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Pharm midterm
pharm midterm
276
Medical
Professional
10/18/2011

Additional Medical Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term
what is a drug?
Definition

anything that brings about a change in a biological system


Any agent approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment or prevention of disease.

Term
what is phase 1 in drug testing on humans?
Definition
study of 20-100 seeing if a drug is even safe in humans, pharmacokinetics
Term
what is phase two of human testing trial?
Definition

is it safe in PATIENTS with the disorder

 

100-200

Term
what is phase 3 testing?
Definition

does it WORK in patients, double blind studies

 

1000-6000 patients

Term
what is phase 4 of testing?
Definition

post marketing surviellance

 

selling to the population at large

Term
what is studied when a drug is researched on animal testing?
Definition

acute toxicity, possibly LD testing

 

chonic toxicity testing if drug is for long term

 

effect on reproduction

 

carcinogenisis/mutagenesis

 

mechanisms of toxicity

Term
what is pharmacodynamics?
Definition

effecs of a drug on the body

(mechanism of action magnitude of effect)

 

receptor binding

signaling mechanism

physiological effect

Term
what is pharmacokinetics?
Definition

effects of the body when on a drug

 

-absorption

-distribution

-metabolism

-excretion

Term
the majority of drugs are between 100-1000 MW size.  What dictates this?
Definition

lower limit set by requirement for sufficient selectivity

 

upper limit dictated by poor absorption nd distribution in the body

Term
what are 3 requirements of a drug when binding to its designated receptor?
Definition

must be selective in their binding properties

 

receptor becomes altered or modified when bound

 

binding of the drug initiates a series of events that leads to the observed functional change

Term
what is the most common target receptors?
Definition

proteins

 

ion channels

enzymes

transport proteins

protiens that bind neurotransmitters or hormones

Term
what are teh top 4 protein receptors targeted?
Definition

GPCR

 

nucear

 

ligand gated ion

 

voltaged gated ion

Term
how does non-nuclear estrogen signaling work?
Definition

estrogen binds which causes the phosphorylation of endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) leading to:

 

increase eNOS activity

increase NO production

Increase dilation

Term
how do receptor tyrosine kinases work?
Definition

in the ex. of epidermal growth factor receptor:

 

ligand binds extracellular domain which can then bind with another bound momomeric receptor to become active dimers

 

intracellular cytoplasmic enzyme domains then become activated and phosphorylate other substrate proteins

Term
how does a JAK kinase work?
Definition

just the same as a tyrosine kinase but kinase activity is not intrinsic to the receptor

 

Cytokine binding promotes receptor dimerization, phosphorylation and activation of associated Janus kinase (JAK)
 
 
 
JAK phosphorylates signal transducers and activation of transcription (STAT) molecules, which dimerize, travel to the nucleus and regulate gene expression 
Term
how does enbrel work?
Definition
acts as a decoy receptor for TNF alpha which promotes inflammation, thus reducing inflammation for rheumatory arthritis
Term
what is the magnitude of a drugs effect? 
Definition

 the amount of drug:receptor complexes formed.

 

Maximum effect is achieved when all receptors are occupied.

Term
what is the EC50?
Definition
drug dose that produces 50% of the max effect
Term
how does the EC50 relate to potency?
Definition
the lower the EC50 the higher the potency
Term

what is affinity?

 

How is potency affected by affinity?

Definition

affinity is the ability of the drug to bind its receptor site

 

The potency of a drug is dependent on the affinity of the drug for its receptor.

 

Drugs with a higher affinity are usually more potent.

Term
what is kd?
Definition

Kd = drug concentration required to bind 50% of the receptor sites in the system


the smaller the Kd the greater the drugs affinity --> potency = less drug needed to get a desired affect

Term
how does a competative antagonist shift the dose-response curve?
Definition

It shifts it to the R, increasing the EC50.

 

it is surmountable if enough agonist is added 

Term
can partial agonists have antagonistic activity?
Definition

YES

 

if a partial agonist is added with a full agonist, it will act as an antagonist to the full agonist causing a max partial agonist response rather than a full agonist response

Term
what are the effects of a noncompetitive antagonist on a dose-response curve?
Definition

Irreversible antagonist shifts the response curve downwards, reducing the maximal response.


The effects of an irreversible antagonist are insurmountable and cannot be overcome by adding more agonist

Term
what is the effect and binding properties of allosteric modulators?
Definition
Bind to a site on the receptor that is distinct from the agonist binding site
 
 
 
Have no direct activity on their own
 
Modulate the affinity of the agonist for the receptor or the level of receptor activation after agonist binding

- Increase response : Positive modulator

- Decrease response : Negative modulator
Term
how does a GABA receptor work?
Definition

chloride channel expressed on neurons that

  inhibits neuron function when activated

Term
what's an example of physiological antagonism?
Definition

Catabolic actions of glucocorticoid hormones can lead to increased blood sugar

 

Insulin acts at the insulin receptor to decrease blood sugar levels

 

Clinicians sometimes administer insulin to oppose the hyperglycemic effects of elevated glucocorticoid hormones levels.

Term
how do chemical antagonists work?
Definition
Interact directly with the drug/agonist

- Remove the drug from the system

-Prevent the drug from binding to its receptor
-
Examples:
-Protamine sulfate: reverses anticoagulant effects of heparin by stably binding to it, dissociates heparin from antithrombin III
-Dimercaprol: binds to and chelates lead, arsenic and other toxic metals, chelated metal is excreted in the urine
Term
what are chemical and physiological antagonists classified as?
Definition
non receptor antagonists
Term
what is the effect of spare receptors and irreversable antagonists?
Definition

When 5 receptors need to be filled to reach a max response and if the irreversable antagonists have bound 3 out of 10 receptors you can increase the drug to still reach that response, this is true even if 5 of ten are bound.  

 

When there are less than 5 receptors available to be bound due to irreversable antagonists, you can no longer reach a max response and your curve is further pushed to the right.

Term
why are there spare receptors?
Definition
Allows the maximal response to occur without total receptor occupancy which increases the sensitivity of the system
Spare receptors can bind up any extra agonist preventing an excessive response if too much agonist is present
Term

in a system with spare receptors what is the ED50 to Kd ratio?  

 

What does this mean?

Definition

ED50< Kd

 

there is more sensitivity to the agonistand maximum effect is achieved before all receptors are occupied

 

when there are no spare receptors

ED50 = Kd

Term
what is efficacy?
Definition
the maximum effect a drug/agonist can produce
Term

what is drug threshold?  

 

How is it the inverse of spare receptors?

Definition
Allows the maximal response to occur without total receptor occupancy which increases the sensitivity of the system

Spare receptors can bind up any extra agonist preventing an excessive response if too much agonist is present

.  As you bind more receptors you don’t produce an effect at all until a certain percentage of receptors are bound.

 

 

drug threshold decreases the sensitivity of a system to agonist

 

 

Term
how does a drug threshold affect ED50 to Kd?
Definition

With a drug threshold, EC50 > Kd


drug threshold decreases the sensitivity of a system to agonist

Term

what is tachyphylaxis?

Definition
Frequent or continuous exposure to agonists over a short period of time often can result in a rapid reduction in the receptor response =  DESENSITIZATION
Term
what is pharmacokinetic tolerance?
Definition

change of responsiveness at the drug level

 

Decreased absorption

Decreased penetration to site of action

Increased metabolism

Increased clearance


The amount of drug that reaches the site of action is decreased

Term
what is pharmacoynamic tolerance?
Definition

responsiveness change at the receptor level

 

Change in receptor

 

Receptor uncoupled from signaling pathway   

 

Total number of receptors in the system is decreased

Term
what is the effect of Beta arrestin binding to a GPCR?
Definition

prevents G protein from from interacting with the receptor.  Uncoupling the receptor .  The receptors can also be internalized and be degraded by lysosomes. This leads to an overall decrease in the total number of receptors.

Term
how are quantal drug doses different from graded drug doses?
Definition

Quantal doses give an all or none effect

 

graded increases doses give a incremental increase in effect

Term
how is a quantal dose discovered?
Definition
testing the population and finding the mean minimal dose required to produce a specified effect for all members of a population
Term
how is an ED50 determined for a quantal-dose reponse plot?
Definition

ED50 = effective dose at which 50% of subjects respond               a drug with a high potency has a low ED50

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
how is a therapeutic index calculated?
Definition

dose toxic effect

=   _________________

dose therapeutic effect                                                                

 

 

 

The higher the TI, the safer the drug

Term

If TI ≤ 2.0, the drug is considered to have a narrow therapeutic index (NTI) What are 4 drugs in use with a NTI?

Definition

Lithium - bipolar disorder

 

Warfarin - prevents blood clots

 

Digoxin – congestive heart failure

 

Theophylline- respiratory diseases such as asthma

Term
what is a theraputic window?
Definition

Index used for estimation of drug dosage

 

Defined range of drug concentration at which the desired effect occurs within the safety range.

 

Below the therapeutic window there is little effect and above the toxicity is greater than the desired effect

 

Typically the range is between ED50 and TD50

Term

what is the calculation for Kd?

 

What is it for EC50?

Definition

Kd= 1/affinity


EC50 = 1/potency

Term
in Pharamacokinetics what are the 4 main ways the body acts on a drug?
Definition

absorption

 

distribution

 

metabolism

 

excretion

Term

bioavailability is a measure of the drug available to the systemic circulation over time after administration.  How is it measured?

 

 

 

Definition

AUCoral

=________

 

AUC iv

Term
what things determine a drugs ability to diffuse?
Definition
1.Size
2.Area
3.Lipid solubility
4.Thickness
5.Concentration gradient
Term

 what is pKa?

Definition

pKa is the pH value at which [protonated]=[nonprotonated]

Term
if you want to give a drug as a weak acid, where is the best environment for it?
Definition

For weak acids, if pH is low (< pKa), lots of H+ are around, which drives A toward HA and absorption is favored.

Term
what if weak bases are added to an acidic environment?
Definition

For weak bases, if pH is low (< pKa), lots of H+ are around, which will drive B toward BHand


absorption is disfavored

Term
what controls a drugs distribution through the body?
Definition

1. Different tissues have different blood perfusion rates;


2. For the same tissue, different drugs have different partition ratio;


3. For the same drug, different tissues have different partition ratio.


4. Blood flow can dictate how fast a drug saturates a tissue.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. Partition ratio Kp determines the maximum amount of distribution at a tissue 

 

Term
what is the tissue/blood partition ration Kp?
Definition

  Kp = Ctissue/Cvenous-blood (at equilibrium)

Term
what dictates drug distribution to the brain?
Definition
BBB
Term

what is the PK concept of volume of distribution (Vd)?

 

how is it calculated?

Definition

  Vd: The volume of fluid in which a drug would need to be dissolved (homogenously) in order to have the same concentration in that volume as it does in plasma.


Vd= amount of drug in body/plasma [drug]

Term
what is the major site of 1st pass metabolism?
Definition
the liver
Term
what is the reason for Phase I metabolism?
Definition

functionalization:

 

oxidation

reduction

hydrolysis

Term
what happens in phase II metabolism of drugs?
Definition

The products of phase I functionalization are conjugated, commonly with endogenous molecules like glucuronic acid.  The reason for this is to make a hydrophilic compound that can be excreted. 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
do all metabolic processes result in a diminution of pharmacological activity for a given drug?
Definition

No

 

some such as 5FU become active.  This is known as bioactivation 

Term
what is metabolic toxicity?
Definition

when a drug becomes a toxin due to metabolism

 

This is the case for acetominophen being metabolized to NAPQI.  Sulfhydryl groups can be attacked by NAPQI.  Large amounts can lead to liver damage when it nucleophilicaly attacks proteins

Term
what type of enzymes are responsible for phase II metabolism?
Definition
transferases
Term
what are the three major liver CYP40's?
Definition

 

CYP2C9 - metabolizes weakly acidic drugs

 

 

 

 

 

 

CYP2D6 - metabolizes weakly basic drugs

 

 

CYP3A4 - metabolizes practically everything else

 

 

 

 

 

Term

what is the main function of cytochrom P450 enzymes? 

 

Where are they found?

Definition

Catalyzing oxidative metabolism reactions (Phase I)

 

found in the liver sitting on the ER membrane of hepatocytes

Term
in metabolic rxns for phase I, where do oxidation rxns occur mostly?
Definition
at carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur centers
Term
for metabolic rxns in Phase I, where do hydrolysis rxns occur?
Definition
mainly on esters which serve as delivery systems for prodrugs
Term
for metabolic rxns in Phase I, where do reduction rxns occur mostly?
Definition
the same as oxidation rxns, at carbon nitrogen and sulfur centers
Term
what are the 6 major conjugation rxns in phase II metabolism?
Definition
1.Glucuronidation
 
2.Sulfation
3.Acetylation
4.Methylation
5.Glutathione conjugation
6.Amino acid conjugation
Term
what is enzyme induction?
Definition

 An increase in the steady-state concentration of enzyme following exposure to an appropriate stimulus


ex. for someone who drinks a lot of alcohol, they will have raised CYP levels for dealing with OH reduction

Term
what are causes of enzyme induction?
Definition

  Chemicals |  drugs | xenobiotics

·  Diet | Nutritional factors

·  Biological rhythms (stress/pregnancy)

Term
what are some mechanisms of P450 induction (which presumably could be the same for other enzymes)?
Definition

(1) Increased rate of transcription/gene expression of P450s


(2) Decreased rate of degradation of P450 protein products


(3) Increased rate of translation of P450 protein products

Term
what is enzyme inhibition?
Definition

Loss or decrease of the drug-metabolizing enzymatic activity following exposure to stimuli

  

 

 

 

 

ex: GFJ induces CYP3A4 protein degradation

 

 

 

Term
what are major excretory routes 
Definition

urine

 

bile

 

feces

 

expired air

Term
what are minor excretory routes?
Definition

sweat

 

saliva

 

milk 

 

tears

Term

what does the bile system typically excrete?

 

what are 2 examples?

Definition

highly polar organic anions and cations (and some neutral molecules) with molecular weights greater than 300-500



ex: Glucuronate and sulfate derivatives of steroids

Term
how are drugs that are excreted by the bile reabsorbed into circulation and returned to the liver?
Definition

Intestinal glucuronidases and sulfatases can convert drug metabolites back to the free drug.

 

Intestinal bacteria can facilitate this process

Term
what is the kinetic order of drug elimination equation?
Definition

dA/dT = −KAn

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
what is a zero order elimination?
Definition

when n = 0

 

this means that A (amount of drug) has a decreasing LINEAR relationship with t at any given time.

 

The rate of drug elimination is constant


 

 

Zero order kinetics suggests that

the elimination process is saturated

 

Term
what is a 1st order elimination?
Definition

when n = 1

 

The amount of drug decreases exponentially as time goes

 

The rate of drug elimination (dA/dt) is proportional to the (remaining) amount of drug

 

 

 

 

 

Term

If drug elimination has first-order kinetics, how long does it take to have 95% of the drug to be removed after a single dose?

Definition

0 = 100

 

1 = 50

 

2= 25

 

3 = 12.5

 

4 = 6.25

 

5 = 3.125

Term
what are the differences between zero order and 1st order kinetics?
Definition

rate of elimination:

zero = constant, 1st = dependent on A

 

limination rate constant:

zero = mg/hr, 1st = hr

 

half life (t1/2):

zero = n/a, 1st = constant

 

relationship between A and T

zero = linear, 1st = exponential

Term
what's the practical way to monitor drug in the body?
Definition

Measure plasma drug concentration Cplasma (Cp).

 

What is Cp equal to? 

 

Amount plasma/volume plasma

Term

is the amount of the drug in the plasma equal to the amount of the drug in the body?     

Definition
NO
Term
because the amount of drug in plasma isn't equal to the amount of drug in the body, how do we measure the amount of drug in the body?
Definition

A = A0e−Kt

Term
if we want to know the amount of drug in the volume of the body, what equation do we use?
Definition

volume of distribution =

 

Vd = amount of drug in the body/ plasma drug concentration

Term
what is the concept of Clearance?
Definition

 

 

 

 

 

 

a measure of the efficiency of irreversible removal of a drug by an eliminating organ



CL = rate of elimination/plasma [drug]

 

 

 

 

 

 

Term
what are the rules of clearance?
Definition

CL is a constant for first-order kinetics


CL is dependent on the drug and the condition of the eliminating organ

Term
what are the two ways of determining renal clearance of a drug in relationship to the GFR?
Definition

if excretion > creatinine clearance = active secretion

 

if excretion < creatinine clearance = reabsorption or plasma protein bound

Term
what is CL?
Definition

CL = (dA/dt)/Cp = −KA / (A/Vd) = − KVd ß ml min−1

 

so CL can be considered as a fraction of Vd that

gets cleared in unit of time.   

Term
how does clearance relate to half-life?
Definition

        Since t½ = 0.693 / K  &   CL= K Vd

 

  CL = 0.693Vd / t½      or  t½ = 0.693Vd / CL

Term

what does  t½ = 0.693Vd / CL

 mean?

Definition
the half life is proportional to the volume of distribution and inversely proportional to the clearance
Term

what does CL = 0.693Vd / t½      

 mean?

Definition
For two drugs with the same half-life, if one has a larger volume of distribution, it will require higher clearance for elimination
Term
how many half lives are needed to reach a steady state?
Definition

4−5 half-lives are required to achieve a steady state level.


3−4 half-lives are adequate to achieve an effect indistinguishable to the steady state effect

Term
If Css is the target Cp what should the dosing rate be?
Definition

Dosing ratess = CL X Css

 

 

meaning that in a steady state the dosing rate must be equal to the rate of elimination

Term
what is the goal of the loading dose?
Definition

to rapidly achieve therapeutic concentration


Loading dose = Vd X Ctarget

 (Cp=A / Vd)

Term

what are the differences in dosing rate between:

 

IV

intermintent

Oral

Definition

Iv: dosing rate = infusion rate

 

intermittent: dosing rate =

maintenance dose/dose interval

 

Oral dose: dosing ratess= dosing rateoralx bioavailability

Term
what is the enzyme used to make acetylcholine?
Definition

choline acetyl transferase

 

takes choline and Acetyl CoA and makes Ach

Term
what is the function of Hemicholinium-3?
Definition
blocks choline  uptake, depletes ACh
Term
what is the difference between botulinum toxin A and toxin B?
Definition

A cleaves a protein on the nerve terminal

 

B cleaves a protein on the synaptic vessicle

Term
what are some uses for botulinum?
Definition

Persistent muscle spasms

Poststroke spasticity

Treatment of hyperhidrosis

Healing of anal fissure

Migraine headaches

Neurogenic detrusor overactivity

Elimination of facial wrinkles

Term
what happens if you denervate a muscle fiber?
Definition
the AchR on the fibers increase x20
Term
what are therapeutic uses of neuromusclar blockers?
Definition
Bind to nAChR and block neuromuscular transmission
Muscle relaxants during surgery
Facilitate manipulations during realignment of fractures
Decrease physical trauma during electroshock therapy
Usually given IV; not active after oral administration
Doesn’t act on CNS
Term
what are the toxic effects of neuromusclar blockers?
Definition
Neuromuscular blockade- respiratory paralysis
While relatively specific for neuromuscular nAChR, can block nAChR in autonomic ganglia- arrhythmia (tachycardia) and hypotension
d-tubocurarine can cause histamine release-hypotension and bronchial spasm
 
Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines interfere with Ca influx and ACh release and act synergistically with N-M blockers
 

RESPIRATORY FAILURE AND CV COLLAPSE!!!!!!

Term
What are Tx options for NM blocks?
Definition
Competitive antagonists: Treat with AChE Inhibitors: Increase ACh levels, overcome competitive blockade
Term
what have non-competitive AchE inhibitors been used for?  What are two examples?
Definition

the Tx of Alzheimers (counter act the effect of the loss of cholinergic neurons)

 

Tacrine- first drug  approved for treatment of Alzheimer’s; many actions in addition to AChE inhibition; high incidence of liver toxicity

 

Donepezil- more specific for inhibition of AChE; delays progression of symptoms; side effects- diarrhea, etc.-  expected based on cholinergic stimulation

Term

myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that forms Abs against the nAchR decreasing # and function at the NMJ.  What are tx options?

 

What should be given concurrently?

Definition

AChE Inhibitors- increase [ACh] at the NMJ- improves efficiency of NM transmission (neostigmine, pyridostigmine)

 

  Also: use a muscarinic receptor antagonist (e.g., atropine) to counter effects of increased ACh at muscarinic synapses

Term
what is a good diagnosisng drug for Myas. gravis?
Definition
endrophonium is a short acting AchE inhibitor causing transient improvement
Term
what are the two sympathetic systems that don't follow the normal rules?
Definition

sweat glands

 

adrenal medulla

Term
what is the affect of Ach by the parasympathetic on the SA node?
Definition

mAchR increases K+ permeamiability slowing rate of diastolic depolarization

 

Ach decreases the rate of the atrial action potential

(decreases Ca entry & force of contraction)

Term
how does the sympathetic cause dilation of the eye?
Definition

relaxation of the ciliary muscles decreasing curvature of the lens

 

opposite effect for PSNS

Term
What are indicators of abnormal autonomic function?
Definition
Resting Heart Rate  > 90 beats/min
Inability to achieve 85% of predicted maximal HR (220-age) on treadmill testing
Abnormal HR recovery (failure to decrease HR≥ 12 bpm during first minute after peak exercise)
Abnormal HR variability (failure to change HR by ≥10 bpm during 1 minute of slow deep breaths)
Term
is ChAT made only by neurons?
Definition

No

 

  -Airway epithelial cells

  -Vascular endothelial cells

  -Keratinocytes

  -T-cells

  -Urothelial cells

  -Placenta

  -Various human cancer cell lines and tumors

Term
what are 4 choline esters?
Definition

acetylcholine

 

carbachol 

 

bethanecol

 

methacholine

Term
what are the actions of choline esters?
Definition
Vasodilation- blood vessels have mAChR
Heart: low doses cause reflex tachycardia; very high doses can cause bradycardia
Increase tone, motility, secretions from GI tract
Bronchoconstriction
Cause miosis
Increase secretions from exocrine glands
Term
what 3 ways does mAChR cause vasodilation?
Definition

causes release of NO which diffuses to SM where it activates cGMP which lowers cell [Ca]

 

also causes release of endothelial derived hyperpolarizing factor.  EDHF is a c type naturietic peptide that activates K+ channels causing hyperpolarization of SM causing relaxation of small diameter vessels

 

release of H2S causes smooth muscle relaxation

Term
what are therapeutic uses of choline esters?
Definition
GI stimulant (bethanechol)
Miosis- extraction of  cataracts and treatment of glaucoma
Diagnosis (MeCh):
Airways hyperreactivity
Term
pilocaprine, a muscarinic agonist, can be used for what therapeutic uses?
Definition
Miosis- treatment of glaucoma
 
Increase salivation for treatment of dry mouth
Term
what are the benefits of using AchE inhibitors?
Definition
Ophthalmology- produce miosis to increase drainage of aqueous humor in glaucoma
GI & Urinary Tracts- increase tone and motility (e.g., in paralytic ileum and acute colonic pseudo-obstruction)
Treat toxic effects of muscarinic antagonists

Term
Why does Atropine have a biphasic dose-response curve?
Definition

1. CNS- Low doses of atropine may act preferentially in the CNS to increase parasympathetic outflow

 

2. Presynaptic effect- Low doses of atropine may act preferentially on presynapticmAChR on parasympathetic terminals, resulting in increased ACh release onto the heart

Term
how do low doses of Atropine affect the mAchR?
Definition
they block it causing more Ach to be available for the mAchR leading to bradycardia
Term
what do high doses of atropine cause?
Definition

Block mAChR on heart-

Block effects of ACh, increases HR

Term
what are toxic effects of tertiary mAchR antagonists?
Definition
Visual problems
Constipation and urinary retention
Glaucoma in predisposed individuals
Hallucinations and delirium
Decreased sweating and salivation
(Erectile problems/impaired vaginal lubrication)
Term
what are differences between quaternary antagonists vs tertiary
Definition

1. 4° antagonists not lipid soluble (tertiary more soluble):

  -don’t act on CNS after systemic administration

  -more poorly absorbed from the GI tract

 

2. 4° antagonists may block nAChR at:

  -NMJ, interfere with respiration

  -autonomic ganglia, can cause hypotension

Term
what is the history between mAchR antagonists and asthma?
Definition
mAChR antagonists were a main therapy in asthma
Bronchodilation
But: decrease secretions and mucous clearance- more prone to infections
Ipatropium:
4° ammonium, inhaled
Bronchodilation without inhibiting ciliary clearance of mucous
Term
what are the effects of Ipratropium?
Definition
Quaternary ammonium mAChR antagonist
Causes bronchodilation
Poorly absorbed into general circulation after inhalation (so- little effect on bronchial secretions, heart, CNS, etc.)
Can be used for asthma and COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
Sometimes combined with ß2-adrenergic agonist
Term
what are the main subtypes of mAchR and what are their functions?
Definition
M1- in sympathetic ganglia (and adrenal medulla), activated by McN-A-343, blocked by pirenzepine
M2- cardiac mAChR; can contribute to contraction of some smooth muscles; a presynaptic receptor on some nerve terminals
M3- mediates contraction of smooth muscle, relaxation of vasculature, and secretion from many glands
Term
what is the main use of cevimeline?
Definition
Selective M3 agonist
Used for treatment of xerostomia and Sjorgren’s syndrome
Long-lasting sialogogic agent
May have fewer side effects than pilocarpine
Term
what is the main use of Tiotropium?
Definition
Selective M3 antagonist
Very slow dissociation from M3mAChR
4° antagonist
like ipratropium, is an inhaled bronchodilator
Used for treatment of COPD
Term
what cells store histamine?
Definition
basophils, mast cells, enterochromafin cells
Term
what turns histadine into histamine?
Definition
histidinedecarboxylase (HDC)
Term
what are the 3 types of GPCRs and what are their functions?
Definition
Gaq -> phospholipase C -> ­ PIP2 hydrolysis -> ­ IP3/DAG --> ­ PKC/Ca2+
Gas --> ­ increase adenylylcyclase --> ­cAMP --> ­ PKA
Gai -> decrease adenylylcyclase -> decrease cAMP --> decrease in PKA
Term

where are H1 receptor subtypes found?  

 

What type of receptor is H1?

Definition

smooth muscle

endothelium

brain

 

Gq

Term

what type of histamine subtype receptor is H2?

Where is it found?

Definition

gastric mucosa, heart, mast cells, brain

 

Gs

Term
where are H3 receptors found, what type are they?
Definition

brain, myenteric plexus

 

Gi

Term

where are H4 receptors found, what type are they?

Definition

immune cells

 

Gi

Term
what is histamines affect on the CV system?
Definition

anaphylaxis

 

lower blood pressure

 

H1, H2 both lead to vasodilation

 

H2 in SA node increases HR and increases spontaneous action potential

Term
what is Histamines affect in the nervous system?
Definition

it has all subtypes but H4

 

Stimulates sensory nerve endings
Pain/itching
Sleep regulation: posterior hypothalamus releases histamine ècortex/medial forebrain bundle èarousal/wakefulness
 
 
Memory consolidation/loss

Drinking, temperature regulation, appetite

Term
what is H1's function in the lungs and GI?
Definition

increase bronchoconstriction

 

increase GI contraction

Term
what is H2's effect on gastric secretions?
Definition
increase gastric acid and pepsin
Term
what is H3's effect on metabolism?
Definition
as an inhibitor it lowers food intake
Term
what is the functional use of Betahistadine?
Definition

is an H1 agonist

 

H1 stimulation in inner ear -> vasodilation -> ­ vascular permeability -> ­ increases endolymphatic drainage

Term
what is betazole used for?
Definition
H2 receptor agonist which is diagnostic for H2-stimulated gastric secretion
Term
how are H1 receptor antagonists separated?
Definition

between 1st generation and 2nd gen.

 

1st generation antagonists cause sedative effects

Term
what are the main important properties of H1 1st generation antagonists?
Definition

most are OTC and safe

 

rapidly absorbed (1-2h) with a wide range of duration (2-24h)

 

readily penetrate CNS

 

have mild to marked sedative effects

Term
what are 1st generation antihistamine uses?
Definition
H1 antagonism - anti-allergenic
anti-cholinergic: muscarinic receptor antagonism
sedation/drowsiness ®sleep aid
inhibit Parkinson-like side effects of D2 antagonists
anti-emetic/nausea: prevent motion sickness
Term
what are 1st generation anti histamine side effects?
Definition
hallucinations, convulsions, flushing, urinary retention, tachycardia, dry mouth, coma
Term

ethanolamines are a 1st generation antihistamine.

 What are 3 commonly used ones?

Definition
carbinoxamine (Clistin)
dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)
diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

 

 

high amount of sedation involved

Term
what type of drug is piperazine?
Definition

1st gen antihistamine

 

hydroxyine

 

used for motion sickness and anxiety

 

non OTC

Term
what type of drug is ethylenediamine?
Definition

a 1st gen anti histamine

 

active drug is pyrilamine 

 

moderate sedation

 

MIDOL

 

Term
what type of drug are alkylamines?
Definition
 
 
 
 
1st generation  antihistamine

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
OTC for allergy, common cold, rhinitis
slight sedation: best for daytime use
 
 
 
potentiate analgesia
Term
under what category is brompheniramine?
Definition
alkylamine
Term
what type of drugs are phenothiazine?
Definition

PROMETHAZINE

 

1st gen anti histamine

 

phenothiazine derivative
strong sedation
non-OTC
pre-operative anesthetic: Na+ channel blocker
α-adrenergic blockade: orthostatic hypotension
used for severe motion sickness
Term
what is cyproheptadine?
Definition
1st generation piperidine
anti-serotonin effects
used for adolescent migraine
used for Cushing’s syndrome
lead compound for 2nd generation H1-antagonists
Term
what are the functional uses for 2nd generation anti histamines?
Definition
drugs of choice for allergy
increased selectivity for H1-receptor
non-sedating
zwitterionic at pH 7.4
poorly cross blood brain barrier
Term
what are the uses of H3 antagonists?
Definition
stimulant, nootropic effects
 
on trial to treat neurodegeneration (AD), ADHD, schizophrenia, sleep disorders (i.e. narcolepsy), obesity
 
clobenpropit, ABT-239, ciproxifan, A-349,821
Term
what are drug interactions that can occur with H1 antagonists from 2nd gen drugs?
Definition
2nd generation anti-histamines: lethal ventricular arrhythmias
terfenadine (Seldane®), astemizole (Hismanal®)
DDIs with ketoconazole, itraconazole, macrolide antibiotics
bergamottin®grapefruit juice
CYP3A4
Term
what is direct regulation of gastric acid secretion?
Definition

1. vagus nerve increases Ach to M3 receptor activating Gq increasing calcium which increases H+ pump

 

2. In the antrum, g cells are stimulated to release gastrin which binds to CCK2 receptors and CCKB receptors which stimulate Gs causing an increasein Ca and a release of H+

 

3. ECL cells release histamine onto H2 receptors of parietal cells causing them to stimulate Gs receptors which increase cAMP and increase H/K pump activity

Term
what are indirect ways (non parietal cells) of gastric acid secretion?
Definition

vagus nerves increase antrum Ach which increase GRP

 

This leads to increase in gastrin and a decrease in somatostatin which indirectly causes an increase in gastrin

 

increased levels of gastrin and Ach lead ECL cells to increase histamine release

Term
what is negative feedback for GA secretion?
Definition

increased acid in the antrum leads to activation of D cells to release somatostatin which binds to the ST2 receptor (Gi) on g cells lowering cAMP levels & gastrin release

 

The ST2 receptor is also on ECL cells causing a decreased release of histamine

 

these actions lower the acid in the fundus

Term
what are examples of acid peptic disorders?
Definition
1.GastroesophagealReflux Disease (GERD)
2.Peptic/Gastric Ulcer
3.Stress-related mucosal injury
Term
where are the targets of gastrin?
Definition
CCK-B receptors on ECL cells and parietal cells
Term
what are the symptoms of GERD?
Definition

heart burn

acid regurgitation

sore throat

 

causes a lower anti-reflux barrier and esophageal sphincter function

Term
what is the physiology of a peptic ulcer?
Definition
damage to gastroduodenal mucosa,                                   erosion of lining (gastritis)
aggressive factors > defensive factors
Term
what are causes of peptic ulcers?
Definition
h. pylori, alcohol abuse, NSAIDs, radiation, smoking, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, stress (?)
Term
what are treatment goals for a peptic ulcer?
Definition
neutralize stomach pH
 lower GA secretion
 lower H. pylori infection
provide mucosal protection
promote mucosal healing
lifestyle changes
Term
what are the two types of antacid formulations?
Definition

Carbonates: NaHCO3, CaCO3

Alka-Seltzer®, Maalox®, Pepto-Bismol®, Rolaids®, Tums®
­CO2 in stomach ®­belching/gas
Toxicity: metabolic alkalosis, kidney stones, milk-alkali syndrome
 
Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxides:
Al(OH)3, Mg(OH)2
Al(OH)3 = Gaviscon®, Equate®, Mylanta®
Mg(OH)2 = Milk of Magnesia®, Rolaids®, Maalox®
 increased gas/belching, alkalosis
AlCl3 =  increased ­constipation
MgCl2 = increased diarrhea
Term
H2 receptor antagonist work as modifaction structures for histamine.  What are two well known ones?
Definition
Ranitidine (Zantac®)
Famotidine (Pepcid®)
Term
what is the clinical use for H2 antagonists?
Definition
highly selective: no effects at H1, H3, H4
inhibit 60-70% of GA secretion in 24 hr period
heartburn, GERD, peptic/gastric ulcer, stress-related bleeding
Term
what are the pharmacokinetics for H2 antagonists?
Definition
serum t 1/2 = 1-4 hours
1st pass metabolism in liver; 50% bioavailability
minimal side effects (<3% patients)
diarrhea, headache, fatigue, myalgias,
constipation
Term
what are the current drugs of choice for GA disorders above H2 receptor antagonists?
Definition

proton pump inhibitors

 

irreversible inhibition of action at H/K pump

Term
what are two main proton pump inhibitors?
Definition

omeprazole (prilosec)

 

pantoprazole (protium)

Term
what is the clinical use for PPIs?
Definition
inhibit 90-98% of 24 hour acid secretion
heartburn, GERD, peptic/gastric ulcer (NSAID, H. Pylori induced), stress-related bleeding, gastrinoma
rapid symptom relief, ulcer healing
GERD, peptic ulcers: effective in 80-90% of patients
Term
what are the pharmacokinetics of PPIs?
Definition

serum t 1/2 = 0.5 - 2 hoursminimal side effects (<5% patients)

diarrhea, headache, abdominal pain
¯vitamin B12, Ca2+, Iron, Zinc absorption
Term
what are mucosal protective agents used for?
Definition
potentiate endogenous mucosal repair/defence mechanisms
Term
what are the 3 main mucosal rotective agents?
Definition

bismuth

 

sucralfate

 

prostaglandin analogs

 

Term
what's the deal with sucralfate?
Definition
sucrose sulfate-aluminum salt complex
reacts with HCl in stomach
forms viscous paste acid buffer
forms complexes with albumin/fibrinogen ® protective barrier
Dose: 1 g/qd
Uses: gastric/duodenal ulcers, stress-related GI bleeding
Side effects: constipation, flatulence
Term
misoprotol is a prostaglandin analog.  How does it work?
Definition
• increase mucus/bicarbonate secretion
­increase mucosal blood flow
MOA: activate PG-E3/E4 receptors on parietal cells= Gai --> decrease levels of cAMP --> counter histamine effects
Use: NSAID-induced ulcers; gastric/peptic ulcer patient using NSAIDs

 Adverse Effects: diarrhea, abdominal pain

Term
bismuth compounds such as peptobismol are used when?
Definition
Oral, liquid/gel caps; antacid
¯inflammation/irritation of GI lining; protective coat
Use: H.pylori eradication cocktail (Bismuth, PPI, tetracycline, metronidazole); dyspepsia, acute diarrhea
Adverse Effects: black tongue/stools; Reyes syndrome
Term
what are prokinetic agents and what are they used for?
Definition
Uses: GERD, irritable bowel syndrome, gastritis, dyspepsia
Metoclopramide (Maxolon®)
5-HT4 receptor agonist/D2 receptor antagonist
increases intestinal motility, releases pyloric sphincter
Toxicity: extrapyramidal effects
Term
what is the function of lipoprotien lipase?
Definition

hydrolysis of lipids, chylomicrons - VLDL, into capillaries

 

upon hydrolysis, TGs are removed

Term
what is the fate of VLDLs upon hydrolysis?
Definition

TGs are removed and become IDLs.  IDLs can either go to the liver or give up more TGs and become LDLs.

 

LDLs are high in cholesterol, low in TGs

Term
what are good levels for total cholesterol, LDL, HDL and TG's?
Definition

cholesterol = <200

 

LDL <130

 

TG < 120

 

HDL = > 40 for men > 50 for woemen

Term
what are dyslipidemias?
Definition

abnormal amounts of lipids/cholesterol in the blood

 

these could be hyper or hypo

Term
what are the primary reasons for a hypolipidemia?
Definition

Primary causes :

 

abetalipoproteinemia
hypobetalipoproteinemia
Marfan syndrome
Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome
Tangier disease

 

 low growth and development

Term
what's a diagnosis and symptoms of hyperlipidemia?
Definition
diagnosis: triglycerides (LDL + VLDL) >150-200 mg/dL
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
symptoms: ­ risk CAD/CHF, acute pancreatitis (TG > 900 mg/dL), eruptive xanthomas, obesity  
Term
what leads to hypercholesterolemia?
Definition

high LDL

familial hypercholesteromia
ligand-defective Apolipoprotein-B

deficient HDL
Term
what causes a hyperTRIglyerademia?
Definition

 high chylomicrons, VLDL

chylomicronemia
hypertriglyceridemia
severe
moderate
Term
what are treatment options for hyperlipidemia?
Definition
Diet/Lifestyle changes
HMG-coAreductase inhibitors (Statins)
Niacin (nicotinic acid)
Fibric Acid Derivatives (Fibrates)
Bile-Acid Binding Resins
Intestinal Sterol absorption inibitors
Term
what are the "statin" drugs?
Definition

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Structural analogs of HMG-CoA

Term
what are statin uses?
Definition
lower LDL plasma levels >60%; less effective at lower TG, raise HDL

most effective for patients with cardiovascular disease (CAD, CHF)

used prophylatically for patients with lipidemias/risk factors to prevent atherosclerosis

may lower risk of heart attack in patients with elevated C-reactive protein levels

starting dose range: 10-40 mg SID; monitor lipid levels every 1-3 months

most effective at night; use in late evening
Term
what are two main statins used?
Definition
atorvastatin, simvastatin
Term
statins work by inhibiting HMG CoA reductase.  What is the result?
Definition

liver produces less cholesterol

 

hepatocytes increase LDL receptor synthesis

 

more receptors means more LDL/VLDL bound and turned into bile salts

Term
what are adverse effects of the statins?
Definition
­ serum liver enzyme concentration (aminotransferase); exacerbated with history of alcohol abuse

cramps, myalgias, GI
malaise
anorexia
Term
What is the mechanism of action for Niacin?
Definition
directly and non-competitively inhibits diacylglycerolacyl-transferase 2 in hepatocytes
Term
what results does Niacin produce?
Definition

lower TG synthesis and increase ApoB degredation

 

decrease VLDL secretion

 

lower HDL breakdown

Term
what are clofibrate and Fenofibrate?
Definition
Fibrates (fibric acid derivatives)
Term
how do fibrates work?
Definition
nuclear receptor/transcription factor
heterodimerize with retinoic acid X receptor (RXR)

 

stimulates increased production of proteins involved in Free fatty acid breakdown

 

less LDL and VLDL and more HDL

Term
what are the uses of fibrates?
Definition
effective for hypertriglyceridemia and dysbetalipoproteinemia
 
 

use in combination with statin for maximal efficacy
Term
what are side effects of fibrates?
Definition
myopathy
arrhythmias
rashes
hypokalemia
gastric irritation/nausea
cholesterol gall stones
Term
what is colestepol?
Definition
bile acid binding resin
Term
how do bile acid binding resins work?
Definition
disrupt enterohepatic bile acid circulation
bind bile in small intestine

 

prevent bile reabsorbtion and lower plasma cholesterol

Term
what are nasty side effects of bile acid binding resins?
Definition
GI effects
constipation
diarrhea
flatulence
bloating
bad taste
Term
what is the use for a bile acid binding resin?
Definition
effective for primary hypercholesterolemia, pruritus

use in combination with statin for maximal efficacy

prevents absorbtion of a lot of drugs
Term
why is ezetimibe a last resort drug option with statins?
Definition
it can increase carotid arteriol thickness and CV events
Term
what is the MoA with intestinal sterol absorption inhibitors?
Definition
inhibits cholesterol absorption in brush border of small intestine
inhibits cholesterol transporter NPC1L1 in GI tract and hepatocytes
­LDL receptors on hepatocytes
­LDL uptake into cells
used with statins to ­efficacy
Term
what are the side effects of intestinal sterol absorption inhibitors?
Definition
GI effects/diarrhea
headache
myalgia
Term
what is a quick way to find NNT?
Definition
inverse of Absolute Risk reduction
Term
what is the experimental event rate?
Definition
the proportion of patients in the experimental group demonstrating the defined event
Term
what is the control event rate?
Definition
proportion of patients in the control group experiencing the defined event
Term
how do you calculate the RRR?
Definition
[EER-CER]/[CER]
Term
how do you calculate the ARR?
Definition
[EER-CER]
Term
What are the 4 types of catecholamines?
Definition

isoproterenol

 

NE

 

epi

 

dopamine

Term
what is released more by the adrenals, epi or NE?
Definition

80% Epi

 

20% NE

Term

what is the rate limiting step for the conversion of Epi to NE?

 

What is the enzyme that does this?

Definition

the conversion of tyrosine to DOPA

 

tyrosine hydroxylase

Term
what happens to most NE upon release?
Definition
80-90% it is taken back into the cell 
Term
how does alpha-methyl tyrosine disrupt the production of NE?
Definition
it inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase
Term
what does cocain or tricyclic anti depressants do?
Definition
inhibit the reuptake of NE into the cell
Term
what is the function of reserptine?
Definition
inhibit the uptake of DA and NE into the synaptic vessicle
Term
what is Bretylium's function?
Definition
Not only does it block the release of NE into the synapse but it also acts like cocaine
Term
how does guanethidine work?
Definition
displaces NE from the vessicle so it cannot be released (like bretylium)  also acts like cocaine (like bertylium!)
Term
how do amphetamines and tyramines work?
Definition
induce the release of NE into the synapse
Term
what are alpha 1 receptors responsible for doing?
Definition
contraction of smooth muscle
Term
what are beta 1 receptors for?
Definition
heart and juxtaglomerular cells
Term
what are alpha 2 receptors for?
Definition
presynaptic receptors that decrease NE release
Term
what are Beta 2 receptors for?
Definition

relaxation of smooth muscles

 

(some B2 are in heart)

Term

what are the orders of potency for alpha receptors between Epi, NE, and Iso?

 

for beta receptors?

Definition

A:  EPI > NE > ISO

 

B: ISO > EPI > NE

Term
what is the function of the as family?
Definition

mediates stimulation of adenylylcyclase

        (ß-AdR)

Term
How does the ai receptor work?
Definition

mediates inhibition of adenylylcyclase; activates

         potassium channels in heart

        (M2, M4mAChR; a2-AdR)

Term
how does the aq family work?
Definition

activate certain forms of phospholipase C

        (M1, M3, M5mAChR; a1-AdR)

Term
what is the function of a g protein coupled receptor kinase?
Definition

regulate the activity of GPCRs by phosphorylating their intracellular domains.  They can up or down regulate the activity.  

 

Upon phosphorylation of serine or threonine residues binding sites are made for arrestins which prevent the reassociation of the G proteins with their receptors, thereby preventing reactivation of the signaling pathway

Term
if you treat a heart with chronic ISO, what happens?
Definition
the beta AdR # goes down and you cannot reach the same responsiveness
Term
how can you increase Cardiac AdR #?
Definition
thyroid hormones
Term
what type of g protein do Beta 1 receptors couple to?
Definition
Gs
Term

what type of g protein do Beta 2 receptors couple to?

Definition
Gs OR Gi
Term
what happens to different receptor Beta receptor levels in the heart during heart failure?
Definition

Beta 1 levels go down and Gi go up

 

Failing heart has increased expression and activity of GRK, which increases ß1 desensitization and degradation and also increases coupling of ß2 to Gi
Therefore, ß2-AdR has less stimulatory and more inhibitory effects in a failing heart than in a non-failing heart
The decreased level of ß1-AdR and increased ß2-AdR  coupling to Gi both contribute to decreased ß-adrenergic stimulation of contractility in failing heart
Term
what are the receptors where epi is more potent?
Definition
B2 > A1
Term
because epi has two effects on different receptors, what is its effect on the circulation?
Definition

B2 receptors at low volume cause vasodilation and lower TPR

 

A1 cause vasoconstriction and increase TPR

Term
what are the 4 main effects of Epi?
Definition

Causes relaxation of intestinal and bronchial smooth muscle

Cardiac stimulation

Treatment of anaphylatic shock

Slows absorption of local anesthetics

Term
what is the effect of NE on the heart and vascular system?
Definition

in the heart it causes are "stronger" heart beat by increasing contractility, but lowers heart rate

 

in the vasculature it stimulates alpha1 receptors and causes vasodilation which increases TPR

Term
what are the effects of Iso on the heart and vascular system?
Definition
it increases heart rate and cardiac output but also has a strong interaction with Beta 2 receptors causing vasodilation.  This leads to a decrease in TPR = diastolic pressure
Term
what is the order of affinity of different receptors for Dopamine?
Definition
D1> Beta > a1
Term
what does dopamine activate?
Definition

(1) vasodilatory dopamine (D1)  receptors   in renal, mesenteric, and coronary vascular beds             

 

(2) beta receptors in heart (greater effect on

contractile force than rate)

 

(3) stimulates NE release from nerve  

    terminals (contributes to cardiac effects)

 

(4) high doses can activate vascular a1 receptors

Term
what are the effects of phenylepherine on the CV?
Definition

high TPR, high BP

 

Low HR

Term
what is the function of albuterol, salmeterol?
Definition
it is a B2 agonist = vasodilation
Term
what has a better strength of bronchodilation between salmeterol and albuterol?
Definition
salmeterol, it has a more longlasting effect
Term
what is Dobutamine? what are it's effects/uses?
Definition

One isomer is ß1 agonist and alpha1 agonist

Other isomer is ß1 agonist (and apparently weak a1 antagonist) Increases contractile force, little effect on heart rate or TPR

Used to increase cardiac output (e.g., CHF)

 

Why does dobutamine have little effect on HR and TPR?

  1. Human atria: 40- 50% ß1; human ventricle: 70-85%ß1

  2. Little ß2- mediated vasodilation, so no reflex          tachycardia

 

 

  

3. alpha1 agonist activity may also contribute to direct         stimulation of ventricles and lack of vasodilation

Term
what is FenolDOpam
Definition

D1 agonist

 

IV used in rapid vasodilation for emergency hypertension

Term
what is ephedrine's use?
Definition
it is a sympathomimetic amine whose use 
Term
what type of drug is phenoxybenzamine?
Definition
a COVALENT non-selective alpha adrenergic antagonist
Term
as an alpha adrenergic antagonist what are the uses of phenoxybenzamine?
Definition
Postural hypotension
Reflex tachycardia
Miosis
Impaired ejaculation
Can act on the CNS (nausea and sedation)
Term
what type of drug is phentolamine?
Definition
a NON-COVALENT alpha adrenergic antagonist
Term
what type of drug is prazosin?
Definition
this drug is selective for A1 adrenergic antagonism
Term
what are the uses of prazosin?
Definition

-Blocks  a1-AdR in vasculature- cause vasodilation

 

-Doesn’t block  a2-AdR on sympathetic nerve terminals-

   therefore- less NE released on heart than if a2-AdR  were blocked

   therefore- less tachycardia than if a2-AdR  were blocked

 

-Used in the treatment of hypertension

 

-Also used in the treatment of BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

Term
what is yohimbime and it's uses?
Definition
it is selective for A2 adrenergic antagonism thus it increases the release of NE
Term
what type of drug is propranalol?
Definition

a NON-SELECTIVE beta adrenergic antagonist

Term
what would a beta blocker do to benefit cardiovascular problems?
Definition
Angina Pectoris
Arrhythmias
Hypertension
Recurrence of heart attack
Term
what are major adverse effects of beta blockers?
Definition

heart failure

 

bronchospasm

 

bradycardia

 

heart block

 

hypotension

 

claudication 

 

fatigue

 

constipation

 

diarrhea

Term
why would you not want to quit propranalol right away?
Definition
propranolol leads to the increase of beta receptors on the heart thus stoping would leave the heart susceptible to massive stimulation
Term
what is buxtamines use?
Definition
it seems that it's sole purpose is to see if it blocks beta 2 adrenergic receptors
Term
what are atenolol, metoprolol and esmerol used for?
Definition

specific for Beta 1 adrenergic antagonists

 

REDUCE HEART RATE

Term
what are labetelol & Carvedilol special for?
Definition
both are non selective beta blockers as well as alpha 1 antagonists
Term
other than blocking dopamine and NE transfer into vessicles, what else does Reserpine do?
Definition

Blocks reuptake into vesicle of previously released NE

  

Blocks reuptake of NE that leaks out of vesicle

Term
what is tyramines function?
Definition
it acts as a catecholamine releaser
Term
what effects does Reserpine have on the body?
Definition
Decreases blood pressure and heart rate
Increases GI tone and motility
Causes:
Postural hypotension
Diarrhea
Sexual dysfunction
CNS effects: sedation, depression
Can be used for treatment of hypertension
Term
what are the effects of Guanethidine?
Definition

Causes increases Beta adrenergic receptors on the heart

 

 



Decrease blood pressure (used in the past for hypertension; guanadrel still used occasionally)

-Postural hypotension

-Diarrhea

-Sexual dysfunction

Term
what are two drugs that decrease sympathetic activity by acting on the CNS?
Definition

CLONIDINE

 

alpha-methyldopa

Term
on what receptors does clondine target?
Definition
Selective a2 agonist
 

Acts in the CNS to decrease sympathetic outflow

Term
how does alpha-methyldop decrease sympathetic activity?
Definition

a-methyldopa converted in nerve terminal to a-methylnorepinephrine


a-methylnorepinephrine is stored in vesicles and released with nerve stimulation


a-methylnorepinephrine is an a2-adrenergic agonist:

  acts in CNS to decrease sympathetic outflow

Term
what is the use of alpha-methylTYROSINE?
Definition

Inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase activity- decreases

     catecholamine synthesis

 

 


Used occasionally for treatment of

     pheochromocytoma

Term
What is the function of MAO?
Definition
degrades catacholamines in the cell
Term
what are the effects of a MAOI?
Definition
Cause increased levels of catecholamines in both CNS and periphery
Introduced for the treatment of depression
Can cause hypotension
Term
What is MAOI affect on tyramine?
Definition

turns it to octopamine

 

this causes less NE to be released!

 

if one eats foods high in tyramine, it exacerbates the effect

 


Term
how can a MAOI cause HYPOtension?
Definition
Cause hypotension- dietary tyramine converted to octopamine in nerve terminal
 

Octopamine acts as false transmitter

Term

what happens in a baroreflux failure?

 

what drug can alleviate this problem?

Definition

volatile HR and BP

 

CLONIDINE

Term
what is the function of 6-hydroxydopamine?
Definition
Taken up by adrenergic nerves
Oxidized to toxic compounds
Causes “chemical sympathectomy”:
Causes destruction of nerve terminals
In newborns, also destroys cell bodies
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