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Pharm Quiz 3
anti- fungals, virals, parasitics, etc
174
Medical
Graduate
03/12/2012

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Cards

Term
a second generation azole
Definition
voriconazole
Term
what is primary therapy for the fungus aspergillus
Definition
voriconazole
Term
what antifungal has a high pervalence of visual disturbances and rentinal problems as well as contraindicated in pregnant women
Definition
voriconazole
Term
MOA of echinocandins
Definition
they prevent the formation of the fungal cell wall by inhibiting the synthesis of beta-(1,3)-D-glucan --> results in osmotic instability and cell death
Term
which antifungal has no oral bioavailability, is unable to penetrate the CNS, and active against azole resistant candida species, but they have no activity against what fungus
Definition

echinocandins

 

have no activity against cryptococcus

Term
examples of echinocandins
Definition

caspofungin

micofungin

anidulafungin

Term
what antifungal is excellent against candida and aspergillus species as a salvage therapy for AMB or azole resistant aspergillis
Definition
caspofungin
Term
which antifungal has histamine like effects when administered via rapid infusions
Definition
caspofungin
Term
which antifungal is ideal for esophageal candidiasis and for prevention of candida infection after bone marrow transplant
Definition
micafungin (an echinocandin)
Term
what is another antifungal, other than micafungin, that is ideal for esophageal candidiasis
Definition
anidulafungin (an echinocandin)
Term

which antifungal prevents ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting squalene epoxidase

what is the example

Definition

allylamines

 

terbinafine

Term
which antifungal is ideal for topical dermatohytes and onchyomycosis, but not usually candidosis and [  ]es in the hair, skin and nails
Definition
terbinafine
Term
which antifungal drug is converted intracellulary to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis in the fungal cell, and has synergistic effects with amphotericin B
Definition
flucytosine
Term

which antifungal drug is very insoluble, and binds to keratin, making it ideal for growth/infections found in rapid skin growth areas hair, or nails

because it binds to keratin, this drug is good for what type of infections

but what drug(s) is/are more effective than this drug for these same infection locations

Definition

griseofulvin

 

dermatophytes

 

itraconazole and terbinafine are much more effective

Term
what antifungal do you tyically administer empirically before cultures come back
Definition
amphotericin B
Term
what antifungals could you use to treat candidiasis
Definition

amphotericin B

all azoles

caspofungin

micofungin

anidulafungin

Term
what antifungals could you use to treat aspergillus
Definition

amphotericin B

voriconazole

posaconazole

caspofungin

Term
what antifungals could you use to treat blastomycosis
Definition

amphotericin B

itraconazole

ketoconazole

fluconazole

Term
what antifungal could you use to treat histoplasmosis
Definition

amphotericin B

itraconazole

ketoconazole

Term
what antifungals could you use to treat cryptococcus
Definition

amphotericin B + flucytosine

intraconazole or fluocnazole

Term
what are the herpes anti-viral drugs
Definition

acyclovir

famciclovir

valacyclovir

ganciclovir

foscarnet

adefovir

cidofovir

Term
whjch antiviral drug requires 3 phosphorylation steps by viral enzymes to become active in order to competitively inhibit viral DNA polymerase, and is 10x more potent against HSV I and II than other herpes viruses
Definition
acyclovir
Term
how do viruses gain resistance to acyclovir
Definition
via down regulation of thymidine kinase, which is required for the phosphorylation and activation of acyclovir
Term
which drug is the pro drug of acyclovir
Definition
valacyclovir
Term
which antiviral has better bioavailability and longer half life than acyclovir and is mostly used for genital herpes
Definition
valacyclovir
Term
which antiviral has a longer half life than acyclovir, but does NOT cause chain termination like acyclovir
Definition
famiciclovir (the pro drug of penciclovir)
Term
which antiviral is rapidly hydrolyzed in intestine and liver, leading to higher blood levels than oral acyclovir
Definition
valacyclovir
Term
which antiviral inhibits DNA polymerase, is effective against all herpseviruses, but is especially active against CMV (100x more effective for CMV than acyclovir)
Definition
valganciclovir (pro drug) and ganciclovir
Term
which antiviral inhibits viral reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase, not requiring phosphorylation, and is effective against CMV as well as resistante herpes (and HIV)
Definition
foscarnet
Term
which antiviral drug is a cytosine analog, leading to DNA chain termination within the virus; and effective against CMV, HSV, papilloma, polyoma, pox, and adenovirus
Definition
cidofovir
Term
which antiviral do you give with probenecid to block active tubular secretion and decrease nephrotoxicity
Definition
cidofovir
Term
which antiviral is a sialic acid analong that causes viral aggregation at the cell surface and reduces spread within the respiratory tract; is an inhaled powder and excreted unchanged in the urine
Definition
zanamavir
Term
which antiviral drug used to treat influenza is not recommended for asthmatics or COPD pts
Definition
zanamavir
Term
which antiviral drug causes viral aggregation at the cell surface and reduces spread within the respiratory tract, but can potentially cause suicidal thoughts
Definition
oseltamivir (used to treat influenza)
Term
which antiviral has a broad spectrum (viral Hep) yet used mostly for RSV, and is a guanosine analog that inhibits nucelotide synthesis, given orally or inhalation
Definition
ribavirin
Term
what antiviral drug is a monoclonal antibody directed against RSV, given via IM injection, and can also be given prophylactically in pts at high risk of getting RSV (premies)
Definition
palivizumab
Term
which antiviral drug is effective against Hep B and C, papilloma, genital herpes, HIV, melanoma, and multiple sclerosis; inhibits viral protein synthesis, but has a limit in its use because of bone marrow suppression and flu like symptom side effects
Definition
interferons
Term
which drug is often combined with an interferon to treat Hep C
Definition
ribavirin
Term
what other drugs are used in the treatment of Hep B, used in combination with IFN
Definition

lamivudine (inhibits DNA polymerase)

or

telbivudine (more potent than lamivudine; inhibits DNA polymerase)

or

adefovir, tenofovir, entecavir, ribavirin

Term
how are anti-retroviral drugs (anti-HIV drugs) effective (general descriptions)
Definition

slow progression of HIV

increase circulating CD4 T cells

decrease number of infections (prophy)

prolong survival of pts with HIV

used in pregnancy and delivery

Term
what are the 5 major classes of anti-HIV drugs
Definition

reverse transcriptase inhibitors

protease inhibitors

fusion inhibitors

integrase inhibitors

entry inhibitors

Term
which type of anti-retroviral drug is phoyphorylated and incorporated into DNA and competitively inhibits reverse transcriptase, and their toxicity depends on these drugs' ability to inhibit RT and not host DNA polymerase
Definition

nuceloside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

they competitively inhibit reverse transcriptase by inhibiting the incorporation of native nucleotides and by terminating the elongation of pro-viral DNA because they lack the 3'-hydroxyl group

Term
which anti-retroviral drug was the first one, and is mainly recommended for post-exposure prophy in healthcare workers, what type of anti-retroviral is it
Definition
zidovudine (AZT) - a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Term
name the seven main NRTI anti-retroviral drugs
Definition

zidovudine (AZT)

stavudine (D4T)

didanosine (DDI)

lamivudine (3TC)

emtricitabine (FTC)

abacavir (ABC)

tenofovir

Term
which NRTI is phosphorylated by different enzymes than the other NRTIs and has a potentially severe and fatal hypersensitivity
Definition
abacavir (ABC)
Term
which NRTI is the only one that is a nucleotide analog, while the rest are nucleoside analongs
Definition

tenofovir

(popular in ART combo)

Term
which anti-retroviral drug does not require phosphorylation and binds noncompetitively to a hyrophobic pocket in a subunit of HIV 1 RT, is susceptible to a single aa change in the binding pocket, and are highly potent, but MUST be combined with at least two other agents to avoid resistance
Definition

non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

they are also eliminated by the liver (CYP3A4)

Term
which anti-retroviral drug is not effective against HIV 2
Definition
NNRTIs
Term
list the NNRTIs
Definition

nevirapine (NVP)

delavirdine (DLV)

efavirenz (EFV)

Term
which type of anti-retroviral drug is a chemical that inhibits the action of the viral aspartyl protease, preventing maturation of the virus and binds reversibly to the active site of the enzyme
Definition
protease inhibitors
Term
which group of anti-retroviral drugs has serious drug interactions, produces GI side effects (N/V/D), can increase blood glucose and lipid levels, and reduce bone mineral density
Definition
protease inhibitors
Term

list the protease inhibitors

which one is recommended to "boost" the activity of another PI

Definition

saquinavir

ritonavir - mostly used to decrease the metabolism of other PI drugs, because it is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor

atazanavir

darunavir

 

Term
which anti-retroviral is the only one that must be injected, prevents fusion of the virus with host membrane, is only active against HIV 1, and is typically only reserved for pts who have failed other ART because of its cost
Definition
enfuvirtide
Term
list the entry anti-retroviral drugs
Definition

enfuvirtide

maraviron

Term

which group of anti-retrovirals blocks the integration of viral DNA into cellular DNA, and is typically effectivde against both HIV 1 and 2

what is the main one in this group

Definition

integrase inhibitors (they bind to the integrase enzyme)

raltegravir

Term
what are the general characteristics of tNSAIDs
Definition

no tolerance, physical or psychological dependence

individual variability in response

inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX1 and 2)

(need to give the max recommened dose for atleast one to two weeks and then if they are still complaining of pain, you can stop that NSAID and try another)

Term

what are the two major disadvatages to giving a large dose of NSAIDS

and what are the advantages of giving an NSAID with an opioid

Definition

a larger dose of NSAIDS: doestn' give them any further relief, and they are at a greater risk of toxicity

 

combining the two: delays the response of the opioid, and not having to give as large a dose of the opioid, and they have different MOAs, therefore, not adding to one another's side effects

Term

what is the MOA of NSAIDS

and tNSAIDS specifically

Definition

they block the cyclooxygenase enzyme, inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, forcing all of the arachodonic acid to go down the leukotrienes pathways

tNSAIDS 

Term
what is the MOA of corticosteroids
Definition
they inhibit phospholipids from converting to arachidonic acid by phospholipase, resulting in a decrease in the production of prastaglandins and leukotrienes
Term
which COX is constitutive and which is not
Definition

COX1 is constitutive everywhere

COX2 is constitutive in the kidneys, but inducible in other locations via pain, fever, and inflammation

Term
what are the general PKs of NSAIDs
Definition
well absorbed, short half-life, zero-order kinetics, highly bound to plasma albumin, small Vd, forced alkaline diuresis (applies only to ASA)
Term
what are the therapeutic uses of NSAIDs
Definition

analgesia - the prevention of prostaglandin production decreases the amount of nociception sensitization

anti-inflammatory - prostaglandins are mediators of inflammation because they cause erythema and edema and pain

anti-platelet - PGI2 predominates after ASA administration compared to TXA2 and TXA2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator, while PGI2 is a potent vasodilator and platelet DEaggregator

primary dysmenorrhea - normally there is an increase in endometrial synthesis of PGE2 and PGF2 during menstruation causing the pain, cramps and HA

ductus arteriosus - PGs keep it opening while in the womb, but if it needs to be closed after birth, need to inhibit production of the PGs

Term
does ASA reversible or irreversibly bind to COX 1, 2 or both
Definition
it irreversibly binds to both COX1 and COX2
Term
what are the general adverse effects of NSAIDs
Definition

GI complications

cardiovascular complications

platelet function disturbances

allergic rxns

prolongation of gestation or delay in spontaneous labor, increases postpartum bleeding

hepatic issues

hematologic issues (very rare)

Term
what are the possible adverse effects related to the degree of selectivity of enzyme
Definition
if drug has greater affinity for COX2 you have a higher cardiovascular risk (BP increase, MI, thrombosis, stroke) and if the drug has a higher affinity for COX1 you have a higher GI risk (bleeding, ulcer complications, perforation)
Term
what is the MOA behind NSAIDs causing GI toxicity
Definition

NSAIDs inhibit PGI2 and PGE2 which causes an increase in acid secretion, a decrease in mucus prodcution (the main protective mechanism of the stomach against the acidity) and bicarb

the increased risk of bleeding is also caused by the antiplatelet effect of the drug

Term
risk factors for NSAID-related complications
Definition

>60 years

high dose of NSAIDs

previous Hx

concurrent use of glucocorticoids

anticoags and antiplatelets

choice of NSAID

Term
what is the effect of increased renal PGs
Definition

increased levels of PGs in the kidneys cause an increase in renal blood flow (because of their vasodilative effect) which increases the GFR, causing an increase in the excretion of water and Na out of the kidney - aka increase diuresis and natriuresis

 

Term
which NSAIDs have the highest disturbance in platelet function and which have the lowest
Definition

highest risk: ASA - causes an increased bleeding time for several days

lower risk: non-acetylated salicylates (sodium, salicyl, methyl, and choline salicylates), acetaminophen

Term
what in the body contains COX1 enzymes, but NOT COX2 enzymes
Definition
platelets do NOT have COX2 enzymes
Term
list the acetylated salicylates
Definition
ASA
Term

list the nonacetylated salicylates

Definition

Diflunisal

Salicylsalicylate

Methylsalicylate

Sodium salicylate

Magnesium choline salicylate

Term
list the nonsalicylate groups
Definition

propionic acids (ex - ibuprofen)

oxicams

acetic acid derivatives (ex - ketorolac)

Term
what is the selective COX2 inhibitor NSAID
Definition
celecoxib
Term
what are the benefits of tylenol compared to ASA
Definition
has less side effects of ASA, no antiplatelet effect, no allergice effect, no toxicity to the kidneys (however does have toxicity to the liver), very little toxicity to the GI, and is given to children <18yrs of age to prevent Reyes syndrome
Term
which NSAIDs are commonly used in r. arthritis, osteoarthritis, gouty arthritis, pain and inflammation due to trauma and infection, and are found as low-dose formulations of OTC drugs
Definition

naproxen (longest half life)

ibuprofen

ketoproen

all three are nonsalicylate NSAIDs (under the nonselective COX inhibitors)

Term
which drug is the most potent inhibitor or COX isozymes and is used to treat moderate to severe acute inflammatory conditions, r. arthritis, and occasionally for gout as well as PDA in infants
Definition

indomethacin (Indocin)

a nonsalicylate acetic acid derivative (a type of nonselective COX NSAID

Term
which NSAID has common, severe CNS side effects (including severe frontal HA, dizziness, vertigo, light headedness, mental confusion, severe depression, psychosis, hallucination because it mimics serotonin
Definition
indomethacin
Term
which NSAID is the first injectable NSAID (but can be used orally or topically) that is a potent analgesic used for moderate to severe post-operative pain, but has a limitation to its length of use (5 days) because of its toxicity to the kidneys and GI
Definition
ketorolac (toradol) a nonsalicylate acetic acid derivative
Term
what are the main differences between selective and nonselective COX inhibitors
Definition

selective COX2 inhibitor (celecoxib - Celebrex) does NOT have anti-platelet effects (and can be prescribed to pts on anticoag therapy)

 

also: pts allergic to ASA/NSAIDs may also show allergy to this drug, and it is NOT recommended for use in children, want to use minimal effective dose for the shortest possible time

Term
what are the possible side affects of selective COX2 inhibitors
Definition

at high enough doses, you can still inhibit COX1, hence adverse GI symptoms (diarrhea, nausea, dyspepsia, ABD pain, lower extremity edema (most common)

 

renal toxicity (similar to non selective NSAIDs)

 

prothrombosis - coxib increases the levels of TXA2 (posten vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator) while decreasing the levels of PGI2 (potent vasodilator and platelet deaggregator)

 

sulfa allergic rxn

Term
what are possible drug interactions when taking NSAIDs
Definition

tNSAIDs decrease the therapeutic efficacy of all anti-HTN drugs except CCB (because most anti-HTN drugs go through the pathway of PGs to work)

NSAIDs may increases the toxicity of lithium and methotrexate

celecoxib is contraindicated in pts allergice to sulfa drugs

Term
which group of drugs is capable of slowing the progression of joint erosions in pts with RA, have a slow onset of action and can cause considerable toxicity, and act by inhibiting the proliferation and activity of lymphocytes and polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Definition
DMARDs
Term
what DMARD is the most widely used and most effective, can be combined with other drugs of this class for enhanced activity and is generally well tolerated and can be used for chronic therapy
Definition
methotrexate
Term
what group of drugs has drugs in its class that bind to and inactivate TNF
Definition
etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab
Term
which type of DMARD decreases T-call activation and which blocks the biologic activity of IL1 by competitively inhibiting IL1 binding to IL1-R1
Definition

abatacept

anakinra

these drugs are administered intermittently by injection and appear to benefit many pts with RA, but all carry the risk of increased infections

Term
what are some of the DMARDs
Definition

gold salts

glucocorticoids

leflunomide

hydroxychloroquine

sulfasalazine

penicillamine

Term
what causes gout
Definition
it is caused by hyperuricemia and the deposition of urate crystals in joints
Term
which drugs increase uric acid excretion and which drug inhibits uric acid formation, all used to prevent gout attacks
Definition

uricosuric drugs (probenacid, and sulfinpyraszone)

 

allopurinol

Term
who is an acute gout attack treated
Definition
with an NSAID (indomethacin) or colchicine
Term
which drug inhibits the motility of leukocytes, thereby preventing leukocytes' migration into joints and their ability to cause urate crystal induced joint inflammation
Definition
colchicine
Term
what are the general characteristics of DMARDs
Definition

reduce/alter the course of RA

retard the progress of arthritic tissue destruction

common to combine with a tNSAID

Term
which DMARDs are TNF antagonists
Definition

the biological DMARDs:

adalimubab

infliximab

etanercept

Term
which DMARD is an immunosuppressive drug, has a relatively rapid onset of action compared to the others and has less toxcity that most other DMARDs, but is teratogenic
Definition
methotrexate - is the DOC by rheumatologists
Term
which DMARD decreases pyrimidine synthesis, is a prodrug, has high protein binding, and a very long half life (15-18 days), but has liver toxicity and is teratogenic
Definition
leflunomide
Term
which DMARDs have adverse effects of getting opportunistic infections (esp TB), liver disease, and having a severe allergy, and is usually given with methotrexate to keep the methotrexate active longer
Definition

TNF antagonists:

infliximab

etanercept

adalimimab

Term
what symptoms or conditions can promote the development of gout
Definition

obesity

weight gain

alcohol intake

high blood pressure

abnormal kidney function

certain drugs

Term
what are the three "aims" of gout treatment
Definition

antiinflammatory therapy - prompt, attempt to reverse the symptoms of an acute attack

antiinflammatory prophy - reverse/minimize the recurrence of the gout

antihyperuricemic therapy - prevent and reverse the consequences of the deposition of the uric crystals in the joints, kidneys, and tissues

Term
what are the types of antiinflammatory therapy used for treating gout
Definition

tNSAIDs (naproxen, ibuprofen, indomethacin)

colchicine

corticosteroid (intraarticularly or parenterally)

Term
which gout drug decreases phagocytosis and is a antimitotic drug that binds to tubulin, but has severe GI toxicity (diarrhea, ABD cramps, N/V)
Definition
colchicine
Term
when should colchicine be stopped when being used for the treatment of gout
Definition

pain and inflammation improve significantly within 24-36 hours

GI disturbance becomes intolerable - go to a corticosteroid

total dose teached 6 - 8 mg

Term
when should antiinflammatory prophy be considered in the treatment regimen for gout
Definition

when gout pts have frequent acute attacks (>3/year)

t has an attack during initial months of antihyperuricemic theray

before and after elective surgery

Term
which drug is DOC for antiinflammatory phrohy in gout pts
Definition

colchicine

then tNSAIDs

Term
what drugs are used for antihyperuricemic therapy in gout pts
Definition

uricosurics

xanthine oxidase inhibitors

Term
list the two main uricosurics that are antihyperuricemic drugs used in gout therapy
Definition

probenecid

sulfinpyrazone

they increase urate excretion

Term
list the two main xanthine oxidase inhibitors that are antihyperuricemic drugs used in gout therapy
Definition

allopurinol

febuxostate

Term
what are the two main potential complications of using antihyperuricemic drugs and how are these minimized
Definition

acute attack of gout during the initial days of tx; to minimize:

start antiinflamm prophy drug (colchicine) at same time

after an acute attack, delay the start in the antihyperuricemic

start with a lower therapeutic dose and gradually increase to max dose over weeks to moths

 

urate stone formation in the kidneys; to prevent:

excessive fluid intake (2-4 L/day)

Term
which gout drug increases the renal clearance of other organic acids, has a low toxicity, and should be avoided in peptic ulcer pts, and in pts with low urine output, low creatitine clearance (aka have impaired renal function)
Definition
probenecid
Term
which gout drug has antiplatelet activity (therefore good for pts with increased risk of thrombotic events), but causes GI complaints, should be avoided in peptic ulcer pts, and is more potent than its counterpart within the same class of drug
Definition

sulfinpyrazone

can be used to probenecid to have an additive effect

Term
which gout drugs prevent the breakdown of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid, therefore decreasing the plasma and urinary levels of uric acid and can be used in impaired renal function pts or noncompliant gout pts
Definition

xanthine oxidase inhibitors

allopurinol

febuxostat

Term
what drugs interact with allopurinol
Definition

azathioprine

ampicillin

cyclophosphamide (will induce bone marrow suppression)

Term
which gout drug is used for long-standing chronic gout and/or for pts who have been refractory to therapy, and is an enzyme that lower uric acid levels by its metabolic inactivation and urinary excretion, but has possible severe allergic rxns
Definition
pegloticase
Term

pain impulses are sent by primary afferent neurons to the spinal cord where ascending connections from the what project to the limbic structures and the cortex

(aka - what spinal tract is involved in sending pain info to the brain)

Definition
spinothalamic tract
Term
descending inhibitory fibers from the periaqueductal gray matter activate the midbrain and spinal cord nuerons to release what
Definition
enkephalins, serotonin, and norepinephrine
Term
besides analgesia, what are the other possible effects that opioid agonists can cause
Definition
they can cause sedation, euphoria, miosis, respiratory depression, peripheral vasodilation, constipation, drug dependence, antitussive, N/V
Term
which opioid recetor is primarily responsible for analgesic effects as well as respiratory depression and opioid dependence
Definition
the mu opioid receptor
Term

which opioid agonists (the "strong) act on the mu receptor

which ones are used in the treatment of severe or moderate pain

and which one is normally used in the treatment of opioid addiction

Definition

morphine, fentanyl, meperidine, and methadone

to treat severe to moderate pain: morphine, fentanyl, mepereidine

to treat addiction: methadone

Term

why are the "moderate" opioid agonists typically combined with a nonopioid analgesic

list these opioids

Definition

because the moderate opioid agonists produce maximally analgesia at doses that cannot be tolerated

codeine, hydrocodone, propoxyphene (they are used to treat moderate or mild pain)

Term
which opioid agonist is a dual action analgesic that activates opioid receptors and blocks neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
Definition
tramadol
Term
which drugs exhibit partial agonist or antagonist activity at mu receptors and exhibit agonist or antagonist activity at kappa receptors, and what are the benefits of these types of drugs
Definition

the mixed opioid agonist-antagonists: buprenorhine, butorphanol, nalbuphine, pentazocine

they produce less respiratory depression and are associated with a lower risk of drug dependence than full opioid agonists

Term
what are the opioid antagonists that are used to counteract the adverse effects of opioids in overdose or to prevent and treat alcohol and opioid dependence
Definition
naloxone and naltrexone
Term
how are opioids different from NSAIDs
Definition
opioids have a significant abuse potential (tolerance, physical and psychological dependence); they are more powerful analgesics but lack anti-inflammatory and antipyretic effects; have significant first pass metabolism; and their site of action is within the CNS
Term

presynaptically, activation of mu receptors blocks the opening or closing of voltage sensitive Ca channels;

postsynaptically, mu receptor activation enhances or inhibits the opening of K+ channels

Definition

activation of mu receptors presynaptically blocks the opening of voltage sensitive Ca channels

mu receptor activation postsynaptically enhances the opening of K+ channels

Term
when opioid agonists bind to the opioid receptor, does that cause cAMP levels to rise or decrease
Definition
the [  ] of cAMP decreases when an opioid 
Term
do opioids (the majority) narrow or widen airways and do they, or do they not release histamine
Definition
morphine and several others narrow airways and release histamine
Term
what are other factors that can create an additive effect to the side effect of respiratory depression (aka - what else can make respiratory depression worse or more likely)
Definition

other meds (sedatives), alcohol,

sleep (normally respirations decrease during sleep)

age (newborns and elderly are more sensitive to resp depression)

diseases (COPD, renal disease)

 

Term
what is the pathognominic finding of opioid overdose
Definition
miosis
Term
what are  the anti-dairrheal effects of opioid agonists
Definition
opioids decrease stomach motility, intestinal. biliary and pancreatic secretions, increases tones, decreases peristaltic contractions in the SB
Term
contraindications to opioid agonists
Definition
asthmatics, COPD, hypoxic conditions, head injury and craniotomy pts
Term
what are signs and symptoms of acute withdrawal to opioids
Definition

signs and symptoms that are opposite to the acute opioid effects:

ABD cramps, muscle aches, insomnia, hyperventilation, sweating, chills, fever, anorexia, muscle and join tpain, diarrhea, tachycardia

increase BP and hyperexcitability

Term
what are the meds you can use to treat the symptoms of opioid withdrawal
Definition

clonidine: autonomic symptoms

muscle relaxants: spasms and twitching

NSAIDs: aches

antiemetics: N/V

antidiarrheal bismuth subsalicylate: diarrhea

trazodone: insomnia

Term
which opioid has similar actions to morphine but causes little to no histamine release, therefore making it an ideal drug for pts dealing with pruritus or urticaria
Definition
oxymorphone
Term
which opioid may cause less N/V and constipation than morphine
Definition
hydromorphone
Term
which opioid agonist is much weaker than morphine but has a much more effective antitussive effect than morphine
Definition
codeine sulfate
Term
which opioid agonist mimics morphine, is more effective than morphine when given orally, has a longer duration of action, can be used for chronic pain, and is also used in detoxing heroin addicts
Definition

methadone HCL

(levomethadyl acetate - an analog of methadone, is also used for heroin detox, but has an even longer halflife than methadone)

Term
which opioid is extremely potent,  doesn't release histamine, has the ability to come as a skin patch (which shouldn't be given to fever pts) and is often used during some awake diagnositc procedures (bronchoscopy)
Definition
Term
which opioid agonist has a faster onset then morphine (but virtually identical to it), has no interference with uterine contractions, but has serious interactions with MAOI antidepressants and is less spasmogenic in biliary, GI and bronchial smooth muscles
Definition
meperidine (demerol)
Term
which opioid is a mu agonist that also blocks NE and serotonin reuptake, has a potent analgesic metabolite, does not release histamine, has less respiratory depression effects than morphine, and is only partially antagonized by naloxone
Definition
tramadol (ultram)
Term
what type of opioid drug(s) produces analgesia due to its kappa agonist action, but has weak competitive antagonisms at mu receptors; has a ceiling effect for respiratory depression and has a lesser propensity to produce physical dependence
Definition
mixed opioid agonist/antagonists and partial agonists
Term
what is the only mixed agonist-antagonist opioid drug that is avialable orally and parenterally; increases the workload of the heart, and can possibly cause hallucinations at high doses
Definition
pentazocine
Term
which opioid ANTAGONIST has the better oral bioavailability and a longer half life
Definition
naltrexone
Term
which anti-protozoal drug is good for anaerobic bacteria and anaerobic protozoans (is the DOC for amebiasis, gairdiasis, trichomoniasis, C diff); impairs DNA function leading to a strand breakage by formation of free radicals, inhibits the metabolism of warfarin, and can possibly cause steven's johnson syndrome and disulfiram-like rxn with alcohol
Definition
metronidazole
Term
which anti-protozoal drug has similar mechanism as metronidazole (damages DNA), is used for the same infections, plus metronidazole resistant trichomonas, has a longer half-life and is better tolerated (but still antabuse like rxns with alcohol), and requires shorter treatment periods
Definition
tinidazole
Term
which anti-protozoal drug has uses against giardiasis and cryptosporidosis (ADIS), inhibits pyruvate:ferredoxin oxidoreductase and has few drug interactions and is well tolerated
Definition
nitazoxanide
Term
which anti-protozoal drug is primarily used to treat luminal amebicides, is an aminoglycoside that is not absorbed and therefore stays in the GI tract and has same mechanism as neomycin and kanamycin (30S inhibitor)
Definition
paromomycin
Term
which anti-helmintic drug is effective against most worms (pin, whip, round, hook), uncouples oxidative phosphorylation (decreasing ATP levels), inhibits microtubule synthesis, KILLS the worm, is teratogenic in animals, and has effects with alcohol
Definition
mebendazole
Term
which anti-helmintic drug covers similar worms as mebendazole, but is better absorbed, induces P450s, more effective for microsporidosis, has a broader spectrum, and has better absorption with a high fat meal
Definition
albendazole
Term
which anti-helmintic drug is effective against intestinal medatodes, and paralyzes the worm (NOT kill) via cholinesterase inhibitor, and has a low absorptive ability
Definition
pyrantal pamoate
Term
which anti-helmintic drug paralyzes the worm by increasing membrane permeability to Ca, but can kill the worm when used in high doses, and has systemic absorption
Definition
praziquantel
Term
which anti-helmintic drug paralyzes the worm by increasing permeability of chloride ions, leading to hyperpolarization, has systemic absorption, and is teratogenic in animals
Definition
ivermectin
Term
with migraines - which occurs first, vasoconstriction, or vasodilation, and is the pain typically bilateral or unilateral
Definition
cerebral vasoconstriction and ischemia are followed by vasodilation, inflammation, and a unilateral, pulsatile HA
Term
what are some drugs used for migraine prophy
Definition

anticonvulsants (valproate)

antidepressants(amitriptyline)

NSAIDs (naproxen)

beta antagonists (propanolol)

CCBs (verapamil)

5HT receptor antagonists (methysergide)

Term
how long does it typically take for the benefit of drugs used as prophy to be observed
Definition
three to four weeks before benefits are observed
Term

what are some groups of drugs used for aborting migraines

and generally, how do these work

Definition

ergot alkaloids (ergotamine)

triptan drugs (sumatriptan)

these drugs stimulate 5HT receptors, this stimulation causes cerebral vasoconstriction, inhibits the release of peptides and other mediators of inflammation and vasodilation from trigeminal neurons, and inhibits activation of trigeminal nucleus in brain stem

 

other drugs include:

NSAIDs, opioid analgesics and isometheptene (sympathomimemtic)

Term
which group(s) of migraine drugs have the possibily of causing rebound HAs, and therefore require restriction of their dosage and frequency and are contraindicated in pts with CAD
Definition
ergot alkaloids and triptan drugs
Term

what are some common side effects of ergots

 

what are some common sid effects of triptans

Definition

ergots: N/V, and muscle cramps

 

triptans: chest tightness and drowsiness

Term

which drugs are effective against preventing cluster headaches

 

and which drugs are effective against aborting them

Definition

prevention:

lithium

methysergide

verapamil

 

aborting:

ergot alkaloids

sumatriptan

inhaled O2

intranasal lidocaine

glucocorticoids

Term
tension headaches respond to what tye of drugs
Definition
NSAIDs and muscle relaxants
Term
long term use of NSAIDs can lead to hepatic or renal toxicity or both
Definition
can lead to both hepatic and renal toxicity
Term
NSAIDs act primarily by inhibiting or activating COX and the synthesis or inhibition of prostaglandins
Definition
they act primarily by INHIBITING COX and the SYNTHESIS of prostaglandins
Term

nonselective COX inhibitors include:

and which one doesn't cause gastric irritation and bleeding and it's use doesn't cause peptic ulcer

Definition

acetaminophen, ASA, ibuprofen, indomethacin, ketoprofen, ketorolac, and naproxen

 

except for acetaminophen, all of these agents can cause gastric irritation and bleeding and their long term use can lead to peptic ulcers

Term
which NSAID is an effective analgesic and antipyretic agent, but lacks significant anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet activity
Definition
acetaminophen
Term
which NSAID has a minor metabolite that is hepatotoxic possibly causing fatal liver failure
Definition
acetaminophen
Term
what drug is used as an antidote for acetaminophen hepatotoxicity
Definition
acetylcysteine
Term
which NSAID has potent antiplatelet effects at low doses (bc it acetylates and irreversibly inhibits platelet COX), and produces analgesic and antipyretic effects at the same low dosage, but requires higher doses to counteract inflammation
Definition
ASA
Term

which drug causes tinnitus at high therapeutic doses, and hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis, followed my metabolic acidosis at toxic doses

 

what drug then counteracts the acidosis, increasing urinary excretion of salicylic acid

Definition

ASA

 

sodium bicarb

Term
which NSAID is a potent COX inhibitor that can be used to treat moderate to severe acute inflammatory conditions as well as for the closure of the ductus arteriosus in infants
Definition
indomethacin
Term
physical dependence, which results from neuronal adaptation to the continued presence of a drug, is usually associated with ________.  physical dependence results in a characteristic __________ when drug use in discontinued
Definition

drug tolerance

 

withdrawal syndrome

Term
T/F: alcohol and other CNS depressants produce motor and cognitive impairment, sedation, euphoria, and behavioral disinhibition
Definition
TRUE
Term
which drug with the potential of abuse produces altered tactile sensation and overdose and cause severe cardiovascular and neural toxicity
Definition
cocaine
Term
which drug of abuse produces a mild euphoria, talkativeness, conjunctivitis, and increased appetite
Definition
marijuana
Term
which drug with the potential of abuse causes hullucinations WITHOUT producing delirium
Definition
LSD
Term

the treatment of drug dependence and withdrawal can include some type of substitution therapy, such as:

(for alcohol, opioids, and cigarettes)

Definition

a benzodiazepine substituted for alcohol

methadone for an opioid

and nicotine chewing gum or skin patches for cigarettes

 

alcohol and opioid dependent pts can be treated with naltrexone (opioid antagonist that blocks opioid receptor link in dopamine reinforcement pathway) transdermal patches as well

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