition
mixture of anti-hepatotoxic flavonolignans
phosphatidylcholine formulation that are important for oral absorption
hepatic anti-oxidant
may increase hepatic gluthathione content |
|
|
Term
What are some commonly used dietary supplements for hepatic disease? |
|
Definition
S-Adenosyl methionine (SAMe)
silymarin (milk thistle)
Vitamin E
benefits of restoring liver function are unknown for sure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Other medications for osteoarthritis? (besides carprofen) |
|
Definition
chrondroprotective agents
dietary supplements
omega 3 fatty acids
opioids (morphine like drugs)
corticosteroids
benzodiazepines
muslce relaxants
antidepressants
anti-anxiety agents
|
|
|
Term
follow up on the drug regimine for the lame lab from the NSAID lecture |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some various chondroprotective agents? |
|
Definition
glycosaminoglycan
glucoasmine+chrondroitin sulfate (cosequin)
polysulfated glycosaminoglycans (adequan)
tetracyclines (DOXY)
green lipped mussel powder (Glyco-flex)
Na or Ca pentosan polyphosphate
Hyaluronic acid |
|
|
Term
benefits of Glucoasmine+Chondroitin sulfate
and risks?
|
|
Definition
stimulates cartilage matrix synthesis
decreases enzyme activity in joints
risks
minor changes in hematologic and hemostatic variables |
|
|
Term
see slide about clinical evaluation of chondroitin sulfate adn glucosamine HCl from NSAIDS ppt |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Glucosamine+chondroitin sulfate+ASU (avocado/soybean unsaponifiables and decaffeinated tea) |
|
|
Term
Hill's diet that is used for nutritional management of dogs with osteoarthritis
contains optimum ratio of omega6 and omega 3 fatty acids, plus glucosamine and chondroitin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trichophyton spp
and
Microsporum spp
are examples of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some topical drugs for the treatment of dermatophytes? |
|
Definition
Enilconzole (Clinafarm)
Miconazole (Conofite)
Clotimazole (Lotrim)
Terbinafine (Lamisil) |
|
|
Term
What are some systemic antifungals for the treatment of Dermatophytes? |
|
Definition
Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)
Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
Itraconazole (Sporanox)
Fluconazole (Diflucan)
Terminafine (Lamisil) |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)? |
|
Definition
microsporum spp
trichophyton spp |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Griseofulvin (Fulvicin)? |
|
Definition
incorporates into keratin of the skin and nails
inhibits mitosis of fungal cells |
|
|
Term
The oral absorption of Griseofulvin (Fulvicin) is enhanced by what? |
|
Definition
oral absorption is enhanced by a meal |
|
|
Term
Griseofulvin (Fulvicin) is distributed to the skin, then deposits where, how long does it take to get here? |
|
Definition
deposits in the stratum corneum by 48-72 hours |
|
|
Term
How is the metabolism of Griseofulvin (Fulvicin) in dogs and cats compared to people? |
|
Definition
higher metabolism (faster clearance) in dogs and cats than in people |
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use of Griseofulvin (Fulvicin) in animals? |
|
Definition
treatment of Dermatophyte infection
for a duration of > 4 weeks |
|
|
Term
What are some of the adverse effects of Grisofulvin (Fulvicin) in cats? |
|
Definition
bone marrow suppression, especially in cats with viral infection (FIV)
tertogenic in pregnant animals
do not administer during pregnancy |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Amphotericin B (Fungizone)? |
|
Definition
binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane
cell membrane becomes more permeable
fungal cell death (fungicidal)
|
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Anphotericin B (Fungizone)? |
|
Definition
Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Cryptococcus
Coccidioides
Candida
Aspergillus
Leishmania |
|
|
Term
What are the clinical uses of Amphotericin B (Fungizone)? |
|
Definition
systemic fungal infections
given IV |
|
|
Term
What are some of the adverse effects of Amphotericin B? |
|
Definition
fever
thrombophlebitis
nausea, vomiting, anorexia
anemia
renal injury (acute injury, chronic injury) |
|
|
Term
What are some strategies to decrease the toxicity that may be associated with Amphotericin B? |
|
Definition
pretreatment fluid administration
slow IV infusion
SQ administration
liposomal formulations |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of the lipid formulations of
Amphotericin B? |
|
Definition
-modify rate of transfer of drug from lipid carrier to cholesterol containing mammilian membranes
-increased uptake by mononuclear phagocyte system (increases clearance)
release at the site of infection from monocytes
higher theraputic index so you need higher doses
|
|
|
Term
What is the name of the Amphotericin B "Lipid complex"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the Amphotericin B "Unilamellar Liposome"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the Amphotericin B "Colloidal Dispersion"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Abelcet used for in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is AmBisome used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the examples of Imidazoles? |
|
Definition
Ketoconazole
Enilconzole
Clotrimazole |
|
|
Term
What are some examples of Triazoles antifungals? |
|
Definition
Fluconazole
Itraconazole
Voriconazole |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Ketoconazole? |
|
Definition
inhibits fungal P450 enzyme responsible for synthesis of fungal cell sterols
inhibits ergosterol synthesis
fungistatic |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity for ketoconazole? |
|
Definition
yeasts (malassezia pachydermatis)
dermatophytes (Trichophyton, Microsporum)
Systemic fungi (Bastomyces, Coccidiodies, Histoplasma) |
|
|
Term
The oral absorption of Ketoconzole is enhanced by what? inhibited by what? Poorly absorbed in what species? |
|
Definition
enhanced by food
inhibited by stomach antacids
pooryly absorbed in horses |
|
|
Term
What are the adverse effects of Ketoconazole? |
|
Definition
GI (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
Hepatotoxicosis (increased liver enzymes ALT and ALP, idiosyncratic hepatic injury) |
|
|
Term
What anti-fungal drug inhibits steroid synthesis and decreases testosteron and cortisol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This anti-fungal drug inhibits the metabolism of these drugs:
cyclosporine
prednisolone
digoxin
warfarin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is P-glycoprotein?
Where is it located? |
|
Definition
transmembrane protein that is associated with multi-drug resistance
ATP-dependent pump producing drug efflux out of cells
sites:
liver bile canaliculus
intestinal epithelial cells
placenta
kidney (proximal tubule)
endothelial cells (brain) |
|
|
Term
This drug inhibits chitin (polymer) synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug is distributed to the fat and has a long half life? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is Lufenuron used for? |
|
Definition
treats dermatophytes
predominantly treats Microsporum canis |
|
|
Term
NSAID susceptibilities in cats? |
|
Definition
salicylates (aspirin)=acidosis
acetaminophen =hepatic injury, blood cell injury |
|
|
Term
What non steroidals are used in cats? |
|
Definition
aspirin
ketoprofen
meloxicam
piroxicam
firocoxib |
|
|
Term
Non steroidals in horses? |
|
Definition
phenylbutazone
flunixin
ketoprofen
ibuprofen
naproxen
meclofenamic acid
firocoxib |
|
|
Term
Why may you want to use prophylactic antibiotics? |
|
Definition
if contaminated
if there is tissue perfusion
increased time of surgery increases risk of infection
depends of prognosis
is there a high likelihood of postoperative infection |
|
|
Term
Prophylactic antibiotics durg factors? |
|
Definition
bactericidial
broad spectrum
IV route
must be compatible with anesthetics
use appropriate timing of administration |
|
|
Term
what are the important factors involved in prophylactic antibiotic selection? |
|
Definition
select a drug that is active against the bacteria
select a drug that reaches the site of infection
consider local factors that affect drug activity
select a drug that can be administered conveniently
consider drug safety |
|
|
Term
What are some pre-surgical prophylactic antibiotics that are injectable? |
|
Definition
cefazolin
ampicillin
ceftazidime (3rd generation)
cefoxitin (2nd generation) |
|
|
Term
What drugs are good for the treatment of acute pain? |
|
Definition
opioids
nsaids
local anesthetics
muslce relaxants
alternative therapy |
|
|
Term
Treatment of severe pain? |
|
Definition
drug infusions
opioid agonist (IV, IM)
|
|
|
Term
treatment of moderate pain? |
|
Definition
transdermal opioid
opioid agonist/antagonist
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Timing of prophylactic antibiotic administration? |
|
Definition
20-30 minutes prior to surgery
may need to redose every 90-120 minutes
post operative regimen is not necessary in most cases |
|
|
Term
coniderations of perioperatice pain treatment? |
|
Definition
compatibility with anesthetics
potential adverse effects on the heart and blood pressure
effects on coagulation and bleeding
effects on the kidney
avoid oral medications
|
|
|
Term
What are the NSAIDS registered for the use in dogs? |
|
Definition
meloxicam
tepoxalin
carprofen
etodolac
firocoxib
deracoxib
phenylbutazone
meclotenamic acid(not marketed) |
|
|
Term
What are some NSAIDS used for acute pain? |
|
Definition
flunixin
ketoralac
ketoprofen
phenylbutazone
carprofen
meloxicam |
|
|
Term
What is the best drug to use for prevention of pain in animals undergoing ovariohysterectomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some post-operative drugs? |
|
Definition
meloxicam
tepoxalin
carprofen
etodolac
dercoxib
firocoxib |
|
|
Term
most common NSAIDS used in small animal?
large animal? |
|
Definition
meloxicam
carprofen
large animal=flunixin |
|
|
Term
What are some of the advantages of opioid drugs? |
|
Definition
potent analgesia
produce euphoric and sedative effect
high therapeutic index
few drug interactions
few contraindications
may be administered locally
reversible (nalonone) |
|
|
Term
What are some of the CNS effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
analgesia
sedation
euphoria
dysphoria/excitment |
|
|
Term
- What are some of the disadvantages of opioids?
|
|
Definition
short half life
poor oral absoption
tolerance with chronic use
abuse by humans
celiling effect with partial agonists
side effects: constipation, excitement, nausea, vomiting |
|
|
Term
What the various opiate receptors characteristics of each? |
|
Definition
mu
analgesia, supraspinal, spinal
kappa
analgesia, spinal
delta
analgesia, supraspinal, spinal
sigma
unknown significance |
|
|
Term
morphine bins what receptors? |
|
Definition
strong to mu
weak to kappa |
|
|
Term
fentanyl binds to what receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where does buprenorphine bind? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
where does enkephalin bind? |
|
Definition
moderate to mu
moderate to delta |
|
|
Term
Where does endorphin bind? |
|
Definition
strong to mu
strong to delta |
|
|
Term
see slide about varying strenghts of different opioids! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the cardovascular side effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the gastrointestinal effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
smooth muscle spasm
constipation
nausea
vomiting |
|
|
Term
What are the CNS effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the respiratory effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
respiratory depression
panting |
|
|
Term
these drugs affect:
thermoregulatory centers
vomiting center
intestinal receptors
vagal effects
histamine release |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what are the pure opioid agonists? |
|
Definition
morphine
oxymorphone
hydromorphone
meperidine
fentanyl |
|
|
Term
what is the prototype of opioid analgesics? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how can morphine be administered to animals? |
|
Definition
IV
IM
SQ
rectal
epidural
local infusion |
|
|
Term
is morphine cleared rapidly or slowly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the active metabolite of morphine? |
|
Definition
morphine-6-Glucouronide
(20%-200% activity of morphine) |
|
|
Term
how much more potent is hydromorphone compared to morphine? |
|
Definition
hydromorphone is 5-7X more potent than morphine |
|
|
Term
hydromorphone is equivalent to what other drug on the basis of sedation and side effects? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when hydromorphone is given pre-operatively, it is typically combined with what other drug? |
|
Definition
usually combined with acepromazine pre-operatively |
|
|
Term
what are some of the Fentanyl derivatives? |
|
Definition
fentanyl
alfentanil
sufentanil
carfentanil
|
|
|
Term
what is the potency of fentanyl compared to morphine? |
|
Definition
fentanyl is 80-100 times more potent than morphine |
|
|
Term
What are the different ways that you could administer Fentanyl? |
|
Definition
IV formulation (Submimazine)
transdermal patch (Duragesic)
buccal tablet (Fentora)
oral delivery (Actiq) |
|
|
Term
what is the lag time of Fentanyl to reach steady state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
how long are steady state concentrations of Fentanyl maintained after application of the patch? |
|
Definition
will maintain steady state for 72 hours |
|
|
Term
to compare Fentanyl and Morphine:
50ug/hr Fentanyl patch with equivalent to how much morphine per day? |
|
Definition
23-37mg of morphine per day |
|
|
Term
Transdermal Fentanyl in cats:
lag time?
rate of delivery?
% absorbed
steady state concentration? |
|
Definition
lag time= 12 hours
rate of delivery= 8.5 mcg/hr
% absorbored= 36%
steady state concentration = 2.0ng/mL |
|
|
Term
What are the opioid angonists/antagonists? |
|
Definition
Pentazocine
Butorphanol
Buprenorphine |
|
|
Term
The Kappa receptor effect of Butorphanol are primarily at what level? |
|
Definition
primarily at the spinal level |
|
|
Term
Do Kappa receptor angonists produce more or less respiratory depression that mu-receptor agonists? |
|
Definition
k-receptor agonists produce less respiratory depression than mu-receptor agonists |
|
|
Term
Butorphanol is a weak analgesic with a ceiling effect |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the kappa antagonist activity or Buprenorphine is similar to what other drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Buprenorpine has a high affinity for what receptor, which may have what effect on duration of action? |
|
Definition
Buprenorphine has a high affinity for mu-receptor
this may prolong the duration of activity |
|
|
Term
Buprenorphine has a high affinity for mu-receptors but less intrinsic activity
may compete with other mu-agonists |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why is transmucosal (oral) delivery of Buprenorphine particularly good in cats? |
|
Definition
the drug is a weak base
therefore the absorption of the drug if favored by the high pH of the cat saliva
drug is nearly 100% absorbed because the pH is the environment (cat's mouth) is higher than the pKa of the drug
|
|
|
Term
what are some of the guidelines for administration of drugs for perioperative pain management? |
|
Definition
administer pre-operative for maximum benefit
administer on regular schedule
compare a pure opioid agonist vs. opioid agonis/antagonist and partial agonists
continue drug administration for 24-48 hours post-operatively |
|
|
Term
look at ppt for info on 6.5 year old Great Dane with osteosarcoma of right humerus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some analgesic possibilities other than opioids? |
|
Definition
Tramadol
Gabapentin
Transdermal fentanyl
Amantadine
Bisphosphonates |
|
|
Term
What are different ways that morphine can be administered? |
|
Definition
injection
immediate release tablets
slow release tablets
combined immediate and extended release |
|
|
Term
the high oral clearance of morphine in dogs is so high that it leads to what? |
|
Definition
poor systemic availbility |
|
|
Term
What are the chronic effects of opioids? |
|
Definition
1.tolerance
with chronic administration, equivalent doses become less effective for analgesia, with fewer adverse effects
2. dependence
psychological dependence, euphoria, addiction |
|
|
Term
What are the effects of Tramadol? |
|
Definition
weak mu-receptor agonist
decreases reuptake of norepinephrine and seratonin
mild analgesic
not a controlled substance |
|
|
Term
Why is Tramadol known as the "triple threat" analgesic? |
|
Definition
inhibits re-uptake of serotonin
alpha 2 agonist
opiate effects |
|
|
Term
this drug is a water soluble cyclin amine with antiviral activity against RNA viruses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Amantadine used in the treatment of pain? |
|
Definition
inhibits N-metyl-D-aspartate receptors
(NMDA produces central sensitization of pain)
|
|
|
Term
this drug is an anticonvulsant that inhibits the a2sigma subunit of the voltage dependent Ca channel of neurons?
it is also a structural analog of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug is related to Lyrica? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug inhibits bone resorption
decreases bone turnover by inhibiting osteoclastic activity
reduces the pain associated with bone cancer or cancer that has metastisized to the bone
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the name of the Bisphophonate that is used in dogs with bone tumors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the effect of antiparasitic therapy depends on what? |
|
Definition
accurate diagnosis
knowledge of the life cycles
environment and management practices |
|
|
Term
what is the ideal antiparasitic drug? |
|
Definition
reduce parasite burdens
wide therapeutic index
does not require multiple dose regimen
easily administered
no residues in food animal |
|
|
Term
Are injectable antiparasitic drugs soluble, insoluble, or suspension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are feed additive antiparasitic drugs soluble, insoluble, or suspension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are oral drench antiparasitic drugs soluble, insoluble, or suspension? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the three general modes of action of antiparasitic drugs? |
|
Definition
paralysis of the parasite by stimulating or inhibiting the neurotransmitters
alteration of metabolic processes
alters parasite reproduction |
|
|
Term
What are the two broad spectrum antiparasitic drug classes? |
|
Definition
macrolide endectocides
benzimidazoles |
|
|
Term
What are the two narrow spectrum antiparasitic drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What does antiparasitic drug efficacy depend on? |
|
Definition
inherent toxicity to the parasite
ability to reach the parasite or infection site
dosing rate
route of administration |
|
|
Term
the time that must elapse before either an animal is slaughtered for meat or time before the milk is collected for human consumption? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Are most antiparasitic drugs fat soluble or water soluble? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what routes of infection of antiparasitic drugs can lead to depot in the meat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What routes of administration of antiparasitic drugs can lead to milk residues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
in a sample deworming schedule for horses, when should you use each drug:
ivermectin?
Fenbendazole?
Mexidectin?
Double dose strogid P or Praziquantel? |
|
Definition
ivermectin
March/April
September/October
Fenbendazole
Janurary/February
Moxidectin
May/June
November/December
Double dose Strongid P or Praziquantel
July/August |
|
|
Term
Piperazine (Heterocyclic compound) is lipid soluble or water soluble? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the mechanism of action of Piperazine? |
|
Definition
paralyzes worms by blocking Ach at the neuromuscular junction or by stimulating GABA receptors |
|
|
Term
Which are more susceptible to the actions of Piperazine?
(mature worms or larval stages) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often should dogs and cats be treated with Piperazine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How often should horses be treated with Piperazine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Piperazine? |
|
Definition
narrow spectrum (Ascarids) |
|
|
Term
Piperazine is combined with what other drug to treat for bots? |
|
Definition
Piperazine + CS2 (Parvex) |
|
|
Term
Piperazine is combined with what other drug to treat strongyles? |
|
Definition
Piperazine + TBZ (Equizole) |
|
|
Term
Piperazine should be avoided in what kinds of patients? |
|
Definition
animals with liver or kidney disease
animals with high ascarid load (ascarid impaction colic or perforation of the small intestine) |
|
|
Term
Piperazine in swine:
how is it administered?
Why is it administered?
|
|
Definition
put in feed/water for 1-2 days
treats ascarids or nodular worms |
|
|
Term
Piperazine is not approved for use in what group of animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this drug is a Piperazine derivative? |
|
Definition
Diethylcarbomzine citrate(DEC) |
|
|
Term
this antiparasitic drug is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract and rapidly eliminated.
What can we infer about the drug based on this? |
|
Definition
DEC
can infer that it has low toxicity |
|
|
Term
This antiparasitic drug is prophylactic for heartworms and ascarid infections in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug is formulated with oxibendazole to protect against hookworms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Since DEC drugs can caused GI irritation, it should be given when? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Why should an infected dog be cleared of adult worms and microfilaria before starting treatment with DEC? |
|
Definition
DEC is mostly larvacidal and effective against microfilaria
if you give DEC and the animal has adult worms, it may result in hypovolemic shock |
|
|
Term
What is the mode of action of Benzimidazoles? |
|
Definition
binds nematode dimeric tubulin (prevents polymerization of tubulin during microtubule assembly)
|
|
|
Term
Which binds tubulin more strongly? (Thiazolyls or Methylcarbamates) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benzimidazoles are effective against what parasites in horses? |
|
Definition
large strongyles
small strongyles |
|
|
Term
Benzimidazoles are effective against what parasites in cattle and sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Benzimidazoles are effective against what in swine? |
|
Definition
kidney worms
nodular worms
lung worms
whip worms
Trichinella |
|
|
Term
Benzimadazoles are effective against what in dogs? |
|
Definition
hookworms
ascarids
whipworms
tapeworms |
|
|
Term
Benzimadozoles are not approved for use in what animal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Potential effect if you give Parbendazole and Cambendazole to pregnant ewes? |
|
Definition
teratogenicitiy (limb defects) in the fetus |
|
|
Term
what are probenzimidazoles? What is an example? |
|
Definition
prodrugs that don't have any anthelminthic activity until metabolized
example is Febantel which is converted in the GI tract to Fenbendazole and Oxfendazole |
|
|
Term
Febantel is effective against what in horses? |
|
Definition
adult strongyles
ascarids
pinworms |
|
|
Term
Febantel is effective against what in dogs? Formulated with what? |
|
Definition
Fenbantel is formulated with Praziquantel or Praziquantel + pyrantel (Drontal Plus)
effective against hookworms, ascarids, whipworms, tapeworms |
|
|
Term
Drontal Plus is only approved for use in what animal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Imidazothiazole class of antiparasitic drugs? |
|
Definition
ganglion stimulant (cholinomimetic)
paralysis of worms (depolarizing neuromuscular blockade or sustained muscle contraction) |
|
|
Term
Use of Levamisole (Imidazothizole class) in cattle and sheep? |
|
Definition
abomasal worms
intestinal worms
lung worms |
|
|
Term
use of Levamisole (Imidazothizole class) in swine? |
|
Definition
ascarids
lungworms
nodular worms
kidney worms
(should administer with food and water) |
|
|
Term
How safe is Levamisole compared to benzimidazoles? |
|
Definition
Levamisole has a narrow margin of safety compared to Benzimidoles |
|
|
Term
what is the most widely used class of antiparasitic drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Use of Pyrantel tartrate in horses? (Strongid C) |
|
Definition
in the form of pellets or powder
fed daily to horses
prevents migration of large strongyles |
|
|
Term
What is the use of Pyrantel pamonte in horses? (Strongid T) |
|
Definition
used every 6 weeks and is used for rotational worm treatment |
|
|
Term
mechanism of action of pyrantel salts? |
|
Definition
acts as nicotinic agonist
causing muscular contraction and tonic paralysis |
|
|
Term
Which is more potent?
(Morantel or Pyrantel) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pyrantel tartrate (Strongid C) is effective against what in horses? |
|
Definition
S. vulgaris
Parascaris
Pinworms |
|
|
Term
Pyrantel is effective against what in swine? |
|
Definition
ascarids
nodular worms
stomach worms
|
|
|
Term
Pyrantel is not approved for use in what group of animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is pyrantel effective against in cats and dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pyrantel should not be used with what other antiparasitic drug? |
|
Definition
Pyrantel should not be used with Levamisole |
|
|
Term
This antiparasitic drug is a methyl ester or Pyrantel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the spectrum of activity and the use of Morantel? |
|
Definition
stomach worms
intestinal worms
most often used in cattle and goats |
|
|
Term
Diclorvos and Trichlorfon (organisphosphates) are used particullary in what animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Coumaphos (organophosphates) are used principially in what animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
mode of action of organophosphates? |
|
Definition
inhibits AchE (therefore leads to accumulation of Ach) |
|
|
Term
What is the relative margin of safety of organophosphates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the only organophosphate approved for use in dairy cattle? why? |
|
Definition
coumaphos
because milk residues are a concern with other organophosphates |
|
|
Term
organophosphates are effective against what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
organosphosphates are rapidly absorbed where, and then what happens? |
|
Definition
rapidly absorbed in the GI tract
then rapidly detoxified |
|
|
Term
what is the pharmacokinetic implication of the fact that organophosphates are slow releasing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the spectrum of activity of Dichlorvos in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
hookworms
ascarids
whipworms |
|
|
Term
what is the spectrum of activity of Dichlorvos in swine? |
|
Definition
ascarids
nodular worms
whipworms |
|
|
Term
dichlorvos should not be given after exposure to what? |
|
Definition
cholinesterase inhibitors
tranquilizers
muscle relaxants
dogs with heartworm infections |
|
|
Term
this organophosphate should not be given to dogs with heartworms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this organophosphate is approved for use in lactating cattle as a feed additive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
this organophosphate is safe and rapidly degraded in the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which method of coumaphos administration has a wider margin of safety?
(feed supplement or drench) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Trichlorfon (organosphosphate) usually administered to horses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Trichlorfon (organophosphate) is effective against what parasites in horses? |
|
Definition
immature and mature ascarids
adult pinworms
bots |
|
|
Term
when Trichlorfon is combined wtih Piperazine and Phenothiazine, it is effective against what parasites in the horse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
when Trichlorfon (organophosphate) is combined with BDZ and given to horses, it is effective against what parasites? |
|
Definition
ascarids
large strongyles
pin worms |
|
|
Term
Is the migratory form of S. vulgaris in the mesenteric artery susceptible to Trichlorton (organophosphate)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the spectrum of activity of Trichlorton (organophosphate) in dogs? |
|
Definition
ascarids
hookworms
whipworms
mange
fleas |
|
|
Term
are macrolide endectocides effective against cestodes and trematodes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is more lipophillic, Doramectin or Ivermectin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the mechanism of action of ivermectin? |
|
Definition
agonist of GABA receptors
(therefore causes paralysis of the parasite) |
|
|
Term
Is ivermectin safe for use in pregnant animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
high doses of ivermectin may cause what effect in a animal? |
|
Definition
CNS depression (especially in the Collie dog) |
|
|
Term
What are these:
Ivermectin, Doramectin, Selamectin, Eprinomectin |
|
Definition
Acermectins (Macrolide Endectocides) |
|
|
Term
Ivermectin is 90% metabolized where in the body? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
which route of administration of Ivermectin has a greater rate of absorption?
(SQ/dermal or oral) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
what is the major route of excretion of Ivermectin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of acitivity of Ivermectin in cattle/sheep? |
|
Definition
all GI worms (including Ostertagi)
lung worms |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Ivermectin in horses? |
|
Definition
bots
stomach worms
small and large strongyles (including migrating larvae)
pinworms
ascarids |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Ivermectin in swine? |
|
Definition
GI worms
lung worms
kidney worms |
|
|
Term
Is Ivermectin effective against Trichinella spp. (muscular stage) in sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Ivermectin in dogs? |
|
Definition
ascarids
hookworms
whipworms
heartworm preventative
(extra-label) microfilaricide |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Ivermectin in cats? |
|
Definition
heartworm preventative
hookworms |
|
|
Term
What are acute signs of Ivermectin toxicity? |
|
Definition
CNS depression
ataxia
tremors
mydriasis
possible death |
|
|
Term
Which has a greater half life?
(Doramectin or Ivermectin) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Doramectin in cattle? |
|
Definition
similar to Ivermectin + screwworms and Ostertagia |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Doramectin in swine? |
|
Definition
major GI worms
lung worms
kidney worms
lice
mange mites |
|
|
Term
Is Doramectin approved for use in Dairy cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is Eprinomectin administered to beef and dairy cattle? |
|
Definition
pour on application ("water proof") |
|
|
Term
This is the only Avermectin class drug that is approved for use in Dairy cattle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is a good broad spectrum macrolide endectocide that is effective against adult and immature helminths, lice, hornflies, and mites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Selamectin (Revolution) is effective against what in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
heartworms
ectoparasites
(hookworms and roundworms in cats only*) |
|
|
Term
How is Selemectin particullary effective against ectoparasites? |
|
Definition
forms reserviors in the sebaceous glands |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity for Milbemycin? |
|
Definition
hearworms
hookworms
ascarids
whipworms
amitra-resistant Demodex canis |
|
|
Term
Is Milbemycin OK to use in collie dogs? |
|
Definition
yes fine in Collies (up to 20x recommended dose) |
|
|
Term
What are some of the adverse reactions associated with Milbemycin? |
|
Definition
mild cardiovascular shock due to reactions with the dead microfilariae |
|
|
Term
What is the only pour on endectocide labelled for use in ruminants to treat the common scab mite? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The spectrum of activity of Moxidectin in cattle is similar to what other Macrolide Endectocide? |
|
Definition
similar to Ivermectin and also similar to Milbemycin |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Moxidectin in horses? |
|
Definition
common internal parasites |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
injectable moxidectin
provides 6 months of heartworm protection
pulled in 2004 and reintroduced in 2008 |
|
|
Term
Pro Heart 6 was reintroduced in 2008 under what conditions? |
|
Definition
vets must complete training before purchase
must require signed "informed consent" from pet owner before the product can be administered |
|
|
Term
Arsinicals (Thiacetarsamide and Melarsomine) are used primarily for the treatment of what in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
removal of adult Dirofilaria |
|
|
Term
What are two serious side effects of Arsenical treatment of Dirofilaria in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity |
|
|
Term
This particular Arsenical is the treatment of choice for dogs with heartworm infections? Why? |
|
Definition
Melarsomine
because it is less toxic
has a longer retention time and slower clearance
the toxicity can be reversed |
|
|
Term
What are the two most effective and safest approved cestocides? |
|
Definition
Praziquantel
Epipraziquantel |
|
|
Term
What is the difference in a taenicide and a taeniafuge? |
|
Definition
Taenicide=causes death of the tape worm in situ
Taeniafuge=facilitates tapeworm expulsion |
|
|
Term
Praziquantel is rapidly absorbed where, then does what? |
|
Definition
rapidly absorbed in the GI tract
then readily distributes throughout the host |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Praziquantel? |
|
Definition
tapeworm muscle paralysis by increased influx of Ca |
|
|
Term
This Anticestodal drug is an approved analog of Praziquantel for dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Since very little of Epsiprantel is absorbed, what effect does that have on its activity? |
|
Definition
very little activity on extraintestinal worms |
|
|
Term
Epsiprantel is 100% effective against what two parasites? |
|
Definition
Dipylidium caninum
Taenia pisiformis |
|
|
Term
What are these drugs:
Mebendazole, Fenbendazole, Oxfendazole, Albendazole? |
|
Definition
Anticestodal drugs
(class Benzimidazole) |
|
|
Term
What anticestodal drugs are approved for use in ruminants against Monezia spp. tapeworms? |
|
Definition
Benzimidazole class of drugs |
|
|
Term
what do we know about the safety of Epsiprantel? |
|
Definition
we don't know much
hasn't been throughly assessed |
|
|
Term
At what point in the life cycle are liver flukes most susceptible to fascilocidal drugs? When are they least susceptible? |
|
Definition
most susceptible
10-12 weeks after infection (in the bile duct)
least susceptible
when they become adult flukes and become progressively walled off by connective tissue |
|
|
Term
What is the antitrematodal drug approved for use in cattle and sheep? |
|
Definition
Clorsulon
but not approved for use in dairy cattle |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Clorsulon (antitrematodal)? |
|
Definition
deprives the flukes of their energy source |
|
|
Term
This anti-trematodal drug is effective against mature flukes, but needs a higer dose to get immature flukes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This anti-trematodal, although no approved in USA, is effective against immature flukes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What anti-trematodal drugs are effective against Paramphistomiasis (rumen flukes)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What anti-trematodal drugs are effective against Paragonimus (lung flukes) in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
Praziquantel
Albendazole
fenbendazole |
|
|
Term
What are these drugs:
Metronidazole, Tinidazole, Dimetridazol, Ronidazole, Iprmidazole? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
many of this class of drugs are mutagens and carcinogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
extralabel use of this drug class is illegal in food animals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Metronidazole? |
|
Definition
metabolite that disrupts DNA synthesis |
|
|
Term
Metronidazole lipid solubility?
(high or low) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metronidazole (although not approved in the US) has historically been used to treat what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Metronidazole toxicity may induce what? |
|
Definition
lethargy
weakness
teratogenic effects |
|
|
Term
What are some drug classes that are effective against ameobae adn flagellates? |
|
Definition
Nitrofurans
Arsenicals
Paromomycin
Benzimidazoles |
|
|
Term
This is the drug of choice to treat Giardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Tetracyclines are effective against what amaeba and flagellates? |
|
Definition
amoeba
coccidia
piroplasms
ciliates |
|
|
Term
Clindamycin (Antirobe) is dervied from what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clindamycin (Antirobe) is absorbed where, then rapidly distributed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Clindamycin? (Antirobe) |
|
Definition
inhibits protein synthesis by binding 50S subunit |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for the treatment of Toxoplasmosis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Resistance to this class of drugs if a convern in broiler chickens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can you minimize the resistance that broiler chickens have shown to anit-coccidials? |
|
Definition
use a shuttle program or a rotational program for deworming |
|
|
Term
What are some of the major anti-coccidials? |
|
Definition
sulfonamide
polyether ionophores |
|
|
Term
What group of drugs is are the drugs of choice for the treatment of coccidia in small animals? Also used somewhat in ruminants, but not at all in poultry |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Sulfonamides? |
|
Definition
inhibit folic acid synthesis
most effective against asexual stages |
|
|
Term
When Sulfonamides are combined with this other drug, they can be used to treat Coccidia in poultry? |
|
Definition
Sulfadimethoxine + Ormetoprim |
|
|
Term
Decoquinate is effective against what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Decoquinate? |
|
Definition
blocks DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase |
|
|
Term
This drug is approved for the treatment of coccidosis in ruminants and all avain Eimeria spp.? (but not in dairy cattle) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug is structurally similar to Thiamine? What is the significance of that? |
|
Definition
Amprolium (Corid)
therefore completely inhibits active transport of thiamine in E. tenella |
|
|
Term
What is the only approved anti-coccidial for layers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
There is a concern about coccidal resistance to Amprolium (Corid), therefore it is given in combination with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a potential effect of Amprolium (Corid) overdose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This drug is an arsenical used primarily for its growth promoting benefits? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Roxarsone (anti-coccidal drug) is often formulated with what? |
|
Definition
often formulated with Ionophores |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of polyether ionophores? |
|
Definition
facillitates Na transport across the cell membrane
(therefore cell swelling, inhibition of mitochondrial function, ATP hydrolysis) |
|
|
Term
Not only is Roxarson an anti-coccidial and a growth promoter, but this drug is too? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This anti-coccidial is effective against all Eimeria spp. in cattle, chickens, and sheep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are these drugs:
Monensin and Lasalocid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How can ionophores be administered to an animal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What species are particullary susceptible to feed containing inophores? |
|
Definition
horses (other equines too)
turkeys |
|
|
Term
What is the effect of Inophore toxicity? |
|
Definition
severe cardiovascular effects (effects on Na and Ca) |
|
|
Term
These drugs are effective for the treatment of EPM in horses? |
|
Definition
Pryimethamine + Sulfadiazines (Rebalance)
Nitazoxamide (Navigator)
Ponazuril (Marquis) |
|
|
Term
There is no evidence of the safety of drugs that treat EPM in this particular patient because testing has not been done? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug if effective against Babesiosis in dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What drug is used to treat East Coast Fever (East Africa)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment of Coccidiosis in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Treatment of Toxoplasmosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for the treatment of EPM in horses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ectoparasiticides are effective against what? |
|
Definition
mites
lice
fleas
ticks
flies |
|
|
Term
What are the different formulations of ectoparasiticides? |
|
Definition
sprays, dips, shampoos
pour ons, dustings
oil sprays
collars, ear tags |
|
|
Term
What are the only two Organochlorines approved by the EPA for animal use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Methoxychlor? |
|
Definition
affects the Na voltages gate in PNS (therfore prevents repolarization) |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Lindane? (organochlorine) |
|
Definition
antagonizes GABA receptors in chloride channels (therfore inhibits chloride transport)
|
|
|
Term
What is the significance of the fact that organochlorides are very lipophillic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How does the half life of organochlorides compare to other ectoparasites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This organochloride is used as a poweder for cats and dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This organochlorine drug is used primarily for the screw-worm and ear tick infections? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Even though acute toxicity to organochlorines is rare, the use of it is still discouraged in what animals? |
|
Definition
young animals
lactating animals |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of organophosphate drugs? |
|
Definition
inhibits AChE irreversibily (therfore increase in ACh at the cholinergic receptors) |
|
|
Term
What is an advantage of the lipid solubility of organophosphates? |
|
Definition
they are well absorbed through the skin and GI tract |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of organophosphates? |
|
Definition
Topical (coumaphos dust) for lice, horn flies, face flies
pour-on (Fenthion and Famphur)
for cattle grubs and lice
flea collars and ear tags (Diazinon)
for face flies
oral administration (Cvthioate)
for fleas in dogs |
|
|
Term
What animals are particularily sensitive to organophostphates? |
|
Definition
Brahman cattle, greyhounds, cats |
|
|
Term
what are some of the signs of organophosphate toxicity? |
|
Definition
muscarinic and nicotinic effects
may cause OPIDN (?) |
|
|
Term
What is the relative toxicity of Carbamates compared to Organophosphates? |
|
Definition
carbamates are less toxic than organophosphates |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Carbamates? |
|
Definition
inhibition of AChE
(but it can be reversed, unlike organophosphates) |
|
|
Term
What is the drug in flea and tick collars for dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the formulations of Carbaryl for cats and dogs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the difference in Pyrethroids and Pyrethrins? |
|
Definition
Pyrethrins=plant origin
Pyrethroids=synthetic (resistant to metabolites, greater residual activity) |
|
|
Term
Pyrethrins and Pyrethroids (insecticides) are often formulated with what in order to enhance efficacy? |
|
Definition
often formulated with synergists and repellants |
|
|
Term
What is the mode of action of Pyrethrins and Pyrethroids (insecticides)? |
|
Definition
modulate Na channels (therefore cause membrane depolarization)
suppress GABA and glutamate receptor channel complexes
inhibit calmodulin binding to Ca (therfore increases Ca) |
|
|
Term
What is the relative toxicity of Pyrethrins and Pyrethroids compared to organophosphates or Carbamates? Why? |
|
Definition
safer
because they are more selective for insects |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Pyrethrins and Pyrethroids (insecticides)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are some of the signs of toxicity to Pyrethrins and Pyrethroids? |
|
Definition
nerve and muscular disorders |
|
|
Term
What are the pour-on Endectocides? |
|
Definition
Avermectin class
Milbemycin class |
|
|
Term
Macrolide Endectocides are effective against what? |
|
Definition
mite
biting lice
sucking lice
grubs |
|
|
Term
What is used to treat mites and lice in swine? |
|
Definition
Ivermectin (SQ injection) |
|
|
Term
What drug is approved for the treatment of ear mites in cats? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the clinical use of Fipronil (Frontline) in dogs and cats? |
|
Definition
controls adult fleas and ticks
approved for puppies and kittens > 8 weeks
gives 30 days of protection |
|
|
Term
Imidacloprid (Advantage) is effective against what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When Imidocloprid (Advantage) is combined with Premethrin, it extends the spectrum of activity to include what? (K9 Advantix) |
|
Definition
ticks
now covers: mosquitoes, fleas, ticks |
|
|
Term
What is the activity of Nitenpyram (Capstar)? |
|
Definition
effective against fleas in dogs and cats
fleas begin falling off within 30 minutes |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Spinosad B (Comfortis)? |
|
Definition
fleas
100% knockdown in 4 hours
only for dogs |
|
|
Term
How does Spinosad B (Comfortis) differ from Nitenpyram (Capstar)? |
|
Definition
binds to a different site
can give once per month
only approved for dogs |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Metaflumizon (Promeris)? |
|
Definition
blocks voltage dependent Na channels
(therefore flaccid paralysis and death of the flea) |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Metaflumizon (Promeris)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is d-limonene (Ectoparasitic)?
comes from?
activity?
toxicity?
|
|
Definition
comes from oil extract from oranges
vapors kill the insect
toxicity has been reported in cats |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Amitraz? (ectoparasitic) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Amitraz? (ectoparasitic) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In what species has toxicosis to Amitraz been reported? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the action of Methoprene? |
|
Definition
juvenille hormone analog (falsely signals parasite to remain immature)
effects the developing life stages |
|
|
Term
Because Methoprene only targets immature ectoparasites, it is good to combine it with what other drug? |
|
Definition
combine with adulticides such as Pyrethroid |
|
|
Term
What is the mechanism of action of Lufenuron (Program)? |
|
Definition
inhibits chitin synthesis or depostion in exoskeleton development |
|
|
Term
What is the spectrum of activity of Lufenuron (Program)? |
|
Definition
flea control in dogs and cats
administer orally in dogs and cats |
|
|
Term
these drugs can be combined with another insecticide such as Pyrethroid, in order to enhance its activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
FDA
provides drug approval
concerned with drug working systemically
flea control must be 90% effective
often prescribed by a vet
EPA
provides pesticide registration
concerned with pesticides working topically
clinical studies are not required
sold over the counter |
|
|
Term
What are some of the reasons that certain medications that do not require a prescription still only available from a vet? |
|
Definition
improves efficacy
reduces toxicosis |
|
|
Term
Deworming rotation with horses? |
|
Definition
- Ivermectin (spring and fall) gets rid of bot larvae and eggs
-Strongid P or Rotectin 2 or Praziquantel (summer) gets rid of tapeworms
-consider Moxidectin once or twice per year after Ivermectin treatment to get rid of encysted larvae |
|
|
Term
What dewormer class is on AHSA's list of forbidden masking substances? |
|
Definition
Benzimidazoles (must administer >24 hours before competition) |
|
|
Term
What worms should you be concerned with in horses at regular dewormings? |
|
Definition
strongyles
round worms
pinworms |
|
|
Term
How often should horses be dewormed specifically for tapeworms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At what times of the year should you deworm horses for bots specifically? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the action of Moxidectin in horses? |
|
Definition
encysted strongyles
bots
84 day suppression of strongyle eggs |
|
|